1st Flashcards
(1235 cards)
1
Q
How many O-rings are on the top of the wash foamer?
A
3
2
Q
What is the wash foamer tank’s capacity?
A
45 gallons
3
Q
The PSD60-1AF operates on ____C batteries
A
18
4
Q
What does CCFD stand for?
A
Combined Contaminated Fuel Detector
5
Q
Are PSD60 versions 1AF, 2, and 2R interchangeable among different types of aircraft?
A
yes
6
Q
What is the PSD60-1AF?
A
fuel quantity test set
7
Q
How many miles of shoreline does the US have?
A
95k miles
8
Q
Type 5 materiel: what is it and what value?
A
consumable avionics, less than $800
9
Q
What materiel type is support equipment?
A
6
10
Q
Type 4 materiel: What is it and what value?
A
repairable avionics, greater than $800
11
Q
Type 2 and 4 materiel are _______ supplied
A
commercially
12
Q
Type 3 and 5 materiel are bout using _______ funds
A
AFC-30
13
Q
Type 3 materiel: what is it and what value?
A
consumable aeronautical, less than $250
14
Q
Type 2 materiel: what is it and what value?
A
repairable aeronautical, greater than $250
15
Q
Which two materiel types deal with avionics?
A
4 and 5
16
Q
What is type 1 materiel?
A
Engine
17
Q
The LCI team is comprised of members from what two units?
A
CG-41 and ALC
18
Q
Ground checks that require a qualified pilot to be at the controls will require the entry of the check in_______.
A
ALMIS in the mission schedule
19
Q
With the exception of deployed aircraft, no deferred maintenance shall remain open for more than 30 days without the approval of the _____.
A
EO
20
Q
When was the CG transferred to DHS?
A
Mar 1, 2003
21
Q
What officer rank leads areas?
A
3star(Vice Admiral)
22
Q
What officer rank leads MLC’s and districts?
A
1 or 2 star (Rear Admiral upper or lower half)
23
Q
Should you attempt to rewarm body parts frozen by LOX?
A
no
24
Q
Do not allows LOX to contact _____products.
A
petroleum
25
What is a 60CU24?
Hobart
26
What is a CCFD capable of detecting?
water and contaminants in fuel
27
What power (KVA and amps) is a 60CU24 rated at?
60KVA, 174 amps
28
What is an MDU-300
Mobile Dehumidification Unit
29
An MDU-300 maintains humidity at ______%
30-40%
30
What are aviation medical classes 1,2, and 3?
1-pilots, 2-flights surgeons, 3-aircrew
31
How long is an initial FDME good for?
12months
32
Who provides funding for JOAP?
CG-41
33
What units participate in JOAP?
All aviation facilities
34
What determines the success or failure of JOAP?
attitude toward the program
35
T/F: A spark is required to ignite oxygen.
false
36
How can you identify aviator's breathing oxygen?
green bottle with a 3" white band
37
Do not deplete an oxygen bottle below _____ psi.
50
38
What is vital when checking for oxygen leaks?
cleanliness
39
How many personnel are required to service gaseous oxygen?
2
40
Oxygen cannot be serviced during ______ operations.
fueling/defueling
41
Ensure a _____-type fire extinguisher is stationed within ____' of LOX servicing.
PKP, 50
42
allow LOX systems to stabilize/vent for ____ prior to take off.
30 minutes
43
How long should you wait to dip a tank after pressure refueling is complete?
3 minutes
44
T/F: Power connection during fuel draining is authorized.
false
45
Radar antennae should not be operated within ____' of fueling operations
300
46
What pins on the AC external power plug are for the interlock circuit?
E and F
47
An external power interlock circuit shall determine the presence of a ______ signal.
28 VDC feedback
48
For C-130s there shall be at least _______ people in the cockpit for all engine starts.
2
49
Who may authorize taxiing without a signalman?
CO
50
Where should a taximan stand?
slightly ahead but in line with the pilot's side wing tip
51
Coast Guard planes shall never be taxied within _____' of any obstruction
5
52
What specification is used for numbering of chapters in ACMS?
$1000D
53
What color is the paper version of the flight generated maintenance record?
pink
54
What does a grounded aircraft require before it can be released for flight?
maintenance release
55
When a discrepancy is open for more than 24 hours, what 3 things can the discrepancy be assigned?
PP, CF, squawk
56
When utilizing paper forms CFs and PPs are transferred to what record?
deferred maintenance
57
All cannibalization records shall be authorized by the _____ or his designed representative.
EO
58
What is the most important signature on a PR?
certification of funds availability
59
If a sole source PR is submitted it must be accompanied by a _______
JOTFOC (Justification for Other Than Full and Open Competition)
60
Correspondence: what serves as the file number?
SSIC
61
What shall be included if a member is not recommend for advancement?
supporting remarks
62
Who is eligible for CG Foundation grants?
E-2 through E-9 with >2 years in service
63
For property with value less than $500 is a report of survey required?
no
64
What is a SWAMP area?
severe wind and moisture problem area
65
What tools does one use to perform a wiring inspection?
flashlight and mirror
66
Examine wiring for a minimum of _____" clearance from structures and equipment. If that cannot be maintained, _____" is acceptable with the use of anti-chafing material.
1/2" 3/8"
67
A minimum of _____" clearance between wiring and non-flammable fuel-carting lines shall be maintained. If that is not possible, _____" is acceptable with the use of clamps.
2", 1/2"
68
Wire insulation maybe vulnerable to cracking if it is within _____" of clamps.
1/2"
69
A flight crew member shall be relieved from duty at least once during any _____ consecutive days.
8
70
Flight time limits: 7days, 30 days, and 365 day?
50, 125, 1100
71
Flight hours and crew mission time are cumulative until _____ hours of rest are completed between sorties.
10
72
A flight crew member must have ____ hours off before assuming alert duty.
10
73
How long are PAX manifests retained?
7 years
74
How long are copies of flight plans retained?
90 days
75
How many flight plans must be submitted for VFR formation flying (lead plane is IFR)?
1
76
Who is responsible for closing out active flight plans?
PIC
77
How long do we retain weight and balance forms?
90days
78
Fuel carried on departure will be at least _____% more than is required to reach the alternate.
10
79
Fuel reserves after reaching alternate: FW? RW?
45 min, 20 min
80
How long do we retain flight planning weather information?
90days
81
Who may authorize assigned personnel to fly aboard non-CG aircraft for operational reasons?
CO/OiC
82
CG auxiliary aircraft may not enter the _______
FRZ
83
What does ESCAT stand for?
Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic
84
Can civilian pilots be assigned to operational missions?
no
85
How low in a command can tactical control of an aircraft be delegated?
ops officer
86
For spade solder terminals wrap wire how many degrees?
90 or 180
87
For general use a soldering tip ______" diameter is suggested
1/4 - 3/8"
88
Soldering irons with voltage ratings of ______ are recommended for general use.
60W, 100W, 120W
89
For size #20-16 wire, use a ____W soldering iron.
60W
90
Do not tin wires to be attached to __________ connectors
class K (fireproof)
91
What mishaps warrant a formal MAB?
A and B
92
Is suicide or intentional damage reportable?
no
93
Is a contractor injury reportable?
yes (only no if they're working on an asset NOT at a CG facility when the CG is NOT present)
94
If a CG reservist dies off duty, is it reportable?
only if they're active at the time
95
Is damage from storms a reportable mishap?
no
96
What are 2 methods the CG uses to assess risk?
SPE and GAR
97
What does SPE stand for?
severity/probability/exposure
98
What are the 7 steps in the ORM process?
1. define mission tasks,
2. identify hazards,
3. assess risk,
4. identify options,
5. evaluate risk vs. gain,
6. execute decisions,
7. monitorsituation
99
If you SDC symbol is not authorized for distribution, prepare CG Form _____.
5323
100
What is CG Form 4428?
request for directives
101
The DPRI consists of _____ chapters.
7
102
What % qualifies a person for disability?
30%
103
0.020" safety wire is intended for parts with a hole of what size?
0.045" or smaller
104
When must marks be submitted to the marking official?
9 days prior to the end of the month
105
Under No circumstances will the double twist method of safety wirebe used for ________
shear wire
106
Q: Forward osmosis filtration system: Membrane pore size? Removes_____% salt. One 4 oz syrup packet provide _____ oz of water from_____ oz of seawater in _____ hours.
A: 0.0003 microns, 97%, 17 oz, 60 oz, 5 hours
107
Q: Sea dye powder is exhausted in _____ minutes and is no longer a good target after __hour(s).
A: 20-30, 1
108
Q: You can see sea dye markers from _____ miles and _____'.
A: 2, 3000
109
Q: For best results, use the sea dye marker in __________ seas.
A: calm to moderate
110
Q: Is the sea dye marker effective at night?
A: no
111
Q: Nylon cord carried in life rafts: How long? Breaking strength?
A: 50' lengths, 100 lbs.
112
Q:Who can approve personal survival equipment?
A: EO
113
Q: ADS: Chute size for 40-70 lbs? 70-250 lbs?
A: 12', 28'
114
Q: Aviation personnel are duty standers with a _____-hour workweek.
A: 68
115
Q: The staffing of a unit is equal to the greater of what two calculations?
A: staffing to maintain aircraft, staffing to maintain flight operations
116
Q: What is the primary purpose of an LCI visit?
A: ensure a direct flow of communication from unit and ASE structure
117
Q: The SE manager reports directly to whom?
A: EO
118
Q: How long does one remain in a unit support equipment manager position?
A: 2 years
119
Q: Who provides policy guidance for the ASE program?
A: CG-41
120
Q: What are the 2 basic types of support equipment?
A: peculiar, common
121
Q: What is the aviation inventory control point for ASE?
A: ALC's CO
122
Q: Cutters are _____' long are under the control of areas.
A: 180
123
Q: How many junks were boarded by the CG in Vietnam?
A: 250k
124
Q: When wiring must be routed parallel to flammable liquid lines, maintain at least _____" of separation.
A: 6"
125
Q: Never support any wire from a plumbing line carrying __________.
A: flammable liquids
126
Q: Do not install fuel quantity wiring alongside what other type of wiring?
A: power distribution
127
Q: Does the CG prefer open or protected harnesses? Why?
A: open for ease of maintenance
128
Q: Never use what tool to cut coax? Why?
A: diagonal cutters, you'll ruin the dielectric
129
Q: Do not use __________ to cute wire as conductor will be deformed.
A: diagonal cutters
130
Q: What do you need to ensure when cutting thermocouple wiring?
A: same amount cut off each matched wire
131
Q: Insulation emits __________ during thermal stripping.
A: toxic fumes
132
Q: What will supersede all active TOPS?
A: revision
133
Q: Where is the list of effective pages listed in a TO?
A: back of title page
134
Q: A new __________ will be issued with each TO change.
A: title page
135
Q: Each unit will conduct a pubs audit in what two months? Which one is for QA and shops?
A: April and October; QA is April
136
Q: How are AF/Navy/Army publications obtained?
A: TIMOS
137
Q: What does TIMOS stand for?
A: Technical Instruction Manual Ordering System
138
Q: What are the 5 training branches available to auxiliarists?
A: seaman, artificer (radio), artificer (engine room), aviation, special
139
Q: Reportable: CG members injured or killed, __________ duty.
A: on or off
140
Q: Reportable: CG reserve members injured or killed on __________ status, __________ duty.
A: on or off
141
Q: Reportable: CG civilian employees injured or killed __________.
A: while performing official CG duties
142
Q: Reportable: CG auxiliarists injured or killed while __________.
A: under orders
143
Q: Reportable: Visitors to CG stations harmed as a result of _________.
A: CG operations
144
Q:Reportable: Civilian contractors working __________.
A:on CG assets
145
Q: Reportable: A CG member who develops an illness due to acute or chronic __________.
A: occupational exposure
146
Q: A human relations council must exist at units of _____ or more.
A: 50
147
Q: A flotilla consists of _____ or more qualified individuals.
A: 15
148
Q: What is the collection of physical and emotional responses that disrupts a person's equilibrium?
A: stress
149
Q: The more specific the thoughts of suicide the __________ the risk.
A: greater
150
Q: In order for a PR to be valid it must be _____ properly, contain ____data, and have a valid signature.
A: numbered, accounting
151
Q: Class A and B mishap boards are appointed by __________.
A: CG-113
152
Q: Romantic relationships are unacceptable between CG members when they are assigned to the same __________ or __________.
A: small shore unit (60 or less), cutter
153
Q: Block _____ of DD-214 (certificate of release from active duty) listsall your military education.
A: 14
154
Q: Who may order a report of survey even if one is not required?
A: CO
155
Q: Can a message contain tabs?
A: no
156
Q: What are the 4 message SOSO codes?
A: flash (Z),
immediate (O),
priority (P),
routine (R)
157
Q: What does SOSO stand for?
A: Speed Of Service Objective
158
Q: Confined spaces are either __________ or permit required.
A: non-permit
159
Q: What is an Army E-1, E-2, and E-3?
A: Private, Private 2, Private First Class
160
Q: What is an Army E-4, E-5, and E-6?
A: Specialist/Corporal, Sergeant, Staff Sergeant
161
Q: What is an Army E-7, E-8, and E-9?
A: Sergeant First Class, Master Sergeant/First Sergeant, Sergeant Major
162
Q: Who issues a gas free certificate?
A: gas free engineer
163
Q: You are grounded for how many hours following immunizations?
A: 12
164
Q: What class of medicine is always grounding?
A: 4
165
Q: What type of medication does NOT require a waiver when used under the supervision of a flight surgeon?
A: 2
166
Q: What type of medication is OTC?
A: 1
167
Q: Class _____ medications require a waiver.
A: 3
168
Q: What are the 2 types of aeromedical waivers?
A: temporary and permanent
169
Q: What is an AF E-1, E-2, and E-3?
A: Airman Basic, Airman, Airman First Class
170
Q: What is an AF E-4, E-5, and E-6?
A: Senior Airman, Staff Sergeant, Tech Sergeant
171
Q: What is an AF E-7, E-8, and E-9?
A: Master Sergeant, Senior Master Sergeant, Chief Master Sergeant
172
Q: What is a CG-6020?
A: recommendation for flying duty
173
Q: What is the minimum height for aircrew?
A: 60"
174
Q: What is the maximum aviator height?
A: 78"
175
Q: Is a flight physical required for separating personnel?
A: no
176
Q: Any crewmember is a class __________ mishap must undergo a flight physical.
A: A or B
177
Q: Upon reaching age 50, an FDME must be completed __________.
A: annually
178
Q: How are flight physicals submitted?
A: AERO
179
Q: An FDHS is performed in conjunction with a what?
A: PHA
180
Q: Are potted connectors exempt from using drip loops?
A: yes
181
Q: Are spliced and ties allowed inside conduit?
A: no
182
Q: Conduit: The wire bundle diameter must not exceed _____% of the internal diameter of the conduit.
A: 80%
183
Q: Where are addiction prevention specialists stationed?
