2007 Flashcards Preview

NRC Initial exams > 2007 > Flashcards

Flashcards in 2007 Deck (75):
1

EOP-1.0, “Standard Post-Trip Actions,” and EOP-2.0, "Reactor Trip Recovery," contain guidance
regarding operation of the feedwater system. What is the guidance given, and why is it
important?
a. Raise feedwater flow using Main Feed Pump speed controllers to compensate for the rapid
lowering of S/G levels (shrink effect) after the trip. This aids in maintaining TAVE at less than
540° F.
b. Manually lower feedwater flow using Main Feed Pump speed controllers to prevent overfeeding
the S/Gs. This action avoids unnecessary cycling of ESS equipment.
c. Trip both Main Feed Pumps to compensate for the rapid rise in S/G levels (swell effect) after
the trip. Manually start one Auxiliary Feedwater Pump to provide finer control and aid in
maintaining TAVE greater than 525° F.
d. Manually lower feedwater flow using Main Feed Pump speed controllers to prevent overfeeding
the S/Gs. This action helps prevent feedwater isolation due to feed regulating valve
high level override.

b. Manually lower feedwater flow using Main Feed Pump speed controllers to prevent overfeeding
the S/Gs. This action avoids unnecessary cycling of ESS equipment.


a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student incorrectly believes that feed rate needs to be raised to compensate for the
shrink effect of the trip.
b. CORRECT – Per EOP-1.0 immediate action #3
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses shrink and swell effects from up powers and down powers.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that S/G levels rise due to no steam flow and sustained feedwater
flow.

2

A Pressurizer code safety valve has indications of leakage. The following indications are noted:
• Pressurizer pressure is 2060 psia and stable.
• Pressurizer Vapor Space is 640°F and stable.
• Safety Valve tailpipe temperature indicates approximately 230°F and rising slowly.
• Quench Tank pressure is 6 psig and rising 1 psi every 10 minutes.
Which one of the following is the reason for the lower temperature indication seen downstream of
the safety valve?
a. The leak is too small to overcome ambient heat loss to the containment.
b. The fluid temperature downstream of the safety valve lowers because a large amount of
energy is lost in the throttling process.
c. The fluid temperature corresponds to the Quench Tank saturation pressure because minimal
energy is lost in a throttling process.
d. The volume of water in the Quench Tank quenches the superheated vapor downstream of the
leaking safety valve.

c. The fluid temperature corresponds to the Quench Tank saturation pressure because minimal
energy is lost in a throttling process.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student incorrectly believes that the heat is transferred to the containment due to
the sizing of the pipe and the transport time
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that a significant amount of energy is lost across the safety valve
seat.
c. CORRECT - A constant enthalpy process means same BTU/LBM of fluid. Using mollier diagram, go to the new
pressure (Quench Tank) directly to the right on a constant enthalpy line. Follow the pressure line up to the
saturation curve to determine the temperature of the fluid.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the steam downstream of the safety valve becomes superheated
and is condensed by the relatively cool water in the quench tank.

3

For a Small Break LOCA event with all equipment operating as designed, which one of the
following ensures adequate heat removal from the core?
a. PCS flow out of the break with all PCPs running.
b. Steam Generators.
c. PCS flow out of the break with 2 PCPs running.
d. Safety Injection flow.

b. Steam Generators.

a. Related to a common misconception regarding the reason for trip two, leave two strategy. Here the candidate
misapplies it, and mistakenly believes that forced circulation forces more coolant out of the break and therefore
provides more cooling. PCPs actually add heat to the PCS when running.
b. CORRECT
c. Candidate again misapplies the trip two/leave two strategy. Here the candidate believes that core heat is being
removed via forced circulation but the heat input from the PCPs is not as high as with all 4 PCPs in service.
d. Safety Injection flow does provide some cooling, but the definition of a small break LOCA inherently implies
minimal SI flow, due to the slow pressure reduction of the PCS, and therefore minimal cooling from SI flow.

4

During a Large Break LOCA with two phase natural circulation occurring, which one of the
following sets of indications must be monitored to determine that heat removal and inventory
functions are being satisfied?
a. PCS loop Delta T and Core Exit Thermocouples.
b. Tcolds and Thots.
c. PCS loop Delta T, and Tcolds.
d. Core Exit Thermocouples and Thots.

d. Core Exit Thermocouples and Thots.

a. INCORRECT – CETs is correct, however PCS loop Delta T is not. Plausible because loop delta T could be an
accurate indication of PCS heat removal for single phase natural circulation, however, for a large break LOCA, two
phase natural circulation cooling is complex enough that loop delta T is not meaningful.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible for the same reason as loop delta T
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the two phase natural circulation process for a Large Break
LOCA utilizes flow past the S/G ‘U’ tubes and back to the core via the cold legs. This could be a process during a
large break LOCA, but there may also be two phase reflux natural circulation cooling occurring which would render
cold leg temperature not meaningful.
d. CORRECT – per EOP-4.0

5

From full power a Loss of All Offsite Power occurs. All other equipment functions as designed.
Several minutes later the NCO-Turbine notes that Lower Seal Temperature indications (on Panel
C-11) for all four Primary Coolant Pumps (PCPs) starts trending upward. This rising temperature
is expected because...
a. the Seal Impeller is no longer providing forced flow through the seal cartridge area.
b. the Piggyback impeller is no longer providing forced flow through the seal cartridge area.
c. Component Cooling Water is no longer circulating through the seal heat exchanger.
d. Controlled Bleedoff flow from PCP seals is now at a lower flow rate.

a. the Seal Impeller is no longer providing forced flow through the seal cartridge area.

a. CORRECT - PCS coolant flowing into the seal cavity is forced by the Seal impeller (also called Recirculation or
auxiliary impeller) through the integral heat exchanger where it is cooled to approximately 130°F.
b. Candidate misunderstands the function of the Piggyback impeller, which actually is mounted on top of the main
pump impeller and provides forced circulation for the hydrostatic bearing.
c. Candidate incorrectly believes that CCW is isolated when the pump loses power. When the loss of all offsite
power occurs, there is initially a load shed of the busses which power the CCW pumps. But as the EDGs start
and load, two CCW pumps will be sequenced on and continue to provide CCW flow through the seal heat
exchanger.
d. Candidate incorrectly believes CBO flow is affected by the loss of all offsite power, to such an extent as to cause a
rise in seal temperature indications.

6

With the plant at 60% power, a loss of all charging flow occurs. Why is it important to maintain the
secondary plant (main steam flow) as stable as possible until the problem has been corrected?
a. With the Pressurizer level now reducing at 44 gpm, a load rejection transient would accelerate
the level reduction.
b. VCT level will lower to the point where explosive hydrogen is released if main steam flow
rises.
c. Letdown temperature will damage the purification demineralizer resins if a load rejection
occurs.
d. With the Pressurizer level now reducing at 4 gpm, a rise in main steam flow will accelerate the
level reduction.

d. With the Pressurizer level now reducing at 4 gpm, a rise in main steam flow will accelerate the
level reduction.

a. Incorrect, since letdown will automatically isolate (via TICA-0201) as a result of high letdown temperature, which will result from the loss of charging flow through the Regenerative Heat Exchanger. Also, a reduction in steam
flow results in expansion of the primary coolant and a rise in PZR level.
b. Incorrect, VCT level will actually RISE at ~ 4gpm (PCP seal controlled bleedoff flow); letdown has isolated on high
temperature since there is no charging flow (cooling) through the Regenerative Heat Exchanger. Candidate
correctly diagnoses that a rise in main steam flow would result in a lower PZR level (shrinkage), but misapplies it
in relation to the VCT level.
c. Incorrect, since the letdown temperature sensing point (TICA-0201) which causes isolation of letdown is UPstream
of the CCW - cooled letdown heat exchanger. The protection for the demineralizer resins is from a sensing point
DOWNstream of this heat exchanger.
d. CORRECT

7

The following conditions exist:
• The plant is in Mode 5.
• P-67A, LPSI pump, is in service.
• While performing a PCS drain, the PCS level is inadvertently lowered to 618'0".
• Level is then stabilized with the drain secured.
The following then occurs:
• PCS temperatures begin to rise.
• SDC flow begins fluctuating between 1000 to 1500 gpm.
• EK-1162, "LPSI PP LOW DISCH PRESSURE" alarm is received.
Which of the following describes the required action?
a. Stop P-67A, and then start P-67B.
b. Start P-67B, and then stop P-67A.
c. Adjust CV-3025, SDC HX outlet valve, to stabilize PCS temperature.
d. Adjust LPSI injection MOVs to reduce SDC flow.

d. Adjust LPSI injection MOVs to reduce SDC flow.

a. INCORRECT – plausible if the student incorrectly believes that starting a different LPSI pump will restore SDC
flow to above the limit.
b. INCORRECT – plausible if the student incorrectly believes that starting a different LPSI pump will restore SDC
flow to above the limit and an interruption in SDC flow is not desired.
c. INCORRECT – plausible because throttling CV-3025 closed will help to minimize cavitation and flow fluctuation,
however, this is not a desirable action because CV-3006 (SDC HX Bypass) works with CV-3025 (SDC HX Outlet)
to control SDC temperature.
d. CORRECT

8

During power operations, the following equipment is operating:
• P-52C, Component Cooling Water (CCW) pump.
• C-54, Waste Gas Compressor.
A Component Cooling Water leak occurs on the valve body of MV-CC117, SFP HXS E-53A/B
CCW INLET, on the 10" header to the Spent Fuel Pool Heat Exchangers. The following valid
alarms are annunciating:
• EK-1172, COMPONENT CLG SURGE TANK T-3, HI-LO LEVEL
• EK-1368, RADWASTE PANEL C40 OFF NORMAL
• EK-1167, COMPONENT CLG PUMPS P-52A, P-52B, P-52C TRIP
CCW Surge Tank level continues to lower.
Which procedural action(s) will enable restoration of the Component Cooling Water system,
including restart of a Component Cooling Water Pump?
a. Align T-2, Condensate Storage Tank, to supply T-81, Primary System Makeup Tank, loads to
supply more makeup water to the CCW surge tank.
b. Close CV-0944, CCW TO RW Evaps and C-54, and close MV-CC184, SFP HX's, RW EVAPs,
& C-54 CCW Return.
c. Close CV-0944, CCW TO RW Evaps and C-54, and close CV-0977B, CCW RETURN FROM
RW EVAPS & C-54.
d. Close CV-0944A, CCW to Spent Fuel Pool & Radwaste Evaps, and close MV-CC184,
SFP HX's, RW EVAPs, & C-54 CCW Return.

