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Flashcards in 200's and 300's Deck (134):

___is bodily injury hat creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

Serious bodily injury


Bodily injury is physical pain, illness, or ____

Any impairment of the physical condition


___: Communicative or other actions used by officers, when safe, and without compromising law-enforcement priorities, that are designed to increase the likelihood of gaining voluntary compliance from a non-compliant subject, and reduce the likelihood of using force in response to resistance.

De-escalation Techniques


___: any application of force other than deadly force
A. Force
B. Non-Deadly Force
C. Non-Serious bodily injury force

B. Non-deadly force


___: Using techniques to stabilize the situation and reduce the immediacy of he threat, so that more options and resources are available to bring about a successful resolution to an encounter with a non-compliant subject.



The goal of de-escalation is ___, when feasible, thereby eliminating the need to use force in response to resistance.
A. Orally resolve the situation
B. Talk a subject down
C. gain voluntary compliance of subjects
D. improve the chances to not use force

C. Gain voluntary compliance of subjects


__: Any physical contact with a subject by an officer using the body or any object, device, or weapon, not including unresisted escorting or handcuffing.
A. Non-deadly force
B. Force
C. De-escalated force

B. Force


When safe and reasonable, officers shall use ___ to reduce the likelihood for force and increase the likelihood of voluntary compliance
A. Non-deadly force
B. De-escalation
C. De-escalation techniques
D. Verbal Judo

C. De-escalation techniques


Employing de-escalation techniques may involve ___.
A. Securing Additional Resources, Securing additional officers, and tactical repositioning
B. Securing addition resources, tactical repositioning, and employing verbal persuasion
C. Less lethal weaponry, addition officers, and officers with special training,
D. Securing additional resources, tactical repositioning and verbal judo

B. Securing additional resources, tactical repositioning, and employing verbal persuasion


It is the policy of this department that officers use only that amount of _________ which appears necessary under the circumstances to successfully accomplish the legitimate law enforcement purpose in accordance with this order.
A. objectively reasonable force
B. reasonable force
C. force
D. resistance

A. Objectively reasonable force


An officer is justified in using ___ when the officer reasonable believes the use of such force is immediately necessary.
A. Force
B. Objectively reasonable force
C. Reasonable force
D. Non-Deadly force

C. Reasonable force


An officer is justified in using reasonable force when the officer reasonable believes the use of such force is immediately necessary.
three things

1. To make of assist in a detention or arrest, or to conduct a search
2. To prevent or assist in preventing escape after an arrest, or
3. To make an arrest or conduct a search under warrant (belief that the warrant is valid)


Does an officer have a duty to retreat in regards to a deadly force application?



An officer is only justified in using deadly force against another when and ot the extent the officer deadly force is IMMEDIATELY NECESSARY to
2 things

1. Protect himself or others form what he reasonable believes would be an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
2. Make an arrest or to prevent escape after arrest when the officer has PC to believe that the A) subject has committed or intends to commit an offense involving the infliction or threatened infliction of SBI or death, or B) the officer reasonably believes that there is an imminent or potential risk of SBI or death to any other person if the subject is not immediately apprehended.


What are some less lethal options when dealing with animals? (4)

Fire Extinguisher
OC spray
Animal Control Officer


What are the 4 times a firearm discharge can be used?

1. When reasonable appears to be necessary (protect himself or others from SBI or death, make an arrest or prevent escape when reasonable believe not doing that will result in SBI or death)
2. Dangerous and Aggressive animal
3. Euthanize a hurt animal
4. Target practice or recreational shooting at a range


Where feasible, ___, should be given before an officer resorts to deadly force.
A. Warning shots
B. oral warning
C. Warning
D. retreat

C. Warning


When encountering a vehicle being operated in a threatening manner, officers may leave a position of cover only ___
A. utilize an avenue of escape
B. Move to a position of better cover
C. if the need to apprehend the suspect or stop the threat outweighs the danger imposed on the officer or any other person
D. All the above
E. Only A&B

C. All of the above


Any intentional firearm discharge which results in an injury to another person will be investigated by
C. Chain of Command up to Chief
D. Monitor's Office



Employees who need to destroy a seriously injured animal for humane reasons shall first ___.
A. Determine if the animal needs to be put down
B. Call animal control
C. Request approval from a supervisor
D. Make sure there's room to avoid injuring any other person, the officer, or any other animals.