A: MLCs
184
Q: Can addiction preventions specialists be assigned CDAR duties?
A: no
185
Q: Is alcohol a causative factor in an alcohol situation?
A: no
186
Q: How is an alcohol situation documented?
A: CG-3307
187
Q: What are the 3 levels of alcohol prevention and rehab programs?
A: awareness, inpatient (residential rehab), outpatient
188
Q: Can a CPO have a relationship with junior enlisted?
A: no
189
Q: What manual prohibits hazing?
A: COMDTINST M5000.3, article 4-1-15
190
Q: What is the CG Equal Opportunity Manual?
A: COMDTINST M5350.4
191
Q: The collateral duty civil rights officer is...?
A: a commissioned officer serving as department head or higher
192
Q: All units with >_____ billets is mandated to have a human relations counsel.
A: 50
193
Q: What is the ready reserve?
A: essential to initial contingency requirements
194
Q: What is the individual ready reserve?
A: has had formal training, previously in active or selected reserve
195
Q: What is the standby reserve?
A: liable for involuntary recall
196
Q: Membership in the standby reserve is limited to those people with what potential?
A: mobilization
197
Q: What are RET-1 and RET-2?
A: RET-1 receives retirement pay, RET-2 does not
198
Q: What is the max age to apply for the CG Academy?
A: 22
199
Q: Title _____ of US Code cites the CG as a military service.
A: 14
200
Q: When are 1-time special reviews conducted?
A: advancement to E-7 (>184 days), [PCS, intra-command reassignments, detachment of AO (
201
Q: Each line of a message is limited to _____ characters.
A: 69
202
Q: Does the term rate or rating refer to pay grade?
A: rate
203
Q: How many leadership competencies are there?
A: 28
204
Q: What are the 4 categories of leadership competency?
A: leading self, leading others, leading performance and change, leading the CG
205
Q: You can search CG Forms by __________ and __________.
A: alphabetically, numerically
206
Q: How many HQ units are there?
A: 35
207
Q: How hot can the flameless ration heater (MREs) get?
A: 200 Fahrenheit or 250 if proper moisture was not added
208
Q: How many calories in an MRE? How long will they last at 80 degrees? 100 degrees?
A: 800-1200, 3 years, 6 months
209
Q: What is the audible range of the emergency whistle?
A: 1k yards
210
Q: Emergency signal mirror: brightness (candlepower)? visibility?
A: 8M candlepower, 40 miles
211
Q: Chemical light duration: 4" _____, 6" _____
A: 6 hours, 12 hours
212
Q: What is the aircrew folding knife carried in?
A: LPU-27/PE
213
Q: What % of the aircrew survival knife is serrated?
A: 80%
214
Q: How long is the blade of the aircrew survival knife?
A: 3 and 11/16"
215
Q: What is CGTO 12R2-4C4ISR-2?
A: Aviation C4ISR Systems Manual
216
Q: What is the tactical level?
A: operational activity
217
Q: How large are battle streamers?
A: 2.75"x4'
218
Q: What does AMVER stand for?
A: Automated Mutual Assistance Vessel Rescue
219
Q: What are the 2 business letter formats in USCG Macros II?
A: standard business letter, business letter for window envelopes
220
Q: What are the 2 main reasons for writing a business letter?
A: correspondence with a different government agency, more personal letter
221
Q: What is USCG Macros II?
A: used to create official business correspondence
222
Q: Are flight plans and wreckage Cat I or Cat II?
A: Cat II (unprivileged)
223
Q: How long must a confined space be ventilated?
A: at least 24 hours
224
Q: At what level are single and double hearing protection required?
A: greater than or equal to 85, greater than or equal to 104
225
Q: Reporting times: Z? O? P? R?
A: ASAP (10 min), 30 min, 3 hours, 6 hours
226
Q: What is the purpose of mishap investigations?
A: to prevent similar mishaps from happening in the future
227
Q: Should adverse marking entries deal with one-time minor infractions?
A: no
228
Q: At what level are CG officers assigned to oversee Auxiliary programs?
A: district regions
229
Q: An Auxiliary division is composed of _____ or more flotillas.
A: 5
230
Q: A flotilla consists of _____+ qualified members.
A: 15
231
Q: What is the Courtesy Marine Examination Program?
A: administered by Auxiliary, important function
232
Q: ALC has LIMITED responsibility for ASE costing how much?
A: $250-3k
233
Q: ALC has full responsibility for type 6 materiel costing over $_____.
A: 3k
234
Q: ASE is type _____ materiel.
A: 6
235
Q: A major support equipment discrepancy affects __________.
A: safety of operation
236
Q: What is the life cycle for fuel trucks? Tow tractors? Hobarts? Hangar scrubbers?
A: 15 years, 15 years, 15 years, 10 years
237
Q: All requests for ALC technical assistance should be made via ________.
A: message traffic
238
Q: Who comprises the SE technical element?
A: ALC and prime unit
239
Q: Who has primary responsibility for the SE maintenance element?
A: CG-41
240
Q: What are the prime results of a successful maintenance program?
A: reliability and safety
241
Q: Aircraft cannot be within _____' of a building during hot refueling.
A: 100'
242
Q: Notify the FD _____ minutes before hot refueling.
A: 15
243
Q: Hot refueling requires at least _____ people.
A: 4
244
Q: Can you use night vision goggles while hot fueling?
A: no
245
Q: Do not service __________ during overwing refueling.
A: oxygen
246
Q: Overwing refueling require _____ people.
A: 3
247
Q: What is the radar and HF range for fueling operations?
A: 300'
248
Q: A minimum of _____ people if required for every fuel transfer operation.
A: 2
249
Q: Do CG aircraft use static dissipater additive?
A: no
250
Q: What is the only FSII authorized?
A: diEGME
251
Q: Commercial fuels are not to be stored longer than __________.
A: 3 months
252
Q: How long can you store JP fuels?
A: indefinitely provided they are properly maintained
253
Q: Fueling: no lightning storms within _____ miles.
A: 5
254
Q: Fuel API gravity tests are most accurate at what temperature?
A: 60 degrees Fahrenheit
255
Q: The AEL Mk I detects _____. What does the Mk III detect?
A: water, contaminants
256
Q: How long are 1 gallon sampled obtained at receipt of fuel shipment s retained?
A: until the fuel is used or 60 days
257
Q: No smoking, flames, sparks, or radio transmissions within _____' of fuel sampling.
A: 50
258
Q: When you release a deadman control, the flow rate must decrease to within _____%.
A: 5%
259
Q: What is the maximum fueling pressure for CG aircraft?
A: 60 psig for C-130s, 55 psig for the rest
260
Q: How many extinguishers must fuel trucks carry?
A: 2x #20 dry chemical
261
Q: Fuel nozzles must have _____ mesh or finer screens installed.
A: 100
262
Q: When is the use of automatic drain vales used in fuel farms?
A: never
263
Q: For ground points and terminal lugs, use test leads equipped with __________.
A: alligator clamps
264
Q: Do not use __________ to count conductors in plugs.
A: pencils
265
Q: Bonding for static charge shall be ______ ohms or less.
A: 1 ohm
266
Q: Bonding of _____ ohms or less is required for conduit carrying electrical wiring.
A: 0.1 ohms
267
Q: _________ structures shall not be used as a current path return.
A: Magnesium alloy
268
Q: Each ground for separate power sources shall be connected to ________.
A: separate ground points
269
Q: How many areas are there in the CG? What 3 groups fall under areas?
A: 2 (LANT and PAC), cutters/districts and sectors/MLCs
270
Q: Where are addiction prevention specialists attached?
A: MLCs
271
Q: Who is the standby reserve composed of?
A: people who are able to be involuntarily recalled
272
Q: What is the selected reserve?
A: it has priority over all other reserve components and is designated as essential to contingency ops
273
Q: True or false: Alcohol must be consumed to be considered an alcohol incident.
A: T
274
Q: Is a man overboard reportable?
A: yes, as class D
275
Q: What class of mishap is an accidental firearm discharge or electric shock?
A: D
276
Q: Can EMI interfere with normal liberty?
A: no
277
Q: What are the two different methods of assessing risk?
A: GAR and SPE
278
Q: Members involved in an alcohol situation are to be __________ and given a ______.
A: screened, 3307
279
Q: When do we use hotstamp wiring marking?
A: never
280
Q: Direct wire marking: every _____" along length of wire
A: 3"
281
Q: Indirect wire marking: within _____" of termination
A: 12"
282
Q: Critical wire routing points for clamps can be identified by _________markers.
A: 1" white or yellow
283
Q: Wire gage # may be omitted from what wires?
A: coax and thermocouple
284
Q: A wire harness ID number never has more than _____ digits.
A: 4
285
Q: Wire harnesses are identified by the letter _____.
A: "W"
286
Q: An ungrounded wire on a single phase system is labeled with the letter _____.
A: "V"
287
Q: Wire circuit function:
A:
C - flight Controls
E - Engine instrument
F - Flight instrument
G - landing Gear
H - heating/de-icing
I - not used
J - ignition
K - engine control
O - not used
P - DC Power
R - Radio
S - radar
X - AC power
288
Wire numbers __________ are reserved for service modifications.
A: 2000-4999
289
Q: E^3 classifications:
A:
X - Special
E - Emit interference
P - Power
S - Susceptible to interference
Y – passive
290
Q: What does E^3 mean?
A: Electromagnetic Environmental Effects
291
Q: How long are CG-22s kept on file?
A: 1 year
292
Q: What is AFTO Form 103?
A: used to document any unusual work required for C-130s which are scheduled for PDM
293
Q: What is Standard Form 368?
A: quality deficiency report
294
Q: When a component is enrolled, convert OPNAV 4790 info to a _____.
A: SCHR
295
Q: What is DD 2027?
A: oil analysis record
296
Q: What is DD 2026?
A: oil analysis request
297
Q: What is DD 1574?
A: serviceable tag
298
Q: What is a DD 1577-2?
A: unserviceable tag
299
Q: What is a CG 1577-A?
A: UR tag
300
Q: Keep talc away from what areas?
A: packing and fabric
301
Q: How much must cargo weigh to drop in an ADS configuration?
A: 40-250 lbs.
302
Q: What are the two types of data bus coupling?
A: direct, transformer
303
Q: If an aircraft external power system loses the 28VDC signal from the interlock circuit, power will be shut off within _____ seconds.
A: 2
304
Q: An interlock circuit shall draw no more than __________ from the aircraft's circuit.
A: 20 mA
305
Q: Hot fueling operations are not permitted within _____' of any occupied building.
A: 200'
306
Q: For LOX bottle servicing, the operator is required to only wear __________.
A: eye protection
307
Q: Oxygen servicing control valves shall not be opened more than _______.
A: 3/4 turn
308
Q: Adele (cushion) clamps must be marked with a "_____" and be __________ type.
A: "W" and wedge
309
Q: Ensure plastic clamps are not located in zones where temperature is greater than or equal to_.
A: 185 degrees Fahrenheit
310
Q: How many threads should show on an adele clamp?
A: 3-5
311
Q: When can you use pliers or a hemostat to re-bend a contact?
A: when you use a plastic protective sheath
312
Q: What are the 7 common types of aircraft corrosion?
A: uniform surface attack, pitting, dissimilar metals (galvanic), crevice, inter-granular, stress, erosion
313
Q: No more than _____ ground wires shall be attached to a common ground stud.
A: 4
314
Q: A report of survey is prepared on form __________.
A: 5269
315
Q: Direct Access discrepancies should be passed to __________.
A: SPO
316
Q: What are the 2 types of CG training?
A: resident, non-resident
317
Q: Requests to attend C schools must be formally submitted by the _____.
A: TO
318
Q: Who is responsible for source selection on a PR?
A: KO
319
Q: What is the most important signature on a PR?
A: certification of funds availability
320
Q: If electrolyte gets into the eyes, flush with water for at least _____minutes.
A: 15
321
Q: How can you insulate tools to work on batteries?
A: heat shrink
322
Q: What gas is generated by NiCad Batteries?
A: hydrogen
323
Q: After a battery is charged, let it sit for __________ before checking the electrolyte level.
A: 2 hours
324
Q: While charging NiCad batteries, if the case reaches 115 degrees Fahrenheit, you may have to add __________.
A: water
325
Q: Can you add water to a vented NiCad battery in an unknown state of charge?
A: no
326
Q: Gassing and chance for electrolyte overflow increase or decrease with higher temps?
A: increase
327
Q: Vented lead acid batteries shall be located in what type of room?
A: vented, fireproof
328
Q: SLABs require little maintenance. Only a __________ check is required once per year.
A: capacitance
329
Q: All equipment that comes in contact with metal-oxide semiconductors (MOS) shall be what?
A: grounded
330
Q: May EMI be used as a punishment?
A: no
331
Q: During annual maintenance, circuit breakers should be cycled _____times.
A: 3
332
Q: Who gives the PIC clearance for a flight?
A: CO
333
Q: Who develops standardized flight procedures?
A: ATC Mobile
334
Q: For FW units, _____% of hours should be for training. RW?
A: 20%, 40%
335
Q: The highest mission priority is given to what?
A: emergent threats
336
Q: If possible, make airspace reservations for planned missions _____hours in advance.
A: 24
337
Q: What manual covers rates for reimbursable flights?
A: COMDTINST 7310.1 (series)
338
Q: Where is the bearing compass stored?
A: life rafts
339
Q: Rescue swimmer radio: output power, length of operation, and channels available?
A: 5W hi and 1W lo, 15-16 hours, 9 and 16
340
Q: Drop radios: output power?
A: 5W
341
Q: Does the 406 PLB float?
A: no
342
Q: PLB transmission:
A: 406 MHz for _____ hours every _____ seconds, 121.5 MHz for _____ hours 24, 52.5, 48
343
Q: Can PLBs transfer between units?
A: no, they're registered to units
344
Q: If a PLB inadvertently goes off, whom should you contact?
A: ARFCC
345
Q: What 3 types of survival kits do we use?
A: Arctic/Antarctic Survival Kit, Cold Weather Survival Kit, Aerial Delivery Survival Kit
346
Q: Do members incur a service obligation for TA funds?
A: no
347
Q: Aluminum lugs shall have the tongues ___________.
A: sandwiched between 2 flat washers
348
Q: Cadmium plating on connectors can corrode and cause __________.
A: cancer
349
Q: An increase in temperature around circuit breakers will _____ its trip level
A: lower
350
Q: If a tripped circuit breaker has a yellow sleeve exposed, what has it detected?
A: an arc event
351
Q: What letter identifies a high vibration circuit breaker?
A: "V"
352
Q: The __________ side of a circuit breaker is connected to the power source.
A: line
353
Q: What may be used external of circuit breakers to make multiple circuit breakers pop at the same time?
A: trip bar
354
Q: What is MINIMIZE?
A: an operational condition declared by command to clear all military circuits
355
Q: Is the procurement and use of 800 MHz (public safety) radios typically authorized?
A: no
356
Q: What is the frequency for Channel 23?
A: 157.150 MHz
357
Q: What is Channel 83 also used for?
