2010 RO Flashcards Preview

NRC Initial exams > 2010 RO > Flashcards

Flashcards in 2010 RO Deck (75):
1

Given the following with the Plant initially at full power:
• The Plant is manually tripped due to a tube rupture in the 'A' Steam Generator (S/G)
• 'A' S/G level is 29% and stable
• 'B' S/G level is 23% and lowering slowly
• TAVE is 535°F and stable
• EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip Actions," Immediate Actions are currently in progress
Which one of the following describes the required action for the above conditions during verbal
verification of the Immediate Actions of EOP-1.0?
a. Cooldown the PCS to

d. Secure Auxiliary Feedwater flow to the 'A' S/G.

a. Plausible because this is accomplished in the Optimal Recovery Procedure (ORP) to prevent the S/G code safeties from
lifting when the S/G is isolated but not during EOP-1.0.
b. Plausible because this would normally be accomplished but after EOP-1.0.
c. Plausible because this is accomplished during the ORP when the S/G is isolated but not during EOP-1.0.
d. CORRECT - EOP-1.0 directs securing AFW flow to the S/G that has indications of a SGTR or ESDE.

2

Question:
Given the following:
• A Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred
• Primary Coolant pressure is 1000 psia
• Containment pressure is 3.0 psig
• Containment temperature is 180°F
• EOP-4.0, "Loss of Coolant Accident Recovery," has been implemented
Which one of the following alarms, if annunciating, provides indication that Safety Injection
throttling criteria are not met?
a. EK-0759, "NO PCS PROTECTION CHANNEL A"
b. EK-1126, "CIS INITIATED"
c. EK-0764, "PRESSURIZER LEVEL CH 'B' LO-LO"
d. EK-0962, "STEAM GEN E-50A LO LEVEL"

c. EK-0764, "PRESSURIZER LEVEL CH 'B' LO-LO"

a. Plausible because this alarm comes in when LTOP should be in service (PCS Tc

3

During a Loss of Coolant Accident with two phase natural circulation (reflux boiling) as the
primary method of core heat removal, which one of the following sets of temperature
indications must be monitored to determine that heat removal and inventory functions are
being satisfied?
a. Loop Δ T and Core Exit Thermocouples.
b. TH and Core Exit Thermocouples.
c. Loop Δ T and TC.
d. TH and TC.

b. TH and Core Exit Thermocouples.

a. Plausible because loop delta T could be an accurate indication of PCS heat removal for single phase natural circulation,
however, two phase natural circulation and reflux boiling are complex enough that loop delta T is not meaningful.
b. CORRECT - these two temperature indications are important in assessing whether heat removal is occurring in
the core for two phase natural circulation conditions.
c. Plausible if the student believes that reflux boiling involves water moving past the S/G u-tubes, however, reflux boiling
process involves the water moving back to the core from the S/Gs via the hot leg so cold leg temperature is not
meaningful.
d. Plausible due to a combination of 'a' and 'c'.

4

The following alarm is received with the Plant operating at full power:
EK-0931, PRI COOLANT PUMP P-50A CLG WTR LO FLOW
Which one of the following describes (1) an indication for P-50A that can be used to validate
the alarm and (2) a condition that requires the Reactor to be tripped for this event?
a. (1) TIA-0133A, Controlled Bleedoff temperature, is rising.
(2) A bearing high temperature alarm is received for P-50A.
b. (1) TIA-0133A, Controlled Bleedoff temperature, is rising.
(2) A seal pressure off-normal alarm is received for P-50A.
c. (1) TIA-0135A, Motor Stator temperature, is rising.
(2) A bearing high temperature alarm is received for P-50A.
d. (1) TIA-0135A, Motor Stator temperature, is rising.
(2) A seal pressure off-normal alarm is received for P-50A.

a. (1) TIA-0133A, Controlled Bleedoff temperature, is rising.
(2) A bearing high temperature alarm is received for P-50A.

a. CORRECT – This temperature will be rising because the PCS water flowing upward through the seal is not being
cooled by CCW and this is the correct trip criteria per ONP-6.2.
b. Plausible if the student believes that any pump seal pressure off-normal alarm is trip criteria because this indicates a
potential for seal failure.
c. Plausible if the student believes that CCW cools the motor stator; air inside containment cools the motor stator.
d. Plausible for a combination of reasons for ‘b’ and ‘c’.

5

With the Plant at 60% power, a loss of all Charging flow occurs. Which one of the following
describes the impact on the Plant and the reason Main Steam flow is maintained as stable as
possible until Charging flow has been restored?
a. Pressurizer level is now lowering at 4 gpm. Lowering Main Steam flow will accelerate the
level reduction.
b. Letdown temperature is high due to loss of cooling to the Regenerative Heat Exchanger.
Lowering Main Steam flow may cause letdown to automatically isolate on high temperature.
c. Letdown temperature is high due to loss of cooling to the Regenerative Heat Exchanger.
Raising Main Steam flow may cause letdown to automatically isolate on high temperature.
d. Pressurizer level is now lowering at 4 gpm. Raising Main Steam flow will accelerate the
level reduction.

d. Pressurizer level is now lowering at 4 gpm. Raising Main Steam flow will accelerate the
level reduction.

a. Plausible if student correctly determines that PZR is lowering at 4 gpm due to letdown isolating but confuses the effects
of lowering main steam flow on PZR level.
b. Plausible if the student believes that letdown has not isolated but believes that the Letdown HX can cool the letdown
sufficiently by itself. However, when charging flow is secured, the RHX loses cooling which will cause the letdown stop
valve from Loop 2A to close.
c. Plausible if the student believes that letdown has not isolated but believes that the Letdown HX can cool the letdown
sufficiently by itself but believes that when main steam flow rises, that additional orifice stop valves open which causes
letdown temperature to be even higher. However, when charging flow is secured, the RHX loses cooling which will
cause the letdown stop valve from Loop 2A to close.
d. CORRECT - When charging flow is isolated, letdown flow will automatically isolate but 4 gpm of CBO flow will be
going to the VCT which will cause PZR level to lower.

6

The Plant experiences a loss of Shutdown Cooling event due to a tripped Low Pressure Safety
Injection (LPSI) Pump. The Control Room team is now ready to start the alternate LPSI Pump.
Which one of the following is the lowest flow rate that, if established, meets the minimum flow
requirements for an operating LPSI pump?
a. 150 gpm.
b. 220 gpm.
c. 500 gpm.
d. 1000 gpm.

b. 220 gpm.

a. Plausible because this would meet the minimum flow requirements for a HPSI pump.
b. CORRECT - The minimum allowable flow for a LPSI pump is 170 gpm.
c. Plausible as this would meet the requirements for Containment Spray pump operation.
d. Plausible as this would meet the requirements for minimum SDC flow when throttling in MODE 6.

7

Given the following with the Plant at full power:
• EK-1172, "COMPONENT CLG SURGE TANK T-3 HI-LO LEVEL" is annunciating
• T-3, Component Cooling Water (CCW) Surge Tank, level is 33% and lowering
• The Control Room team diagnoses a leak in the CCW system and enters ONP-6.2,
"Loss of Component Cooling"
Assuming the CCW leak is intersystem, i.e., from the CCW system to another fluid system,
which one of the following is a possible location?
a. E-58, CVCS Letdown Heat Exchanger.
b. P-50D, Primary Coolant Pump, Seal Heat Exchanger.
c. E-64, Shield Cooling Heat Exchanger.
d. Control Rod Drive Mechanism seal cooler

c. E-64, Shield Cooling Heat Exchange

a. Plausible if the student believes that E-58 is located downstream of the backpressure regulator.
b. Plausible if the student believes that the seal heat exchanger is subject to controlled bleed-off pressure.
c. CORRECT - Shield Cooling pressure in E-64 is less than CCW pressure.
d. Plausible if the student believes that the water is cooled after it flows across the seal face or that the cooling coil is
external to the seal housing.

8

Given the following:
• The Plant is in MODE 3
• Pressurizer level is 42%
• Pressurizer Proportional Heater Control Switches are in the "ON" position
• Pressurizer Backup Heater Control Switches are in the "MANUAL" position
• A loss of offsite power occurs
• Both Diesel Generators start and sequence loads as designed
Following Diesel Generator load sequencing, which one of the following describes which
Pressurizer Heaters, if any, are energized? (Assume no operator action occurs.)
a. No Pressurizer Heaters will be energized.
b. Pressurizer Heaters powered from Bus 1D only will be energized.
c. Pressurizer Heaters powered from Bus 1E only will be energized.
d. Pressurizer Heaters powered from Bus 1D and Bus 1E will be energized

a. No Pressurizer Heaters will be energized.

a. CORRECT - Heaters from Bus 1D must be manually restored due to a lockout feature which prevents D/G
overloading and Bus 1E will not be energized on a loss of offsite power.
b. Plausible if the student but does not recognize that heaters from Bus 1D will lock out.
c. Plausible if the student believes that bus 1E is still available.
d. Plausible for a combination of 'b' and 'c'.