C. Request approval from a supervisor


___: An unintentional discharge that constitutes a gross deviation from department training received prior to the incident or a discharge which exhibits a failure to exercise the care that a reasonable prudent employee would have exercised in similar circumstances.

Preventable discharge


_____: The discharge of a firearm that the shooter did not intend to occur.

Unintentional discharge


If a discharge at the range is determined to be unintentional, who handles the inquiry?
C. Range COC
D. Officer's COC

D. the officer's COC


If a discharge at the range is determined to be preventable, the incident will be handled as ___.
A. Class A Investigation
B. Class B Investigation
C. Class C Investigation
D. A complaint

B. A Class B Investigation


A discharge at the range will be reviewed by ___ after the internal investigation is complete.
A. The officer's COC
D. Force review board

D. Force Review Board.


An unintentional discharge on duty or off-duty will be handled as a Class ___ investigation.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. None of the above



___ has investigative responsibility for the incident (on duty or off duty accidental discharge).
A. The employee's immediate supervisor
D. The employee's LT

A. The immediate supervisor (if not avble, an on-duty LT from the officer's assigned area will designate an on-duty supervisor to investigation the incident)


___ will determine what, if any corrective action is needed for unintentional discharges on or off-duty.
A. The range COC
B. The employee's COC
E. Force Review Board

B. The employee's COC


As far as unintentional discharges go, when may an employee be placed on restricted duty?

When it's an off-duty unintentional discharge.


If there's an accidental discharge out of the city, ___ having jurisdiction must be notified. The employee's supervisor will coordinate the investigation with the responsible agency.

proper law enforcement authority


____ are devices used to minimize the potential for injury to employees, offenders, or other subjects.
B. Impact Weapons
C. Chemical Agents
D. Kinetic Energy Projectiles

Chemical Agents


This department is committed to reducing the potential for violent confrontations when such subjects are encountered. ___ are less likely to result in death or serious physical injury.
B. Impact Weapons
C. Chemical Agents
D. Kinetic Energy Projectiles

D. Kinetic Energy Projectiles


When using a kinetic energy projectile ___ should not be targeted
A. head
B. neck
C. groin
D. All the above
E. A and B

head and neck


___ may be effective in controlling a passive or actively resisting individual.
A. pressure point techniques
B. pain compliance techniques
C. soft/empty hand control

Pain compliance techniques


___ is the maximum amount of force authorized to seize blood from a subject pursuant to a mandatory blood draw.
A. pressure point techniques
B. pain compliance techniques
C. soft/empty hand control

C. Soft/empty hand control


___ is intended to control a violent of potentially violent individual while minimizing the risk of serious injury.
B. Impact Weapons
C. Chemical Agents
D. Kinetic Energy Projectiles

A. Taser


The aiming laser of the TASER should never be intentionally directed ___ of another
A. into the eyes
B. at the groin
C. at breast tissue
D. at the neck
E. All of the above

A. into the eyes


TESER manufacturers recommend that you target ___.
A. Center Mass
B. Lower Center Mass
C. Upper Center Mass
D. All of the above

B. Lower center mass


TASER manufacturers recommend that you intentionally avoid targeting ___
A. Head
B. neck
C. chest
D. groin
E. All of the above

E. All of the above


All TASER deivce deployment information shall be maintained by the department for a minimum of __ .
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
E. forever

C. 3 years.


What are the three times you can delay compliance with following the R2R inquiry, reporting, and review provisions?

1) scene is unstable
2) there is unrest
3) other conditions make immediate compliance impracticable


___: The preliminary review of the events surrounding a R2R, including the initial response to the scene and follow up investigations.



___: The process of documenting the information gathered in the inquire of a response to resistance incident through written, oral and visual means and compiling that information into the appropriate packet for review.



___: The process of evaluating all the fiven information obtained in the force incident inquiry and reporting stages to determine if the r2r was objectively reasonable and within policy



If there is uncertainty of what level a r2r is,
A. use the higher level
B. use Level 2
C. make it a level 1

A. use the higher level.


What level is any force resulting in death

Level 1


What level force is any force that resulted in a substantial risk of death

Level 1


What level force is and intentional firearm discharge at a person, vehicle, or structure regardless of injury

Level 1


What level force is any intention firearm discharge at an animal that results in injury to another person

Level 1


What level force is and unintentional firearm discharge resulting in another person's injury or death

Level 1


What level force is any force that resulted in serious bodily injury requiring admittance to the hospital, beyond ER room treatment and release