A: fog sounding devices (also interferes with Canadian stuff)
358
Q: What 3 things go into an NMCT calculation?
A: NMCM, NMCS, NMCD
359
Q: All modifications to aircraft must be approved by what process?
A: ACCB
360
Q: What is CG-41?
A: Office of Aeronautical Engineering
361
Q: What is CG-912?
A: Office of Contract Operations
362
Q: Who manages PDM programs?
A: CG-41
363
Q: What is the ALSE prime unit?
A: ATC Mobile
364
Q: Who develops, reviews, and updates MPCs?
A: prime unit
365
Q: Who is a unit's most senior safety representative?
A: XO
366
Q: If you work on composites, what program must you be enrolled in?
A: occupational medical monitoring
367
Q: Who is typically the gas free engineer?
A: AEO, MX officer, or QA officer
368
Q: An aviation gas free engineering tech must be a member of what department?
A: QA
369
Q: Circuit breakers have a life expectancy of __________% or less than that of a switch.
A: 10%
370
Q: Fuse characteristics: A? B? C?
A: fast blow, time lag, normal
371
Q: A current limited is designed specifically for use in __________ systems.
A: power distribution
372
Q: T/F: Temporary substitutions of fast blow circuit breakers for slow blows is allowed.
A: T
373
Q: What are the 2 basic types of splices?
A: in-line (butt), end
374
Q: In a __________ splice both wires enter the same side of the splice.
A: end
375
Q: In a __________ spice, wires enter from both sides.
A: in-line (butt)
376
Q: Splices shall not be used to repair wire in a ____________ or within _____" of one.
A: fuel tank, 12"
377
Q: When attaching a wire to a pigtail, does the splice that connects the two count toward the 1/segment limit?
A: no
378
Q: What is a property survey?
A: investigates damaged/lost equipment >$500
379
Q: What is the most important component of effective instruction?
A: attitude
380
Q: For courses >18 weeks, how is TA paid?
A: reimbursed
381
Q: What grade must be achieved for TA?
A: D
382
Q: Use __________ glass for fuel samples.
A: clear
383
Q: Fuel sample bottles should be filled to within _____" of the cap line.
A: 1/2"
384
Q: Delta-P records shall be taken daily and maintained for __________.
A: 12
385
Q: What is Delta-P?
A: differential pressure
386
Q: Refueler tanks shall comply with __________.
A: NFPA 407
387
Q: FSII % by volume?
A: .07-0.15
388
Q: If fuel is not procured via ___________ or __________ the flash point must be tested.
A: DLA or DESC
389
Q: What is thermoplastic wire insulation best known for?
A: good electrical properties, low cost
390
Q: aluminum conductors are typically used in size _____ or larger due to their light weight.
A: 8
391
Q: The procedure for selecting supply priority is governed by __________.
A: uniform materiel movement and issue priority system
392
Q: How many SE spares are units authorized?
A: 0
393
Q: Who is the source of supply for all type 6 items?
A: ALC
394
Q: Type 6 materiel is requisitioned through ALC via __________.
A: AMMIS
395
Q: What is a DD250?
A: purchase order
396
Q: Who is the sole authority for ASE transfer between CG units?
A: CO of ALC
397
Q: Equipment transfers will be accomplished using what form?
A: 1149
398
Q: Allowance change requests are processed through __________.
A: AMMIS
399
Q: Who can authorize changes or modifications to SE?
A: CG-41
400
Q: Who determines the mode of publication distribution?
A: sponsor
401
Q: Who has approved accreditation of the CG Institute?
A: National Home Study Council
402
Q: The primary type of letter used in the CG is the __________.
A: business letter
403
Q: Can the CG medal be awarded for acts not involving the enemy?
A: yes
404
Q: When standards of conduct come into question, what 3 limitations can we use?
A: withholding of privileges, EMI, search and seizure
405
Q: What is the maximum recommended caffeine intake?
A: 450 mg
406
Q: Bone marrow donation: minimum of _____ days grounded
A: 7
407
Q: For 1 week after donating blood, remain under _______' altitude and perform no____ flying.
A: 35,000', night flying
408
Q: To donate blood you must receive permission from whom?
A: CO
409
Q: Donating blood: 200+ ccs = __________ days, 500+ ccs = _________ days.
A: 3, 7
410
Q: Where is a 3307 filed?
A: PERSRU PDR
411
Q: Who is responsible for the overall administration of the advancement system?
A: CG personnel command
412
Q: E-8 advancement requires _____ years of active duty.
A: 10
413
Q: E-9 advancement requires _____ years of active duty.
A: 12
414
Q: Who can grant advancement waivers?
A: PSC (adv)
415
Q: Who has sole authority to frock?
A: CGPC-epm-2
416
Q: Where can you find advancement requirements?
A: COMDTINST M1000.6, Chapter 5, Section C
417
Q: What is a CG 1650?
A: award recommendation
418
Q: Is a summary of action required for achievement and commendation medals?
A: no
419
Q: A standard allowance gives an air station a __________ part supply based on _____ years of historical data. What about for OCONUS or OTH?
A: 90 day, 2, 120 day
420
Q: arts will be shipped to ALC within __________ of removal from service with a max of_____.
A: 15 days, 30 days
421
Q: What are the 4 JOAP manuals?
A: NAVAIR 17-15-50.1, .2, .3, .4
422
Q: What is SOAP and who performs it?
A: HU-25 spectrometric oil analysis program, Honeywell
423
Q: Who performs oil analysis for 65 engines?
A: Turbomecca
424
Q: What program monitors the performance of equipment and identifies deteriorating trends?
A: RCM
425
Q: What is the RCM process guide?
A: 30
426
Q: How much fuel is taken in a clear and bright fuel sample?
A: 1 pint
427
Q: How long are fuel samples kept?
A: 24 hours or until another is taken
428
Q: All tanks shall be drained when?
A: Before the first flight of every day
429
Q: FSII lowers the flash point of JP-5 by how many degrees?
A: 4 degrees Fahrenheit
430
Q: What is the aviation fuels process guide?
A: 170
431
Q: Attach no more than _____ lugs to a terminal board stud that will be used for cover mounting.
A: 2
432
Q: What is the IRR primarily composed of?
A: people who were formally active duty or in the selected reserve
433
Q: CWOs under __________ years of age may apply to OCS.
A: 40
434
Q: When identifying hazards, what 3 types of hazards are considered?
A: personnel, environmental, equipment
435
Q: A 1-page summary of action is required for the __________ Medal.
A: Meritorious Service
436
Q: Drug and alcohol abuse undermines...?
A: morale, mission performance, safety, health
437
Q: When are price quotes required on a PR?
A: when the cost exceeds the micropurchase cost
438
Q: A micropurchase for services shall not exceed $__________.
A: 2500
439
Q: A micropurchase for supplies shall not exceed $__________.
A: 3000
440
Q: If you use sole source on a PR, what must accompany it?
A: JOTFOC
441
Q: Survival suits typically increase survival time by __________.
A: 2-10x
442
Q: Fatal results from hypothermia occur __________x more often on water than on land.
A: 4
443
Q: Can CG radar provide deconfliction during due regard operations?
A: no
444
Q: When flying over environmentally sensitive areas, maintain at least ________' AGL.
A: 2000
445
Q: If you get lased, should you rub your eyes?
A: no
446
Q: Aircraft using GPS as the sole source of navigation shall use databases certified by whom?
A: NGA
447
Q: Category __________ and __________ ILS approaches are not authorized.
A: II and III
448
Q: What is the only view-limiting device authorized for RW aircraft?
A: visor sticker
449
Q: What are we authorized to squawk on VFR SAR missions?
A: 1277
450
Q: __________ are required to be maintained on all components listed on the config report.
A: SCHRs
451
Q: MORPT: This report is due not later than the __________ day following the end of the report period.
A: 7th
452
Q: What does MORPT stand for?
A: Monthly Operating Report
453
Q: What is a CG-22?
A: Aeronautical Publication Change Recommendation
454
Q: What is AF Form 847?
A: Recommendation for Change of Publication (used for flight pubs)
455
Q: Can married people apply to the Academy?
A: no
456
Q: Requests to attend C schools are submitted by trainings officers via_________ or __________.
A: ETR or STTR
457
Q: What is the maximum wind speed for jacking?
A: 15 mph
458
Q: When is a post PDM letter sent?
A: within the first 14 days of operational availability, up to 30 calendar days max
459
Q: How are URs numbered?
A: consecutively starting anew at the beginning of each calendar year
460
Q: How many days do you have to enter a doc number for a PP?
A: 3 days
461
Q: ALC decals: white sticker?
A: overhauled
462
Q: ALC decals: yellow sticker
A: repaired and or inspected as necessary
463
Q: What is a 4377A?
A: flight record
464
Q: Where is the FSC in a NIIN?
A: first 4 numbers (the ones we typically don't write out)
465
Q: When do we do physical property inspections?
A: new custodian, new command, anually
466
Q: How do you pack a MOSFET?
A: stored in a conductive package so that all leads are grounded
467
Q: What is the tolerance of a resistor with a silver band?
A: 10%
468
Q: What is the tolerance of a resistor with a gold band?
A: 5%
469
Q: In an AC generator, voltage is controlled by the strength of what?
A: magnetic field
470
Q: What is the drying time for equipment immersed in salt water?
A: 24 hours at 150 degrees Fahrenheit
471
Q: What happens to cell plates during discharge?
A: increased gassing
472
Q: UHF lower frequency range was changed to what by the Coast Guard?
A: 225 MHz
473
Q: What is the impedance of a TNC connector?
A: 50 ohms nominal
474
Q: What frequencies are most readily absorbed by the human body?
A: 30-300 MHz
475
Q: What is most dangerous about strobe lights?
A: Capacitor holds high AC voltage, wait 3 minutes for it to bleed off
476
Q: NT9000 heat gun: What is the normal and max PSI?
A: 5-7, 200
477
Q: How do you extinguish NiCad overheats and fires?
A: overheat - water fog, fire - CO2 extinguisher
478
Q: What is the max allowable current leakage between battery terminals and the case?
A: 150 mA
479
Q: At what PSI do battery vent caps release pressure?
A: 6 +/- 4 PSI
480
Q: Does a battery's specific gravity change during charging or discharging?
A: no
481
Q: What do you use to clean circuit boards?
A: isopropyl alcohol
482
Q: MSDS sections:
A:
1- identification
2 - ingredients
3 - hazards
4 - first aid
5 - fire fighting
6 - accidental release (environmental)
7 - handling and storage
483
Q: A megger produces _____ power.
A: DC
484
Q: What is F-35 fuel?
A: Jet A
485
Q: What is the form number used for deferred maintenance?
A: 4377B
486
Q: TACAN is in what frequency range?
A: UHF
487
Q: What is the IFF transmit frequency?
A: 1090 MHz
488
Q: How long should salt water immersed gear soak?
A: 4 hours; change the water manually every hour unless water is continually circulating
489
Q: 1553 data bus: what is the function of bus 1? bus 2?
A: control; monitor
490
Q: What color is the inside of an electric box?
A: orange
491
Q: When is TIMOS audited?
A: April
492
Q: ASD specification __________ provides a standard for the presentation of technical data for aircraft.
A: S1000D
493
Q: What color is the flight record?
A: blue
494
Q: All squawk deferred discrepancies shall be transferred to what paper document?
A: maintenance discrepancy record
495
Q: What is COMDTINST M4400.19 (series)?
A: Supply Policy and Procedures Manual
496
Q: Each unit shall maintain AIRLOG messages as what?
A: official directives
497
Q: What is EMI used for?
A: to correct deficiencies and paint things that never get painted
498
Q: Who assigns a CG-22 priority code?
A: prime unit
499
Q: Time frame for CG-22 priority codes: Urgent? Nonroutine? Routine?
A: 7 days; 14 days; 90 days
500
Q: Once a CG-22 is submitted in TMAPs, it first goes to __________ then to __________.
A: QA; EO
501
Q: What are the 3 CG-22 change types (not priority codes)?
A: interval, procedural, COMDT
502
Q: Withdrawal force for aircraft grounding receptacles is _____ lbs.
A: 8+2 lbs.
503
Q: Resistance across a bonding jumper shall be less than _____ ohms.
A: 0.1 ohms
504
Q: When are self-tapping screws used for bonding?
A: never
505
Q: What do you use to remove grease and oil from a steel surface?
A: methanol
506
Q: Aluminum hardware for bonding should be used for __________ where temperature will not reach _____ degrees Fahrenheit.
A: general applications; 300
507
Q: If your SDL symbol is not authorized for distribution, please prepare a GS Form _____.
A: 5323
508
Q: The DPRI consists of _____ chapters.
A: 7
509
Q: When did the Lifesaving Service begin?
A: 1848
510
Q: What are the 3 levels on which the CG gives alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation programs?
A: awareness, outpatient, inpatient (rehab)
511
Q: When did the Steamboat Service merge with the Lighthouse Service?
A: 1903
512
Q: Where in the personnel manual can you find advancement requirements?
A: Chapter 5, Section C
513
Q: What are the 4 major classifications of contaminants in aviation fuels?
A: particulates, water, microbes, surfactants
514
Q: What 4 additives can you generally find in military fuel?
A: SDA, FSII, lubricity, antioxidants
515
Q: JP-8 contains what?
A: FSII
516
Q: What is the only aviation fuel authorized for use on cutters?
A: JP-5
517
Q: What is JP-5's flash point?
A: 140 degrees Fahrenheit
518
Q: What is the flash point of JP-4?
A: -4 degrees Fahrenheit
519
Q: Can ETRs be submitted under the self-service functions of Direct Access?
A: no
520
Q: What is CG Form 4428?
A: request for directives
521
Q: What is Form CG-5269?
A: report of survey
522
Q: No engine shall be started or stopped within _____' of refueling operations.
A: 50'
523
Q: Distilled water, according to the manual, is free from what?
A: ions
524
Q: In what unit is battery capacity measured?
A: amp-hours
525
Q: Do not allow SLAB voltage to exceed _____V or venting will occur.
A: 31.5VDC
526
Q: What is the internal cell pressure within a SLAB?
A: 2-60 psig
527
Q: SLABs contain _____ cells connected in __________.
A: 12; series
528
Q: What is the cycle life for a lead acid battery?
A: 10-400 cycles
529
Q: Red SLABs use ___________ for their electrolyte.
A: sulfuric acid
530
Q: NiCad: Open circuit voltage of a fully charged cell is _____V. Discharge voltage is _____V.
A: 1.35V; 1.1-1.2V
531
Q: How much buoyancy does the LPU-26/P provide?
A: 22 lbs.
532
Q: What is the ALSE manual?
A: COMDTINST M13520.1C
533
Q: What is ALC ESD 50?
A: TCTO/SCTO electronic signoff form
534
Q: Page 1 of an SCTO shall state that...?
A: maintenance action is due with a specific ACMS trackable event
535
Q: Manuals, by definition, contain at least _____ pages.
