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Flashcards in 200's Deck (69):
1

___is bodily injury hat creates a substantial risk of death or that causes death, serious permanent disfigurement or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ.

Serious bodily injury

2

Bodily injury is physical pain, illness, or ____

Any impairment of the physical condition

3

___: Communicative or other actions used by officers, when safe, and without compromising law-enforcement priorities, that are designed to increase the likelihood of gaining voluntary compliance from a non-compliant subject, and reduce the likelihood of using force in response to resistance.

De-escalation Techniques

4

___: any application of force other than deadly force
A. Force
B. Non-Deadly Force
C. Non-Serious bodily injury force

B. Non-deadly force

5

___: Using techniques to stabilize the situation and reduce the immediacy of he threat, so that more options and resources are available to bring about a successful resolution to an encounter with a non-compliant subject.

De-escalation

6

The goal of de-escalation is ___, when feasible, thereby eliminating the need to use force in response to resistance.
A. Orally resolve the situation
B. Talk a subject down
C. gain voluntary compliance of subjects
D. improve the chances to not use force

C. Gain voluntary compliance of subjects

7

__: Any physical contact with a subject by an officer using the body or any object, device, or weapon, not including unresisted escorting or handcuffing.
A. Non-deadly force
B. Force
C. De-escalated force

B. Force

8

When safe and reasonable, officers shall use ___ to reduce the likelihood for force and increase the likelihood of voluntary compliance
A. Non-deadly force
B. De-escalation
C. De-escalation techniques
D. Verbal Judo

C. De-escalation techniques

9

Employing de-escalation techniques may involve ___.
A. Securing Additional Resources, Securing additional officers, and tactical repositioning
B. Securing addition resources, tactical repositioning, and employing verbal persuasion
C. Less lethal weaponry, addition officers, and officers with special training,
D. Securing additional resources, tactical repositioning and verbal judo

B. Securing additional resources, tactical repositioning, and employing verbal persuasion

10

It is the policy of this department that officers use only that amount of _________ which appears necessary under the circumstances to successfully accomplish the legitimate law enforcement purpose in accordance with this order.
A. objectively reasonable force
B. reasonable force
C. force
D. resistance

A. Objectively reasonable force

11

An officer is justified in using ___ when the officer reasonable believes the use of such force is immediately necessary.
A. Force
B. Objectively reasonable force
C. Reasonable force
D. Non-Deadly force

C. Reasonable force

12

An officer is justified in using reasonable force when the officer reasonable believes the use of such force is immediately necessary.
three things

1. To make of assist in a detention or arrest, or to conduct a search
2. To prevent or assist in preventing escape after an arrest, or
3. To make an arrest or conduct a search under warrant (belief that the warrant is valid)

13

Does an officer have a duty to retreat in regards to a deadly force application?

NO

14

An officer is only justified in using deadly force against another when and ot the extent the officer deadly force is IMMEDIATELY NECESSARY to
2 things

1. Protect himself or others form what he reasonable believes would be an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
2. Make an arrest or to prevent escape after arrest when the officer has PC to believe that the A) subject has committed or intends to commit an offense involving the infliction or threatened infliction of SBI or death, or B) the officer reasonably believes that there is an imminent or potential risk of SBI or death to any other person if the subject is not immediately apprehended.

15

What are some less lethal options when dealing with animals? (4)

Fire Extinguisher
OC spray
TASER
Animal Control Officer

16

What are the 4 times a firearm discharge can be used?

1. When reasonable appears to be necessary (protect himself or others from SBI or death, make an arrest or prevent escape when reasonable believe not doing that will result in SBI or death)
2. Dangerous and Aggressive animal
3. Euthanize a hurt animal
4. Target practice or recreational shooting at a range

17

Where feasible, ___, should be given before an officer resorts to deadly force.
A. Warning shots
B. oral warning
C. Warning
D. retreat

C. Warning

18

When encountering a vehicle being operated in a threatening manner, officers may leave a position of cover only ___
A. utilize an avenue of escape
B. Move to a position of better cover
C. if the need to apprehend the suspect or stop the threat outweighs the danger imposed on the officer or any other person
D. All the above
E. Only A&B

C. All of the above

19

Any intentional firearm discharge which results in an injury to another person will be investigated by
A. IA
B. SIU
C. Chain of Command up to Chief
D. Monitor's Office

B. SIU

20

Employees who need to destroy a seriously injured animal for humane reasons shall first ___.
A. Determine if the animal needs to be put down
B. Call animal control
C. Request approval from a supervisor
D. Make sure there's room to avoid injuring any other person, the officer, or any other animals.

C. Request approval from a supervisor

21

___: An unintentional discharge that constitutes a gross deviation from department training received prior to the incident or a discharge which exhibits a failure to exercise the care that a reasonable prudent employee would have exercised in similar circumstances.

Preventable discharge

22

_____: The discharge of a firearm that the shooter did not intend to occur.

Unintentional discharge

23

If a discharge at the range is determined to be unintentional, who handles the inquiry?
A. SIU
B. IA
C. Range COC
D. Officer's COC

D. the officer's COC

24

If a discharge at the range is determined to be preventable, the incident will be handled as ___.
A. Class A Investigation
B. Class B Investigation
C. Class C Investigation
D. A complaint

B. A Class B Investigation

25

A discharge at the range will be reviewed by ___ after the internal investigation is complete.
A. The officer's COC
B. SIU
C. IA
D. Force review board

D. Force Review Board.

26

An unintentional discharge on duty or off-duty will be handled as a Class ___ investigation.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. None of the above

B

27

___ has investigative responsibility for the incident (on duty or off duty accidental discharge).
A. The employee's immediate supervisor
B. SIU
C. IA
D. The employee's LT

A. The immediate supervisor (if not avble, an on-duty LT from the officer's assigned area will designate an on-duty supervisor to investigation the incident)

28

___ will determine what, if any corrective action is needed for unintentional discharges on or off-duty.
A. The range COC
B. The employee's COC
C. IA
D. SIU
E. Force Review Board

B. The employee's COC

29

As far as unintentional discharges go, when may an employee be placed on restricted duty?