d. Close CV-0944A, CCW to Spent Fuel Pool & Radwaste Evaps, and close MV-CC184,
SFP HX's, RW EVAPs, & C-54 CCW Return.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the CCW surge tank is not receiving enough makeup water
from T-81, PMU Tank. However, T-2 recirc pump cannot develop the head to force flow to the CCW surge tank
which is on the 649’ level. This will not help restore surge tank level to enable restart of the pump.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible because CV-0944 will isolate RW Evaps and C-54 but will not isolate the SFP HXs. This
will not isolate the leak
c. INCORRECT – Plausible because CV-0944 will isolate RW Evaps and C-54 and CV-0977B is the return for RW
Evaps and C-54 cooling water. This will not isolate the leak.
d. CORRECT

9

During a plant cooldown with PCS temperature at 460°F, the following alarm annunciates:
EK-0759, NO PCS PROTECTION CHANNEL A
Which one of the following indications will determine the validity of this alarm?
a. Subcooled Margin Monitor, SMM-0114, indicates > 25°F subcooling.
b. HS-0105A, PCS Overpressure Protection Channel A, is in DEFEAT.
c. MO-1042A, PRV-1042A PORV Block Valve, is open.
d. RED "TRIPPED" light on LTOP Channel A panel is lit.

b. HS-0105A, PCS Overpressure Protection Channel A, is in DEFEAT

INCORRECT – Plausible because LTOP helps to prevent a PTS condition and SMM will indicate how subcooled
the PCS is for the pressure.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT – Plausible because a PORV block valve being closed will cause this alarm, candidate misapplies
this.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that this light is actuated when the PCS is not protected. This
light is actuated when a PORV receives a signal to open.

10

For which type of Anticipated Transient Without Scram event will P-55A, Charging Pump, speed
controller (SIC-0216) output signal be expected to move in the MAXIMUM output direction, prior
to any operator action?
a. Loss of Load.
b. Containment High Pressure.
c. Steam Generator Low Pressure.
d. Pressurizer Low Pressure (TM/LP).

a. Loss of Load

a. CORRECT - If the reactor should have tripped on a Loss of Load, but did not, PCS heat removal is not occurring.
PCS inventory will expand as indicated on a rising Pressurizer level. The Pressurizer Level Control Program will
attempt to maintain Pressurizer level by reducing the speed of P-55A variable speed charging pump (controller
output moves toward maximum).
b. Whether the containment high pressure condition has resulted from a Main Steam Line Break, or from a LOCA,
the effect is the same on the PCS - a large amount of heat and/or inventory is being removed. Pressurizer level
will lower rapidly. The PLCS program will attempt to maintain pressurizer level by raising the speed of P-55A
(controller output goes to minimum).
c. Steam Generator Low Pressure results in a rapid removal of heat from the PCS. The effect will be shrinkage of
PCS inventory, lowering Pressurizer level, and a rising speed of P-55A (controller output moves toward minimum.)
d. A Pressurizer low pressure condition results from an overcooling of the PCS. This overcooling will cause
shrinkage of PCS inventory, with resulting PLCS control signals to P-55A variable speed charging pump to add
inventory. P-55A speed controller will reduce output to accomplish this (i.e., controller output will move toward the
minimum direction).

11

Which one of the following describes the design of the Main Steam Isolation Valves automatic
closure logic for a Main Steam Line Break inside containment?
a. EITHER Steam Generator pressure lowers to 500 psia AND Containment pressure rises to
4 psig.
b. BOTH Steam Generator pressures lower to 500 psia AND Containment pressure rises to
4 psig.
c. BOTH Steam Generator pressures lower to 500 psia OR Containment pressure rises to
4 psig.
d. EITHER Steam Generator pressure lowers to 500 psia OR Containment pressure rises to
4 psig.

d. EITHER Steam Generator pressure lowers to 500 psia OR Containment pressure rises to
4 psig.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that both S/G pressure and containment pressure must rise above
the setpoint to cause MSIV closure.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible for the same reason as ‘a’. Additionally, the student may believe that each MSIV is
closed by its respective pressure channels reaching 500 psia on 2/4.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that each MSIV is closed by its respective pressure channels
reaching 500 psia on 2/4.
d. CORRECT

12

Given the following conditions:
• EOP-7.0, Loss of All Feedwater, actions are in progress.
• "A" Steam Generator level is minus 90%.
• "B" Steam Generator level is minus 60%.
• The crew is preparing to use the Condensate Pumps for feeding the Steam Generators.
• Each Feed Regulating Bypass Valve (CV-0734, CV-0735) has been positioned to 20%
open as read on valve position indicators on panel C-01.
• Both Feed Regulating Valves are closed
• Feed pump discharge pressure = 500 psia.
• S/G pressure = 420 psia.
Which of the following describes whether the resulting amount of feed flow will be acceptable, and
why or why not?
a. Feed flow to EACH S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew may feed S/Gs at this rate
until levels are restored to between 60% - 70%.
b. Feed flow to NEITHER S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew must RAISE feed flow to
both S/Gs to avoid the potential for significant S/G tube bundle damage.
c. Feed flow to "B" S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew must RAISE feed flow to "A" S/G
to raise level above -84% to avoid the need to initiate once-through-cooling.
d. Feed flow to "B" S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew must REDUCE feed flow to "A"
S/G to avoid the potential for significant S/G tube bundle damage.

d. Feed flow to "B" S/G will be acceptable. The operating crew must REDUCE feed flow to "A"
S/G to avoid the potential for significant S/G tube bundle damage.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses the level for limiting feed flow with the level at which a S/G is
considered dry (-140%)
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that feed flow is not sufficient to either S/G.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible because feed flow to ‘B’ S/G is acceptable but with ‘A’ S/G less than -84% it is not
desirable to raise feed flow because the limit for this condition is 300 gpm
d. CORRECT

13

During a Station Blackout event, what is the optimal method of controlling PCS temperature
during natural circulation cooling?
a. Turbine Bypass Valve with PIC-0511 in AUTO.
b. Atmospheric Dump Valves with HIC-0780A in MANUAL.
c. Atmospheric Dump Valves with HIC-0780A in AUTO.
d. Turbine Bypass Valve with PIC-0511 in MANUAL.

b. Atmospheric Dump Valves with HIC-0780A in MANUAL.

a. Incorrect - With a loss of power, there are no Cooling Tower Pps. or Condensate Pumps, and the resulting loss of
Main Condenser vacuum will not allow use of the TBV.
b. CORRECT
c. Incorrect - The ADV controllers are not tuned for automatic mode during natural circ operations.
d. Incorrect - See explanation for 'a'.

14

A loss of offsite power has caused a reactor trip. A decision has been made to cooldown the
plant by Natural Circulation. The highest available temperature indication for the PCS is 455° F.
Which one of the following is the MINIMUM PCS pressure allowed in accordance with EOP-8.0,
Loss of Offsite Power/Forced Circulation Recovery?
a. 620 psia
b. 580 psia
c. 570 psia
d. 450 psia

c. 570 psia

a. Incorrect - Candidate incorrectly applies subcooling requirements with minimum pressure for PCP operation
because this is the min. pressure for PCP at 455F.
b. Incorrect - unnecessary conversion to psia (i.e., 566.15 + 14.7 = 580)
c. CORRECT EOP-8.0 requires at least 25° subcooling. Saturation pressure for 455°F = 444.33 psia. To obtain
the minimum required subcooling (25°) add 25° + 455° = 480°. This equates to a saturation pressure of 566.15
psia per Steam Tables.
d. An incorrect value which is slightly above saturation for given PCS temperature

15

Given the following conditions:
• The plant is in MODE 2.
• Charging Pump P-55A is operating.
• Charging Pumps P-55B and P-55C are in AUTO and OFF.
• All control systems are aligned normally and functioning properly.
• A loss of Instrument AC Bus Y-01 occurs.
Which of the following describes why ONP-24.5, "Loss of Instrument AC Bus Y01" directs the
operators to isolate PCP bleedoff from the Volume Control Tank (VCT) and realign it to the
Primary System Drain Tank?
a. Minimizes the likelihood of gas intrusion in to the PCP seals.
b. Minimizes the amount of pressure reduction in the VCT.
c. Prevents a complete draining of the VCT.
d. Prevents overfilling of the VCT.

d. Prevents overfilling of the VCT.

a. Candidate misinterprets the DIRECTION of inventory/energy exchange between VCT and PCP bleedoff.
b. Candidate misinterprets the DIRECTION of inventory/energy exchange between VCT and PCP bleedoff.
c. Candidate misinterprets interface between VCT and PCP seal bleedoff.
d. CORRECT - Since VCT outlet valve fails closed on loss of Y-01, there is no path out of the VCT. Continuing to
flow PCP bleedoff to the VCT will overfill it.

16

D/G 1-1 is in service fully loaded for a monthly surveillance test when breaker 72-302 (D/G 1-1
Field Flashing) on D-11A trips. Which one of the following describes the effect, if any, on D/G 1-1
and why?
a. No effect. Field current is provided by the generator voltage regulator automatically after
engine startup.
b. Diesel output breaker, 152-107, trips on undervoltage to protect the generator from
overcurrent due to the loss of voltage.
c. Diesel trips on overspeed. The loss of field current power causes a loss of generator load
which will result in an overspeed.
d. No effect. Field current is not required after the generator builds up sufficient voltage on
startup.

a. No effect. Field current is provided by the generator voltage regulator automatically after
engine startup.

a. CORRECT
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the generator cannot self-excite.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes the load will be dropped causing the diesel to trip on overspeed.
d. INCORRECT – the affect is correct but the reason is incorrect. Plausible if the student believes that field current
to the rotor is not required after the generator builds up voltage. Field current is always required, however, the
generator output will supply the field current after startup and not the field flashing circuit.