A: 25
536
Q: Make eye contact for ___________ seconds when looking at someone during public speaking.
A: 1-3
537
Q: The most common hazards on machinery are...?
A: flywheels, shafts, clutches, wenches, and other moving parts
538
Q: PRs for construction are limited to $_____.
A: 2000
539
Q: If a product costs more than $3000, you need to provide _____ source(s) of supply.
A: 1
540
Q: Who regulates federal use of the radio spectrum?
A: Commercial is FCC.
541
Q: Command and control of the CGTS (telecom spectrum) is exercised as per __________.
A: USCG Regulations 1992
542
Q: All cargo vessels greater than or equal to __________ gross registered tons must be equipped with __________ systems.
A: 300, GMDSS
543
Q: What does GMDSS stand for?
A: Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
544
Q: What is the weight and balance process guide?
A: 180
545
Q: Prototype installations are authorized by whom?
A: CG-41
546
Q: What is the target parts availability rate (not NMCS)?
A: 95%
547
Q: Who is responsible for financial planning at an air station?
A: EO
548
Q: The USCG target availability rate for aircraft is _____%.
A: 71
549
Q: ALC will publish a PDM message ______ and depot maintenance schedule for the next ____.
A: quarterly; 6 months
550
Q: What is obsolescence management also known as?
A: diminishing manufacturing sources and material shortages
551
Q: A review of a unit's allowance list will be conducted within ________prior to an LCI visit.
A: 6 months
552
Q: Allowance change requests are processed through...?
A: AMMIS
553
Q: What are the 3 goals of the substance abuse program?
A: reduce, detect, facilitate rehab
554
Q: What regulation prohibits hazing?
A: COMDTINST M5000.3
555
Q: When was the Public Education Program of the Auxiliary initiated?
A: 1948
556
Q: After fuel farm filter elements are replaces, cycle at least _____ gallons through them.
A: 2000
557
Q: Aviation fuel dispensed into aircraft shall pass through at least _____ filters downstream of bulk storage.
A: 2
558
Q: Fuel stuff: The use of joints with Zerk fittings is strictly __________.
A: prohibited
559
Q: Tanks must be able to receive product at __________ gal/min.
A: 385
560
Q: Where are galvanized materials used in fuel service?
A: nowhere
561
Q: Fuel farms must have a _____-day supply storage capacity.
A: 7
562
Q: Surfactants is a contraction of the words __________.
A: surface active agents
563
Q: What do surfactants in fuel do?
A: suspend particles and water
564
Q: What contains microbial growth inhibitors?
A: FSII
565
Q: How can we prevent microbial growth in fuel tanks?
A: eliminate as much water as possible
566
Q: Microbes appear in fuel as...?
A: brown slime
567
Q: Free water in fuel can cause __________.
A: flameout, if frozen clogged filters
568
Q: Undrainable water in a fuel tank will promote...?
A: microbial growth
569
Q: Entrained water makes fuel look ______.
A: hazy or cloudy
570
Q: The maximum amount of water allowed in fuel is __________.
A: 10 ppm
571
Q: Approximately _____% of SCTO kits should be built in advance of SCTO release.
A: 10-30%
572
Q: Are SCTOs time sensitive?
A: no
573
Q: A standard allowance for supervision is _____ hours per hour of work performed.
A: 0.15
574
Q: For staffing purposed, how many duty days are assumed per enlisted per year?
A: 82.5
575
Q: Allowances per work day: Breaks? Diversions? Training?
A: 0.5; 0.75; 0.37
576
Q: What is the average amount of TAD travel per year for staffing purposes?
A: 10 days
577
Q: What 3 forms does water exist in within fuel?
A:dissolved; entrained; free
578
Q: To remove particulates from fuel, let fuel settle for _____ hours before draining.
A: 2
579
Q: Do not attempt to repair __________ on aluminum.
A: plating
580
Q: What are the most commonly used materials for bus bars?
A: bare/plated aluminum or plated copper
581
Q: The maximum bend radius for safety CABLE is _____.
A: 135 degrees
582
Q: What is the pull off force for .0202 safety CABLE?
A: 30 ft lbs.
583
Q: When does safety CABLE require a flat washer?
A: hole is > 0.095" but
584
Q: What is the maximum span of safety CABLE?
A: 6"
585
Q: What is CG Form 290?
A: aerospace vehicle delivery report
586
Q: What is ALC ESD-22?
A: airworthiness release document
587
Q: What is OPNAV 4790/110?
A: aircraft inventory record
588
Q: The EO or a designated representative shall conduct a __________ review of each aircraft logbook as a QA check of ACMS management procedures.
A: monthly
589
Q: What is AFTO 1-1B-50?
A: weight and balance data
590
Q: What does SCHR stand for?
A: significant component history report
591
Q: All dates recorded on forms will be in the _____ format.
A: month/day/year
592
Q: CONFIG report: The absence of a serial number against a particular component indicates one is not installed and no __________ is being scheduled against it.
A: maintenance
593
Q: At a minimum, units should print a new MDL how often? How long should it cover?
A: monthly to cover 2 months
594
Q: What publication number is the Directives, Publications, and Report Index?
A: NOTE 5600
595
Q: When are NOTEs automatically cancelled?
A: 12 months
596
Q: How are notes transmitted?
A: message traffic
597
Q: Where are all training records accessed?
A: Direct Access
598
Q: Give 1 example of resident and non-resident training.
A: resident - A school, non-resident - AET1 course
599
Q: As per the S1000D system, pub contents are organized on what 3 levels?
A: system (chapter), subsystem (section), sub-subsystem (subject)
600
Q: IRACs typically require __________ action.
A: immediate
601
Q: What does IRAC stand for?
A: interim rapid action change
602
Q: T/F: RACs normally involve possible safety of flight or faulty equipment items.
A: T
603
Q: What does RAC stand for?
A: rapid action change
604
Q: What are issued to augment or change data in the basic TOs that are NOT adaptable to the inclusion of individual change pages?
A: supplements
605
Q: Normally a TO is revised when >_____% of pages are affected by changes or require change.
A: 50%
606
Q: A __________ is a complete new edition of a TO.
A: revision
607
Q: Lockwire of flange-type receptacles with hardware over 2" apart: what method should you use?
A: single
608
Q: Jam nuts shall be safety wired using what method?
A: double twist
609
Q: What size drill bit is to be used on connectors to make lockwire holes?
A: #56 (0.046")
610
Q: Single wire lockwire: use size _____.
A: 0.032"
611
Q: It is preferred to lockwire electrical connectors how?
A: individually
612
Q: Flat braided shields are used for ___________ or __________.
A: bonding or grounding
613
Q: What color is the preflight sheet?
A: yellow
614
Q: What is shearwire for?
A: prevent inadvertent actuation of emergency devices
615
Q: Use size _____ safety wire on connectors.
A: 0.020"
616
Q: The double twist safety wire method is for what areas?
A: high vibration
617
Q: A lockwire pigtail should be _____ complete turns.
A: 4-6
618
Q: Lockwire shall not be used to secure hardware >_____" apart.
A: 6"
619
Q: Use monel for lockwire in what temperature?
A: 700 degrees Fahrenheit
620
Q: Use Inconel for lockwire in what temperature?
A: 700-1500 degrees Fahrenheit
621
Q: Lockwire should have _____ twists per inch.
A: 8-10
622
Q: Class C and D mishap boards are conducted at the __________ level.
A: unit
623
Q: What gives the Commandant authority to frock?
A: section 632 of title 14 US code
624
Q: Who can frock specifically?
A: CGPC-epm-2
625
Q: How often are LAB fuel samples taken?
A: monthly
626
Q: Who is in charge of the overall enlistment system?
A: CG personnel command
627
Q: We should foster __________ among all personnel.
A: mutual respect
628
Q: Which types of mishaps warrant a formal investigation?
A: A and B
629
Q: Where can you find a list of all CG publications?
A: DPRI; NOTE 5600
630
Q: What chapter of the DPRI lists special series directives? Cancelled directives?
A: 4; 6
631
Q: Can damage to non-CG facilities be a reportable mishap?
A: yes, if it's our fault
632
Q: What is the info on the user info screen used to generate in USCG Macros II?
A: header
633
Q: URs will have a number assigned by _____ prior to shipping.
A: AMMIS
634
Q: What does MIFC stand for?
A: maritime intelligence fusion center
635
Q: Which aviation assets are proactive in nature?
A: H, J, 144
636
Q: Clear and bright samples are taken from ____________ and _________.
A: RIF; bravo
637
Q: Each unit shall maintain enough paper records to last how long?
A: 1 week
638
Q: For property worth less than $500, is a report of survey required?
A: only if the CO requests one
639
Q: Who may grant a search authorization?
A: CO or judge
640
Q: What does CAMI stand for?
A: continuing action maintenance instruction
641
Q: What does TIMI stand for?
A: technical information maintenance instruction
642
Q: Whenever any MX instruction has served its purpose, it should be filed and kept for _______.
A: 6 months
643
Q: All aviation tools should be of quality _____ or higher.
A: society of automotive engineers aerospace standards
644
Q: On what part of an aircraft are composite repairs always authorized?
A: cosmetic
645
Q: Who recommends education credit for CG correspondence courses?
A: ACE (American Counsel on Education)
646
Q: Who approved accreditation of the CG Institute?
A: National Home Study Counsel
647
Q: An evaluee is counseled after the ____ is finished.
A: AO
648
Q: A deployment entry is required for any plane gone longer than ________.
A: 11.9 hours
649
Q: What are the 3 separate processes that address mishaps?
A: formal mishap analysis board, administrative investigation, aviator evaluator board
650
Q: Aircrew are immediately grounded after any class _____ mishap.
A: A or B
651
Q:Who manages the mishap analysis process?
A: CG-1131
652
Q: The FSB shall meet how often?
A: quarterly
653
Q: Flight surgeons need _____ hours per semiannual.
A: 24
654
Q: Each C-130 FE shall have gone to the simulator within the last _____ months.
A: 15
655
Q: What is required for helo-types every 75 months?
A: underwater egress
656
Q: One first aid kit is required on the plane for every _____ occupants.
A: 10
657
Q: In pressurized aircraft above __________', oxygen should be in reach for every passenger.
A: 25,000'
658
Q: What 3 individuals must approve the location of the battery shop?
A: fire inspector chief, medical officer, ground safety director
659
Q: Grinders shall be equipped with __________ shields.
A: shatterproof
660
Q: The most effective way of preventing unsafe operation of powered machinery is through the use of __________.
A: mechanical guards
661
Q: Lathes, milling machines, etc. that produce cuttings or flying particles should be set at _____ degree angles to one another.
A: 15 degree
662
Q: Who prototypes chemicals not on the ACL?
A: ALC, prime unit, or another designated unit
663
Q: Who may authorize a 1-time purchase of chemicals not on the ACL?
A: EO
664
Q: Form _____ shall be used to request ACL changes.
A: CG-22
665
Q: Where can you find the authorized chemicals list?
A: chapter 00 of the ACMS MPC deck
666
Q: Parts classified as Flight Safety Critical Aircraft Parts by ALC or OGA shall be identified with the letter "_____"
A: "C"
667
Q: How long is an AVGFET certification good for?
A: 1 year
668
Q: What is 42-041-1?
A: C-130H anti-skid test set
669
Q: When was the Department of the Navy established?
A: 1798
670
Q: Overall supervision of the Auxiliary is the responsibility of whom?
A: G-O
671
Q: When were aircraft allowed into the Auxiliary?
A: 1945
672
Q: ALC shall maintain a _____-year acquisition plan for SE budget.
A: 5
673
Q: What 3 elements comprise the SE maintenance system?
A: management, technical, and production
674
Q: Can you overwing hot refuel in an emergency?
A: yes
675
Q: One 590 ml can of FSII aerosol additive will inhibit _____ gallons of fuel to _____%.
A: 180, 0.087%
676
Q: The normal level of FSII is __________% by volume.
A: 0.07-0.15
677
Q: The AEL Mk III uses the __________ scale with a range of _______with _____ being the worst.
A: Millipore, A2-A7, A7
678
Q: What 3 types of fuel samples are taken?
A: clear and bright, additive, lab samples
679
Q: Fuel meters should be calibrated to an accuracy of _____% by volume.
A: +/-0.2%
680
Q: Do not bend thermocouple leads to less than a _____" radius.
A: 2"
681
Q: The CG Institute offers ______ degree plans from _____ different schools.
A: 550, 23
682
Q: What program offers GEDs, independent study, and college entrance exams?
A: DANTES
683
Q: Who shall ensure a proper tool calibration system is in place?
A: CO
684
Q: Who oversees the TEMPEST program?
A: CG-41
685
Q: Who manages the TEMPEST program?
A: ALC
686
Q: The primary difference between different grades of fuel is _________.
A: volatility
687
Q: What is the fuel handling process guild?
A: 170-A
688
Q: Fuel removed from aircraft with any recent engine/fuel problem should be labeled ________.
A: "salvage fuel"
689
Q: How do we dispose of used fuel filters?
A: sealed metal container
690
Q: A direction connection from fuel storage tanks to waste oil tanks is _________.
A: prohibited
691
Q: What is the minimum waste oil tank size?
A: 1000 gallons
692
Q: How often do we check the resistance of SPR nozzles?
A: monthly
693
Q: How long may an aircraft ascend to 12,000' for without oxygen?
A: 30 minutes
694
Q: If a pilot thinks that the aircrew should carry firearms, contact _________.
A: CG-DCO
695
Q: When should VIP flights arrive?
A: no earlier than the latest ETA
696
Q: Flight violations: pilots are notified within __________.
A: 24 hours
697
Q: Who approves flight/static displays?
A: area/district commander
698
Q: Do not use __________ for tagging equipment.
A: wire
699
Q: About __________ of colleges give credit for CLEP.
A: 2/3
700
Q: On what line of a message does precedence go?
A: 5
701
Q: First alcohol incident: Members are __________.
A: screened
702
Q: What is the administrative investigations manual?
A: COMDTINST M5830.1 (series)
703
Q: Wire stripping: Insulation deformation shall not exceed _____% of the insulation thickness.
A: 20%
704
Q: What is the formula for corrected flash point?
A: F + 0.06(760 - P) where F is the observed flash point and P is the atmospheric pressure in mm
705
Q: Tanks that receive fuel should be recirculated within __________ hours.
A: 24
706
Q: Exposure to benzene in fuel has been linked to __________ disorders.
A: blood
707
Q: Most fuels contain __________ in some form or another.
A: benzene
708
Q: Which fuels get SDA?
A: JP-4 and 8
709
Q: What is the CG-22 process guide?
A: 20
710
Q: ALMIS is an application designed to access what 2 databases?
A: AMMIS and ACMS
711
Q: The memo sent to ALC after receipt of an aircraft will include discrepancies found within the first __________ days of operational activity.
Sorties?
Hours?
A: 14 Days, 30 hrs, 10 sorties
712
Q: Who reviews all URs?
A: ALC
713
Q: Failures of components affecting safety of flight will also be reported via __________.