9

With the Plant operating at full power, a 230 gpm tube rupture occurs in the 'A' Steam
Generator (S/G). The Plant is then manually tripped and all systems operate as designed with
the following conditions:
• PZR level is 13%
• PCS pressure is 1545 psia
• TAVE is 532°F and stable
• EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip Actions," are complete
The S/G tube leak rate is now approximately (1) and Pressurizer level will be (2) .
a. (1) 115 gpm
(2) rising
b. (1) 160 gpm
(2) rising
c. (1) 115 gpm
(2) lowering
d. (1) 160 gpm
(2) lowering

d. (1) 160 gpm
(2) lowering

a. Plausible if the student believes that there is a linear relationship between leak rate and ΔP.
b. Possible if the student believes that since SIS initiated (PCS pressure

10

Question:
Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• P-55C, Charging Pump, is out of service for maintenance
• A steam line break occurs causing a Safety Injection Signal to actuate
• EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip Actions," have been completed
• The Control Room team has implemented EOP-6.0, "Excess Steam Demand Event"
• 2400 VAC Bus 1D de-energizes and locks out due to a fault on the bus
• As PCS pressure lowers below 1300 psia and stabilizes, the Reactor Operator trips all
four Primary Coolant Pumps (PCPs)
Tripping all four PCPs under these conditions will adversely impact the ability to ...
a. detect core parameters.
b. reduce PCS pressure to establish HPSI flow.
c. remove decay heat using Steam Generators.
d. prevent void formation in the Reactor Vessel upper head.

b. reduce PCS pressure to establish HPSI flow.

a. Plausible if the student does not know that CET temperature indications are accurate for this with no PCP flow.
b. CORRECT - When PCPs are tripped, PZR main spray is lost, auxiliary spray flow is also lost due to P-55C being
out of service and the loss of Bus 1D.
c. Plausible if the student does not take into consideration that natural circulation can remove all decay heat.
d. Plausible if the student confuses the effects of a LOCA with the effects of an excess steam demand event.

11

EOP-7.0, "Loss of All Feedwater Recovery," contains the following guidance concerning
restoration of feedwater to a dry Steam Generator (S/G):

CAUTION
Limit feed flow to less than 300 gpm
for any S/G with level less than -84%

What is the reason for this guidance?
a. Avoid a loss of PCS pressure control due to Pressurizer insurges and outsurges.
b. Prevent a rapid PCS cooldown, avoiding a Pressurized Thermal Shock to the Rx vessel.
c. Prevent uneven cooling of the PCS which may result in a localized reactivity excursion.
d. Minimize the probability of causing significant damage to the S/G tube bundle.

d. Minimize the probability of causing significant damage to the S/G tube bundle.

a. Plausible because there is a similar caution in ONP-25.2 for fire in the plant and evacuation of the control room.
b. Plausible as this could occur but is not the reason for the caution.
c. Plausible as this will occur but is not a concern in this case.
d. CORRECT - EOP-7.0 step 8 contains a caution to limit feed to 300 gpm due to the possible of tube bundle
damage.

12

Given the following with the Plant in MODE 3:
• Diesel Generator 1-2 is out of service for maintenance
• A loss of all offsite power occurs
• 'F' and 'R' Switchyard buses are de-energized
• Diesel Generator 1-1 will not start automatically or manually
Which one of the following lists the Switchyard 345kV Line and Breaker that must be available
to restore offsite power via backfeed to the Main Transformer?
a. Cook #1 Line, Switchyard Breaker 25F7.
b. Cook #1 Line, Switchyard Breaker 25H9.
c. Cook #2 Line, Switchyard Breaker 25F7.
d. Cook #2 Line, Switchyard Breaker 25H9.

b. Cook #1 Line, Switchyard Breaker 25H9.

a. Plausible because 25F7 is where power is normally fed to the 'F' bus but since all offsite power is lost this breaker must
be open.
b. CORRECT - Power flows from Cook 1 line through 25H9 to the Main Generator line.
c. Plausible because 25F7 is where power is normally fed to the 'F' bus but since all offsite power is lost this breaker must
be open and student misapplies which Cook line supplies backfeed.
d. Plausible if student misapplies which Cook line supplies backfeed.

13

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• A Plant trip occurs due to a loss of all offsite power
• Both Diesel Generators start and sequence loads as designed
Which one of the following indicates that the appropriate sequencers have completed
sequencing loads onto 2400 VAC Buses 1C and 1D?
a. The in-service CRHVAC train Main Supply Fan, V-95/V-96, has started.
b. The in-service CRHVAC train Emergency Air Filter Unit Fan, V-26A/V-26B, has started.
c. All Containment Air Cooler 'A' Fans, V-1A, V-2A, V-3A, V-4A, have started.
d. All Charging Pumps, P-55A, P-55B, P-55C, have started.

a. The in-service CRHVAC train Main Supply Fan, V-95/V-96, has started.

a. CORRECT - V-95/V-96 sequence on last at 55 seconds.
b. Plausible if the student believes that the DBA sequencer will be loading the EDG under these conditions, but the NSD
sequencer will be.
c. Plausible because for these conditions containment cooling is not a high priority.
d. Plausible because for these conditions charging flow is not a high priority.

14

The Plant is manually tripped while operating at full power due to a loss of Y01, Instrument AC
Bus. The Control Room team enters and begins performing EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip
Actions."
Which one of the following describes the earliest that the Control Room team can perform
subsequent actions of ONP-24.5, "Loss of Instrument AC Bus Y01?" Assume the actions are
not associated with personnel safety, plant safety, equipment protection or safety of the public.
a. During EOP-1.0 Immediate Actions.
b. When directed by EOP-1.0 Operator Actions.
c. Immediately after EOP-1.0 Immediate Actions.
d. When directed by EOP-2.0, “Reactor Trip Recovery.”

c. Immediately after EOP-1.0 Immediate Actions.

a. Plausible if the student believes that Y-01 is required to monitor rod position but this action is not allowed per AP 4.02.
b. Plausible if the student believes Operator actions of EOP-1.0 contain actions to restore Y-01.
c. CORRECT - ADMIN 4.06 specifies that other actions of procedures other than ONP immediate actions shall not
be implemented during EOP immediate actions.
d. Plausible if the student correctly assumes that EOP-2.0 contains actions to restore Y-01 but does not realize that it is not
the earliest available time.

15

The Plant is operating at full power with Battery Chargers #1 and #2 in service when 72-10,
#1 DC Bus Tie Breaker, trips open.
Which one of the following lists all loads that will be de-energized as a result?
a. Preferred AC Bus Y30 only.
b. Preferred AC Bus Y10 only.
c. Preferred AC Bus Y30, DC Buses D11-1 and D11-2.
d. Preferred AC Bus Y10, DC Buses D11-1 and D11-2.

a. Preferred AC Bus Y30 only.

a. CORRECT - when 72-10 trips, DC bus D10L de-energizes which de-energizes Inverter #3 and Y30 only.
b. Plausible if the student recalls incorrectly which inverter receives power from D10L.
c. Plausible if the student recalls incorrectly which buses the battery supplies directly.
d. Plausible for a combination of 'b' and 'c' above.

16

Given the following with the Plant in MODE 3:
• The Control Room team has entered ONP-6.1, "Loss of Service Water," due to a loss of
all three Service Water Pumps
• The Fire Protection System is supplying the Service Water System using all three Fire
Water Pumps
• It has become necessary to lower flow to specific Service Water components to prevent
run-out of the Fire Water Pumps
Which one of the following groups of loads, when isolated, will result in the largest rise in Fire
Water Pump discharge pressure?
a. Containment Air Coolers and Component Cooling Water HXs.
b. Containment Air Coolers and Safeguards Room Coolers.
c. Component Cooling Water HXs and Safeguards Room Coolers.
d. CRHVAC Condensers and Steam Generator Blowdown HX.

a. Containment Air Coolers and Component Cooling Water HXs.

a. CORRECT - Containment air coolers and CCW HXs are the largest loads in service for the given conditions.
b. Plausible because the safeguards room coolers are large loads but not as large as CCW HXs.
c. Plausible because the safeguards room coolers are large loads but not as large as the containment air coolers.
d. Plausible as these are large loads but the non-critical SW header must be isolated in order to supply the critical SW
header with the fire water pumps.