Level 1


What level force is use of any impact weapon, including kinetic energy projectiles, and improvised weapons, that strikes the head of a subject

Level 1


What level force is any in custody death, regardless of any force used

Level 1


What level force is and PIT maneuver that results in serious bodily injury

Level 1


What level force is any strike to the head by an employee with any weaponless technique

Level 2


What level force is use of any impact weapon

Level 2


What level force is any deployment of a police canine resulting in a bite to a subject's colothing or skin

Level 2


What level force is any use of TASER and gets neuromuscular incapacatation

Level 2


What level force is the utilization of the PIT, unless serious bodily injury or death occurs

Level 2


What level force is OC spray

Level 3


What level force is taser with no neuromuscular... or drive stun

Level 3


What level force is the use or of any impact weapon, but does not make contact

Level 3


What level force is the use of a baton for non-striking purposes

Level 3


What level force is a weaponless technique used but not to the head

Level 3


___ can elevate any Level 3 r2r to a level 2
A. any officer
B. The supervisor
C. The LT
D. The corporal

B. The supervisor


___ with the approval of the commander may elevate any r2r to a level 1
A. Any officer
B. The supervisor
C. The employee's LT
D. The commander

C. The employee's LT


During an r2r review, if there is any credible evidence that criminal misconduct may have occurred by the officer then the incident shall be treated as a ___.
A. Level 1 incident
B. Level 2 incident
C. IA complaint
D. SIU investigation

A. Level 1 incident


If there is evidence of criminal misconduct during an r2r investigation, the supervisor shall notify:
A. SIU and IA
B. SIU and chief
C. IA, SIU, and chief

C. SIU, IA, and Chief


If there is evidence of criminal misconduct during an r2r investigation, who investigates it
A. Police Monitor
D. SIU and IA concurrently

D. SIU and IA


Any deviation from the above r2r reporting requirements must be approved by ___ and only for special circumstances.
A) Chief of Police
B) An assistant chief
C) The employee's commander

B) an assistant chief


Commanders may approve a L3 incident to be documented in an after-action report for ____ arising from a search warrant, SWAT callout, or other incident with approved operations plan.
A) Tactical Situations
B) Situations
C) Incidents

A) tactical situations


___ shall identify any policy, training, tactical, equipment, or other improvements related to the force incident that may be needed.
B) Employee's COC
C) The Force Review Board
D) Any officer reviewing an r2r

C) The Force Review Board


Any ___ may request that an incident occurring within their area of responsibility be reviewed (by force review board)
A) Commander
C) employee's sgt
D) any officer

A) commander


Recommendations by the force review board shall by determined by a __.
A) quorem
B) majority vote
C) super majority vote
D) 100% vote

B) Majority vote
Refer recommendations to the chief of police or designee


The FRB can conveign while IA is conducting an investigation?
A) true
B) false

B false
Once the IA investigation is completed, the FRB must convene within 30 days.


For all ___ IA shall present a detailed summary of the investigation to the FRB.
A) Level 1 incidents
B) Officer Involved Shootings
C) In custody deaths
D) B and C
E) all the above

D) OIS and in custody deaths


Inquiry packets that are not subject to IA review go to __, who keeps them for FRB presentation

APD training


The FRB chairperson shall contact IA within ___ of the scheduled board to ascertain whether a force complaint is pending.
A) 1 day
B) 1 week
C) 5 hours
D) 24 hours

D) 24 hours


FRB numbers
A) 7 days:
B) 24 hours
C) 20 days
D) 30 days (2)
E) one week

A) 7 days before the board meets to send out materials to the members for review
B) to call IA to see if an incident is still under investigation
C) 20 days the assigned commander shall prepare and forward a written response documenting the corrective action to the FRB
D) Chair person shall advise the chief when 30 days have passed and no extension request has been made, 30 days for the final FRB report to be done
E) The memo will be completed within one week of the taser review committee meeting.


Officers must remember that the most important factors to the successful conclusion of a pursuit are ___
A) communication
B) self-discipline
C) sound professional judgment
D) A and B
E) B and C
F A, B, and C

E) self-discipline and sound professional judgment


5 restrictions on vehicle pursuits:

1) Class C offense only
2) a non-hazardous traffic violation
3) committed only a misdemeanor other than a DWI and the identity is known
4) Officer has a non-police passenger
5) Road surface is wet or slippery (unless a violent felony and it's deemed reasonable)


In the event that the pursued vehicle drives the wrong way on a roadway, which of the following is not a tatic?
A) Request Air-1
B) Maintain visual contact and parallel on the correct side
C) terminate the pursuit
D) Request other units to watch for exits

C) Terminate the pursuit


Pursuit units shall be limited to __ vehicles
A. 4 units, (3 officers, 1 control sup)
B. 3 units (2 officers, 1 control sup)

A. 4 units


Who is the control supervisor of a vehicle pursuit when a supervisor initiates a pursuit?