A: message traffic
714
Q: When an item is damaged in shipping, it may require a TDR (form _______) instead of a UR.
A: SF 361
715
Q: Who is responsible for helping people understand the advancement system?
A: supervisors
716
Q: Impact hearing protection: __________ dB.
A: 140
717
Q: What does an L suffix on a circuit breaker mean?
A: longer push
718
Q:Flight line and hanger static grounds will have a resistance of __________ ohms.
A: 10,000 flight line
25 hanger
719
Q: What extinguishers are most effective vs. solvent fires?
A: CO2
720
Q: What is COMDTINST M16478.1?
A: Hazardous Waste Management Manual
721
Q: What are the 2 types of solvent poisoning?
A: acute, chronic
722
Q: What is the most common result of skin contact with solvents?
A: dermatitis
723
Q: Harmful effects of solvents comes primarily through __________ and _________.
A: skin contact, inhalation
724
Q: All portable test equipment shall be grounding requirements of __________.
A: National Electric Safety Code
725
Q: Do not use compressed air for cleaning __________.
A: metal shavings
726
Q: Proposed changes to 3710.G shall be sent to __________.
A: CG-711
727
Q: Command and control of aircraft is maintained in an operational sense by whom?
A: areas or districts
728
Q: What manual outlines the Mishap Prevention Program?
A: Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47
729
Q: All requests for mishap reports shall be referred to __________.
A: Commandant G-KSE
730
Q: Who is the source for all rating course material?
A: CG Institute
731
Q: The standard subject ID code (SSIC) represents __________.
A: common CG subjects
732
Q: What can JOAP tell us?
A: how much and what type of engine wear
733
Q: If a PR is submitted for HAZMAT, the unit __________ must approveit.
A: pollution prevention coordinator
734
Q: Do witnesses have the right not to testify for legal investigations?
A: yes
735
Q: What set of characters indicates special circumstances related to the transmission of a message?
A: message instruction
736
Q: What is the property management manual?
A: COMDTINST M4500.5
737
Q: In any discrepancies exist in your training record, contact _________.
A: SPO
738
Q: Who is excess property reported to?
A: property officer
739
Q: Is intentional property damage caused by arson or LE reportable?
A: no
740
Q: What are standard takeoff minima for operational missions?
A: 1/4 statute mile; 1/2 for trainers
741
Q: What are the two most common types of circuit breakers?
A: thermal and magnetic
742
Q: Do not use compressed air for drying unless psi is _____
A: 10
743
Q: When an alternate airfield is not available, how much holding time is required?
A: 1 hour
744
Q: In flight naps shall be limited to __________ minutes.
A: 40
745
Q: What is COMDTINST 5530.1?
A: physical security and force protection program
746
Q. Who should ensure equipment is made available for maintenance when the resources are available?
A: Commanding officer
747
Q: Who's responsibility is it to ensure that maintenance is completed in an orderly and timely manner in order to meet the assigned mission requirements?
A: Commanding officer
748
Q: Key to a unit's mission success?
A: is its sustained ability to provide safe, reliable and properly configured equipment at the time and place it is required.
749
Q: 3 basic elements that comprise the aeronautical maintenance system?
A:
* Management Element
* Technical element
* Production element
750
Q: Who has primary responsibility for management element?
A: The office of Aeronautical Engineering, Commandant (CG-41)
751
Q: Who serves as a focal point for technical and engineering support for systems and equipment in the operational inventory?
A: Office of Aeronautical engineering, Commandant (CG-41)
752
Q: Who performs the major share of the technical element of maintenance engineering under the direction of Commandant (CG-41)?
A: Aviation Logistics Center (ALC) and field units designated "Prime Units"
753
Q: Production Element
A: Operating activities are concerned primarily with maintenance production and provide the basic data inputs for maintenance engineering decisions.
754
Q: What is maintenance production?
A: Maintenance production is the physical performance of equipment maintenance and related functions such as servicing, repairing, testing, overhaul, modification, calibration, conversion, and inspection. These tasks are performed at two levels: organizational and depot.
755
Q: Who normally inspects, services, lubricates, adjust and replaces components, minor assemblies, and subassemblies?
A: Unit level maintenance
756
Q: What consists of calibrating, repairing, or replacing damaged or unserviceable parts, components, and assemblies; modifying materiel, emergency manufacturing of unavailable pars; and developing/ providing internal technical assistance?
A: Unit level maintenance
757
Q: What maintenance is normally accomplished by personnel of higher technical skill and have more extensive shop facilities and equipment?
A: Depot-Level Maintenance
758
Q: What improves overall maintenance quality, capability, and reliability?
A: Standardized maintenance
759
Q: Who should ensure that responsible individuals are made aware of deficiencies and become involved in correcting the problem?
A: Supervisors
760
Q: Who is responsible to review corrective actions and ensure underlying causes for discrepancies are identified and rectified to preclude their recurrence?
A: CO and EO
761
Q: What is the ability of a unit to maintain assigned equipment in serviceable conditions and proper configuration?
A: Maintenance capability
762
Q: Who must gauge their maintenance capability when planning to meet mission requirements?
A: Engineering Officer.
763
Q: What manual provides guidance, policy, and procedures on the subject of personnel resources?
A: Personnel resources and reprogramming manual
764
Q: What indicates the performance of Coast Guard Aeronautical engineering as related to strategic plans and goals?
A: A system of measurements of effectiveness (MOEs)
765
Q: At air stations who must monitor and measure the effectiveness of their maintenance efforts?
A: EO
766
Q: What indicates the percentage of time that aircraft assigned to Air Stations Are available to perform coast guard missions?
A: Availability Index (AI)
767
Q: AI (Availability Index) =
A: AI = [100-NMCT]
768
Q: NMCT
A: NMCT=NMCM + NMCS+NMCD (units)
769
Q: NMCD (units)
A: Not Mission Capable Time due to Depot-level maintenance which is performed at a unit.
770
Q: What is the USCG target for aircraft availability?
A: NMCT target is 71% which equates to an NMCT of 29%
771
Q: What is the target goal for NMCS (Not Mission Capable due to supply)?
A: 5%
772
Q: What provides the EO with timely, complete, and accurate maintenance production data for planning, control, and analysis, and to provide an accurate record of completed work?
A: Maintenance documentation
773
Q: Who is responsible for financial planning, preparation of budget requirements, and controlling expenditures within budget allocations?
A: EO
774
Q: What manual provides detailed information concerning the responsibilities of the various levels of the USCG organization regarding administration of appropriated funds?
A: The financial resource management manual (FRMM)
775
Q: Operating aviation units receive funds under?
A: AFC-30 funds
776
Q: Who has final authority regarding the sub-allocation of funds to various departments?
A: CO
777
Q: Who should ensure that planning for and expenditure of assigned funds is consistent with the overall objective of the unit maintenance plan?
A: EO
778
Q: What is the removal of a specific assembly, subassembly, or component from one equipment end item for installation on another to meet mission requirements?
A: Cannibalization
779
Q: All cannibalization actions shall be authorized by whom?
A: EO or his designated representative.
780
Q: All _______ will be recorded in the electronic asset logbook (EAL) as a maintenance record entry.
A: Cannibalizations
781
Q: What is a necessary supplemental process used to document and facilitate maintenance procedures for all aircraft parts; components, and systems that do not meet mean time between failure or form, fit, and function for the design and engineering of that part, component or system?
A: Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)
782
Q: All changes or modifications to aircraft must e reviewed by the appropriate technical authority at ALC and approved via the _____process.
A: ACCB
783
Q: Recommendations for changes or modifications to fulfill operational requirements or improve mission performance shall be addressed to ?
A: Platform Manager, (CG-711), copy to the system manager, (CG-41)
784
Q: Urgent safety of flight materiel defects should be submitted in?
A: Message format.
785
Q: What is ACCB?
A: Aircraft configuration control board
786
Q: Who will review and recommend changes to standard aircraft configuration?
A: Aircraft configuration control board (ACCB)
787
Q: Prototype installations are authorized by who?
A: Commandant (CG-41)
788
Q: Trial installation is normally performed by?
A: Prime Unit
789
Q: What shall be conducted prior to the installation or operation of electronic devices o board a Coast Guard aircraft?
A: Electromagnetic Interference/ Electromagnetic Compatibility (EMI/EMC) testing.
790
Q: What is required for each prototype or initial fielding of a new communications security (COMSEC) system?
A: TEMPET testing by a certified TEMPEST team
791
Q: What outlines the specific weight and balance requirements for USAF aircraft?
A: AFTO 101B-50
792
Q: Who will be notified of all aircraft configuration changes?
A: The unit weight and balance officer.
793
Q: Visual inspection and functional checks, performed utilizing auxiliary power units, ground power, ground test equipment, aircraft engines or rotor engagement to provide system power are what checks?
A: Ground Checks
794
Q: Airborne functional checks, conducted during a scheduled operational or training mission, for component or systems whose failure would neither adversely affect flight safety nor seriously affect mission accomplishment.
A: Flight Verification Checks.
795
Q: Airborne functional checks to establish if an airframe or equipment, when subjected to design environment, is operating properly. Generally, areas checked are equipment or systems whose failure would adversely affect flight safety.
A: Test Flight.
796
Q: Any aircraft suffering damage o the ground or in-flight must be ______ ______ before further flight is attempted.
A: Maintenance released.
797
Q: Who is authorized to maintenance release aircraft at their unit?
A: EO and additional officers and chief petty officers qualified to sign a maintenance release shall be designated in writing.
798
Q: Any component or system not specifically requiring a test flight may receive a flight verification check at the discretion of who?
A: EO
799
Q: A complete test flight is required:
A:
* After extended aircraft storage
* After completion of major structural rework, including Programmed Depot Maintenance (PDM)
* As indicated by maintenance procedure cards or tech manuals
* Prior to delivery of aircraft to a PDM facility
* At discretion of EO
800
Q: When is a partial test flight required?
A:
* As indicated by MPCs, maintenance instructions, or applicable TOs
* Flight control disassembly or replacement of any portion of a flight control system
801
Q: HH-65/MH-65 main rotor blade fold/unfold requires only a?
A: Ground check with rotor engagement.
802
Q: HC-130 aircraft maintenance requiring a test flight is limited to no more than one power plant package, a ______ may be conducted in lieu of a test flight at the discretion of the ________.
A: Flight V, CO
803
Q: A test flight for flight control maintenance may be waived at the discretion of who?
A: CO
804
Q: When can a test flight be waived for flight control maintenance?
A: When only the removal and reinstallation of common connecting hardware without a resulting change in adjustment and/or alignment, and no other flight control maintenance has been performed.
805
Q: Pilots in command of flight V checks and test flights shall be briefed on procedures and systems to be checked by who?
A: Someone with Maintenance release authority or quality assurance inspector prior to aircraft departure.
806
Q: When must a maintenance flight safety Warning tag be usedQ: Where do you get a maintenance flight safety warning tag?
A: Maintenance flight safety warning tag shall be attached to the pilot's yoke or cyclic stick whenever safety of flight maintenance requiring a ground check or airborne functional check has been performed.
807
Q: Where do you get a maintenance flight safety warning tagQ: An aircraft requiring a test flight as the final maintenance action shall remain in what status for the test flight items?
A: Tag shall be locally manufactured for reuse and state “Caution pilots and aircrew. Safety of flight maintenance has been performed on this aircraft. Check the aircraft maintenance record prior to flight."
808
Q: An aircraft requiring a test flight as the final maintenance action shall remain in what status for the test flight items?
A: NMCM (Not Mission Capable due to Maintenance)
809
Q: What is the primary purpose of LCI inspections?
A: To ensure a direct flow of communication between the unit and the aeronautical engineering support structure.
810
Q: What is the purpose of Prime Unit?
A: is to ensure a centralized point for technical responsiveness to field level maintenance management of a specific aircraft type or aviation life support equipment.
811
Q: Prime units?
* ALSE = ATC MOBILE
* SE= ALC
* HU-25= ATC MOBILE
* HC-130J= ELIZABETH CITY
* HC-130H= CLEARWATER
* HC-144= ATC MOBIL
* MH-60= ELIZABETH CITY
* HH-65= ATLANTIC CITY
* C-37=WASHINGTon
C-143=WASHINGTON
812
Q: Who develops, reviews, and updates MPC’s and MTC’s?
A: Prime Units
813
Q: When directed by ALC, who makes trial installation of changes prepared by ALC or other activities to verify kit contents and installation instructions prior to distribution?
A: Prime Units
814
Q: What are the two types of maintenance classifications?
A:
* Class D (shop maintenance)
* Class C (component repairs)
815
Q: Class D level maintenance
A: Is also part of the DoD intermediate maintenance. Work performed consists of the routine day to day upkeep required by shop facilities. This includes minor repair, check, test, and adjustment of aeronautical items that have been removed and which are normally to be reinstalled after completion of such work.
816
Q: All unit avionics shops are required to maintain an in-house capability for avionics repair at what level?
A: Class C-level.
817
Q: What are used to disseminate technical aeronautical information required for the operation and maintenance of USCG aircraft and support equipment?
A: Technical Orders
818
Q: Precedence of directives
A: ACMS, coast guard TOs, air force TOs, navy TOs, army, commercial pubs.
819
Q: Coast guard aircraft have maintenance manuals that are DoD or commercially sponsored
A. HC-130H= air force, HH-60= navy, HU-25, HH-65, and HC-144 commercial.
820
Q: USAF technical order numbering system?
A: AFTO 00-5-18
821
Q: What generally requires a physical change to an aircraft or a special, urgent, or repeated inspection requiring compliance within specified time limits?
A: Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTOs)
822
Q: Maintenance actions, in message format, used for rapid dissemination of information, generally of an urgent or safety of flight nature?
A: Coast Guard Message Time Compliance Technical Orders (Message TCTO)
823
Q: These are printed directives in MPC format requiring accomplishment of a specific task requiring compliance within specified time limits.
A: Coast Guard Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTO)
824
Q: Two types of inspections
A: Routine, Special
825
Q: What inspections are considered routine inspections?
A: Preflight Inspection, thruflight inspection, postflight inspection.
826
Q: When is a preflight inspection accomplished and how long is it good for?
A: Preflight is done prior o the first flight of the day and remains effective for 24hrs provided no subsequent maintenance has been performed.
827
Q: ACMS maintenance due list (MDL)
A: these inspections, Operations, calendar, hourly, cycles and landings, ensure a thorough examination of all systems and components on a schedule basis.
828
Q: Special Inspections
A: Special inspections are certain additional inspections distinct in frequency from routine inspections, which are conditional upon operational environment, specific incidents, or other circumstances requiring inspections.
829
Q: Examples of special inspections
A: Over-temperature, overspeed, over-torque, metal contamination, hard landing, lightning strike, TCTO, Message TCTO, Aircraft damage sustained as a result of a mishap, Aircraft damage sustained as a result of flight through volcanic ash.
830
Q: Who will ensure that they and their maintenance supervisors have a thorough working knowledge of ACMS requirements, procedures, and capabilities?