17

The Plant has experienced a reactor trip from full power and a concurrent station blackout.
The Control Room team has implemented EOP-3.0, "Station Blackout Recovery.” The CRS
has directed you to perform EOP Supplement 36, “Control Valve Tracking Sheet.”
Which one of the following requires repositioning a component Handswitch (HS) when
completing EOP Supplement 36?
a. The air failure position agrees with HS as-found position.
b. The air failure position does not agree with HS as-found position.
c. The loss of control power failure position agrees with HS as-found position.
d. The loss of control power failure position does not agree with HS as-found position.

b. The air failure position does not agree with HS as-found position.

a. Plausible if the student misapplies the reason for performing the supplement.
b. CORRECT - The operator should match the HS position to the air failure position so that valves will not
reposition when air is restored.
c. Plausible if the student misapplies the reason for performing the supplement.
d. Plausible if the student misapplies the reason for performing the supplement.

18

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• Main Generator Load is 823 MW
• Main Generator Reactive load is zero (0) MVARs
A voltage disturbance occurs on the grid which causes Main Generator reactive load to change
to 450 MVARs out. This is a concern because the Main Generator is now (1)
which leads to (2) .
a. (1) Under-excited
(2) Excessive generator field current
b. (1) Under-excited
(2) Rotor pole slippage
c. (1) Over-excited
(2) Excessive generator field current
d. (1) Over-excited
(2) Rotor pole slippage

c. (1) Over-excited
(2) Excessive generator field current

a. Plausible if the student believes that the generator is under-excited.
b. Plausible if the student believes that if the generator is under-excited, pole slippage can occur, but this applies mainly in
motors.
c. CORRECT - VARS out is over-excited and over-excitation will cause excessive field current.
d. Plausible if the student believes that rotor pole slippage can occur if the generator is over-excited.

19

Consider two separate Uncontrolled Control Rod Withdrawal Events. Event #1 occurs at
approximately 1x10-4% power and Event #2 occurs at approximately 5% power. Each event
occurs in the middle of core life (MOL).
Which one of the following describes the difference in Startup Rate (SUR) for these two
events? (Assume each event inserts reactivity at an equal rate.)
(1) will have the lower SUR because (2) will minimize the rate of power rise.
a. (1) Event #2
(2) moderator temperature coefficient
b. (1) Event #2
(2) a rod withdrawal prohibit signal
c. (1) Event #1
(2) the Doppler coefficient
d. (1) Event #1
(2) the effect of delayed neutron precursors

a. (1) Event #2
(2) moderator temperature coefficient

a. CORRECT - for a rod withdrawal accident in the power range, moderator and fuel temperature coefficients will
slow the rate of power rise.
b. Plausible if the student correctly assumes that the rising power will cause a variable high power pre-trip alarm which
would cause a rod withdrawal prohibit (RWP) but this is not the reason for the smaller power excursion and the RWP will
not be reached until power reaches 28.5%.
c. Plausible if the student believes that the Doppler coefficient is related to control rod operation at lower power levels, i.e.,
not in the power range. Doppler coefficient is related to fuel temperature changes which would not occur until the reactor
is at the POAH.
d. Plausible if the student correctly believes that delayed neutrons play a large role in reactivity changes but incorrectly
believes that the event will have a smaller SUR.

20

With the Plant operating at full power Control Rod 35 (very center of the core) drops halfway
(66 inches withdrawn).
Which one of the following correctly completes the following statement concerning the effect
on Axial Shape Index (ASI) and Nuclear Instrument (NI) Power indication five minutes after
Control Rod 35 drops? Assume no Operator actions occur.
ASI will be more (1) and NI Power indication will be (2) than actual power.
a. (1) negative
(2) higher
b. (1) negative
(2) lower
c. (1) positive
(2) higher
d. (1) positive
(2) lower

c. (1) positive
(2) higher

a. Plausible if the student misinterprets the definition of ASI and believes that as power is pushed toward the bottom of the
core, ASI becomes more negative.
b. Plausible if the student misinterprets the definition of ASI and believes that as power is pushed toward the bottom of the
core, ASI becomes more negative and also misinterprets the effect of a control rod drop in the center of the core and
incorrectly determines that NI power will be lower than actual.
c. CORRECT - Power will be suppressed in the top of the core; this results in ASI being positive. NI power will be
higher than actual because the radial core power profile will have shifted toward the exterior.
d. Plausible if the student misinterprets the effect of a control rod drop in the center of the core and incorrectly determines
that NI power will be lower than actual.

21

During recovery from a Loss of Coolant Accident, which one of the following conditions will
allow commencing a cooldown of the Primary Coolant System (PCS) before verifying
SHUTDOWN MARGIN requirements?
a. Safety Injection flow is within requirements.
b. Two (2) Primary Coolant Pumps are operating.
c. Emergency boration is in progress.
d. All control rods are fully inserted.

c. Emergency boration is in progress.

a. Plausible since HPSI flow comes from the SIRW tank which contains boron but the procedure specifically specifies the
emergency boration flow path. Student may believe that the boron in the SIRW tank is sufficient to satisfy SDM.
b. Plausible since there are Shutdown Margin restrictions based on the number of Primary Coolant Pumps operating.
Student may believe that the “trip two, leave two” strategy applies here.
c. CORRECT - EOP-4.0 contains a note that cooldown may commence while shutdown margin is being calculated
as long as emergency boration is in progress.
d. Plausible since control rods are a key factor in Reactivity Control. Student may believe that if all control rods are in, this
would be the most appropriate verification of SDM

22

Given the following with the Plant in MODE 3:
• TAVE is 532°F
• Pressurizer level is 42%
• LIC-0101B, Pressurizer Level Control Channel 'B', is in service in the 'AUTO' mode
• The 'AUTO' setpoint on LIC-0101B then rises to 52%
Based on the above conditions, (1) .
The Backup Pressurizer level control program (2) function to control Pressurizer
level.
a. (1) CV-2003, Letdown Orifice Stop Valve, closes
(2) will not
b. (1) CV-2003, Letdown Orifice Stop Valve, closes
(2) will
c. (1) P-55B and P-55C, Charging Pumps, start
(2) will not
d. (1) P-55B and P-55C, Charging Pumps, start
(2) will

d. (1) P-55B and P-55C, Charging Pumps, start
(2) will

a. Plausible this condition will cause minimum letdown flow but CV-2003 closes only from LIC-0101BL and the student
believes that, since the AUTO setpoint rises that the backup level control program will not function.
b. Plausible because minimum output on LIC-0101B will cause minimum letdown flow but CV-2003 closes only from
LIC-0101BL.
c. Plausible if the student believes that since the AUTO setpoint rises the backup level control program will not function..
d. CORRECT - Backup level control operates based on the difference between calculated setpoint and the level
that is sensed. Since neither of these are affected in this situation, the backup program will function.

23

A Reactor startup is in progress with the following initial Nuclear Instrument readings:

Source Range NI-1A 3.0 x 10^0 cps
Source Range NI-2A 3.3 x 10^0 cps
Wide Range NI-3A 1.2 x 10-7 % power
Wide Range NI-4A 1.0 x 10-7 % power


During performance of the 1/M plot during the Reactor startup per GOP-3, "MODE 3 ≥ 525°F
to MODE 2," the following Nuclear Instrument readings are observed:

Source Range NI-1A 2.7 x 10^3 cps
Source Range NI-2A 4.2 x 10^2 cps
Wide Range NI-3A 1.1 x 10-5 % power
Wide Range NI-4A 9.6 x 10-6 % power


Based on the readings above, which one of the following Nuclear Instruments is not
responding properly?
a. Source Range NI-1A.
b. Source Range NI-2A.
c. Wide Range NI-3A.
d. Wide Range NI-4A.

a. Source Range NI-1A.

a. CORRECT - it is reading a factor of approximately 1000 from the initial reading when it should only be a factor of
approximately 100.
b. Plausible since power is a power of 10 different from SR NI-1.
c. Plausible since power is a power of 10 different from WR NI-4.
d. Plausible since power is a power of 10 different from WR NI-3.

24

Given the following with the Plant in MODE 6:
• Refueling operations are in progress
• Containment Refueling Monitors, RIA-2316 and RIA-2317, are in service
Which one of the following Control Room alarms, if any, will alert the Control Room team that
RIA-2316 reached an alarm setpoint due to a fuel handling incident? (Assume that RIA-2317
has not reached an alarm setpoint)
a. None, RIA-2316 and RIA-2317 are both required to reach an alarm setpoint before a
Control Room alarm is received.
b. EK-1366, "PLANT MONITORING HI RADIATION."
c. EK-1363, "CONTAINMENT HI RADIATION."
d. EK-1126, "CIS INITIATED."

d. EK-1126, "CIS INITIATED."

a. Plausible if the student misapplies the logic for CIS from the Refueling Monitors and believes that it is 2/2.
b. Plausible because various ARM systems initiate this alarm, however, RIA-2316 does not.
c. Plausible because this for a CHR when the plant is on-line, this is the alarm that will be received in addition to EK-1126,
however, this alarm is initiated by the Containment Radiation Monitors.
d. CORRECT - When RIA-2316 alarms a containment isolation signal is initiated which causes EK-1126 to
annunciate.

