17 - A-1-1-4 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in 17 - A-1-1-4 Deck (62):
1

noses, nose plugs, lugs strong backs etc aka rouge fragments may travel up to how far?

10000 ft (3048M)

2

♦♦ stacked AE requires the minimal fragmentation separation distance to increase by how much?

33%

3

increase the minimal frag distance by __% for the intentional detonation of AE by other than the design mode-of-initiation?

33%

4

what type of explosion type the atomic uclei maintain their charges , masses and individual identities, generally large quantities of gas ?

Chemical explosion

5

high pressures in the positive phase, lower pressures in the negative phase, and longer duration, and emits an intese infrared and UV radiation describes what type of explosion?

atomic/nuclear

6

pressure gradually increase within a sealed container until the container fails, a boiing liquid expanding vapor explosion (BLEVE) is also an example, describes what explosion type?

mechanical explosion

7

the ignition and rapid burning of energetic material and the buildup of local pressure evolving heat describes ___

explosion

8

a violent chemical reaction which proceeds through the reacted material toward the unreacted material at a supersonic velocity is _____?

detonation

9

♦♦ **the ignition and rapid burning of confined energetic materials leading to a non-violent pressure release as a result of a low strength case/venting describes what?** (mild shock wave like a thunderous noise)

deflagration

10

when explosives must burn rapid enough so that high pressure is reached in a confined space and the explosive must be of sufficient shock to be initiated by pressure describes what?

deflagration to detonation (DDT)

11

beyond how many charge diameter, does the velocity of the shock front fall off to near sonic velocity and becomes an ordinary sound wave?

50 charge diameters

12

hydrocarbon-air mixtures peak pressures are achieved at or about ___ pounds per square inch? ( sufficient pressure for most building to fall)

116(psi) (800 kPa)

13

by rearranging an explosive charge geometry to a cylinder from a sphere can influence blast parameters by a factor up to___?

15

14

cylindrical and box like surface detonations create complex blast enhancement due to the presence of an extensive and massive ____ _____

reflecting surface

15

EEW stands for what?

equivalent explosive weight (aka TNT equivalent)

16

which tends to create greater EEWs as opposed to bare charge or heavy cased AE?

light-cased explosives

17

♦♦ reflected blast waves are typically how much more greater than the initial shock wave?**

typically 2-9 times greater

18

blast accounts for about ___ % of injury?

20%

19

♦♦ what is the most sensitive organ to blast overpressure?

the ears

20

hazardous noise level exposure often occurs during training continuous noices greater that (.5 seconds in duration ) at greater than ___dB?

84 dB

21

♦♦ when you add ear muffs in addition to ear plugs how much additional dB protection is added?

5-6 dB

22

blast induced traumatic brain injury is suspected to cause nearly ____ of combat related traumatic brain injuries?

70%

23

mild BTBI is typically associated with brief ___ minute or less loss of consciousness?

5 minutes

24

moderate BTBI is associated with loss of consciousness between ___ hours and ___blank of neurological ?

between 30 minutes and 24 hours

25

severe BTBI occurs when the injury causes a prolonged loss of consciousness great than how many hours?

24 hours

26

what is the single best descriptor and the most practical method for regulating damage potential to material and human response to ground shock vibration?

PPV (peak particle velocity)

27

tempered glass s about ___ to ___ times stronger that annealed glass?

4 to 5 fives stronger

28

primary case fragment can achieve velocities above ____ft/s

8,200 ft/s

29

non-primary case fragments such as nose and tail sections, can achieve velocities about ____ ft/s

3,000ft/s

30

what are the three criteria that two must be met to be considered robust?

1) ratio of explosive weight to empty case weight less than 1. 2) nominal case thickness is at least .40" thick. 3) the case scaled thickness is greater than .05''

31

extremely heavy cased AE must meet what criteria?

ratio of cylindrical empty case weight section to the explosive weight is greater than 9

32

non-robust AE must meet what criteria?

cannot be classified as robust or extremely heavy cased

33

non-design modes of AE initiation can increase primary case fragments velocities by ___ %

25%

34

♦♦ the HFD is calculated to a debris density and distance relationship which equates to no more than one hazardous fragment per ____ft area. ***

600ft (55.7m) area = 1% probability being hit

35

HD 1.1 ?

Mass-explosion

36

HD 1.2?

non-mass explosion, frag producing

37

HD 1.3?

Mass fire, minor blast, or fragment

38

♦♦ HD 1.4?***

moderate fire, no blast, or fragment

39

HD 1.5 ?

explosive substance, very insensitive

40

HD 1.6?

explosive article, extremely insensitive

41

which other HD is always treated as HD 1.1?

HD 1.5

42

♦♦ unspecified AE threat for nonessential personnel what is the evacuation distance?

Minimal K328

43

♦♦ To mitigate flyrock it is recommended that all personnel withdraw a minimum of ____ ft within ____ degree to either side of the centerline axis of any opening? minimal K __?

1800 ft(549M), within 10 degrees of the centerline. Min K50

44

the overpressure loading on a surface area shielded by a barricade is reduced by approximately __ percent when location height and length are met?

50% standoff is w/in 2x baraicade heights, top is at least as high as protected area, at least 2x as long as protected area

45

♦♦ the sandbag mitigation technique (igloo) is limited to AE NEWQD of _____ lbs?

15.4 lbs (6.99 kg)

46

♦♦ during the sandbag mitigation technique (igloo) what standoff is maintained within inside face of each wall and ceiling?

6"

47

when do you position the disposal charge during the sandbag mitigation technique (igloo)?

after each side wall is built to 6''

48

during the wading pool technique plastic tank debris is greater than frag AE typically within ____ ft?

330ft (101M)

49

what is the minimum dept of open pit for placing the AE during the wading pool technique?

1 ft minimal depth ( four times the diameter of the AE)

50

when implementing trenching protective works how much deeper than the foundation should the trench be dug?

24'' (610mm)

51

when implementing buttressing protective works the buttress should be at least ____ ft wide at its base and should taper between __ and ___ "

10 ft wide at the base and taper between 48-60'' at ground level

52

during the sandbag mitigation technique (igloo) how far should the plywood roof extend past the air gap?

12''

53

during the sandbag mitigation technique (igloo) what is the ratio for the slope of the taper?

1:6

54

when implementing trenching protective works how wide should the trench be ? how far does it extend below installation ?

18" ....24" below structure

55

Frag are the most common cause of death? T/F?

True playa

56

♦♦ is a projected how fragment, burning energetic material or burning debris whose thermal energy is transferred to the surroundings

Firebrand

57

♦♦ during interval multiple detonations what is the time delay?

minimum 1s delay between shots, K7!

58

When using timber for bracing or shoring , it should be no smaller than?

4"X4"

59

♦♦ what is TNT equiv C-4?

1.37

60

What is TNT equiv RDX?

1.46

61

What is TNT equiv tetryl?

1.07

62

What is TNT equiv Comp B?

1.16