17

The plant is at 80% during a power ascension when the following alarm annunciates:
EK-1347, "CONTAINMENT AIR COOLERS SERV WATER LEAK"
The operator then takes all required Operator Actions of the alarm response procedure to attempt
to isolate the leak. After these actions are complete, it is noted that the alarm had NOT cleared.
Based on the above actions, which one of the following describes the location and minimum flow
rate of the leak?
a. The leak is NOT on a Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 700 gpm.
b. The leak is on ONE Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 300 gpm.
c. The leak is on ONE Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 700 gpm.
d. The leak is NOT on a Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 300 gpm.

d. The leak is NOT on a Containment Air Cooler and has a flow rate of at least 300 gpm.

a. INCORRECT – The fact that the leak in NOT on a CAC is correct, however, the alarm initiates at 300 gpm for a
service water leak. This is plausible if the student does not know the setpoint for the CAC service water leak
alarm, i.e., the student should know that 10% of total containment service water flow from a leak should not be the
setpoint.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student does not know that each CAC inlet is cycled one at a time to see if the
alarm clears.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student does not understand that each CAC inlet is cycled to check to see if the
alarm clears and if the student does not know the setpoint for the CAC service water leak alarm, i.e., the student
should know that 10% of total containment service water flow from a leak should not be the setpoint.
d. CORRECT

18

With the plant at full power, Instrument Air Compressor C-2A is RUNNING, C-2B and C-2C are in
AUTO and NOT running.
The following valid alarms annunciate:
• EK-1101, CONTAINMENT INSTR AIR LO PRESS
• EK-1102, INSTRUMENT AIR LO PRESS
• Several seconds later, EK-1103, SERVICE AIR LO PRESS annunciates.
Additional conditions:
• Instrument Air header pressure (as indicated on PIA-1210) has stabilized at 82 psig.
• ONLY C-2A is running. C-2B and C-2C are NOT running.
• Local pressure indication for all three Instrument Air Receiver Tanks has stabilized at
approximately 105 psig.
• No manual operator action has been taken.
What is occurring, and what is the effect on plant equipment?
a. An air leak on the Service Air system DOWNstream of Service Air header isolation CV-1212;
the Cooling Tower Pumps trip on low makeup basin level signal.
b. High differential pressure on the in-service Instrument Air post-filter (F-5A/B); Track
Alley/VRS sprinkler systems actuate.
c. A leak on the Instrument Air system UPstream of the Instrument Air Dryer; Main Transformer
deluge system actuates.
d. Instrument Air Dryer temperature at 300°F; various air operated control valves throughout the
plant will begin spuriously changing position.

b. High differential pressure on the in-service Instrument Air post-filter (F-5A/B); Track
Alley/VRS sprinkler systems actuate.

a. INCORRECT – If the leak is on service air system, containment and instrument air low pressure alarms would not
come in and the standby air compressors would start. This is plausible if the student believes that the leak is large
enough to affect the containment and instrument air systems.
b. CORRECT – this is the only possible choice that would cause service air isolation and the standby instrument air
compressors to not start.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses that the setpoint for standby compressor start (88#) with the
setpoint for low service air pressure (80#)
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that a high temperature on the air dryer desiccant has caused it to
malfunction.

19

While balancing rods during power ascension, the NCO releases the RAISE-LOWER switch and
a regulating rod continues withdrawing. EM OFF is then selected and rod motion stops. As a
result, the regulating rod is now 7 inches further withdrawn than any other rod in that group.
Which one of the following describes any expected rod deviation alarms, and any required
Limiting Condition of Operation (LCO) entry for control rod alignment per Technical
Specifications?
a. TWO rod deviation alarms are annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is required.
b. ONE rod deviation alarm is annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is required.
c. ONE rod deviation alarm is annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is NOT required.
d. NO rod deviation alarms are annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is NOT required.

c. ONE rod deviation alarm is annunciating on Panel C-12, and LCO entry is NOT required.

a. Candidate correctly recalls there are actually two rod position deviation alarms; (one for 4" deviation, and one for
8" deviation). However, in this case, candidate incorrectly recalls rod position associated with the alarms, and fails
to recognize that a 7" deviation does not require LCO entry.
b. Candidate correctly recognizes that only the 4" deviation alarm is annunciating, but incorrectly applies Tech.
Specs. for the condition.
c. CORRECT - Candidate recognizes that a 7" deviation means only one rod deviation alarm is annunciating, and
correctly applies the Tech. Spec. for this condition.
d. Candidate misapplies the condition to conclude that it requires an 8" deviation to generate an alarm, and further
misapplies Tech. Specs.

20

With the plant at 10% power, Wide Range Nuclear Instrument NI-3A fails high. Which one of the
following will occur and how is this confirmed?
a. The reactor will trip. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate auxiliary trip units for RPS channels 'A' and 'C'.
b. The reactor will remain at power with EK-0602A “HIGH POWER RATE CHANNEL TRIP”
annunciating. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate auxiliary
trip unit for RPS channel 'A'.
c. The reactor will trip. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate
auxiliary trip units for RPS channels 'B' and 'D'.
d. The reactor will remain at power with EK-0602A “HIGH POWER RATE CHANNEL TRIP”
annunciating. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate auxiliary
trip unit for RPS channel 'C'.

a. The reactor will trip. Check white pre-trip alarm and red trip alarm lights LIT on high rate
auxiliary trip units for RPS channels 'A' and 'C'.

a. CORRECT
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student does not understand that one WR NI will cause 2 out of 4 RPS channels to
trip.
c. INCORRECT – The plant would trip but the student fails to understand that NI-3A feeds RPS channels A and C.
d. INCORRECT - – Plausible if the student does not understand that one WR NI will cause 2 out of 4 RPS channels

21

Given the following plant conditions:
• The plant is in MODE 3.
• PCS Temperature is 532°F.
• PCS Pressure is 2060 psia.
• Triple charging and letdown are in service for PCS cleanup.
• A tube leak from ‘B’ Steam Generator of 5 gpm has occurred.
LCC-11 is then lost due to an overcurrent condition. Which one of the following describes the
response of Volume Control Tank level indication (1) before the loss of LCC-11 and (2) after the
loss of LCC-11? Assume no operator action occurs.
(1) (2)
a. decreases decreases
b. no change increases
c. decreases increases
d. increases no change

c. decreases increases

a. INCORRECT – VCT level before the loss of LCC-11 will lower but will increase after. Plausible if the student does
not understand the power supplies to the charging pumps and they believe that level will still lower because the
S/G tube leak still exists.
b. INCORRECT – VCT level will lower prior to loss of LCC-11. Plausible if the student believes that since PZR level
will remain constant, VCT level will remain constant.
c. CORRECT – Prior to the loss of LCC-11, VCT level indication is lowering because a S/G tube leak is occurring
and charging pump P-55A has increased its speed to make up for the leak. VCT level after the loss of LCC-11 will
rise because a charging pump has tripped but the orifice stop valves are still open.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate believes that triple letdown flow in addition to 4 gpm of PCP bleedoff
flow is greater than triple charging flow.

22

Why does the Alarm Response Procedure (ARP-8) for RIA-1810, East Eng Safeguard Radwaste
Isolation Vent Radiation Monitor, contain guidance that disallows the operators from selecting the
setpoint range to the 1.0E+6 scale?
a. Because the limit setting of Technical Specification 3.3.10, Engineered Safeguards Room
Ventilation (ESRV) Instrumentation, would be exceeded.
b. This action would isolate air flow to and from East Engineered Safeguards, which will result in
the room overheating if the plant is in Mode 1.
c. This action would start P-1810, East Engineered Safeguards Sample Pump, which will initiate
a diagnostic check of the sample flow path through RIA-1810.
d. During a Design Basis Accident, RIA-1810 is not capable of providing an alarm function on
this scale.

a. Because the limit setting of Technical Specification 3.3.10, Engineered Safeguards Room
Ventilation (ESRV) Instrumentation, would be exceeded.

a. CORRECT per reference
b. INCORRECT – Plausible because when this radiation monitor alarms, it closes ESG ventilation dampers to and
from Auxiliary Building ventilation, however SG is cooled by VHX-27A/B.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible because this switch starts the sample pump when taken out of the “off” position.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the radiation monitor is not sensitive enough to detect
abnormal radiation levels on this scale.

23

Given the following conditions:
• The plant is at 100% power.
• NO equipment is out of service.
• Bus 1C, 1D and 1E are being powered from Safeguards Bus.
A fire then occurs on the Startup Transformer 1-2. One of the alarms that has annunciated is:
• EK-0527, S/U XFMR NO. 1-2 SUDDEN PRESSURE
How will this fire be controlled and how is the plant affected?
a. Deluge actuation does not occur; the Fire Brigade must be used to fight this fire. The plant
will trip due to the Sudden Pressure relay actuation on S/U Transformer 1-2.
b. Deluge actuation will provide extinguishing water for this fire. The plant will trip due to the
Sudden Pressure relay actuation on S/U Transformer 1-2.
c. Deluge actuation will provide extinguishing water for this fire. The plant will NOT trip, but Rear
Bus de-energizes due to Sudden Pressure relay actuation.
d. Deluge actuation does not occur; the Fire Brigade must be used to fight this fire. The plant
will NOT trip, and Rear Bus remains energized.

c. Deluge actuation will provide extinguishing water for this fire. The plant will NOT trip, but Rear
Bus de-energizes due to Sudden Pressure relay actuation.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student does not comprehend that the sudden pressure relay actuates transformer
deluge.
b. INCORRECT – Deluge actuation will occur but the plant will not trip. Plausible if the student believes that a loss of
‘R’ bus will affect the 2400V buses.
c. CORRECT – Deluge actuation and loss of ‘R” bus will occur as a result of the sudden pressure relay logic. The
plant will not trip because the 2400 Volt buses are being powered from safeguards bus.
d. INCORRECT - Plausible if the student does not comprehend that the sudden pressure relay actuates transformer
deluge.