25

Given the following with the Plant operating at 50% power:
• The Turbine Operator reports that Condenser vacuum is indicating 27.1" Hg and
lowering
• ONP-14, "Loss of Condenser Vacuum," is entered with Step 2 "Main Condenser Air
In-Leakage" applicable
Based on the above conditions, the Reactor must be tripped if ...
a. P-39A or P-39B, Cooling Tower Pumps, trip.
b. Gland Seal Steam pressure lowers below 2.0 psig.
c. Condenser vacuum lowers below 21.5" Hg.
d. Condenser vacuum will not stabilize greater than 25" Hg.

c. Condenser vacuum lowers below 21.5" Hg.

a. Plausible because if this occurs, the condenser will be experiencing air in-leakage and reduced cooling but there is no trip
criteria for one cooling tower pump trip.
b. Plausible because the student may believe that with air in-leakage problems that this low of gland seal pressure will be
unrecoverable.
c. CORRECT - ONP-14 trip criteria state that if vacuum lowers to > 21.5" Hg the plant must be tripped.
d. Plausible because trip criteria for this condition is not stabilizing above 24" Hg.

26

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• A Reactor trip due to a loss of all offsite power occurs
• A cooldown using the Atmospheric Steam Dump Valves (ADVs) has commenced
• HIC-0780A, Steam Dump Controller, output is set at 50%
• Natural circulation flow has been established
Which one of the following describes:
(1) an indication that natural circulation flow has stopped and;
(2) the action to be taken to restore natural circulation flow?
a. (1) Reactor core Δ T is greater than 50°F.
(2) Throttle open the ADVs.
b. (1) Reactor core Δ T is greater than 50°F.
(2) Throttle closed the ADVs.
c. (1) PCS indicates less than 50°F subcooled.
(2) Throttle open the ADVs.
d. (1) PCS indicates less than 50°F subcooled.
(2) Throttle closed the ADVs.

b. (1) Reactor core Δ T is greater than 50°F.
(2) Throttle closed the ADVs

a. Plausible because opening the ADVs will cause a higher thermal gradient but with natural circ flow stagnated this will
exacerbate the problem because TH will have to rise more to cause natural circ flow.
b. CORRECT - If core differential temperature reaches 50°F or PCS indicates

27

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• A spurious Containment Isolation occurs due to a fault in the Containment High
Radiation circuitry
• ONP-4.1, "Spurious Containment Isolation," is entered
• ONP-4.1 directs closing of CV-2003, CV-2004, and CV-2005, Letdown Orifice Stop
Valves
The reason for closing the Letdown Orifice Stop Valves is because there is a ...
a. potential for flashing at the outlet of the Letdown Orifices.
b. loss of cooling to E-58, Letdown Heat Exchanger.
c. loss of cooling to E-56, Regenerative Heat Exchanger.
d. loss of PCS inventory via RV-2006, Letdown HX Inlet Relief Valve

d. loss of PCS inventory via RV-2006, Letdown HX Inlet Relief Valve

a. Plausible if the student correctly assumes that CV-2009 will close but incorrectly surmises that it causes flashing at the
outlet of the Letdown orifices.
b. Plausible if the student believes that since CCW containment isolation valves close on a CHP that they will also close on
a containment high rad condition.
c. Plausible because the student may believe that charging to the containment isolates on CIS which could lead to a loss of
RHX cooling.
d. CORRECT - When a containment isolation occurs, Letdown Containment Isolation valve, CV-2009 closes which
causes pressure in the upstream letdown line to rise to the relief valve setpoint. Closing the Letdown Orifice
Stop Valves will isolate the relief valve.

28

Given the following with the Plant in MODE 3:
• All Primary Coolant Pumps (PCPs) in service
• The Reactor Operator is in the process of adjusting PCP Controlled Bleedoff pressure
• Alarm EK-0951, "PRI COOLANT PUMP P-50C SEAL PRESS OFF NORMAL,"
annunciates
Based on the above conditions and the below drawing of PR-0140A, PCP, P-50C, Seal
Pressure Recorder, which one of the following describes the seal stage that has failed and the
expected Controlled Bleedoff flow?

Shows first seal pressure rising to 2060 and second rising to 1000. Third (bottom) line is flat.

a. 1st Stage Failure with 0.0 gpm Controlled bleedoff flow.
b. 2nd Stage Failure with 0.0 gpm Controlled bleedoff flow.
c. 1st Stage Failure with 1.0 gpm Controlled bleedoff flow.
d. 2nd Stage Failure with 1.0 gpm Controlled bleedoff flow.

c. 1st Stage Failure with 1.0 gpm Controlled bleedoff flow

a. Plausible if the student believes that a failed seal will cause CBO flow to cease.
b. Plausible if the student believes that the second stage has failed and that a failed seal will cause CBO flow to cease.
c. CORRECT - the first stage has failed because the pressure at the inlet of the second stage is reading PCS
pressure and the remaining two stages are splitting the pressure drop. CBO flow will not go to zero gpm unless
the vapor seal fails (4th stage).
d. Plausible if the student believes that the second stage has failed.

29

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• LIC-0101A, Pressurizer Level Control Channel ‘A’, is in service in Cascade mode
• SS-TAVE, Avg Temperature Display Selector Switch, on Panel C-02 is in the "LOOP 1"
position
• The following alarms annunciate:
o EK-0761, "PRESSURIZER LEVEL HI-LO"
o EK-0967, "LOOP 1/LOOP 2 TAVE DEVIATION"
o EK-0968, "LOOP 1 TAVE/TREF GROSS DEVIATION"
• The setpoint meter (blue pointer) on LIC-0101A indicates 51%
• The process meter (red pointer) on LIC-0101A indicates 57%
• TI-0110, TAVE Digital Temperature Indicator, on Panel C-02 indicates 549°F
Which one of the following describes the impact on the Charging System and the correct
action?
a. Charging Pumps P-55B and P-55C start.
Swap to LIC-0101B, 'B' Pressurizer Level Controller in Cascade.
b. Charging Pump P-55A goes to minimum speed.
Swap to the LOOP 2 TAVE Controller.
c. Charging Pump P-55A goes to minimum speed.
Swap to LIC-0101B, 'B' Pressurizer Level Controller in Cascade.
d. Charging Pumps P-55B and P-55C start.
Swap to the LOOP 2 TAVE Controller.

b. Charging Pump P-55A goes to minimum speed.
Swap to the LOOP 2 TAVE Controller

a. Plausible if the student misapplies the meaning of the readings of the setpoint and process meters which will cause the
student to think that P-55B/C will start and that swapping controllers will alleviate the problem.
b. CORRECT - This will occur if the loop 1 Tc associated with Tave fails low with the loop 1 Tave controller in
service. The only remedy is to place the other Tave controller in service.
c. Plausible if the student believes that swapping controllers will alleviate the problem.
d. Plausible if the student misapplies the meaning of the readings of the setpoint and process meters which will cause the
student to think that P-55B/C will start.

30

Given the following with the Plant in MODE 5:
• The Shutdown Cooling System is in service
• A loss of power to 2400 VAC Bus 1C occurs
• The CRS directs you to throttle LPSI Loop Injection Valves
Which one of the following lists the LPSI Loop Injection Valves that can be throttled from the
Control Room for these conditions?
a. MO-3008, LPSI to Reactor Coolant Loop 1A.
MO-3010, LPSI to Reactor Coolant Loop 1B.
b. MO-3010, LPSI to Reactor Coolant Loop 1B.
MO-3014, LPSI to Reactor Coolant Loop 2B.
c. MO-3012, LPSI to Reactor Coolant Loop 2A.
MO-3014, LPSI to Reactor Coolant Loop 2B.
d. MO-3008, LPSI to Reactor Coolant Loop 1A.
MO-3012, LPSI to Reactor Coolant Loop 2A.

a. Plausible if the student believes both of these are powered from Bus 1C.
b. Plausible if the student believes MO-3010 is powered from Bus 1C.
c. CORRECT - Both of these valves are powered from Bus 1D.
d. Plausible if the student believes MO-3008 is powered from Bus 1C.