A. Unit EO’s
831
Q: These are limits based upon average operating experience and aircraft manufacturers' recommendations.
A: Inspection schedules
832
Q: Who is responsible for the adequate maintenance and corrosion control of aircraft in their custody and are to impose such other inspection requirements as necessary to meet differing environmental and operational conditions that may exist?
A: CO’s
833
Q: Maintenance items may be delayed at the discretion of who?
A: Commanding Officer or their designated representative as specified in the ACMS MDL and 13020.1G.
834
Q: Extensions beyond those listed in the MDL must be approved by who?
A: The appropriate Product Line Engineering Cell Leader.
835
Q: Can Mandatory Special Requirements (MSR) items be extended?
A: No overdue MSR items shall be removed from service until the required inspection is completed.
836
Q: Are extensions authorized for low cycle fatigue (LCF) or other fatigue life limits on aircraft components?
A: No extensions authorized.
837
Q: How early for performing maintenance actions.
A: Thirty days/ 10% for scheduled component changes.
838
Q: What should be made indicating that the aircraft has suspended or resumed ACMS tracking?
A: An airframe Significant Component History Report (SCHR)
839
Q: How long will Completed MPCs be retained for before they may be discarded?
A. 90 days
840
Q: Suggestions for revisions/ changes to the MPCs shall be submitted on what?
A: Deficiency Reporting Document (cg-22)
841
Q: A weekly/ hourly inspection is due?
A: 7 days/ 45 flight hours
842
Q: How long can a weekly inspection be extended on C-130?
A: Non deployed aircraft may be extended 1 day and/or 5 flight hrs. Deployed aircraft may be extended 3 days and/or 5 flight hours.
843
Q: How long can a weekly inspection be extended on a HU-25?
A: May be extended 1 day to meet workload, scheduling, or operational requirements. Deployed aircraft may be extended up to 7 days but inspection must be completed upon return to home unit.
844
Q: Weekly for HH-65
A: May be extended 1 day
845
Q: 14 day inspection on HH-60
A: may be extended 1 day
846
Q: HC-144 weekly
A. may be extended same as HU-25
847
Q: Who shall establish and maintain preventive maintenance programs to ensure that SE (support equipment) will meet projected service life requirements?
A: COs
848
Q: Routine maintenance and replacement of component parts on a required basis is a unit responsibility funded by what funds?
A: Unit AFC 30 funds.
849
Q: Aircraft ALSE equipment is funded by what funds/
A: AFC-41. Material is ordered from ALC and is provided to the units as free issue.
850
Q: Recovery and salvage of coast guard aircraft is the responsibility of who?
A: The Commanding officer of the unit to which the aircraft is permanently assigned.
851
Q: Whose responsibility is it to assign a Salvage Officer?
A: Commanding Officer
852
Q: QA inspectors
A: Shall be selected and designated in writing by the EO.
853
Q: Three general causes of FOD
A: Poor housekeeping, poor maintenance practices, and carelessness.
854
Q: What monitors the condition of enclosed mechanical systems through determination of wear metal concentrations in the lubricating fluid?
A: Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP)
855
Q: Who shall ensure that an effective calibration program is implemented for assigned equipment and tooling?
A: Commanding Officers
856
Q: Who is the Aviation gas free engineer?
A: Normally be the QA officer, assistant EO, or Maintenance officer.
857
Q: Battery shop
A: The shop location must be approved by the installation ground safety director, fire inspector chief, and medical officer.
858
Q: Vented nickel-cadmium batteries and vented lead acid batteries.
A: They shall be isolated from each other. Separate storage and charging rooms shall be maintained for these 2 types of vented batteries.
859
Q: Nickel-cadmium battery shops will be mechanically ventilated to provide how many air changes per hour in order to ensure the removal of any hydrogen gas generated as result of charging?
A: 3 to 4 air changes per hour.
860
Q: Can Sealed lead-acid batteries and sealed nickel-cadmium batteries be charged in the same battery room?
A: Yes as long as a minimum of 5 feet of clearance is maintained between the different batteries.
861
Q: Floors and battery racks shall be constructed of what?
A: Constructed of acid resistant material or painted with acid resistant paint.
862
Q: Never pour what into the electrolyte?
A: Water. Intense heat is generated and may result in burns.
863
Q: Electrolyte used in vented nickel-cadmium batteries is what type of solution?
A: Potassium hydroxide
864
Q: Electrolyte level must not be adjusted until the battery has been charged and allowed to sit for how long?
A: 2 hours, at which time the level will be checked.
865
Q: Two types of solvent poisoning?
A: Acute and Chronic
866
Q: This type of poisoning Results from inhalation of an excessive concentration within a short time.
A: Acute poisoning
867
Q: This type of poisoning results from repeated daily exposures for extended or prolonged periods of time?
A: Chronic
868
Q: Disposal of hazardous wastes and special handling can be found
A: Hazardous Waste management manual COMDTINST M 16478.1 AND Aircraft Maintenance Potential Hazardous Waste Items COMDTINST M16478.4
869
Q: Fuel spills involving an area of 18 in or less in any dimension (small priming spills) are normally of minor consequence.
A: Ramp personnel shall stand by until the aircraft is dispatched
870
Q: Spills not over 10 ft in any dimension or not over 50 square ft. i area and not of a continuing nature shall have?
A: a fire guard posted, up wind, with a foam-type or halon- type fire extinguisher until the area is inert and purged.
871
Q: Spills over 50 ft. or of a continuing nature shall
A: Be reported to the supervisor in charge, who shall notify the airport or local fire department to inert the spill. Anyone in the spill area shall leave at once.
872
Q: Outside jacking of aircraft i winds not to exceed?
A: 15 Miles per hour.
873
Q: When pressure refueling is used, dipping shall be avoided for at least?
A: Three minutes after completion of the refueling operation.
874
Q: Radar antenna should not be operated within how many feet of any fueling, de-fueling, or similar operation unless a dummy load is installed that prevents energizing of antenna?
A: 300 ft
875
Q: Electric cargo trucks shall not be operated within how many feet of aircraft during fueling defueling operations or in the event of an aircraft fuel spill
A: 50 ft.
876
Q: Who shall ensure their unit has a well-defined towing Plan?
A: Commanding Officer
877
Q: How many people to tow a hu- 25?
A: 4
878
Q: How many People required to tow h-65?
A: 4
879
Q: How many People required to tow HH-60?
A: 4
880
Q: How many People required to tow HC-144?
A: 6
881
Q: Towing speed of the aircraft shall not exceed that of?
A: The walking team members.
882
Q: Only personnel qualified in aircraft type and designated by whom are authorized to start and run-up aircraft engines?
A: Commanding Officer
883
Q: Who may authorized taxiing without taxi signalman providing the ramp has clearly defined taxi lines and parking spots?
A: Commanding Officer
884
Q: Hot fueling operations are not allowed within how many feet of an occupied building, unless operating under a waiver from Commandant (CG-41)?
A: 200 ft.
885
Q: What two airframes use commercial maintenance publications?
A: HH-65 and HU-25
886
Q: When will shops conduct audits?
A: Semiannually, April audit will be conducted by QA and shops, October audit will be conducted by the shops.
887
Q: ChangesQ: Technical Order Page Supplement (TOPS)?
A: Are issued when only parts of the existing TOs are affected.
888
Q: Technical Order Page Supplement (TOPS)?
A: TOPS (green page) is different from a standard change in that it supplements rather than replaces an individual page in TO
889
Q: Revisions?
A: Is a complete new edition of an existing TO and has a new basic date.
890
Q: Supplements
A: Are issued to augment or change data in the basic TOs that are not adaptable to the inclusion of individual change pages.
891
Q: Appendixes?
A: Are used to include material in a TO that is not a part of the normal sequence outlined in the table of contents.
892
Q: This report lists all serial number tracked (SNT) components on an aircraft or major assembly.
A: Configuration report.
893
Q: When should a new MDL be printed out?
A: Once a month.
894
Q: This computer generated report maintains a record of significant maintenance actions on SNT items.
A: Significant Component History Report (SCHR).
895
Q: What is required to be maintained on all components listed on the aircraft config report?
A: SCHR
896
Q: All uninstalled SNT (serial number tracked) components must be accompanied by a current copy of what?
A: SCHR
897
Q: What form shall be used to recommend changes in processes, procedures, or materiels that affect aircraft maintenance?
A: Deficiency Report (CG-22)
898
Q: What tag is attached to and identifies serviceable equipment and what color?
A: DD-1574- serviceable tag (orange)
899
Q: What form will be attached to an unserviceable item upon removal and what color?
A: DD-1577-2 unserviceable (reparable) tag. Green
900
Q: What tag will be attached to any item, unserviceable or not, requiring a UR?
A: DD-1577-A UR tag (RED/WHITE/BLUE)
901
Q: Who should establish local procedures to ensure that URs are submitted when appropriate?
A: EO
902
Q: When does the NMCS clock start?
A: NMCS clock starts when an aircraft is incapable of meeting mission readiness requirements, and corrective maintenance is being prevented because a required part is unavailable.
903
Q: When does the NMCS clock stop?
A: As soon as the part is available to maintenance personnel.
904
Q: What status indicates the availability of an asset for use on an operational mission?
A: Asset Status
905
Q: Units will use what Record for discrepancies that are not flight-generated and are recorded by maintenance personnel?
A: No-Mission Maintenance Record.
906
Q: When corrective action on a BRAVO aircraft is delayed beyond 24 hrs, one of three codes must be applied. What are they?
A: CF, PP, SQ
907
Q: with the exception of deployed aircraft, no deferred discrepancies shall remain open for a period longer that how many days without approval of EO?
A: 30 days
908
Q: What form is the preflight record?
A: CG-4377 Pt1
909
Q: What form the flight record?
A: CG-4377 Pt 2
910
Q: What form for flight generated discrepancies?
A: Mission Generated Maintenance Record
911
Q: What form is used for non flight generated discrepancies?
A: Non-Mission Maintenance Record.
912
Q: Type 1 materiel
A: aircraft engines, high value components, items requiring special configuration control procedures, Items in critical supply and of high cost.
913
Q: Type 2 materiel?
A: Unit price of $250 or more, procured from a commercial source of supply, flight critical, reparable
914
Q: Type 3?
A: Consumable aeronautical materiel, less avionics, with unit price less than $250.
915
Q: Type 4?
A: Avionics materiel, unit price of $800 or more, procured commercially, flight critical, reparable.
916
Q: Type 5?
A: Consumable avionics materiel with a unit price less than $800. Procured by units using AFC-30 funds
917
Q: Type 6 materiel?
A: Aeronautical support equip (SE)
918
Q: Type 7 material used to support the turbomeca arriel 2c2 cg engine
A: used to support the turbomeca arriel 2c2 cg engine
919
Q: What Class mishap is a result of:* Fatality or permanent disability.
* Property damage $2M or greater.
* A mid-air collision, regardless of severity.
* Personnel are missing or missing in action.
* A cutter or aircraft is missing or abandoned, recovery is impossible or impractical; beyond economical repair.
* A small boat has reported value of $100K or more, is missing or abandoned, recovery impossible or impractical, beyond economical repair.
A: Class A mishap
920
Q. What type of mishap is?
* Injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability.
* Property damage or damage to cutter or aircraft is $500K or more or less than $2M.
* Three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
* Small boat incurs repairable damage of $100K or more.
A: Class B
921
Q: What type of mishap? Injury or occupational illness results in:
* Any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which occurred.
* Placement of any individuals on limited or restricted duty status for more than 30 consecutive days.
* Transfer of any individuals to a different job.
A: Class C
922
Q: Occupational injury or illness occurs requiring more than simple first aid but does not meet criteria of a Class “C” mishap.
* Personnel placed on limited duty status or restricted duty for less than 30 consecutive days.
* Cost of property damage for non-aviation is $5K or more but less than $50K.
* Cost of property damage for aviation mishap is less than $50K.
* Accidental firearm discharge, electric shock, or fire occurs that does not meet higher classification.
* A near midair collision occurs.
* Aviation Reportable Mishap occurs.
A. Class D
923
Q: What Class mishap is a result of Fatality or permanent disability?
Property damage $2M or greater.
* A mid-air collision, regardless of severity.
* Personnel are missing or missing in action.
* A cutter or aircraft is missing or abandoned recovery is impossible or impractical; beyond economical repair.
* A small boat has reported value of $100K or more, is missing or abandoned, recovery impossible or impractical, beyond economical repair.
A: Class A mishap
924
Q: What type of mishap is?
* Injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability.
* Property damage or damage to cutter or aircraft is $500K or more or less than $2M.
* Three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
* Small boat incurs repairable damage of $100K or more.
A: Class B
925
Q: What type of mishap? Injury or occupational illness results in:
* any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which occurred
* placement of any individuals on limited or restricted duty status for more than 30 consecutive days
* transfer of any individuals to a different job.
A: Class C
926
Q. What does an inverter do?
A: An inverter is a mechanical device that converts a dc input to an ac output. It usually converts 26 volts dc to 115 volts ac for an emergency source of ac power for safety of flight systems and instrumentation.
927
Q: What color is the decal installed by ARSC that means the item has been inspected and/or repaired as necessary to return the item to a serviceable condition?
A: Yellow
928
Q: What is the ATA Code chapter for fuel?
A: 28
929
Q: When can you use a CG Calibration Facility (CALFAC) for calibration of avionics test equipment?
A: When that facility is traceable to the National Standard, and when calibration and repair will not exceed 3 weeks after receipt of equipment.
930
Q: What color is a TOPS supplement to a technical order?
A. Green Page
931
Q: Who should an aircrew member who encounters mental or emotional illness report to and request to be grounded?
A: His or her Commanding Officer
932
Q: What is the maximum flight time a member shall accrue in any 30 consecutive days?
A: A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more than 125 hours during any 30 consecutive days
933
Q: Who can authorize further flight for an aircraft that has made a precautionary landing due to a minor malfunction
A: If the engineering officer or other qualified maintenance officer has evaluated the reported malfunction to be minor and not a threat to the safety of the crew or aircraft, the Commanding Officer may clear the aircraft for further flight. The same applies for damage the EO or other qualified maintenance officer has evaluated to be non-structural or cosmetic damage.
934
Q: How far away must a fuel truck be from an aircraft fuel port or vent?
A: 25 feet or more
935
Q: What color is a hot fueling circle?
A: The area shall be defined with a red circle drawn on the pavem
936
Q: What is the maximum wind for fueling operations
A: Fueling operations should not be conducted in sustained winds of over 50 knots.
937
Q: How long do hot brakes take to reach maximum temperature?
A: 15 to 20 minutes after the aircraft has come to a complete stop
938
Q: How do you approach hot brakes?
A: Approach the wheel from a fore or aft direction never from the side
939
Q: What is the frequency of the DF-301?
A: 100 to 400 MHZ *The DF-301 system provides direction finding capability in the VHF/UHF and VHF-FM radio frequency band
940
Q: When an AM radio is keyed but the microphone is off what happens?