24

Given the following conditions:
• P-8B, Turbine Driven Aux. Feedwater Pump, is the only available operating AFW Pump.
• The Control Room has been evacuated due to a fire.
Auxiliary Shutdown Panel C-150 is being placed in service. What will be the effect on the
Auxiliary Feedwater components?
a. Any valid low suction pressure trip of P-8B must be reset at C-150.
b. P-8B will operate but the low suction pressure trip will not be available.
c. AFW Control Valves, CV-0727 and CV-0749, must be locally controlled.
d. CV-0522B, Steam Supply to P-8B, must be manually controlled locally.

b. P-8B will operate but the low suction pressure trip will not be available.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the low suction pressure trip will be available since it can
normally be reset in the control room with the handswitch.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that control of CV-0727 and 0749 is not available at C-150.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that P-8B cannot be controlled from C-150

25

During a normal plant shutdown:
• Both Main Feed Pumps have tripped.
• The plant is currently in MODE 3.
• All 4 Primary Coolant Pumps are in service.
• S/G Pressures are 1000 psia.
For the above conditions, which one of the following describes the minimum actions necessary for
ensuring the Auxiliary Feedwater System will provide the required flow for adequate core cooling?
a. If using P-8A or P-8B, the required flow will be met. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G pressure to
≤ 900 psia or secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.
b. If using P-8A or P-8B, reduce S/G pressure to ≤ 900 psia. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G
pressure to ≤ 900 psia or secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.
c. If using P-8A or P-8B, the required flow will be met. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G Pressure
to ≤ 900 psia and secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.
d. If using P-8A or P-8B, reduce S/G pressure to ≤ 900 psia. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G
pressure to ≤ 900 psia and secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.

a. If using P-8A or P-8B, the required flow will be met. If using only P-8C, reduce S/G pressure to
≤ 900 psia or secure all 4 Primary Coolant Pumps.

a. CORRECT
b. INCORRECT – P-8A and P-8B are the original AFW pumps and can provide the required flow up to the first safety
valve setting (1000 psia).
c. INCORRECT – If S/G pressure is greater than 900 psia and all PCPs are secured, P-8C can deliver the required
flow to remove core heat.
d. INCORRECT – same reasons as ‘b’ and ‘c’ combined

26

The crew is performing actions of ONP-23.1, “Primary Coolant Leak” in MODE 1 with the following
indications:
• PZR Level is 57% and lowering slowly.
• TAVE is 560°F and constant.
• Charging Pump P-55A is in service.
The Control Room Supervisor directs you to perform a PCS Leak Rate Calculation over a 15
minute time period. Which one of the following describes an appropriate method to perform this
leak rate calculation and the reason?
a. Estimate containment sump fill rate using 15 minute sump fill rate on PPC
(L_RATE_15MIN_SUMP). This is acceptable since any fluid entering the containment sump
is assumed to be the source of the leak.
b. Determine the VCT and PZR Level rate of change and convert to gallons/minute. This is
acceptable for a 15 minute period.
c. Subtract the sum of Letdown flow and Controlled Bleedoff flow from Charging flow. This is
acceptable due to only one charging pump in service.
d. Subtract the sum of Charging flow and Controlled Bleedoff

b. Determine the VCT and PZR Level rate of change and convert to gallons/minute. This is
acceptable for a 15 minute period.

a. INCORRECT – The containment sump fill rate on the PPC is not used because fluid other than PCS water could
enter sump or the leak could be outside containment and there is a time delay before the PCS reaches the sump.
b. CORRECT - because Tave is constant.
c. INCORRECT - PZR level is lowering slowly, ONP-23.1 does not allow this method.
d. INCORRECT –PZR level is lowering slowly, ONP-23.1 does not allow this method and CBO flow is on the wrong
side of the equation.

27

During implementation of EOP-9.0, Functional Recovery Procedure, which one of the following is
the lowest charging flow rate which will satisfy the reactivity control safety function?
a. 53 gpm
b. 44 gpm
c. 35 gpm
d. 25 gpm

c. 35 gpm

a. INCORRECT – Plausible because this is the maximum capacity of P-55A, variable speed charging pump.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible because this is the normal charging flow rate with single charging and letdown. 40 gpm
(letdown flow) + 4 gpm (PCP Bleedoff flow) = 44 gpm
c. CORRECT – EOP-9.0 attachment 1, page 2, RC-2
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses the SFSC criteria with the minimum charging pump speed.

28

Note the following recorder indication from PR-0130A, PCP P-50A Seal Pressure. Controlled
Bleedoff Flow is indicating 0 gpm. Which one of the following can be diagnosed regarding the
condition of the seals for P-50A, Primary Coolant Pump?
a. Only the 1st and 2nd stage seals have failed.
b. Only the 3rd and 4th stage seals have failed.
c. Only the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd stage seals have failed.
d. Only the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th stage seals have failed.

All lines go to 2100 #.

c. Only the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd stage seals have failed.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that when 1st and 2nd stages fail, they equalize with 3rd stage
pressure
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the 4th stage is closest to the PCS and the 3rd and 4th stage
equalize with the 2nd stage pressure.
c. CORRECT – Per ARP-5
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the 4th stage seal is closest to the PCS

29

The plant is in Mode 2 when Component Cooling Water is lost to the Letdown Heat Exchanger.
Which one of the following describes the automatic action that is expected to occur within the
Chemical and Volume Control System?
a. Letdown Containment Isolation Valve, CV-2009, closes.
b. Letdown Orifice Stop Valves, CV-2003, 2004, and 2005 close.
c. VCT Select, CV-2056, swaps to the 'TO CLEAN WASTE RCVR TANKS' position.
d. Ion Exchangers Bypass Valve CV-2023 swaps to the 'BYPASS' position.

d. Ion Exchangers Bypass Valve CV-2023 swaps to the 'BYPASS' position.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes there is design built in to the CVCS to protect the demineralizers
when CCW is lost by closure of the cont. isolation valve.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible because if the student believes that there is design built in to the CVCS to protect the
demineralizers when CCW is lost by closing Letdown orifice isolation valves.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible because letdown isolation valve, CV-2001, isolates letdown, but at a temperature of
460° F.
d. CORRECT -

30

The plant is on Shutdown Cooling with CV-3006, SDC HX Bypass Valve, throttled as needed. If
the air line to CV-3006 is damaged such that NO operating air is supplied, what would be the
resulting valve position and the reason for this design? CV-3006 would fail…
a. OPEN, to prevent overcooling the PCS.
b. CLOSED, to prevent runout of the operating LPSI pump.
c. OPEN, since that is the fail safe position for an SIAS.
d. CLOSED, since that is the fail safe position for a RAS.

c. OPEN, since that is the fail safe position for an SIAS.

a. INCORRECT – CV-3006 will fail open but not to prevent dead heading the LPSI pump. This is a plausible
situation because the SDC HX inlet or outlet valves may be closed, however each LPSI pump has a path for
recirculation back to the SIRWT to prevent dead-heading the pump.
b. INCORRECT – CV-3006 fails open on loss of air. Plausible because when the plant is on SDC, CV-3006 and CV-
3025 (SDC HX outlet) are throttled for temperature control.
c. CORRECT
d. INCORRECT – CV-3006 fails open on loss of operating air. This is plausible because during a RAS, maximum
cooling is desired via the SDC heat exchangers to cool the containment.

31

The following plant conditions exist:
• Plant is in MODE 6 with a PCS Temperature of 110°F.
• Reactor Cavity water level is 638’.
• Shutdown cooling is being provided by LPSI Pump, P-67A, with LPSI Pump, P-67B,
secured.
• While transferring LPSI Pumps for Shutdown Cooling, P-67B breaker 152-111, failed to
close after several attempts.
Which one of the following is the minimum action that is required to be taken immediately?
Restore P-67B breaker to operable status:
a. AND establish reactor cavity water level ≥ 647’.
b. AND close all containment penetrations providing direct access from containment to outside
atmosphere.
c. OR establish reactor cavity water level ≥ 647’.
d. OR close all containment penetrations providing direct access from containment to outside
atmosphere.

c. OR establish reactor cavity water level ≥ 647’

a. INCORRECT - If cavity is > 647 you only need one train operable and in service. If cavity is

32

Given the following conditions:
• Boric Acid Storage Tank, T-53A, level is 94%.
• An Auxiliary Operator has been designated as the Boric Acid batcher, and has a mixed
batch of Boric Acid (T-77, Boric Acid Batch Tank, is full) ready to release to T-53A.
Which one of the following describes how the shift must control and monitor this evolution?
a. The AO should release all the contents of T-77 to T-53A in order to ensure T-53A level is
above the low alarm setpoint. The AO notifies the Control Room when the transfer is
complete so that Chemistry sampling can be requested.
b. To prevent overflowing T-53A, the NCO and AO should discuss in advance on how much of
T-77 should be released. The AO monitors T-53A level from the batching room and
terminates the batch when T-53A level indicates 100%.
c. No transfer of T-77 to T-53A may occur since T-53A level is already at its high level alarm
setpoint.
d. Since there is no level indication for T-53A in the batching room, the AO must maintain close
communication with the NCO. Only part of T-77 may be released to T-53A, in order to avoid a
nuisance high level alarm for T-53A.

d. Since there is no level indication for T-53A in the batching room, the AO must maintain close
communication with the NCO. Only part of T-77 may be released to T-53A, in order to avoid a
nuisance high level alarm for T-53A.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible because the first low level alarm setpoint is 94.5%
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes the AO has indication of level in the boric acid batching room.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses the first low level alarm setpoint of 94.5% with the high level
alarm setpoint of 98%.
d. CORRECT

33

Given the following conditions:
• The plant is at 100% power.
• Quench Tank pressure is 8 psig and rising slowly.
• Quench Tank level is 64% and stable.
The Quench Tank rupture disc will discharge to containment when pressure rises to (1) ______.
The operator needs to (2) ______.
a. (1) 25 psig
(2) Vent the Quench Tank to the Containment Vent Header using ARP-4, Primary System
Volume Level Pressure.
b. (1) 100 psig
(2) Vent the Quench Tank to the Waste Gas Surge Tank, using SOP-1A, Primary Coolant
System.
c. (1) 25 psig
(2) Drain the Quench Tank to the Equipment Drain Tank to reduce level and pressure, using
SOP-17A, Clean Radioactive Waste System.
d. (1) 100 psig
(2) Drain the Quench Tank to the Primary System Drain Tank to reduce level and pressure,
using SOP-1A, Primary Coolant System.

b. (1) 100 psig
(2) Vent the Quench Tank to the Waste Gas Surge Tank, using SOP-1A, Primary Coolant
System.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses the rupture disk setpoint with the top scale of Quench Tank
pressure indicator, PIA-0116
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT - Plausible if the student confuses the rupture disk setpoint with the top scale of Quench Tank
pressure indicator, PIA-0116
d. INCORRECT – The setpoint is correct, however with level stable if water is drained from the tank to the radwaste
system, level may be low out of spec. Plausible if the student believes that this level is too high (normal is 70%).