31

During normal Shutdown Cooling (SDC) operation with the Plant in MODE 5, the Control
Room Supervisor directs the Reactor Operator to adjust total SDC flow from 3250 gpm to
2850 gpm while maintaining Primary Coolant temperature constant.
To perform this evolution, HIC-3025A, Shutdown Cooling HX Outlet Flow Control, will be
operated in the (1) mode and FIC-0306, Shutdown Cooling HX Bypass Flow Control,
will be operated in the (2) mode.
a. (1) manual
(2) auto
b. (1) auto
(2) manual
c. (1) manual
(2) manual
d. (1) auto
(2) auto

c. (1) manual
(2) manual

a. Plausible if the student confuses the operation of the key switch, which is just below FIC-0306, because this switch is in
the AUTO position for SDC operation. This response is also plausible because FIC-0306 has flow rates on the controller
that correspond to the setpoint meter which could cause the student to believe that a flow rate could be set in AUTO
mode.
b. Plausible if the student confuses operation of HIC-3025A, which is in the control room, with HIC-3025B, which is at the
redundant Safety Injection panel. HIC-3025B is normally in the AUTO mode.
c. CORRECT - Both of these controllers are operated in the manual mode during Shutdown Cooling operations.
d. Plausible for combination of 'a' and 'b'.

32

Given the following:
• The Plant has been tripped in response to a Steam Line Rupture inside Containment
• Safety Injection has actuated
• Containment pressure is 1.5 psig
• EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip Actions," immediate actions are in progress
Which one of the following Safety Injection actuated valves, if found closed, require an
operator to take a contingency action during the performance of EOP-1.0 immediate actions?
a. MO-2169, Boric Acid Storage Tank, T-53A, Gravity Feed Isolation.
b. CV-0861, Containment Air Cooler, VHX-1, High Capacity Outlet Valve.
c. CV-0938, Shutdown Cooling HX, E-60A/B, Component Cooling Inlet Valve.
d. CV-0944A, Component Cooling to SFP HX, Radwaste Evaps, C-50s/54 & NSSS.

b. CV-0861, Containment Air Cooler, VHX-1, High Capacity Outlet Valve.

a. Plausible because this valve should have opened on a safety injection signal but it is not allowed to be manipulated until
after immediate actions are complete.
b. CORRECT - This is a contingency action in EOP-1.0 if Containment Pressure is > 0.85 psig.
c. Plausible because this valve should have opened on a safety injection signal but it is not allowed to be manipulated until
after immediate actions are complete.
d. Plausible if the student believes that restoring CCW flow to the spent fuel pool HX is necessary during EOP-1.0
immediate actions but it is not allowed to be manipulated until after immediate actions are completed..

33

Given the following:
• P-66A, HPSI Pump, is out of service for maintenance
• P-67B, LPSI Pump, is out of service for maintenance
• A Loss of Coolant Accident occurs which causes Primary Coolant System (PCS)
pressure to lower to 100 psia
• All available Safety Injection equipment functions as designed
For these conditions P-66B, HPSI Pump, will be injecting into (1) PCS cold leg loops and
P-67A, LPSI Pump, will be injecting into (2) PCS cold leg loops.
a. (1) four (4)
(2) four (4)
b. (1) four (4)
(2) two (2)
c. (1) two (2)
(2) four (4)
d. (1) two (2)
(2) two (2)

a. (1) four (4)
(2) four (4)

a. CORRECT - Although there are 2 LPSI injection valves for the right train, P-67A will be injecting into all 4 loops
as will P-66B.
b. Plausible if the student has an incorrect mental model of the LPSI system since there are 2 loop injection valves on each
train of SIS. The student believes that these are associated with the pump only.
c. Plausible because the student could correctly assume that each LPSI pump will inject into all 4 cold leg loops but each
HPSI pump only injects into 2 cold leg loops because there are 2 trains of HPSI.
d. Plausible for a combination of 'b' and 'c' above.

34

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• T-3, Component Cooling Water (CCW) Surge Tank, level is 57%
• A small leak develops in the CCW System that is within the capacity of the surge tank
makeup system
Which one of the following describes the indications that would be observed in the Control
Room for T-3 due the above conditions?
a. Low level alarm is received and CV-0918, T-3 Fill, opens when T-3 reaches 47%.
b. Only CV-0918, T-3 Fill, opens when T-3 reaches 35%.
c. Only CV-0918, T-3 Fill, opens when T-3 reaches 47%.
d. Low level alarm is received and CV-0918, T-3 Fill, opens when T-3 reaches 35%.

c. Only CV-0918, T-3 Fill, opens when T-3 reaches 47%.

a. Plausible if the student correctly determines the auto refill setpoint but also believes that the low level alarm will occur
simultaneously. It is plausible for the student to believe that the low level alarm initiates when the auto refill valve opens
to warn operators of a potential leak.
b. Plausible if the student correctly determines that only the auto refill will open but incorrectly recalls the setpoint. The
student confuses it with the low alarm setpoint.
c. CORRECT - Auto refill initiates at 47% surge tank level and the low level alarm is received at 35% level, however,
the low level alarm will not be received since the leak is within the surge tank makeup capacity.
d. Plausible for a combination of reasons ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

35

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• EK-0733, “QUENCH TANK HI-LO LEVEL,” alarm annunciates
• EK-0732, “QUENCH TANK HI PRESS,” alarm annunciates
• T-73. Quench Tank, level indicates 81% with pressure indicating 12 psig
• The Control Room team has diagnosed that RV-1039, Pressurizer Relief Valve, is
leaking
• ONP-23.1, "Primary Coolant Leak," has been implemented
Which one of the following actions will the Control Room team perform to prevent RUD-0162,
T-73 Rupture Disc, from actuating?
a. Drain the Quench Tank to T-80, Equipment Drain Tank.
b. Drain the Quench Tank to T-74, Primary System Drain Tank.
c. Vent the Quench Tank to the Containment.
d. Vent the Quench Tank to the Vent Gas Collection Header (VGCH).

b. Drain the Quench Tank to T-74, Primary System Drain Tank.

a. Plausible if the student believes that the Quench tank is drained to the Equipment Drain Tank.
b. CORRECT - this is the correct action to take per ARP-4 window 33.
c. Plausible if the student believes that the correct action is to vent the tank; however, venting the tank will only provide a
temporary reprieve. As long as the relief valve is still lifting, the level will rise and the pressure will rise. This is also the
wrong location to vent the Quench tank.
d. Plausible if the student believes that the correct action is to vent the tank.

36

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• A loss of offsite power occurs
• Diesel Generator 1-1 starts and sequences loads as designed
• Diesel Generator 1-2 will not start
Five minutes later, a leak develops in the Component Cooling Water (CCW) System which
causes CCW pressure to lower from 105 psig to 77 psig
For the above conditions, which one of the following describes which CCW Pumps will be
operating?
a. P-52B only.
b. P-52A only.
c. P-52B and P-52C.
d. P-52A and P-52C.

b. P-52A only.

a. Plausible if the student believes that P-52B is powered from 1C bus.
b. CORRECT - P-52A is powered from 1C bus which is supplied by the 1-1 Diesel Generator. P-52C is also powered
from 1C bus but will not start unless pressure is less than 80 psig at the time it is to be sequenced onto the bus.
c. Plausible if the student believes that P-52B is powered from 1C bus and that P-52C will start since pressure lowered to

37

Given the following during a Plant cooldown:
• A bubble exists in the Pressurizer
• Pressurizer pressure is 1200 psia
• Quench Tank, T-73, pressure is 5 psig
• Low Temperature Overpressure Protection (LTOP) System is in service
• Then, Power Operated Relief Valve, PRV-1042B, lifts
• The Control Room team isolates PRV-1042B by closing MO-1042A, PRV-1042B
isolation
Which one of the following is the approximate temperature downstream of PRV-1042B
immediately after closure of MO-1042A?
a. 212°F.
b. 230°F.
c. 282°F.
d. 332°F.

c. 282°F

a. Plausible if the student believes that the rupture disk will actuate causing quench tank pressure to lower to 0 psig.
b. Plausible if the student misinterprets the mollier diagram and takes the point back to the saturation curve.
c. CORRECT - per Mollier diagram for constant enthalpy process.
d. Plausible if the student believes that quench tank pressure will immediately rise to the rupture disc setpoint (100 psig)
and then remain 100 psig.

38

The Plant is performing startup physics testing following a refueling outage with the following
conditions:
• Zero Power Mode (ZPM) Bypass has been placed in operation per SOP-36, "Reactor
Protective System and Anticipate Transient Without Scram (ATWS) System"
• Reactor power is currently 1x10-5
% and stable
• Then, NI-03A, Wide Range Nuclear Instrument (NI), fails high
ZPM Bypass for the Reactor Protective System (1) be removed because
(2) .
a. (1) will
(2) Wide Range NI power will exceed 10-4% on at least one channel
b. (1) will not
(2) Power Range NI power will not exceed 15% on at least one channel
c. (1) will
(2) Wide Range NI SUR will rise above 1.5 dpm on at least one channel
d. (1) will not
(2) Wide Range NI power will not exceed 10-4% on at least three channels

a. (1) will
(2) Wide Range NI power will exceed 10-4% on at least one channel

a. CORRECT - ZPM bypass is automatically removed if any wide range NI exceed 10-4% power.
b. Plausible because this is the setpoint for bypassing the High SUR trip and enabling the loss of load trip.
c. Plausible if the student confuses the high SUR pre-trip with the logic for removing the bypass for ZPM.
d. Plausible if the student believes that power must be above the setpoint for removing the bypass on 3/4 channels.