Another supervisor from the area, if not, the nearest available supervisor.


Authorization to participate in a pursuit initiated by another agency may be granted for the sole purpose of ending the pursuit. Which one is not a way to end it?
C) other approved devices and methods
D) none of the above
E) all of the above are ok

e) all of the above are ok

Officers can also help with scene control, containment, subject search, reports, and any other assistance requested.


The following two scenarios require supervisor approval prior to TDD deployment:

1. The fleeing vehicle has made overt attempts to strike any other vehicle, people., or structure
2. There is a reasonable belief that the suspect is armed


Officers approved to use TDD devices may proceed Code ___ to a location likely to be in the pursuit

Code 3


When deploying a TDD, officers should maintain a __ gap behind the target vehicle
A. 1-3 second
B. 2-6 second
C. 3-5 second
D. 4-8 seconds

3-5 seconds


___ should not normally be used to perform the PIT

Star Chase equipped


PIT is a level ___ incident

Level 2

Unless it results in serious bodily injury or death


A CR-3 for a PIT is not required unless __

There's damage to a third-party property.


Starchase patrol cars can respond Code __ to a pursuit for potential use of the device.

Code 3


4 times a starchase tag will not NORMALLY be deployed:

1. heavy rain
2. rough terrain
3. on a motorcycle
4. when pedestrians are between or very near suspect vehicle.


4 administrative reasons to turn off the BWC

1. personal conversations
2. officer to officer training
3. conclusion of an incident
4. any reason authorized by a supervisor.


Unless taking police action, where can you not use a BWC
Public of private locker rooms
doctor's office
medical or hospitals
judge's office
department or supervisory meetings

don't record in any of these places unless taking police action


All BWC recordings shall be retained for at minimum ____
A. 30 days
B. 90 days
C. 181 days
E. 3 years

C. 181 days


Open records requests for BWC go through___, while media request go through ___

Central records, PIO


Sups will not order an subordinate to cite a person suspected of a misdemeanor violation of law witnessed by the supervisor but not witnessed by the sub unless (2)

The SUP articulates the PC and
the SUP is listed on the citatino


___: conduct, other than a traffic offense, that is punishable by a fine only or would not be criminal if committed by an adult
A. Delinquent conduct
B. Conduct indicating a need for supervision
C. Status offender

B. Conduct Indicating a Need for Supervision


___: Conduct, other than a traffic offense, that if committed by an adult is punishable by imprisonment in jail.
A. Delinquent conduct
B. Conduct indicating a need for supervision
C. Status offender

A. Delinquent Conduct


___: Genarally, a child who is accused, adjudicated, or convicted for conduct that would not, under state law, be a crime if committed by an adult.
A. Delinquent conduct
B. Conduct indicating a need for supervision
C. Status offender

C. Status Offender


An affidavit for a search warrant on a juvenile offender should be submitted to a ___ to obtain the warrant

Juvenile Court Judge


True or False? Officer swill explain a child's illegal or suspicious behavior as soon as possible, respond with patience and understanding to questions that are defensive or reflect a parent's fears about police procedures and the court system, when reasonable, give parents advanced notice that their child will be interviewed or interrogated, and allow parents to be in the interview or interrogation?

False, the last sentence is not in policy.


True or false: If a child is too young or mentally incompetent to render a decision, the parents or guardians shall be present?

False: parents or guardians should be present


Interviewing children under the age of __ should be done at the center for child protection, especially when the child is the victim of a violent crime.
A. 12
B. 13
C. 17 or under
D. 18

B. 13


For a juvenile, the Miranda warning administered by ___ must precede all custodial confessions.
A. A magistrate
B. A juvenile magistrate
C. An officer
D. A detective

A. A magistrate


The custodial interrogation of a juvenile may take place at:
A. A juvenile Processing office
B. A juvenile Detention Center
C. A police station
D. Anywhere
None of the above
All of the above
A or B

A juvenile processing office or a juvenile detention center


True or False: While at a juvenile processing center for a custodial interrogation:
The child may not be left unattended
The child is entitled to be accompanied by a parent, guardian, or attorney
The child may not be detained in the juvenile processing office for longer than six hours
Under normal circumstances, no more than 2 detectives should be actively engaged in the interrogation of the child.