34

Which one of the following describes operational aspects of PCS hydrogen removal using
mechanical degasification during a cooldown in preparation for a Refueling Outage?
a. PCS subcooling is maintained LOW to enhance hydrogen removal, and is terminated when
PCS hydrogen is

a. PCS subcooling is maintained LOW to enhance hydrogen removal, and is terminated when
PCS hydrogen is

35

The Plant is in Mode 1 with all equipment in the normal configuration when the following occurs:
• A loss of off-site power coincident with a Safety Injection Actuation.
• Both D/Gs start and sequence loads per design.
Two minutes later, CCW Pump, P-52B, trips with a resultant CCW header pressure of 68 psig.
Which one of the following describes the effect on CCW Pump, P-52C, and the appropriate action
to take?
a. Will auto start. Verify P-52C discharge pressure >115 psig.
b. Will auto start. Check for excessive loading on D/G 1-1.
c. Will NOT auto start. Manually start P-52C and ensure acceptable loading on D/G 1-1.
d. Will NOT auto start. Reduce CCW loads to avoid a runout condition on P-52A.

c. Will NOT auto start. Manually start P-52C and ensure acceptable loading on D/G 1-1.

a. INCORRECT – P-52C will not auto start. Plausible if the student believes that the DBA sequencer start signal and
the low pressure signal do not need to be present at the same time. 115 psig is the discharge pressure limit for 2
pump operation per SOP-16.
b. INCORRECT – P-52C will not auto start. . Plausible if the student believes that the DBA sequencer start signal
and the low pressure signal do not need to be present at the same time. Two CCW pumps running on one EDG
could make loading on the EDG high.
c. CORRECT – The DBA sequencer will start P-52C only if pressure at the time of sequence (40 seconds) is

36

Which one of the following describes the importance of having Spray Bypass Needle Valves
(MV-PC1056 and MV-PC1058) throttled open 2 turns, as required by procedure?
a. Provides faster response for Pressurizer pressure control by raising the differential pressure
across the main spray valves.
b. Maintains equal boron concentration between the Pressurizer and the PCS in case of main
spray valve closure.
c. Ensures the Pressurizer hydrogen concentration is equal to that of the PCS, by continually
mixing PCS and Pressurizer inventory, in case of main spray valve closure.
d. Ensures Auxiliary Spray function is maintained ready for emergency use if needed, by
continual flow through the Auxiliary Spray header.

b. Maintains equal boron concentration between the Pressurizer and the PCS in case of main
spray valve closure.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible because the reason stated is why the plant operates with full heaters to allow the main
spray valves to be throttled.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT – Plausible because the student will believe that H2 concentration will be continuously changing due
to dilutions.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible because charging temperature is much lower than PCS temperature Student may
believe that the reason for the spray bypass flow is to minimize thermal shock.

37

The following plant conditions exist:
• The plant is at full power.
• 'B' Channel Pressurizer pressure controller, PIC-0101B, is controlling in AUTO.
• 'A' Channel PZR Pressure Transmitter, PT-0101A, bellows ruptures.
Primary Coolant System pressure indication on PIC-0101A will:
a. Lower.
b. Not change because PIC-0101A is not selected as the in service controller.
c. Rise.
d. Not change because PIC-0101A will swap and receive pressure signal from PT-0101B.

a. Lower.

a. CORRECT
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the indication signal is blocked with the controller switch.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses indication with actual pressure, i.e., lowering pressure will
energize all heaters and close spray valves.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the controller will swap to the other PT upon failure of the
inservice PT.

38

The Reactor Protection System (RPS) Trip Unit Red Matrix lamps may only be replaced as part of
a planned work activity in order to prevent:
a. a shorted bulb causing a reactor trip from a loss of two Matrix Logic Ladder power supplies.
b. grounding an RPS trip unit causing a potential for an Anticipated Transient Without Scram.
c. an unplanned Action Statement entry due to rendering a trip unit inoperable.
d. personnel injury from the electrical shock hazard associated with a shorted component.

a. a shorted bulb causing a reactor trip from a loss of two Matrix Logic Ladder power supplies.

a. CORRECT
b. INCORRECT – Plausible because the RPS is designed to operate as an ungrounded system. The matrix lights
also serve as ground detection circuits.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that removing a matrix lamp causes the trip unit to be inoperable.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible because many components of the RPS operate at voltages >50V.

39

From power operations, a transient occurs that requires the operators to manually trip the reactor.
The manual pushbutton methods of tripping the reactor (on Panels C-02 and C-06) have NOT
been successful and the operators have determined that the following action is required:
• OPEN CRD Clutch Power Feeder Breakers 42-1RPS and 42-2RPS.
When 42-1RPS and 42-2RPS are opened, which one of the following indications do the control
operators expect to see in the Control Room, including indicating lamps on individual Clutch
Power Supply panels (Panel C-06), and the RED tile annunciator for EK-0972, Reactor Trip, on
panel C-12?

PANEL C-06 C-12
AC ON DC ON TRIP EK-0972
(White) (White) (RED) (Red tile)
A. OFF OFF OFF ON
B. ON OFF ON OFF
C. OFF OFF ON ON
D. ON OFF OFF OFF

C. OFF OFF ON ON

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the red “trip” light is powered from downstream of RPS
breakers 42-1 and 42-2.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the “AC” and red “trip” lights are powered from upstream of
RPS breakers 42-1 and 42-2.
c. CORRECT
d. INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that the “AC” and K3 are powered from upstream of RPS breakers
42-1 and 42-2.

1. K3 relay actuates the RED tile alarm for Reactor Trip.
2. The RED "Trip" light at bottom of C-06 (for each of the four Clutch Power Supplies) comes ON when 42-1 and
42-2 are opened.
3. The A-C ON and D-C ON WHITE lights go OFF when 42-1 and 42-2 opened.
4. When K3 is de-energized (due to opening 42-1 AND 42-2, the RED tile alarm for Reactor Trip annunciates

40

The plant has experienced a loss of Preferred AC Bus Y-10. Which one of the following describes
the minimum logic necessary to automatically initiate Recirculation Actuation (RAS) on low
SIRWT Level?
a. BOTH level switches powered from the left channel reach a low level setpoint.
b. BOTH level switches powered from the right channel reach a low level setpoint.
c. ANY level switch powered from the right channel reaches a low level setpoint.
d. ANY level switch powered from the left channel reaches a low level setpoint.

c. ANY level switch powered from the right channel reaches a low level setpoint.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that a single train of preferred AC can cause a RAS
b. INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes that a single train of preferred AC can cause a RAS and that Y-10
being de-energized has not already satisfied one left train switch criteria.
c. CORRECT – Because Y-10 is de-energized, LSX-0327 is now in a “tripped” state. If LSX-0328 or LSX-0330
reach a low level setpoint, the logic is met for a RAS to occur.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that just the left train switches can cause a RAS

41

With the plant initially at full power, a Design Basis Accident occurs. Both Emergency Diesel
Generators start. The right channel DBA sequencer actuates, but the left channel DBA
sequencer fails to actuate. Which one of the following lists the expected indications for
Containment Air Cooler fans?
a. ALL 'A' fans OFF; ALL 'B' fans OFF.

b. ALL 'A' fans ON; ALL 'B' fans OFF.

c. V-1A, V-2A, V-3A ON, V-4A and all ‘B’ fans OFF.

d. V-4A ON, V-1A, V-2A, V-3A and all ‘B’ fans OFF.

c. V-1A, V-2A, V-3A ON, V-4A and all ‘B’ fans OFF.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the left train DBA sequencer starts all four CAC ‘A’ fans.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the right train DBA sequencer starts all four CAC ‘A’ fans.
c. CORRECT
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student misapplies the DBA sequencer function and believes that only the ‘A’ fan
associated with CAC V-4 is sequenced ON.

42

Given the following conditions:
• A LOCA is in progress.
• RAS has occurred due to a low SIRW tank level.
• CHP has automatically initiated.
• Containment pressure is 3.5 psig and lowering.
• Equipment is functioning per design with the exception of:
o Containment Spray Pump, P-54B, is out of service for maintenance.
o Containment Spray Pump, P-54C, tripped and will not restart.
What are the required actions for the above conditions, and what will be the effect on containment
cooling?
a. Trip BOTH HPSI Pumps and close ONE containment spray valve. Containment cooling
capability will be reduced by 50%.
b. Trip ONE HPSI Pump and close ONE containment spray valve. Containment cooling will
remain adequate for plant conditions.
c. Trip ONE HPSI Pump and close ONE containment sump isolation valve. Containment cooling
will be reduced by approximately 25%.
d. Operate BOTH HPSI Pumps. Close ONE containment spray valve. Containment cooling
capability will remain adequate for plant conditions.

b. Trip ONE HPSI Pump and close ONE containment spray valve. Containment cooling will
remain adequate for plant conditions.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the remaining spray pump can only supply containment
cooling and not both containment cooling and a HPSI pump.
b. CORRECT - The required operator action is to secure one HPSI pump and close one Containment Spray valve.
Per EOP Supplement 42, step 2.0.1.i, if only one Containment Spray Pump is operating, we need to secure one
HPSI pump and one Containment Spray valve.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that ‘B’ and ‘C’ spray pumps suction path needs to be isolated to
satisfy single failure criteria.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student does not understand that the spray pumps supply subcooling to the HPSI
pumps during RAS.

43

Consider a Large Break LOCA with a concurrent loss of CCW to Engineered Safeguards. Which
one of the following describes the effect, if any, on operation of the Containment Spray Pumps
based on cooling of the pump seals? (Assume Service Water Backup cooling is NOT available.)
a. Can be operated as needed throughout the event with minimal effect on pump seals.
b. Approximately 10 minutes after Safety Injection Signal occurs pump seal failure is expected to
occur.
c. Approximately 10 minutes after Recirculation Actuation Signal occurs pump seal failure is
expected to occur.
d. Cannot be operated since Service Water backup cooling is not available.

c. Approximately 10 minutes after Recirculation Actuation Signal occurs pump seal failure is
expected to occur.

a. Candidate fails to recognize that once RAS occurs, the CSS pumps will be taking suction on the containment
sump, with water temperatures exceeding 325° F. There is a common misconception that these pumps can
operated indefinitely without cooling water, when the vendor has specified a limiting time at maximum
temperature.
b. Candidate misapplies knowledge of the effects of SIAS, and believes that reduced cooling occurs.
c. CORRECT - Once RAS occurs (and it will, for a Large Break LOCA), the CSS pumps suction source is now in
excess of 325° F. Per the seal manufacturer, life of the seals at this temperature is reduced to only 10 minutes.
d. Candidate misapplies knowledge of the sequence of a Large Break LOCA (i.e., it will be some period of time
before RAS occurs). Until then, the CSS pumps are taking suction from the relatively cool water in the SIRW tank.
During this time seals are not affected.