39

Given the following:
• A manual Plant trip has occurred due to a Loss of Coolant Accident
• EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip Actions," are in progress
• Containment Isolation Radiation Monitors (RIA-1805, RIA-1806, RIA-1807, RIA-1808)
are rising
EOP-1.0 immediate actions direct the operator to verify EK-1126, Containment Isolation Signal
initiated (CIS INITIATED), is in alarm or push left and right HIGH RADIATION INITIATE
pushbuttons on Panel C-13 when (1) Containment Isolation Radiation Monitor(s) reach
the alarm setpoint and to (2) .
a. (1) at least two
(2) ensure all Containment Isolation Valves are closed
b. (1) at least two
(2) corroborate with Containment High Range Gamma monitors, RIA-2321 and RIA-2322,
readings
c. (1) any
(2) ensure all Containment Isolation Valves are closed
d. (1) any
(2) corroborate with Containment High Range Gamma monitors, RIA-2321 and RIA-2322,
readings

d. (1) any
(2) corroborate with Containment High Range Gamma monitors, RIA-2321 and RIA-2322,
readings

a. Plausible because the normal logic for Containment high rad is two out of four and the student confuses the actions for
high containment rad with high containment pressure which requires the operator to verify isolation valves are closed.
b. Plausible because the normal logic for Containment high rad is two out of four.
c. Plausible if the student confuses the actions for high containment rad with high containment pressure which requires the
operator to verify isolation valves are closed.
d. CORRECT - Contingency action in EOP-1.0 states that the HIGH RAD pushbuttons can be pushed in any
containment radiation monitor alarms and the reading must be corroborated with RIA-2321 and 2322.

40

Given the following during a Plant cooldown in MODE 3:
• Pressurizer pressure is 1500 psia
• Safety Injection has been blocked
• I&C Maintenance has inadvertantly caused a Containment High Pressure (CHP) signal
to be generated for the right channel (2/4 CHP pressure switches reach their setpoint)
Which one of the following describes the impact on P-54A, Containment Spray Pump, and
CV-3002, Containment Spray Valve, and the required action?
a. P-54A will start; CV-3002 will open. Reset CHP signal on Panel C-13.
b. P-54A will not start; CV-3002 will open. Reset CHP signal on Panel C-13.
c. P-54A will not start; CV-3002 will open. Close CV-3002.
d. P-54A will start; CV-3002 will open. Stop P-54A and close CV-3002.

d. P-54A will start; CV-3002 will open. Stop P-54A and close CV-3002.

a. Plausible if the student believes that resetting the CHP signal will stop the pump.
b. Plausible if the student believes that SIS is blocked from a CHP signal and that resetting the CHP signal will stop the
pump. This is plausible because for the spray pump to auto start, SIS must arm it first.
c. Plausible if the student believes that SIS is blocked from a CHP signal. This is plausible because for the spray pump to
auto start, SIS must arm it first.
d. CORRECT - Spray pump will start because SIS 'arm' signal will occur because the SIS block circuit only blocks
SIS on low pressurizer pressure not CHP. CV-3002 will open because a CHP signal is received. Correct action is
to secure P-54A close CV-3002 per ONP-4.1. Resetting the CHP signal will not affect the status of P-54A and
CV-3002.

41

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• A manual Plant trip is initiated in response to a Steam Line break from the 'A' Steam
Generator
• Containment pressure reaches 6 psig
Which one of the following describes the expected configuration due to the above conditions
for the components listed below?
• V-4A, Containment Air Cooling (CAC) Recirc Fan
• CV-0869, VHX-4 Containment Air Cooler Inlet Valve
• CV-0867, VHX-4 Containment Air Cooler Outlet Valve

V-4A CV-0869 (Inlet) CV-0867 (Outlet)
a. ON CLOSED OPEN
b. OFF OPEN CLOSED
c. ON OPEN CLOSED
d. ON OPEN OPEN

a. ON CLOSED OPEN

a. CORRECT - The fan stays in service, the inlet valve closes and the outlet valve opens on SIS. Containment
pressure of 4 psig causes an SIS to occur.
b. Plausible if the student believes that V-4A trips since it does not have cooling water.
c. Plausible if the student believes that the outlet valve closes on SIS, the outlet valve actually receives an open signal on
SIS.
d. Plausible if the student believes that V-4A and associated valves are not affected due to a Containment High Pressure
condition. This is a correct determination but a CHP causes Safety Injection to occur.

42

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• A Plant trip due to a Loss of Coolant Accident occurs
• 2400 VAC Bus 1C trips on overcurrent and de-energizes
• A Recirculation Actuation Signal (RAS) is received
Which one of the following alignments will provide the maximum allowable Containment Spray
flow and HPSI Subcooling flow for the above conditions?
a. One Containment Spray Valve open and;
One HPSI Subcooling Valve open.
b. One Containment Spray Valve open and;
Both HPSI Subcooling Valves open.
c. Both Containment Spray Valves open and;
One HPSI Subcooling Valve open.
d. Both Containment Spray Valves open and;
Both HPSI Subcooling Valves open.

d. Both Containment Spray Valves open and;
Both HPSI Subcooling Valves open

a. CORRECT - for these conditions only one spray pump is available. Each spray pump can supply two loads; any
combination of spray valves and subcooling valves.
b. Plausible if the student believes that both HPSI pumps are available.
c. Plausible if the student believes that two spray pumps are available and one HPSI pump is available.
d. Plausible if the student believes that both HPSI pumps are available and two spray pumps are available.

43

Which one of the following describes the design of the Main Steam Isolation Valves automatic
closure logic for a Main Steam line break inside Containment?
a. Either Steam Generator pressure lowers to 500 psia and Containment pressure rises
to 4 psig.
b. Both Steam Generator pressures lower to 500 psia and Containment pressure rises
to 4 psig.
c. Both Steam Generator pressures lower to 500 psia or Containment pressure rises
to 4 psig.
d. Either Steam Generator pressure lowers to 500 psia or Containment pressure rises
to 4 psig.

d. Either Steam Generator pressure lowers to 500 psia or Containment pressure rises
to 4 psig.

a. Plausible if the student believes that both S/G pressure and containment pressure must rise above the setpoint to cause
MSIV closure.
b. Plausible for the same reason as ‘a’. Additionally, the student may believe that each MSIV is closed by its respective
pressure channels reaching 500 psia on 2/4.
c. Plausible if the student believes that each MSIV is closed by its respective pressure channels reaching 500 psia on 2/4.
d. CORRECT - Either S/G pressure lowering to 500 psia or containment pressure reaching 4.0 psig will close both
MSIVs.

44

EOP-1.0, “Standard Post-Trip Actions,” direct the Control Room team to ensure tripped both
Main Feed Pumps (MFPs) if the Main Steam Isolation Valves (MSIVs) are closed.
What is the reason for this action?
a. Ensures the MFP Aux Oil Pump will automatically start.
b. Prevents air in-leakage to the Condenser from the steam line traps.
c. Prevents MFP Turbine overspeed if steam is re-initiated.
d. Prevents Low Pressure steam from pressurizing the Main Steam lines.

c. Prevents MFP Turbine overspeed if steam is re-initiated.

a. Plausible as the Aux Oil Pump will Auto start when control oil pressure is low - student may believe that tripping is part of
the logic.
b. Plausible as the steam header is depressurized and the turbine governor valves will be full open.
c. CORRECT - when the turbine slows down on a trip, the governor valves go full open. If steam is re-initiated with
these valves full open, the turbine will overspeed.
d. Plausible because the MFP receives low pressure steam as well as high pressure steam - the student believes that there
could be a flow path available for this to occur because the MSRs may have steam remaining in them.

45

With the Plant at full power, which one of the following will cause TAVE to initially rise?
a. LIA-0702, 'A' Steam Generator (S/G) Level Indicator Alarm (C-12), fails high.
b. LIC-0701, 'A' S/G Level Indicating Controller (C-01), level indication fails low.
c. FT-0701, 'A' S/G Feed Flow Transmitter Indicator (C-01), fails low.
d. FT-0702, 'A' S/G Steam Flow Transmitter Indicator (C-01), fails high.

a. LIA-0702, 'A' Steam Generator (S/G) Level Indicator Alarm (C-12), fails high

a. CORRECT - This indication initiates S/G high level override which will close 'A' S/G feed reg valve, which causes
TAVE to rise.
b. Plausible but if the level indication fails low, the feed reg valve will open, which causes TAVE to lower.
c. Plausible but if the feed flow input to the S/G level controller fails low, the feed reg valve will open, which will cause TAVE
to lower.
d. Plausible but if the steam flow input to the S/G level controller fails high, the feed reg valve will open, which will cause
TAVE to lower.