A: In the absence of a modulating signal, a continuous rf carrier is radiated by the antenna *In an FM transmitter with no modulation, the oscillator generates a steady center frequency
941
Q: What does the display on a TDR shown below represent? (Straight line with a small downward spike then straight again)
A: Crimped Cable
942
Q: What can affect transmissions in the VHF and UHF frequency range?
A: Buildings and uneven terrain may affect transmissions in the VHF and UHF frequency range. Signal radiations in these frequency ranges get very little ionosphere reflection. As a result, communications in these ranges tend to be line-of-sight and over a short distance. The transmitter and receiver must be within a straight visual sighting line from each other.
943
Q: What is the difference between an altimeter and an altimeter-encoder?
A: They are the same except the altimeter-encoder has a digital output that is referenced to 29.92 that is not affected by change of barometric setting. The altimeter-encoder also has an encoder power loss (code off) flag.
944
Q: What does the IFF monitor lamp on the IFF/COMM control panel indicate?
A: When illuminated, indicates a malfunction in the IFF transponder. The lamp will also illuminate steady when the IFF is in standby or flash when interrogated by Mode 4 Air Traffic Control
945
Q: What are the different methods to Zeroize Mode 4?
A: The Mode 4 code will zeroize when power to the computer is removed for approximately 15 seconds, but only if the landing gear had cycled and the Mode 4 code hold function was not activated. The Mode 4 code will not zeroize on removal of power if the landing gear is down and has not been cycled since power was first applied. Securing or resetting the landing gear indicator CB at any time will have the same effect on the KIT-1C as cycling the landing gear. *Pushing the zeroize button on the front of the KIT-1C will zeroize the Mode 4 codes. Power does not need to be applied to the system to operate and is independent of the position of the landing gear of the status of the Mode 4 code hold circuits. If the Mode 4 zeroize switch on the IFF/COMM Panel is used while power is applied to the computer, the codes to the Mode 4 and the KY-58 will be zeroized.
946
Q: How does a TACAN radio measure the distance to another TACAN station?
A: The TACAN set receives a UHF signal from a TACAN surface station (ground or shipboard) or aircraft and calculates the magnetic bearing and slant range to that station. Range information is determined by measurement of the time for round-trip travel of the radio signal between the aircraft and the TACAN station. Aircraft radial is determined by phase measurements which are converted to azimuth indications.
947
Q. If the bearing from an ADF appears to be 180 degrees out what part of the ADF antenna is most likely the cause?
A. Sense antenna
948
Q: What provides impedance matching on a 1553 data bus?
A: The Bus Coupler *The 444F-6 Bus Coupler uses three transformers to provide dc isolation, impedance matching, and coupling to the data bus.
949
Q: When you get a tone when changing channels on an HF radio what does it mean?
A: Normal indication that the HF coupler is tuning *Tuning the coupler takes approximately 6 seconds. While this tuning is in progress a tuning tone is generated in the exciter and routed via the receiver (RCV) audio line to the audio system to alert the crew that tuning is in progress. After tuning is completed, receive audio is re-enabled. Keying the system again keys the exciter and power amplifier for normal transmitting. If tuning is not completed in 10 seconds, a fault signal (series of 1 kHz beeps) is generated and routed via the audio system to alert the crew that tuning the HF system has failed.
950
Q: Where do you fly the CG ensign at a shore unit?
A: At shore installations, it is displayed from the starboard yard arm of the flag mast.
951
Q: What is the rank of an E6 in the Air Force? (5 stripes with star in middle)
A: Tech Sergeant
952
Q: What tag prohibits operation of equipment that could jeopardize safety of personnel or endanger equipment, systems, or components?
A: The Danger tag (red tag)
953
Q: What tag is used as a precaution to provide temporary special instructions or to indicate that unusual caution must be exercised to operate the equipment?
A: The Caution tag (yellow tag)
954
Q: What color is the label used to identify an Out-of-Calibration instrument that you can still use with the knowledge that an error is known to exist but must be compensated?
A: Orange – The Out of Calibration label is used to identify instruments that are out of calibration but the error is known and the equipment can still be used.
955
Q: During the Mexican American War CG Cutters augmented the Navy and where used to fill what roles?
A: Blockading harbors
956
Q: What part of the U.S. Code cites that the CG is a military service?
A: Title 14 of the U.S. Code cites that the CG is a military service. It is a branch of the Armed Forces of the United States unceasingly…not just in wartime or when directed by the President.
957
Q: What are the CG’s homeland security roles?
A: Maintain, Safeguard, Protect, Ensure, and Coordinate.
958
Q: A Report of Survey is not required for property with a value less than ___________?
A: $500
959
Q: Twin sisters Genevieve and Lucille Baker of the Naval Coastal Defense Reserve become the first uniformed women to serve in the CG in what year?
A: 1918
960
Q: What famous Master Chief Boatswain’s mate retired in January 1987 after serving on active duty for 44 years, four months, and 27 days, after a career that spans three wars, and sees service on board 34 vessels?
A: Master Chief Boatswain’s Mate Donald H. Horsley
961
Q: What is the difference between an F02 and an F05 fuse?
A: The F05 fuse has a larger diameter
962
Q: If a wire carrying a DC current is placed near a compass what will the needle in the compass do?
A: The compass needle will align itself at right angles to the conductor, thus indicating the presence of a magnetic force.
963
Q: How close to an obstruction can an aircraft be taxied without a wing walker?
A: When an aircraft is being taxied within 25 feet of obstructions, a minimum of one wing walker for each wingtip shall be provides.
964
Q: What symbols may be used in any Coast Guard Message?
A:
* Apostrophe ‘
* Colon :
* Comma ,
* Parenthesis (
* Question Mark ?
* Quotation Mark “
* Slant Bar /
* Hyphen -
* Period .
965
Q: Calendar maintenance may be performed early up to how many days?
A: 30 days
| 10% hrs
966
Q: When crossing a taxiway in a vehicle Tower shows you a flashing red light. What does this mean?
A: Clear the taxiway or runway
967
Q: When crossing a taxiway in a vehicle Tower shows you a Flashing white light. What does this mean?
A: Return to starting point.
968
Q: What is COMDTINST M8000.2?
A: Ordinance manual
969
Q: What may non-certified GPS be used for?
A: verifying other navigation sources
970
Q: The hazard of static charge is particularly acute when pumping ____.
A: JP-4
971
Q: Aluminum has __________% the conductivity of copper.
A: 60%
972
Q: When do we use parallel wires for load sharing?
A: never
973
A: What is ampacity?
Q: amount of current a wire can carry before the temperature rise exceeds the permissible value
974
Q: Solderability of tin plated copper wire significantly decreases within __________ after production.
A: 6 months to 1 year
975
Q: Due to fire hazards, silver plated conductors will not be used in or with __________ solutions.
A: ethylene glycol
976
Q: With what funds are personal ALSE bought?
A: AFC-30
977
Q: A preflight remains effective for __________ hours.
A: 24
978
Q: How many bonding classes are there?
A: 6
979
What is bonding class A? antenna
antenna
980
Q: What is bonding class C?
A: current path
981
Q: What is bonding class H?
A: shock hazard
982
A: What is bonding class L?
A: lightning
983
Q: What is the bonding class R?
A: RF (high frequency)
984
Q: What is bonding class S?
A: static
985
Q: What are some visual cues that can alert one to the existence of a bad solder joint?
A: dull/gray/chalky appearance, hairline cracks, wrinkled, exposed joint, scorched wire, globules
986
Q: A good solder joint will have a __________ appearance with smooth _________.
A: bright shiny; fillets
987
Q: What is the insulation gap for cup soldering?
A: 2 wire diameters
988
Q: For hook and turret soldering applications, wrap the wire _________ degrees.
A: 180
989
Q: Max ramp speed of refuelers is __________.
A: 5 mph
990
Q: All fuel service vehicles shall carry a __________.
A: spill kit
991
Q: E-6 and below are marked how often?
A: semiannually
992
Q: What is antabuse?
A: A drug that makes people feel sick (flu-like symptoms) after consuming alcohol
993
Q: Materiel type 7 is used to support __________.
A: Turbomecca Ariel engine
994
Q: Type 1 transactions shall be reported via __________.
A: CGMS
995
Q: When prescribes the amount of material a unit may stock?
A: allowance list
996
Q: Who is the source of supply for all types 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, and 8 materiel?
A: ALC
997
Q: What systems can be used to order types 3 and 5 materiel from other government sources?
A: SURF, ARMS
998
Q: Priority 2 requisitions are selected for __________.
A: immediate shipment
999
Q: Priority 5 and 12 requisitions are evaluated __________ per day.
A: once
1000
Q: Priority 5 requisitions will be filled if there are more than __________ parts on the shelf? 12?
A: 2; 5
1001
Q: The prompt payment act requires invoices be paid within _________ days of receipt of materiel.
A: 30
1002
Q: Acknowledgement of receives parts will be made via __________.
A: AMMIS
1003
Q: Who controls all TCTO kits?
A: ALC
1004
Q: TCTO kits requiring > 4 MLH will not be issued within __________ months of scheduled PDM.
A: 4
1005
Q: HAZMAT should be __________ packaged.
A: individually
1006
Q: NiCad battery shops will provide __________ air changes per hour.
A: 3-4
1007
Q: Vented NiCad batteries shall be isolated from __________.
A: vented lead acid batteries
1008
Q: Do sealed batteries require a dedicated battery room?
A: no
1009
Q: A minimum of __________' is maintained between different types of batteries.
A: 5'
1010
Q: Can you use the same tools for different types of batteries?
A: no, unless they are properly cleaned
1011
Q: Can you ever use a wire brush to clean batteries?
A: no
1012
Q: Electrolyte into water or water into electrolyte?
A: electrolyte into water
1013
Q: How often are safety stand downs mandated?
A: annually
1014
Q: Who is responsible for convening a MAB?
A: CG-113
1015
Q: Who develops standards for the aviation safety program?
A: CG-1131
1016
Q: Human error accounts for __________% of aviation losses in the CG.
A: 80%
1017
Q: The CG's aviation maintenance error rate is __________ and costs over __________.
A: 20-22%, $850k
1018
Q: Who may authorize a flight without a CVDR?
A: CO
1019
Q: How close is a near midair collision?
A: within 500'
1020
Q: A near midair collision is a class __________ mishap.
A: D
1021
Q: Within __________ days, new recruits are to be given alcohol abuse training.
A: 7
1022
Q: All changes to technical manuals will be implemented within _________ days.
A: 5
1023
Q: What does TOPS stand for?
A: technical order page supplement
1024
Q: What color is a TOPS?
A: green
1025
Q: How is a TOPS different than a standard change?
A: supplements rather than replaces pages
1026
Q: How are TOPS numbered?
A: TP-x
1027
Q: All CG TOPS begin with __________.
A: CGTO
1028
Q: Wire sizes 8 and above should be cut with __________.
A: cable shears
1029
Q: Will an open or protected harness be smaller and lighter?
A: protected
1030
Q: Cable clamps should never be more than __________" from the end of conduit.
A: 10"
1031
Q: How often is a comprehensive FDME performed?
A: biannually until age 50 then annually
1032
Q: How often can you donate blood?
A: 120 days
1033
Q: How often must personnel receive human relations awareness training?
A: triennially
1034
Q: What are the 3 major reserve categories?
A: ready, standby, retired
1035
Q: Who is the single point of contact for all advancement waivers?
A: PSC (adv)
1036
Q: All life preservers and vests will be inspected at least every __________ days.
A: 180
1037
Q: The LPU-27/PE provides __________ lbs. of buoyancy.
A: 65
1038
Q: How often are mass casualty rafts repacked? By whom?
A: 5 years by manufacturer Ref:
1039
Q: Who has custody of an aircraft during the transit of a permanent transfer of the aircraft between two Coast Guard units when the transferring unit provides the pilots?
A: The Transferring Unit
1040
Q: What does a test of the Fire Detection Control in a continuous loop fire detection system test?
A: Continuity
1041
Q: What technique should be used when the strands of a broken wire inside a
connector prevent the insertion of a removal tool to remove the pin?
A: Pull back sleeve, rotate ¼ of a turn
1042
Q: How is NMCT Calculated?
A: NMCS+NMCM+NMCT
1043
Q: When is the NMCS clock stopped?
A: When the part arrives
1044
Q: How long are vaccinations grounding for?
A: 12 Hours
1045
Q: After donating blood for how long are you prohibited from flying above 35,000’ or flying at night?
A: 7 days
1046
Q: Who must provide authorization before you can donate blood?
A: Commanding Officer
1047
Q: How long must you wait after ceasing the use of medication and after all of sea sickness are gone before you can reassume your duties?
?
1048
Q: In what manual would you look to find examples of Aircraft ferry flight documents?
A: PG 160
1049
Q: How much time is remaining when the battery low light on the IFF test set begins to flash?
A: 20%
1050
Q: What is the maximum voltage of a flashlight used in fueling areas?
A: 6 Volts
1051
Q: What type of fuel uses the Nato Designator F-35?
A: Jet A
1052
Q: What event resulted in the creation of ICS?
A: California Wild Fire
1053
Q: What is the minimum level of Icing Inhibitor in Aircraft Fuel?
A: .08%
1054
Q: What symbol would you find on a Fuel Line?
A: Star
1055
Q: What symbol would you find on a Breathing Air line?
A: None
1056
Q: What effect will a having a smaller cathode then anode when you have galvanic corrosion forming?
A: Accelerates
1057
Q: Solvents used for cleaning aircraft components are what?
A: High flashpoint or Non-Flammable
1058
Q: Who can authorize the one time use of a chemical not on the ACL on the aircraft?
A: EO
1059
Q: SAMI, CAMI, TIMI
A: Multiple questions on these
1060
Q: How many frequencies does a 406 emergency beacon transmit on?
A: 4
1061
Q: What is the maximum allowable size of a Brand on the body?
A: 4”x4”
1062
Q: What does a 3-Axis AutoPilot control?
A: Pitch Roll Yaw
1063
Q: What resists a crushing stress on the airframe?
A: Compression
1064
Q: What is expected battery life for the Under Water Acoustic Beacon?
A: 6 Years
1065
Q: What is the price threshold below which a report of survey is not required for a lost item?
A: $500
1066
Q: What is the center line down the aircraft from which Left/Right measurements are made on the aircraft?
A: Butt Line
1067
Q: What is not allowed on/in a wire bundle that runs through a metal conduit?
Ties or splices
| Bundle diameter must not exceed 80% of inside diameter.
1068
Q: Wire splices of single conductor wires must be placed how in a bundle?
A: Stagger and not increasing the overall diameter of the bundle.
1069
Q: BAH calculation is based on what?
A: Rank, Location, and Dependant status
1070
Q: What does the Anti-Skid Valve do when a skid is detected?
A: Ports fluid away from the skidding tire
1071
Q: What is the main purpose of a helicopter main gear box?