44

Given the following conditions:
• An uncomplicated reactor trip occurred from 100% power 1 hour ago.
• EOP-1.0, “Standard Post Trip Actions”, and EOP-2.0, “Reactor Trip Recovery”, have been
completed.
• PCS Temperature is being maintained with the Turbine Bypass Valve in AUTO.
A Steam Generator tube leak occurs on the ‘B’ S/G. All of the following radiation monitors will aid
in diagnosing that a Steam Generator Tube Leak event is occurring EXCEPT:
a. RIA 2325/2326, Radioactive Gaseous Effluent Monitor.
b. RIA-0631, Condenser Off-Gas Monitor.
c. RIA-0707, Steam Generator Blowdown Monitor.
d. RIA-2323, ‘B’ S/G Main Steam Line Monitor.

d. RIA-2323, ‘B’ S/G Main Steam Line Monitor.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that there is no path to the stack. There is a path to the stack via
air ejector off-gas flow since condenser vacuum is being maintained.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible for same reason as distractor ‘a’
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that S/G blowdown flow is not in service since the plant is in
MODE 3.
d. CORRECT

45

Refer to the below P&ID. Valve packing has been adjusted for MV-MS577A, MSR E-9A MS
Drain. It is desired by the work group to OPEN MV-MS577, MSR E-9A MS Drain Isolation,
overnight to monitor the effectiveness of the valve packing adjustment. MV-MS577 position is
NOT controlled by the work order. Which one of the following is one of the actions the off-going
NCO is required to perform?
a. Prepare an Operating Permit tag to hang on MV-MS577.
b. Ensure MV-MS577 position is added to the Secondary AO turnover sheet.
c. Ensure a Temporary Modification tag is provided to the oncoming NCO for hanging on
MV-MS577.
d. Make appropriate entry into the Equipment and System Operational
Guidance/Recommendation Book.

b. Ensure MV-MS577 position is added to the Secondary AO turnover sheet.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student misapplies the use of an operating permit. Operating permits are used for
control of equipment that is removed from service for worker protection but the work group needs to operate the
equipment.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that since the valve is out of position for greater than one shift, it requires a temporary modification tag.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that guidance can be added to the ESO/GR concerning operation of MV-MS577.

46

The plant is operating at 60% power with the Steam Generator Level Control System in
automatic, when Annunciator EK-0961, “STEAM GEN E-50A HI LEVEL” alarms.
Which one of the following sets of indications would be expected immediately for the above plant
conditions?

CV-0701, FRV, Position 'A' S/G level
Indicator, POI-0701

a. Lowering 55%
b. Rising 85%
c. Rising 55%
d. Lowering 85%

d. Lowering 85%

a. INCORRECT - Correct response, but incorrect setpoint. Plausible if the student believes that the high alarm
setpoint for ‘A’ S/G level is 55%
b. INCORRECT - Incorrect response, but correct setpoint. Plausible if the student does not understand that the high
level override occurs as an automatic action of high level in S/G at 85%.
c. INCORRECT - Incorrect response and incorrect setpoint. Plausible if the student believes that the cause of the
alarm is a failed open feed reg valve and they believe the high level alarm occurs at 55%
d. CORRECT - Valve controller output lowers due to a signal from Hi Level Override circuit.

47

From full power, a Loss of All Offsite Power occurs. D/G 1-1 did not start automatically, and will
not start manually. Which Auxiliary Feedwater Pump(s) will be operating 1 minute after an
Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal occurs? (Assume all equipment functions as designed)
a. ONLY AFW Pump P-8A.
b. ONLY AFW Pump P-8B.
c. AFW Pumps P-8B and P-8C.
d. ONLY AFW Pump P-8C.

d. ONLY AFW Pump P-8C.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that P-8A is powered from DG 1-2.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that P-8B will start second in the sequence of AFAS
c. INCORRECT - Plausible if the student believes P-8B will start second and P-8C starts in addition to P-8B
d. CORRECT

48

Given the following conditions:
• A reactor trip from full power occurred 50 minutes ago.
• AFAS automatically actuated.
• Auxiliary Feedwater Pump P-8A is running and delivering 165 gpm to each S/G.
• P-8C is in AUTO, and not running.
• Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal (AFAS) has NOT been reset.
• 'A' S/G level is 68%, 'B' S/G level is 60%.
Then, flow to 'A' S/G (via FIC-0749) is manually reduced to 90 gpm and flow to 'B' S/G (via FIC-
0727) is manually reduced to 110 gpm.
Which one of the following describes the expected response of AFW Pump P-8C, AND the reason
for that response?
a. Not start automatically, since P-8A is running and S/G levels are both greater than the
minimum required.
b. Not start automatically, since P-8A is running and AFW flow satisfies the minimum required.
c. Start automatically, since one S/G level is outside of the normal band.
d. Start automatically, since AFW flow is less than the minimum required.

b. Not start automatically, since P-8A is running and AFW flow satisfies the minimum required.

a. INCORRECT – Response is correct but reason incorrect. Plausible if the student believes that AFW pump start
criteria are based on S/G levels.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT – Response and reason are incorrect. Plausible if the student believes that AFW pump start criteria
are based on S/G levels and one is outside of the band.
d. INCORRECT – Incorrect response but correct reason. Plausible if the student believes that flow to one S/G needs
to be

49

With the plant operating at normal full power conditions, Bus 13 (LCC-13) develops an
overcurrent condition and trips. Which one of the following describes the effect on Emergency
Diesel Generator 1-1? EDG 1-1 will experience a loss of ....
a. power to room heater, VUH-27.
b. alternate power to supply fans, V-24A/B.
c. alternate power to starting air compressor, C-3A.
d. power to pre-lube pump, P-905A.

b. alternate power to supply fans, V-24A/B.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the room heater is powered from LCC-13.
b. CORRECT –
c. INCORRECT – Plausible because there is an alternate method of obtaining starting air if the normal power supply
to the air compressor, C-3A, is lost. This method, however, is to use a gasoline engine.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the pre-lube pump is powered from LCC-13.

50

The plant is at 100% power operations with Station Battery Chargers #1 and #2 in service. The #1
DC Bus Tie Breaker 72-10 fails open.
Which one of the following describes the condition of the DC Bus loads?
a. Only Preferred AC Bus Y-10 will be de-energized.
b. All Preferred AC Buses will remain energized.
c. Only DC Bus D-10L loads will remain energized.
d. All DC Bus D-10L loads will be de-energized.

d. All DC Bus D-10L loads will be de-energized

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that Inverter #1 is powered from D-10L.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that both left channel inverters are powered from D-10R.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the battery ties in to D-10L instead of D-10R.
d. CORRECT

51

Given the following plant conditions:
• The plant is at full power.
• Fuel Oil Transfer Pump P-18B is tagged out for maintenance.
• Due to Chemistry sampling, D/G 1-2 Fuel Oil Day Tank T-25B level has lowered.
• Fuel Oil Transfer Pump P-18A has automatically started and is pumping fuel oil to T-25B.
While this fuel oil transfer is in progress the following occurs:
• A Loss of All Offsite Power occurs.
• D/G 1-1 FAILS to automatically start and will NOT start manually.
• D/G 1-2 starts and loads per design.
When D/G 1-2 loading sequence is complete, fuel oil transfer to T-25B will resume …
a. as a result of D/G 1-2 loading as designed.
b. ONLY if MCC-8 is reenergized by manual action.
c. ONLY if MCC-2 is reenergized by manual action.
d. as a result of gravity feed from T-10A, Fuel Oil Tank.

b. ONLY if MCC-8 is reenergized by manual action.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that MCC-8 will be sequenced as a result of D/G 1-2 loading.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that P-18A is powered from MCC-2.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that T-10A can gravity feed to T-25B. This could be a common
misconception because flow from T-25B to D/G 1-2 belly tank occurs as a result of gravity feed.

52

An authorized Waste Gas Batch Release of Waste Gas Decay Tank T-101A, has just been
initiated, and then automatically stopped. EK-1364, GASEOUS WASTE MONITORING HI
RADIATION, has annunciated due to actuation of RIA-1113, Waste Gas Discharge Process
Monitor. It is desired to restart the batch release.
How is the batch release restarted, and where are the controls located?
a. RAISE the alarm setpoint for RIA-1113 on Main Control Room Panel C-11 (rear) AND restart
the in service Main Exhaust Fan.
b. RAISE the alarm setpoint for RIA-1113 on Radwaste Panel C-40 AND push CV-1123 High
Radiation Reset on Main Control Room Panel C-11 (rear).
c. PUSH CV-1123 High Radiation Reset on Radwaste Panel C-40, AND restart the in service
Main Exhaust Fan.
d. RAISE the alarm setpoint for RIA-1113 on Main Control Room Panel C-11 (rear) AND push
CV-1123 High Radiation Reset on Radwaste Panel C-40.

d. RAISE the alarm setpoint for RIA-1113 on Main Control Room Panel C-11 (rear) AND push
CV-1123 High Radiation Reset on Radwaste Panel C-40.

INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the Main Exhaust fan is automatically tripped when RIA-1113
alarms. This could be a common misconception because if a Main Exhaust fan trips, operators are directed to
immediately secure a waste gas batch.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses the locations for RIA-1113 and the High Rad Reset pushbutton
for CV-1123.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible for same reason as distractor ‘a’.
d. CORRECT

53

If the Turbine Bldg. were to experience a loss of Non-Critical Service water due to a piping system
malfunction, which annunciators would alert the control room operators that a reactor trip was
required?
a. EK-0260 H2 Cooler Hi Temp, and EK-1165 Non-Critical Serv Water Lo Press.
b. EK-0259 Exciter Cooler Hi Temp, and EK-1165 Non-Critical Serv Water Lo Press.
c. EK-0156/62 Condensate Pump Hi Temp, and EK-0259 Exciter Cooler Hi Temp.
d. EK-0259 Exciter Cooler Hi Temp, and EK-0260 H2 Cooler Hi Temp.

b. EK-0259 Exciter Cooler Hi Temp, and EK-1165 Non-Critical Serv Water Lo Press.

a. INCORRECT – EK-1165 is correct but EK-0260 is incorrect. Plausible because EK-1165 is associated with the
Main Generator instead of the exciter.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT – EK-0259 is correct but EK-0156/0162 is incorrect. Plausible because if the condensate pumps are
under distress, MFPs could trip leading to a reactor trip.
d. INCORRECT – EK-0259 is correct but EK-0260 is incorrect. Plausible for same reason as distractor ‘a’.