When it's an off-duty unintentional discharge.

30

If there's an accidental discharge out of the city, ___ having jurisdiction must be notified. The employee's supervisor will coordinate the investigation with the responsible agency.

proper law enforcement authority

31

____ are devices used to minimize the potential for injury to employees, offenders, or other subjects.
A. TASER
B. Impact Weapons
C. Chemical Agents
D. Kinetic Energy Projectiles

Chemical Agents

32

This department is committed to reducing the potential for violent confrontations when such subjects are encountered. ___ are less likely to result in death or serious physical injury.
A. TASER
B. Impact Weapons
C. Chemical Agents
D. Kinetic Energy Projectiles

D. Kinetic Energy Projectiles

33

When using a kinetic energy projectile ___ should not be targeted
A. head
B. neck
C. groin
D. All the above
E. A and B

head and neck

34

___ may be effective in controlling a passive or actively resisting individual.
A. pressure point techniques
B. pain compliance techniques
C. soft/empty hand control

Pain compliance techniques

35

___ is the maximum amount of force authorized to seize blood from a subject pursuant to a mandatory blood draw.
A. pressure point techniques
B. pain compliance techniques
C. soft/empty hand control

C. Soft/empty hand control

36

___ is intended to control a violent of potentially violent individual while minimizing the risk of serious injury.
A. TASER
B. Impact Weapons
C. Chemical Agents
D. Kinetic Energy Projectiles

A. Taser

37

The aiming laser of the TASER should never be intentionally directed ___ of another
A. into the eyes
B. at the groin
C. at breast tissue
D. at the neck
E. All of the above

A. into the eyes

38

TESER manufacturers recommend that you target ___.
A. Center Mass
B. Lower Center Mass
C. Upper Center Mass
D. All of the above

B. Lower center mass

39

TASER manufacturers recommend that you intentionally avoid targeting ___
A. Head
B. neck
C. chest
D. groin
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

40

All TASER deivce deployment information shall be maintained by the department for a minimum of __ .
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
E. forever

C. 3 years.

41

What are the three times you can delay compliance with following the R2R inquiry, reporting, and review provisions?

1) scene is unstable
2) there is unrest
3) other conditions make immediate compliance impracticable

42

___: The preliminary review of the events surrounding a R2R, including the initial response to the scene and follow up investigations.

Inquiry

43

___: The process of documenting the information gathered in the inquire of a response to resistance incident through written, oral and visual means and compiling that information into the appropriate packet for review.

Reporting

44

___: The process of evaluating all the fiven information obtained in the force incident inquiry and reporting stages to determine if the r2r was objectively reasonable and within policy

Review

45

If there is uncertainty of what level a r2r is,
A. use the higher level
B. use Level 2
C. make it a level 1

A. use the higher level.

46

What level is any force resulting in death

Level 1

47

What level force is any force that resulted in a substantial risk of death

Level 1

48

What level force is and intentional firearm discharge at a person, vehicle, or structure regardless of injury

Level 1

49

What level force is any intention firearm discharge at an animal that results in injury to another person

Level 1

50

What level force is and unintentional firearm discharge resulting in another person's injury or death

Level 1

51

What level force is any force that resulted in serious bodily injury requiring admittance to the hospital, beyond ER room treatment and release

Level 1

52

What level force is use of any impact weapon, including kinetic energy projectiles, and improvised weapons, that strikes the head of a subject

Level 1

53

What level force is any in custody death, regardless of any force used

Level 1

54

What level force is and PIT maneuver that results in serious bodily injury

Level 1

55

What level force is any strike to the head by an employee with any weaponless technique

Level 2

56

What level force is use of any impact weapon

Level 2

57

What level force is any deployment of a police canine resulting in a bite to a subject's colothing or skin

Level 2

58

What level force is any use of TASER and gets neuromuscular incapacatation

Level 2

59

What level force is the utilization of the PIT, unless serious bodily injury or death occurs

Level 2

60

What level force is OC spray

Level 3

61

What level force is taser with no neuromuscular... or drive stun

Level 3

62

What level force is the use or of any impact weapon, but does not make contact

Level 3

63

What level force is the use of a baton for non-striking purposes

Level 3

64

What level force is a weaponless technique used but not to the head

Level 3

65

___ can elevate any Level 3 r2r to a level 2
A. any officer
B. The supervisor
C. The LT
D. The corporal

B. The supervisor

66

___ with the approval of the commander may elevate any r2r to a level 1
A. Any officer
B. The supervisor
C. The employee's LT
D. The commander

C. The employee's LT

67

During an r2r review, if there is any credible evidence that criminal misconduct may have occurred by the officer then the incident shall be treated as a ___.
A. Level 1 incident
B. Level 2 incident
C. IA complaint
D. SIU investigation

A. Level 1 incident

68

If there is evidence of criminal misconduct during an r2r investigation, the supervisor shall notify:
A. SIU and IA
B. SIU and chief
C. IA, SIU, and chief
D. IA

C. SIU, IA, and Chief

69

If there is evidence of criminal misconduct during an r2r investigation, who investigates it
A. Police Monitor
B. SIU
C. IA
D. SIU and IA concurrently

D. SIU and IA