A: Transfer of power
1072
Q: When using a hydraulic Collet type jack to jack the aircraft the collet must be kept within how many thread of the top of the jack?
A: 2
1073
Q: While QA’ing a solder join you see grey and wrinkled solder what can this be a sign of?
A: Excessive Heat
1074
Q: When soldering what is a heat sink used for?
A: To prevent heat transfer to other components.
1075
Q: When requesting an Allotment Change Request (ACR) to change your units allotment of an aircraft part who do you submit it to?
A: ALC
1076
Q: When a TCTO is due on an aircraft that will require more then 4 Man Labor Hours to
complete within how many months of return to PDM will a kit not be shipped out for the
aircraft?
A: 4 Months
1077
Q: What RF Frequency is most readily absorbed by the human body?
A: 30-300 MHz
1078
Q: What type of washer is used between aluminum terminals on a terminal block?
A: None
1079
Q: Who is responsible for assigning QA letters?
A: Engineering Officer
1080
Q: Who do you submit a PDQR to for review?
A: QA
1081
Q: Who enters the arrival and final completion of a CG-22?
A: Prime Unit
1082
Q: After what % of an MPC has been changed is a re-write required?
A: 40%
1083
Q: Prior to starting the aircraft engines the Fireguard should have ICS communication with who?
A: Person starting the engines.
1084
Q: What letter is used to designate Lightning strike bonding?
A: L
1085
Q: What determines the frequency of post flight inspections on an air craft?
A: 13020
1086
Q: What system is a wire with X at the beginning of its wire number used on?
A: A/C Power Systems
1087
Q: What section of an MSDS contain hazardous Ingredients?
A: Section II
1088
Q: What is not a cause of aging wiring?
A: Manufacturing
1089
Q: What determines the frequency of a generator?
A: Speed at of the armature and number of poles.
1090
Q: Heat generated by the electrical current in the windings of a component is called?
A: Copper Loss
1091
Q: What is the Atmospheric Pressure at sea level?
A: 14.7 PSI
1092
Q: When your unit requires special frequencies added to your presets who do you
submit a request for them to be added to?
A: District Spectrum Manager
1093
Q: AES/DES codes are loaded on what day?
A: First WORKING monday of the month (federal holidays not included)
1094
Q: Who does the Coast Guard get AES codes from?
A: Customs and Border Patrol
1095
Q: When a mark at or below what is given can a member not advance until the
deficiency is corrected?
A: 2
1096
Q: What level is response is required when a hazardous spill is detected by someone
with Hazwopper Awarness level of training?
• Evacuate others and yourself from the spill area. Remember to
stay upwind of smoke and vapor clouds.
• Notify the spill response team. Do not attempt to control or
contain the spill yourself because you are not properly trained.
• Secure the area around the spill to prevent unauthorized
personnel from getting close to the spill.
1097
Q: How long per day can EMI be assigned?
A: 2 Hours
1098
Q: What can EMI be assigned for?
A: To correct a deficiency only
1099
Q: The commanding officer is responsible for providing at least 1 hour during the work day for working out how many days per week?
A: 3 days
1100
Q: When towing a rotary winged aircraft in a congested area how many members are required on the towing team?
A: 4
1101
Q: What Priority would ATC Mobile order a mission critical component required for a
grounding discrepancy?
A: 2
1102
Q: When testing an aircraft pressurization system on the ground what must you set?
A: Manual
1103
Q: How many Aircraft can the TACAN provide slant range two when placed in TR/AA mode?
A: 5
1104
Q: After cleaning an antenna base of corrosion what is the max allowable resistance
between the antenna base and the airframe?
A: 2.5 m ohm
1105
Q: What does the EMPE define as something resulting in Emotional and Physical
Distress?
A: Stress
1106
Q: When you see “NON-STAT” on the side of a pressurized cylinder what does it mean?
A: Cylinder is Shatterproof
1107
Q: What has an inverse relationship when related to Wires and Resistance?
A: Diameter and Resistance
1108
Q: What process guide provides guidance on downloading flight data from a PCMIA
card?
A: PG 1560
1109
Q: What is the monthly bag for flight hours?
A: 125 Hours
1110
Q: Crew should not be scheduled to fly for more than how many hours a day in a
pressurized aircraft?
A: 12 Hours
1111
Q: Swimmers stationed at a dual helicopter unit may fly on and be deployed from a
helicopter they are not qualified on when operational/mission needs require it after
completing what?
A: Passenger Safety Brief
1112
Q: What government agency is tasked with 406 registration?
A: NOAA
1113
Q: Who is in charge of investigating an unrestricted report of a sexual assault?
A: CGIS
1114
Q: Inertial Navigation systems use what as the primary sensor to determine aircraft location?
A: Accelerometers
1115
Q: What sensor/switch detects Up and Locked in landing gear?
A: Up/Lock Switch
1116
Q: How long after completion is an MPC Card kept on file?
A: 90 Days
1117
Q: How often must a new MDL be printed out?
A: Monthly
1118
Q: A completely new edition/re-write of an Airforce manual is called what?
A: Revision
1119
Q: A one time inspection of a safety of flight component is called what?
A: SAMI
1120
Q: What is done with an uncompleted TCTO on a transferring aircraft?
A: It is sent with the aircraft.
1121
Q: When a shrink seal tube is too tight to slide over a terminal what is it soaked in to
soften it?
A: MEK
1122
Q: What NavAir manual outlines cleaning of corrosion off electrical connectors?
A: 509
1123
Q: What do you do if you receive a part with no serial number?
A: Wait for the proper paperwork
1124
Q: Romantic relationship are prohibited at units ashore with less then how many
members?
A: 60
1125
Q: What are Special marks required?
A: When awarded NJP
1126
Q: What is VSWR?
Voltage Standing Wave Ratio
1127
Q: How many parts are there in training?
A: 3
1128
Q: In the SMART model for goal setting what does the “S” stand for?
A: Specific
1129
Q: Some RTV silicones should not be used on avionics components because they are:
A: Conductive? Corrosive?
1130
Q: When two dissimilar Metals prone to corrosion are in contact with each other they
should be what?
A: Washer
1131
Q: What type of discharge says “Under Honorable Conditions”
A: General
1132
Q: Instrument Lighting in the cockpit should be of what type?
Indirect
1133
Q: Identify the following component (Picture)
A: Thermal Switch
1134
Q: How is a major deficiency determined to be caused by PDM reported?
A: Memorandum
1135
Q: When in a deployed status on continuous duty status for more then 7 days how many flight hours per day must you average to be bagged out?
A: 4
1136
Q: Battery life of an underwater acoustic beacon:
A: 6 years
1137
Q: An AST qualified on a H60 requires what to fly as a rescue swimmer on a H65:
A: Passenger brief
1138
Q: Blinking battery light on the 708 test set means that battery has how much operating power left?
A: 20%
1139
Q: Frequency range absorbed into the human body:
A: 30-300mHz
1140
Q: 406 transmits on how many different frequencies?
A: 4
1141
Q: During a unrestricted sexual assault investigation, who has primary responsibility for investigation?
A: CGIS
1142
Q: INU uses what primarily during operation?
A: Accelerometers
1143
Q: What component closes the circuit for up and locked indication on landing gear?
A: Up/Lock switch
1144
Q: How long are completed MPC’s kept for?
A:90 days
1145
Q: How long are SAMI CAMI OR SIMI’s kept for?
A: 90 days
1146
Q: MDL is printed how often?
A: 30 days
1147
Q: How much of a MPC has to be changed before a revision?
A: 40%
1148
Q: What started the ICS (incident command system?)
A: California Wild fire
1149
Q: A new edition of a manual is called:
A: Revision
1150
Q: What solvent do you use to fit a terminal boot over a terminal?
A: MEK
1151
Q: Who approves a chemical that is not in the MSDS for a one time use?
A: EO
1152
Q: Splices are installed in what manner?
A: Staggered and does not increase size of wire bundle
1153
Q: Cleaning and corrosion manual for avionics:
A: 509
1154
Q: Solder job is grey and wrinkled is a sign of:
A: excessive heat
1155
Q: A part has no SCHR or serial number, what should you do?
A: Wait until proper paperwork arrives.
1156
Q: X24AZ215B is what system?
A: AC power
1157
Q: A major repair that requires maintenance to stop during PDM is what?
A: Category 1, 2 type 1, 2
1158
Q: Special marks are awarded after:
A: NJP
1159
Q: An A/C leaves for PDM within 4 months and a TCTCO is incomplete. What do you do with the TCTO?
A: TCTO goes with the A/C
1160
Q: S in SMART stands for:
A:Specific
1161
Q: What is a type of discharge that is honorable?
A: General discharge
1162
Q: How does BAH fluctuate?
A: Rank, dependants, location
1163
Q: What type of lighting for flight deck is optimum?
A: Direct
1164
Q: Transferring unit is supplying pilots to ferry an A/C, who is responsible for A/C until it is received by new unit?
A: Transferring unit
1165
Q: What is the manual for A/C ferry and transfer?
A: PG 160
1166
Q: Non Mission Capable =
A: NMCsupply+NMCmaintenance+NMCdepot
1167
Q: PG for TCTO:
A: 40
1168
Q: You have to remove a pin with wire damage and the removal tool will not remove pin, what can you do?
A: Pull back insulation, rotate removal tool ¼ turn.
1169
Q: AN/ARC 210 Frequency:
A: VHF/UHF
1170
Q: The frequency of a generator is based on:
A: speed and number of poles
1171
Q: Loss of generator current:
Hysteresis
1172
Q: Atmospheric pressure at sea level
A: 29.92/ 14.7 PSI
1173
Q: Fuel labeled F35 is what type of fuel?
A: Jet A
1174
Q: ASDS secure codes are organized to restart?
A: First working Monday of the month
1175
Q: A mark below what you are not approved to advance?
A: 2 and below
1176
Q: EMI cannot exceed how many hours a day?
A: 2
1177
Q: What is the purpose of EMI?
A: Correct the deficiency
1178
Q: How many parts are in training?
A: 3
1179
Q: Who is responsible for the station towing plan?
A: CO
1180
Q: In a congested area, how many people are required to tow a helo?
A: 4
1181
Q: QA is designated by whom?
A: EO
1182
Q: Body brand can be how large?
A: 4x4
1183
Q: When on the ground, how do you pressurize the A/C?
A: Manual
1184
Q: How long are you grounded for after a vaccine?
A: 12 hours
1185
Q: After scuba diving, how many days are you restricted to flying 35000 feet?
A: 7 days
1186
Q: Who’s permission do you need to donate blood?
A: CO
1187
Q: How many A/C can you receive via TACAN A/A at one time?
A: 5
1188
Q: On a 3 axle autopilot, what is applied?
A: Pitch, yaw collective?
1189
Q: Bonding class for lightning (or lighting??)
A: L
1190
Q: Maximum flight hours for 30 days?
A: 125 hours
1191
Q: Can not plan to fly for how many hours in one day?
A: 12
1192
Q: You can fly for an average of how many hours every day for 7 days?
A: 4
1193
Q: Symbol on a fuel line?
A: Star
1194
Q: Symbol on an oxygen line or cylinder?
A: No symbol
1195
Q: Nausea caused by emotional or physical factors is:
A: Stress
1196
Q: Maximum volts of a flashlight entering a fuel cell?
A: 6 Volts
1197
Q: “No STAT” label means:
A: Shatterproof
1198
Q: When servicing nitrogen, what is not required?
A: Fire extinguisher
1199
Q: Vertical reference line along A/C is called?
A: Buttock line
1200
Q: What PSI to dry avionics?
A: Pressure shall not exceed 10 psi.
1201
Q: What are the duties of a first responder at the awareness leve
A: Know what hazardous substances are, and the risks associated with them. Know the potential outcomes associated with an emergency created when hazardous substances are present.
1202
Q: Aileron controls which axis?
A: The Longitudinal Axis (Roll), Elevator-The Lateral Axis (Pitch) Rudder- The Vertical Axis (Yaw)
1203
Q: DF-430 scans how many frequencies?
A: 4 (SAR MODE-(406.025, 121.500, and 243.000MHz) or one of six fixed BCN frequencies)( TACTICAL SCAN (TACT SCAN) allows scanning of the three distress frequencies (121.500, 243.000, and 406.025MHz) and one tactical frequency).
1204
Q: How does an aircraft detect magnetic heading from the earth?
A: Flux Valve- are detectors that transmit magnetic information as electrical energy.
1205
Q: The GPS freq?
A: satellites transmit on two frequencies simultaneously, Link 1 (L1) = 1575.42 MHz and Link 2 (L2) = 1227.6 MHz
1206
Q: UHF frequency range?
A: 300MHZ-3000MHZ (3000MHZ=3GZ)
1207
Q: How is a QA indicated on a MPC?
A: Asterisk
1208
Q: What mode is used when you ident?
A: AN/APX-100 IFF RADAR SYSTEM. IDENT reply can be made in modes 1,2, or 3/A.
1209
Q: What is an example of a physical barrier to communication?
A: Distractions, Noise and Distance.
1210
Q: What act designated Coast Guard Captains of the Port as the Federal Maritime Security Coordinators?
A: The Maritime Transportation Security Act of 2002
1211
Q: 65 AFCS directional gyro for?
A: pitch roll/ accelerometers for yaw.
1212
Q: What is the wash rack limit for ph level?
A: 6-8
1213
Q: How many degrees out 3 phases?
A: 120
1214
Q: Who frocks enlisted?
A: EPM2
1215
Q: What is the minimum bending radius for coax?
6 times diameter of wire or cable for flexible coax
1216
Q: What 2 types of pressure air data we use?
A: Pitot and Static
1217
Q: How long are you grounded after scuba diving if flight surgeon permits?
Fly within 12 hrs of scuba diving
1218
Q: 8 hours of flight how many hours of crew rest?
10 (or 12 if two or more consecutive days)
1219
Q: In EAL, what color is special inspections?
A: Blue
1220
Q: What services can order pubs from Timos?
A: USCG, USAF
1221
Q: What is the maximum amount of wire bundle slack between adeles?
A: ½ inch
1222
Q: How many bonding classes are there?
A: 6
1223
Q: How often are Priority 5, 12 checked
A: once daily
1224
Q: What does first letter X in wire segment mean?
A: AC wiring
1225
Q: 3D GPS needs how many SATs?
A: 4 SATS
1226
Q: How long to fly after drinking non-alcoholic beverage?
A: 12 hours
1227
Q: PH level of water for wash rack water?
A: 6-8
1228
Q: Temperature needed for water in wash rack?
A: 120-140 F
1229
Q: How far out are MDLs printed?
A: 2 months
1230
Q: You can continuously fly on deployment if you only fly x hours a day?
A: 4
1231
Q: How far can safety wire go from fastener to fastener?
A: 6 inches
1232
Q: What does C. stand for for A.C.E.?
A: Care
1233
Q: What was the last ORM step?
A: Monitor situation
1234
Q: What’s an E-7 in the air force?
A: Master Sergeant
1235
Q: Who directs the transfer of all aircraft?
A: CG-711