54

Instrument Air Compressor, C-2A, is in operation with Instrument Air Compressor, C-2C, in
AUTO. Instrument Air Compressor, C-2B, is tagged out for maintenance. An air leak caused air
header pressure to lower to 85 psig. The air leak was subsequently isolated, at which time
header pressure returned to 110 psig. How would C-2C respond to this instrument air pressure
transient? C-2C will...
a. not auto-start during this instrument air transient.
b. auto-start and continue to run unloaded until placed in OFF and returned to AUTO.
c. auto-start, but will stop after running unloaded for a period of time.
d. auto-start and run fully loaded until placed in OFF and returned to AUTO.

c. auto-start, but will stop after running unloaded for a period of time.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the setpoint for standby start for the air compressors is

55

Following a Loss of Coolant Accident inside Containment, Containment Pressure peaked at 3.5
psig and containment radiation peaked at 12R/Hr. Which of the following valves would you
expect to have automatically CLOSED?
a. MSIVs, Containment Purge Exhaust Valves, and S/G Blowdown Isolation Valves.
b. Nitrogen to Containment Isolation Valve, Primary System Drain Tank Outlet Valves, and
Component Cooling Water to Containment Isolation Valves.
c. S/G Blowdown Isolation Valves, Containment Sump Drain Isolation Valves, and Primary
Sampling Isolation Valves.
d. Hydrogen Monitor Isolation Valves, Feed Regulating Bypass Valves, and Shield Cooling
Surge Tank Fill Valve.

c. S/G Blowdown Isolation Valves, Containment Sump Drain Isolation Valves, and Primary
Sampling Isolation Valves.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that a Containment High pressure actuation occurred.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes a CHP actuation occurred or that a CHR will close CCW isolation
valves
c. CORRECT
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that either a CHP actuation occurred or that the FRV bypass
valves are closed by a CHR.

56

During a plant shutdown for a refueling outage, the reactor is at 28% power, and TAVE is at 540° F.
Due to a failure, LIC-0101B, PZR Level Controller, output signal is at MAXIMUM output (see
below picture of LIC-0101B). The operator must take corrective action to address which one of
the following concerns?
a. Pressurizer LOW level with potential de-energization of ALL Pressurizer heaters.
b. Pressurizer HIGH level with the potential to exceed Technical Specifications for level.
c. Pressurizer HIGH level with potential to exceed alarm setpoint for high pressure.
d. Pressurizer LOW level with the potential to exceed Technical Specifications for level.

Picture shows LIC-0101B setpoint fails high.

a. Pressurizer LOW level with potential de-energization of ALL Pressurizer heaters.

a. CORRECT
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the failure of the controller will result in an actual high PZR
level. Actual level is lowering due to the response of the PLCS.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible for the same reason as distractor ‘b’
d. INCORRECT – Response is correct but reason is incorrect. Plausible if the student believes that there is a tech
spec limit for PZR low level.

57

Question:
With the plant at 10% power during power ascension, EK-0971, “SPI TROUBLE” annunciates in
the control room and has been verified valid. Which one of the following describes the impact on
the Rod Position Indication System and the required action?
a. Loss of control rod sequencing. Manually sequence rods per SOP-6, “Reactor Control
System”, and verify the position of each control rod to be within 8 inches of all other control
rods in its group per LCO 3.1.4, “Control Rod Alignment”
b. Loss of PPC control rod position indication processing from control rod reed switches. Verify
the position of each control rod to be within 8 inches of all other control rods in its group per
LCO 3.1.4, “Control Rod Alignment”.
c. Loss of Shutdown Rod upper electrical limit (UEL) status on Rod Matrix display (C-12). Use
Primary Position Indication (PIP) Node for monitoring Control Rod positions and limits per
ARP-5 “Primary Coolant Pump Steam Generator and Rod Drives”.
d. Loss of Power and Pre-Power Dependent Insertion Limit (PDIL, PPDIL) Processing. Verify
each regulating rod group is within its withdrawal sequence, overlap and insertion limits per
LCO 3.1.6 “Regulating Rod Group Position Limits”.

b. Loss of PPC control rod position indication processing from control rod reed switches. Verify
the position of each control rod to be within 8 inches of all other control rods in its group per
LCO 3.1.4, “Control Rod Alignment”.

a. INCORRECT - Control rod sequencing is not lost due to the fact that the PIP will perform this function per LCO
bases 3.1.4 page 2. Plausible because the SPI node normally uses synchro output developed by the PIP to
process control rod sequencing.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT - It is true that the upper most reed switch assembly closes to provide this light; the light is not
processed by the SPI. Plausible because the reed switch which is associated with the SPI is used to provide
the indication that shutdown rods have reached their UEL.
d. INCORRECT - PDIL and PPDIL processing is not lost due to the fact that the PIP will perform this function per
LCO bases 3.1.6 page 5. Plausible because the SPI node normally uses synchro output developed by the PIP
to process PDIL and PPDIL limits.

58

The plant is at 100% power. RPS Channel B for ‘A’ Steam Generator Low Level is BYPASSED
due to a failure of LI-0751B.
Which one of the following additional instrument failures will result in a Reactor trip? (Assume no
operator action.)
a. LI-0751A fails LOW.
b. LI-0751A fails HIGH.
c. LIA-0702 fails LOW.
d. LIA-0702 fails HIGH.

LIC-0702 (HLO and 4 S/G level LIAs shown.)

d. LIA-0702 fails HIGH.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible because there are now 2 channels that feed the RPS that exceed a setpoint, however, a
trip will not be processed because RPS channel ‘B’ is bypassed.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible because there are now 2 channels that feed the RPS that exceed a setpoint, however,
RPS channel ‘B’ is bypassed and there is no RPS trip for high S/G level.
c. INCORRECT - Plausible because there are now 2 channels that feed the RPS that exceed a setpoint, however,
RPS channel ‘B’ is bypassed and LIA-0702 does not provide an input to RPS.
d. CORRECT – If LIA-0702 fails high, the feed regulating valve associated with ‘A’ S/G would close which
would cause an actual low level condition. An RPS trip would be generated from the remaining 3
channels that are not bypassed.

59

Question:
P-82, Spent Fuel Pool Booster Pump is operating and circulating Spent Fuel Pool water through
T-50, SFP Demineralizer. A high differential pressure across T-50 occurs. Which of the following
describes the consequences of this condition?
a. An alarm annunciates in the Control Room and T-50 is automatically bypassed.
b. The Spent Fuel Pool begins heating up since recirculation flow is now restricted.
c. An alarm annunciates at Radwaste Panel C-40, and the resins need to be changed out.
d. P-82, Spent Fuel Pool Booster Pump trips on low suction pressure due to the restriction

c. An alarm annunciates at Radwaste Panel C-40, and the resins need to be changed out.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate believes there is an interlock for auto bypassing of the demineralizer.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate has an inaccurate recall of system design by believing all the
recirculating cooling flow from the SFP goes through the demineralizer. In fact, only a small portion (~100 gpm)
flows through the demin.
c. CORRECT - Per the reference.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate believes there is an interlock for auto tripping of the booster pump.

60

During fuel moves inside the containment, RIA-2316, Fuel Handling Area Monitor #1 fails and
reads upscale high. Which one of the following describes the effect, if any, on the refueling
machine?
a. A containment isolation occurs which causes the refueling machine grapple assembly to lose
instrument air.
b. A containment isolation occurs which causes the refueling machine mast to lose lubricating
water (PMU).
c. The refueling machine will continue to operate normally.
d. Fuel Handling Area Monitor alarm will cause the refueling machine computer to disable the
mast assembly.

c. The refueling machine will continue to operate normally.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that instrument air is isolated to the containment for a CHR
actuation.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that primary makeup water is isolated to the containment for a
CHR actuation.
c. CORRECT - Candidate must be able to recognize the importance of maintaining the capability to place fuel
in a safe position even with a Containment High Radiation signal.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that there is an interlock between the fuel handling containment
radiation monitors and the refueling machine computer.

61

From full power plant conditions, the following occurs:
• Main Turbine vibration rises rapidly due to several turbine blades puncturing the turbine
casing.
• A rapid complete loss of Main Condenser vacuum occurs.
• The Turbine NCO verifies the Main Turbine has tripped.
• The Reactor FAILS to trip automatically or manually.
• The crew takes appropriate actions for reactivity control, and reactor power is lowering.
• The Atmospheric Dump Valves FAIL to actuate.
What is the effect of the above conditions on the plant secondary system?
a. Main Steam Safety Valves operate to maintain secondary system pressure at less than 110%
of design pressure.
b. Turbine Bypass Valve operates to maintain secondary system pressure at less than design
pressure.
c. Main Steam Isolation Valves close to prevent excessive depressurization of the Steam
Generators.
d. Steam Generator Hi-Level Override actuates to prevent water damage to Main Steam lines.

a. Main Steam Safety Valves operate to maintain secondary system pressure at less than 110%
of design pressure.

a. CORRECT
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate fails to apply knowledge that a complete loss of vacuum disables the
TBV.
c. INCORRECT - MSIVs would not receive a close signal for these conditions. Plausible, since there was a turbine
trip. Candidate misapplies relationship between MSIVs close signal and turbine trip signal.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate misapplies the response of "shrink" and "swell"; incorrectly thinking that
a sudden stopping of steam flow results in a "swell" effect on indicated S/G level. Also, it is a common
misconception that the purpose of S/G Hi-Level Override is to protect the Main Steam Lines from structural failure
due to the weight of being filled with water; when in reality, the purpose is to prevent damage to the Main
Turbine due to water carryover.

62

The plant is operating at 100% power when Condensate Pump P-2A trips.
What is the resulting effect on the Main Feedwater (MFW) Pumps?
a. They trip due to a reduction in MFW pump suction pressure.
b. They trip due to over-speeding of the MFW pump turbines.
c. They will experience excessive vibration due to cavitation at the pump suction.
d. The pump turbines ramp down to minimum speed to prevent overfeeding Steam Generators.

a. They trip due to a reduction in MFW pump suction pressure.

a. CORRECT - At full power, even one condensate pump tripping would cause such a severe reduction in MFW
Pump suction pressure that BOTH MFW pps would trip on low suction pressure.
b. INCORRECT - Correctly believes feed pumps trip, but for wrong reason.
c. INCORRECT - The protective low suction pressure trip actuates long before any cavitation would develop.
d. INCORRECT - There is a certain plant condition that causes MFW pumps to ramp down in speed, but it is
incorrectly applied here

63

During a Waste Gas Decay Tank (T-101B) batch release, Main Exhaust Fan, V-6A, trips. Which
one of the following describes the appropriate operator action?
a. Ensure RGEM has swapped to HIGH range.
b. Immediately secure the Waste Gas Decay Tank release.
c. If Main Exhaust Fan, V-6B, cannot be started within one minute, secure Auxiliary Building
ventilation.
d. Depress Main Exhaust Fan Damper CLOSE pushbutton to close discharge damper on Main
Exhaust Fan, V-6B.

b. Immediately secure the Waste Gas Decay Tank release.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that there is an interlock between RGEM and the Main Exhaust
Fans which cause them to trip when the RGEM has alarmed.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT – Plausible because the student could misapply the requirement to secure all Auxiliary Building
ventilation if NO main exhaust fan can be started. In this case, the release would be terminated before securing
Aux Building ventilation.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student misapplies the interlock between exhaust plenum pressure and automatic
opening of main exhaust fan discharge dampers. The student would believe that closing the exhaust fan
discharge damper would secure the release.