46

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• A loss of all offsite power occurs
• Diesel Generator 1-1 will not start automatically or manually
Which Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) Pump(s) will be operating one-minute after an Auxiliary
Feedwater Actuation Signal occurs? (Assume no Operator actions occur.)
a. Only AFW Pump P-8A.
b. Only AFW Pump P-8C.
c. AFW Pumps P-8B and P-8C.
d. Only AFW Pump P-8B.

b. Only AFW Pump P-8C.

a. Plausible if the student believes that P-8A is powered from D/G 1-2.
b. CORRECT - P-8A does not have power available and P-8C will start after 30 seconds after the AFAS. P-8B will
not start until 112 seconds after the AFAS only if there is not flow. Since P-8C starts there will be flow.
c. Plausible if the student believes P-8B will start second and P-8C starts in addition to P-8B.
d. Plausible if the student believes that P-8B will start second in the sequence of AFAS.

47

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• All 4160V and 2400 VAC Buses are being supplied from the normal source
• No equipment is out of service
A fault then occurs on Startup Transformer 1-2. One of the alarms that annunciates is:
EK-0527, START-UP TRANSFORMER NO. 1-2 SUDDEN PRESS
Due to the fault, the Plant (1) and Switchyard Rear Bus (2) .
a. (1) will trip
(2) will de-energize
b. (1) will trip
(2) will not de-energize
c. (1) will not trip
(2) will de-energize
d. (1) will not trip
(2) will not de-energize

c. (1) will not trip
(2) will de-energize

a. Plausible if the student correctly assumes S/U 1-2 XFMR supplies 2400V buses and the fast transfer capability is
currently bypassed, but incorrectly assumes that S/U 1-2 XFMR is currently supplying power.
b. Plausible because of 'a' above and the student believes that the S/U 1-2 XFMR has an isolation between the XFMR and
the Rear Bus.
c. CORRECT - 2400V buses are being supplied by the safeguards transformer so the plan will not trip. However,
there are no breakers between the Startup Transformers and the Rear Bus, so it will trip to isolate the fault.
d. Plausible if the student believes that the S/U 1-2 XFMR has an isolation between the XFMR and the Rear Bus.

48

The Plant has just been synchronized to the grid with power at 10% when a DC Bus ground
occurs causing the 250 amp fuses supplying D21-2, 125 VDC Distribution Panel, to actuate
and de-energize D21-2.
Which one of the following describes (1) the expected Plant response to this failure and (2) the
required action?
a. (1) CV-1359, Non-critical Service Water Isolation, closes.
(2) Trip the Reactor.
b. (1) CV-1359, Non-critical Service Water Isolation, closes.
(2) Trip the Turbine.
c. (1) CV-2099, PCP Controlled Bleedoff Containment Isolation, closes.
(2) Trip the Reactor and all Primary Coolant Pumps.
d. (1) CV-2099, PCP Controlled Bleedoff Containment Isolation, closes.
(2) Verify Controlled Bleedoff pressure is

a. (1) CV-1359, Non-critical Service Water Isolation, closes.
(2) Trip the Reactor.

a. CORRECT - CV-1359 is a fail safe on loss of power valve and it receives power from D-21-2 and ONP-6.1 trip
criteria state to trip the reactor if CV-1359 closes.
b. Plausible because for most off-normal events when plant power is

49

The Plant has tripped from full power due to a loss of all offsite power. Neither Diesel
Generator will start. For these conditions, which one of the following describes the importance
of performing EOP Supplements 7 and 8, "Station Battery Load Stripping?"
Station Battery Load Stripping is designed to ...
a. extend battery capacity from 30 minutes to two hours while maintaining DC bus voltage at
greater than 105 volts.
b. ensure that the emergency loads are supplied by DC voltage at greater than 125 volts for a
minimum of two hours.
c. prevent generating an explosive mixture of Hydrogen and Oxygen by limiting output current
to less than 150 amps.
d. extend battery capacity from two hours to four hours while maintaining DC bus voltage at
greater than 105 volts.

d. extend battery capacity from two hours to four hours while maintaining DC bus voltage at
greater than 105 volts

a. Plausible because the student correctly assumes the reason is to extend battery capacity but incorrectly recalls the
amount of time.
b. Plausible because this is the nominal DC bus voltage that is required to be maintained during normal operation.
c. Plausible because this is a concern for battery operation but this is not the purpose of load stripping.
d. CORRECT - Battery capacity is extended from two to four hours by isolating select DC loads

50

Given the following Diesel Generator (D/G) conditions with the Plant in MODE 1:

D/G 1-1 (operating) D/G 1-2 (standby)
Hot JW Temp 155°F 120°F
Hot LO Temperature 160°F 106°F
Starting Air Train Press150 psig 145 psig
Starting Air Tank Press 150 psig 145 psig
Parallel/Unit Selector SW PARALLEL UNIT

Which one of the following describes the D/G(s); if any that is (are) INOPERABLE due to the
above conditions?
a. Only D/G 1-1.
b. Only D/G 1-2.
c. Both D/G 1-1 and D/G 1-2.
d. Neither D/G 1-1 nor D/G 1-2.

c. Both D/G 1-1 and D/G 1-2.

a. Plausible if the student believes that air tank pressure for D/G 1-2 is in spec.
b. Plausible if the student believes that having the D/G in parallel mode does not make it inoperable and that D/G 1-1 air
tank pressure is in spec.
c. CORRECT - D/G 1-1 selector switch is in parallel and air tank pressure is too low, D/G 1-2 air tank pressure is too
low.
d. Plausible if the student believes that all parameters are in spec.

51

RE-1113, Waste Gas Process Monitor radiation element, consists of a detector mounted on
one side of the Waste Gas discharge pipe with a window through the pipe wall, with the pipe
four inches in diameter (see below). The detector is a point detector located one-inch from the
inner diameter of the pipe.

Compare the differences in radiation readings for a hot particle that passes along the side of
the pipe closest to the detector (Position 'A' above) to the same hot particle that passes along
the side of the pipe farthest away from the detector (Position 'B' above).
The reading for Position 'A' will be times greater than the reading for
Position 'B'.

a. 4
b. 5
c. 16
d. 25

d. 25

a. Plausible if the student uses linear proportionality and does not account for the inch.
b. Plausible if the student uses linear proportionality.
c. Plausible if the student uses correct proportionality (squared) but does not account for the inch.
d. CORRECT - Dose is proportional to the square of the distance. A count rate of 25 dpm at 1 inch would be
equivalent of a count rate of 1 dpm at 5 inches.

52

With the Plant operating at full power, which one of the following valves does not re-position if
a Containment High Pressure (CHP) signal actuation occurs?
a. CV-1359, Non-critical Service Water Header Isolation Valve.
b. CV-0823, CCW Heat Exchanger E-54A High Capacity SW Outlet Valve.
c. CV-0977B, CCW Return from Rad Waste Evaps and C-54, Waste Gas Compressor.
d. CV-0911, CCW from Containment Isolation Valve.

b. CV-0823, CCW Heat Exchanger E-54A High Capacity SW Outlet Valve.

a. Plausible because this valve repositions on a SIS signal but a CHP causes a SIS.
b. CORRECT - CV-0823 opens on a Recirc Actuation Signal only.
c. Plausible because this valve repositions on a SIS signal but a CHP causes a SIS.
d. Plausible if the student believes that this valve is manually closed only during EOP supplement 6, Checksheet For
Containment Isolation And CCW Restoration.

53

Given the following:
• Instrument Air Compressor, C-2A, is in operation in HAND
• Instrument Air Compressor, C-2C, is in AUTO
• Instrument Air Compressor, C-2B, is removed from service for maintenance
• An air leak develops on the discharge of C-2A causing air pressure to lower to 85 psig
• C-2A subsequently trips
• The air leak is then isolated by closing the discharge of C-2A
How will C-2C respond to this instrument air pressure transient?
C-2C will ...
a. auto start but will not load unless air pressure lowers to 80 psig.
b. auto-start and load. Will unload when pressure reaches 105 psig, will load again if
pressure lowers to 85 psig.
c. auto-start and load. Will unload when pressure reaches 105 psig, will load again if
pressure lowers to 95 psig.
d. auto-start and load. Will run fully loaded regardless of air pressure until placed in OFF and
returned to AUTO.

c. auto-start and load. Will unload when pressure reaches 105 psig, will load again if
pressure lowers to 95 psig.

a. Plausible if the student misapplies the auto start feature of the standby air compressor.
b. Plausible if the student confuses the setpoint for auto closure of service air automatic isolation with the standby
compressor loading setpoint.
c. CORRECT - C-2C will auto start since it is in standby and will unload and load at 105 and 95 psig, respectively.
d. Plausible if the student believes that the air compressor does not load/unload when in standby.