When can a juvenile not be fingerprinted or photographed?
A. With consent of the juvenile court
B. When taken into custody for conduct that is a felony or misdemeanor
C. When they're suspected of a crime
D. With the voluntarily consent of the parents (in writing)

C. The three others one may photo or fingerprint a juvenile.


___: Occurs when an officer contacts an individual but does not create a detention through words, actions or other means. When a reasonable person would believe that his contact is voluntary

Consensual Contact


A person is ___ if a reasonable person would believe that his freedom of movement was restrained to the degree associated with a formal arrest.



Custody can be __ or ___

actual or constructive


___: The brief stopping of an individual based on reasonable suspicion for the purposes of determining the individual's identity and resolving the officer's supseicions



___: Posed photographs taken of a person during contact

Field Photographs


__: Occurs when, under the totality of the circumstances, an officer has articulable facts that criminal activity may be afoot and a particular person is connected with that possible criminal activity

Reasonable suspicion


Officers detaining a foreign nation shall notify the appropriate consular official upon request or when the detention ___
A. Is over
B. Turns violent
C. becomes an interrogation
D. exceeds two hours

D. Exceeds two hours


Officers (including 2nd employment) shall not provide assistance to ICE for operations at ___
A. A place of worship
B. A charter school
C. A hospital
D. All of the above

A. a place of worship


Officers working secondary employment for ___ shall not provide assistance to ICE for operations
A. A place of worship
B. A charter school
C. A hospital
D. All of the above
E. A hospital or a open enrollment charter school

A hospital or open enrollment charter school (place of worship too, but it's on another card)


True or false: When an officer begins accusatory questioning of a subject who is not free to leave, the subject would generally be considered under arrest and the interview/interrogation would be custodial.



Does a subject need to sign a blue Miranda warning card?

No, as long as they verbally acknowledged understanding and waived his rights.


When can a field photograph not be used:
A. Identification of a subject or a subject's automobile
B. Identification of a subject's condition (injuries, clothing, tats, jewelry)
C. Documenting evidence
D. All of the above a field photograph can be used

D. Those are the three times field photos should be used


Can you use force to obtain a field photograph?



True or False: Mere knowledge or suspicion of gang membership or affiliation is not a sufficient justification for taking a photograph without consent



8 times arrests need supervisor approval

when officer is a victim
multiple traffic
refusal to sign a citation
fail to ID
When not giving class B cite
Any class C warrant inside a residence
When a foreign official is claiming immunity


3 exceptions an officer may enter a 3rd party residence to make an arrest

1. possession of a valid search warrant for that location
2. Consent from persons in care/custody/control
3. Exigent circumstances


If a warrant confirmation is not received within __. the arresting officer may release the subject or continue to wait for a response.
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. an hour

A. 10 minutes


Custody arrests shall not normally be made for a misdemeanor inside a home unless authorized by a supervisor. However, 3 misdemeanor custody arrests shall be made and do not require supervisor approval

1. Offense committed in officer's presence
2. Family violence
3. Violation of a valid protective order


Officers receiving information that a felony violator is inside a private residence may only enter and search for the violator when: 4 times.

1. possession of valid search warrant
2. consent from person in care/custody/control
3. delaying would expose a person to serious injury or death
4. personally observed the felony violator enter the residence at that time.


Under Viena Convention... treaties... notify consular officials when
A. foreign nationals make a request
B when they're arrested
C. detained for more than 2 hours
E. A and C
D. A, B, and/or C

All three. (adds arrested)


During official legislative sessions, including travel to and from sessions, senators and representatives are immune from citations and arrest except for ___

Felonies and breaches of the peace


A member of the Texas military force going to or from active duty may not be arrested except for __

treason, felonies, breaches of the peace


True/False By law, the public/media has access to the following information
Arrestee's name, race, sex, and DOB
Location of arrest
Names of arresting officers
Charges filed

False, age, not DOB. The rest is true


What are the three things the IA commander and or/ PIO personnel can confirm?
1. An investigation is being conducted
2. Name of the emoployee involved
3. Where the incident took place
4. Nature of the incident

not where the incident took place


The initial hold placed on a vehicle is for __
24 hours
48 hours
72 hours
90 hours

72 hours, it can be released early or extended