64

From full power, a Safety Injection occurs, concurrent with a loss of Instrument Air. Instrument Air
pressure indicates 10 psig, and is lowering. Several minutes later, it is noted that Station and FW
Tie-In Control Valve, CV-1221 indicating RED light is ON. The GREEN light is OFF. The
handswitch remains selected to CLOSE. The NCO confirms that NO operator action was taken to
operate this control valve handswitch.
Which one of the following accounts for the status of CV-1221?
a. CV-1221 has opened automatically due to the Safety Injection Signal.
b. CV-1221 received an open signal when Instrument Air header pressure dropped to 85 psig.
c. Due to the loss of operating air to CV-1221 operator, the valve failed OPEN.
d. The SIAS caused a shedding of Bus 1E, and a loss of control power to CV-1221, failing it
OPEN.

c. Due to the loss of operating air to CV-1221 operator, the valve failed OP

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate incorrectly believes SIS causes CV-1221 to open.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate believes there is an interlock to automatically open CV-1221 on lowering
instrument air pressure.
c. CORRECT
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that CV-1221 receives control power from bus 1E.

65

A fire system rupture has occurred which caused Fire Water System pressure to lower to 63#.
The rupture was then isolated. Which one of the following lists the Fire Water Pumps that are
expected to be in service? Assume no operator action occurs.
a. P-9A and P-9B only.
b. P-9A, P-9B, P-41, and P-13.
c. P-9A, P-9B, and P-13 only.
d. P-9A, P-9B, and P-41 only.

d. P-9A, P-9B, and P-41 only.

a. INCORRECT – P-41 starts at 68# header pressure. Plausible if the student believes that P-41 starts

66

Source Range Channel 1A becomes inoperable during MODE 6 with refueling in progress. Which
one of the following describes the immediate action required by Technical Specifications?
a. Initiate action to restore channel operability.
b. Suspend all core alterations and positive reactivity additions.
c. Perform an operabilty check of Source Range Channel 2A.
d. Suspend all core alterations and perform a Shutdown Margin Verification.

b. Suspend all core alterations and positive reactivity additions.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible because this action would be accomplished, however, it is not required by TS to be
performed immediately.
b. CORRECT
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that only one channel is required to be operable during refueling
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student confuses the actions required for one SRNI channel inoperable with two
SRNI channels inoperable.

67

The Spent Fuel Pool Cooling System has two design temperature limits, an upper and a lower
limit. What is the lower design temperature limit (with instrument inaccuracies not included) and
its purpose?
a. 75°F to preclude criticality.
b. 68°F to prevent boric acid precipitation.
c. 68°F to preclude criticality.
d. 75°F to prevent boric acid precipitation.

c. 68°F to preclude criticality.

a. INCORRECT – Incorrect temperature but correct reason. Plausible because 75°F is indication that is used to
ensure actual temperature does not fall below 68°F
b. INCORRECT – Correct temperature but incorrect reason. Plausible because the SFP contains high boron
concentration that could come out of solution.
c. CORRECT
d. INCORRECT – Incorrect temperature and incorrect reason. Plausible for the same reasons as distractor ‘a’ and
‘b’.

68

Which one of the following would preclude conducting a shift turnover during a critical approach?
a. TAVE is 531°F and stable.
b. Startup rate is 0.15 dpm.
c. A dilution was completed 20 minutes ago.
d. Rod motion was completed 15 minutes ago.

b. Startup rate is 0.15 dpm.

a. INCORRECT - Per GOP-3, Tave must be between 530° F and 535° F.
b. CORRECT - Per GOP-3, startup rate must be less than 0.1 dpm.
c. INCORRECT - Per GOP-3, no dilution can be in progress.
d. INCORRECT - Per GOP-3, no rod motion can be in progress.

69

A Clearance Request has been generated and you have been assigned to develop the clearance
order for P-98A, S/G Blowdown Pump. The scope of the work is to align the pump/motor coupling
and perform motor resistance checks. Which one of the following tagging sequences is
satisfactory for this clearance?
a. Open Pump Supply Breaker, 52-353
Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177
Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795
Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812
b. Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795
Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177
Open Pump Supply Breaker, 52-353
Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812
c. Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177
Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795
Open Pump Supply Breaker, 52-353
Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812
d. Open Pump Supply Breaker, 52-353
Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795
Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177
Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812

d. Open Pump Supply Breaker, 52-353
Close Pump Discharge Valve, MV-DRW795
Close Pump Suction Valve, MV-MS177
Open Pump Casing Drain, MV-MS812

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the candidate believes that the suction valve should be tagged before the discharge
valve. This is a common misconception and can be dangerous. If the discharge check valve leaks by, the suction
piping may be exposed the full system pressure and may rupture.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that components are tagged mechanically then electrically.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible for same reasons as distractor ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. CORRECT

70

A Technical Specification Action has the following requirements for completion time:

Condition: B. Required Action
and associated
Completion
Time not met.

Required action: Completion Time:
B.1 Be in MODE 3 6 hours
AND
B.2 Be in MODE 5 36 hours

This Action is entered at 0735 on Tuesday, and the plant enters MODE 3 at 1115 the same day.
Which ONE of the following is the latest time by which the plant must be in MODE 5?
a. 1715 Wednesday
b. 1935 Wednesday
c. 2315 Wednesday
d. 0135 Thursday

b. 1935 Wednesday

a. Incorrect, candidate has allowed only 30 hours from time of entry into mode 3.
b. CORRECT -
c. Incorrect, candidate has allowed for 36 hours from the time of entry into mode 3.
d. Incorrect, candidate has allowed 42 hours from the time of entry into condition.

71

The Control Room Supervisor has directed you to perform a Containment Purge per SOP-24.
Which one of the following would indicate that opening of the Containment Purge Exhaust Valves,
CV-1805, 1806, 1807 and 1808, is not allowed?
a. Refueling is in progress.
b. PCS pressure is 250 psia
c. PCS temperature is 210°F
d. Equipment Hatch is open.

c. PCS temperature is 210°F

a. INCORRECT – Student incorrectly believes that it is not allowed to open these valves with refueling in progress..
b. INCORRECT - Student incorrectly believes that it is not acceptable open these valves with the PCS pressurized.
c. CORRECT
d. INCORRECT - Student incorrectly believes that it not allowed to open these valves with the equipment hatch
open.

72

All of the following are actions from ONP-23.2 to help limit the spread of contamination following
the discovery of a Steam Generator Tube Leak EXCEPT for:
a. Starting a plant heating boiler.
b. Routing after condenser drains to the condenser.
c. Isolating Steam Generator Blowdowns.
d. Isolating the Main Steam Reheaters.

d. Isolating the Main Steam Reheaters.

a. INCORRECT - A plant heating boiler is started so that all extraction steam can be isolated. Plausible if the
student fails to link the plant heating boiler to the extraction steam system.
b. INCORRECT - The procedure ensures after condenser drains are captured. Plausible if the student fails to realize
that after condenser drains can be routed to the floor.
c. INCORRECT - Blowdowns are isolated to keep contamination levels in the turbine building down. Plausible if the
student believes that the blowdown system is vital during a S/G tube leak incident.
d. CORRECT

73

In various places throughout the Emergency Operating Procedures, the term "degraded
containment" is used. What is the definition of this term, and its significance to the operating
crew?
a. Containment integrity has been lost. The operating crew must now consider this safety
function as jeopardized, and initiate immediate actions to restore containment integrity.
b. Containment radiation monitors are indicating > 10R/hour. The operating crew must ensure
CHR has initiated.
c. Containment pressure has exceeded 3.0 psig AND temperature has exceeded 175° F. The
operating crew may resume use of the non-degraded containment operating curves once
BOTH containment parameters have returned to normal.
d. Containment pressure has exceeded 3.0 psig OR temperature has exceeded 175° F. Use of
degraded containment operating curves must continue throughout the remainder of the EOP,
even if containment parameters have returned to normal.

d. Containment pressure has exceeded 3.0 psig OR temperature has exceeded 175° F. Use of
degraded containment operating curves must continue throughout the remainder of the EOP,
even if containment parameters have returned to normal.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that degraded containment refers to containment safety function
as being jeopardized.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that degraded containment refers to radiation levels above CHR
setpoint.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that normal curves can be used when degraded containment
conditions no longer are present.
d. CORRECT

74

A Main Steam Line Break outside of containment and upstream of the MSIV for “A” S/G has
occurred and the “A” S/G has blown dry. An Auxiliary Operator has been directed to perform the
actions outside the Control Room necessary for isolation of “A” S/G.
What effect, if any, will isolating the "B" S/G (vice the "A" S/G) have on the Control Room’s ability
to mitigate this event?
a. No effect due to the cross-tie line between “A” and “B” main steam lines.
b. No effect since the Control Room can use the Turbine Bypass Valve for PCS Heat Removal.
c. The Control Room has lost the ability to control PCS temperature using the ADVs.
d. The Control Room can no longer control PCS pressure.

c. The Control Room has lost the ability to control PCS temperature using the ADVs.

a. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student has a faulty mental picture of the Main Steam diagram and where the
MSIVs are located in reference to the cross-tie line.
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student once again has a faulty mental picture of the Main Steam diagram and
believes the TBV can be used without cross-tying S/Gs and blowing them both dry.
c. CORRECT
d. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that the PCS is in a solid condition or that auxiliary spray from the
charging pumps is not available or are unaware of this feature.

75

Control Room alarm “FIRE SYSTEM PANEL C-47, C-47A/B OFF NORMAL” (EK-1148) has
annunciated. The cause of the alarm is “CORRIDOR 106 on EL. 590’-0” (Auxiliary Building Main
Corridors on panel C-47B). Which one of the following describes the required action for this
alarm?
a. Immediately sound the fire alarm and call out Palisades Fire Brigade.
b. Immediately sound the fire alarm and call Covert Township Fire Department.
c. Dispatch an Auxiliary Operator to inspect the area. If a fire is discovered, then sound Fire
Alarm and call out Palisades Fire Brigade.
d. Immediately sound fire alarm. Dispatch an Auxiliary Operator to inspect the area. If fire is
present, call out Palisades Fire Brigade.

a. Immediately sound the fire alarm and call out Palisades Fire Brigade.

a. CORRECT
b. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes that calling Covert fire department is a conservative action.
c. INCORRECT – Plausible if the student believes this is the correct action for this alarm. This is the correct action
for any other alarm not listed for EK-1148.
d. INCORRECT – Plausible for the same reason as ‘c’ but student correctly identifies that the fire alarm needs to be
sounded.