54

Given the following with the Plant in MODE 5:
• The Shutdown Cooling System is in service
• The Equipment Hatch is open
• Then, a loss of Shutdown Cooling occurs
• The Control Room team enters ONP-17, "Loss of Shutdown Cooling"
Which one of the following describes the strategy for closing the Equipment Hatch in
accordance with ONP-17?
The Equipment Hatch shall be closed within ...
a. ONE hour only.
b. FOUR hours only.
c. the approximate time for PCS temperature to reach 200°F only.
d. the approximate time for PCS temperature to reach 200°F or FOUR hours, whichever
occurs first.

d. the approximate time for PCS temperature to reach 200°F or FOUR hours, whichever
occurs first.

a. Plausible if the student believes that this is associated with a ≤ one hour TS action statement.
b. Plausible if the student believes that PCS temperature is not a factor in determining the amount of time to close the
equipment hatch
c. Plausible if the student believes that amount of time is not a factor in determining when the equipment hatch is required
to be closed.
d. CORRECT - ONP-17 requires the hatch to be closed when PCS temperature reaches 200°F because the plant will
not be in MODE 5 and LCO 3.9.4 and 3.9.5 require the hatch to be closed within 4 hours.

55

Which one of the following combinations of Containment conditions will require the Control
Room team to perform a contingency action for the Containment Isolation safety function
during the performance of EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip Actions," immediate actions?

TEMP Press Radiation
a. 175°F 0.4 psig 0.6 x 10^1 R/Hr
b. 135°F 0.9 psig 0.8 x 10^1 R/Hr
c. 120°F 3.1 psig 0.6 x 10^1 R/Hr
d. 120°F 0.4 psig 1.1 x 10^1 R/Hr

d. 120°F 0.4 psig 1.1 x 10^1 R/Hr

a. Plausible because temperature is above the limit for meeting containment atmosphere safety function but is not included
in containment isolation safety function and the student confuses this value for temperature at which degraded
containment operating curves would be used.
b. Plausible because the student recognizes that pressure is above the limit for meeting the containment isolation safety
function and temperature is above the limit for Containment atmosphere safety function and the student believes that
both must be above the limit for a contingency action to be taken.
c. Plausible because the student recognizes that pressure is above the limit for meeting the containment isolation safety
function but this value does not require a contingency action and the student confuses the value associated with a
contingency action with the pressure at which degraded containment operating curves would be used.
d. CORRECT - A Containment rad monitor reading of 10R/hour requires that the control room perform contingency
action 9.b.1.

56

The Plant is at full power when a loss of Instrument Air occurs. As a result, Pressurizer
pressure will ...
a. rise because the Spray valves fail closed.
b. lower because the Spray valves fail open.
c. remain steady because the Spray valves fail as-is.
d. remain steady because the Spray valves have backup Nitrogen.

a. rise because the Spray valves fail closed

a. CORRECT - Spray valves are air to open so they fail closed.
b. Plausible if the student believes that the spray valves fail open on loss of air.
c. Plausible if the student believes that the design of the spray valves is similar to the feed reg valves and they fail as-is.
d. Plausible because many safety related valves in the plant such as ADVs, AFW control valves, etc., have nitrogen
backup.

57

With the Plant at full power, Load Control Center 11 (LCC-11) de-energizes due to a ground
over-current fault. Which one of the following describes available Charging Pumps (P-55A,
P-55B, and P-55C) that can be operated from the Control Room for the above condition?
(Assume no Operator action is taken.)
a. P-55C only.
b. P-55A and P-55B.
c. P-55A and P-55C.
d. P-55B only.

a. P-55C only.

a. Plausible - student incorrectly recalls power supplies.
b. CORRECT - LCC-11 powers P-55C only.
c. Plausible - student incorrectly recalls power supplies.
d. Plausible - student incorrectly recalls power supplies.

58

A rapid power reduction is commenced from full power per ONP-26, “Rapid Power Reduction."
While control rods are being inserted, Control Rod #38 becomes mechanically bound at
80 inches and does not move with the rest of the group. If this condition were to go unnoticed
by the Control Room team, which one of the following describes the sequence of alarms to
warn of this condition? (Assume switch positions are as shown below.)

Rod 29 33 and 38 selected

a. EK-0916, "CONTROL RODS OUT OF SEQUENCE," then
EK-0911, "ROD POSITION 4 INCHES DEVIATION."
b. EK-0911, "ROD POSITION 4 INCHES DEVIATION," then
EK-0916, "CONTROL RODS OUT OF SEQUENCE."
c. EK-0911, "ROD POSITION 4 INCHES DEVIATION," then
EK-0912, "ROD POSITION 8 INCHES DEVIATION."
d. EK-0911, "ROD POSITION 4 INCHES DEVIATION," then
EK-0941, "GROUP 4 PREPWR DEPENDENT INSERTION LIMIT."

c. EK-0911, "ROD POSITION 4 INCHES DEVIATION," then
EK-0912, "ROD POSITION 8 INCHES DEVIATION."

a. Plausible because the student may believe that sequencing is still operable, however since rod 38 is the stuck rod, only
group 4 rods will continue moving.
b. Plausible for the same reason as 'a' above and the student misapplies the setpoint for a control rod out of sequence.
c. CORRECT - Only rods 39, 40, and 41 will continue moving in since the stuck rod is also the target rod for
sequencing and PPDIL/PDIL calculations.
d. Plausible if the student correctly assumes that the 4 inch deviation will occur first, however, the PPDIL alarm will not
come in since this is an input from the stuck rod (PIP).

59

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• LIC-0101B, Pressurizer Level Control Channel 'B', is in service in CASCADE mode
• LT-0101B, Level Input to LIC-0101B, diaphram ruptures causing pressure on both sides
to equalize
Due to this failure, LIC-0101B will indicate (1) which will cause (2) .
a. (1) HIGH
(2) P-55A, Charging Pump, speed to be minimum
b. (1) LOW
(2) P-55B and P-55C, Charging Pumps to start
c. (1) HIGH
(2) P-55A, Charging Pump, to trip
d. (1) LOW
(2) Pressurizer Heaters to trip

a. (1) HIGH
(2) P-55A, Charging Pump, speed to be minimum

a. CORRECT - PZR level works via a differential pressure cell with one reference leg that is maintained full and a
variable leg that is connected to the bottom of the PZR. When PZR level rises, dp lowers so indicated level will
rise. If the diaphram ruptures, the dp is minimum, so level will indicate high which will then call for maximum
letdown and minimum charging, therefore P-55A goes to minimum speed.
b. Plausible if the student believes that the diaphram rupture will cause indication to be low.
c. Plausible if the student correctly assumes level will fail high but that also P-55A will trip from LIC-0101B.
d. Plausible if the student believes that the diaphram rupture will cause indication to be low and that LIC-0101B controls
Pressurizer Heaters. LIA-0102 controls Pressurizer Heaters.

60

For accident conditions with no Primary Coolant Pumps operating, which one of the following
is the preferred instrument for monitoring temperature in the Reactor core and why?
a. Core Exit Thermocouples because they do not rely on forced flow.
b. Hot Leg Temperatures because they are more accurate at higher temperatures.
c. Core Exit Thermocouples because they are more accurate at higher temperatures.
d. Hot Leg Temperatures because the detectors are located directly in the flow of natural
circulation.

a. Core Exit Thermocouples because they do not rely on forced flow

a. CORRECT - since CETs are in the core they will be representative of core temperature even without forced flow.
b. Plausible if the student believes that hot leg temperature RTDs are closer to the core than CETs.
c. Plausible if the student correctly assumes CETs are the correct method for monitoring but believes that it is because they
are more accurate.
d. Plausible if the student believes that since natural circulation is the method for heat removal that hot leg temperatures are
preferred to monitor.

61

Given the following:
• A leak develops in E-53A/B, Spent Fuel Pool Cooling Heat Exchanger
• The leak in E-53A/B is isolated
• ONP-23.4, "Loss of Spent Fuel Pool Cooling," is entered
• The Spent Fuel Pool is heating up at 3°F per hour
• Initial Spent Fuel Pool Temperature is 94°F
Assuming Spent Fuel Pool cooling is not restored, approximately how long will it take to reach
the maximum allowable Spent Fuel Pool temperature per SOP-27, "Fuel Pool System?"
Do not consider instrument inaccuracies or operating margin.
a. 5 hours.
b. 10 hours.
c. 19 hours.
d. 35 hours.

c. 19 hours.

a. Plausible because this is the time that is calculated using the eSOMS administrative limit (110°F).
b. Plausible because this is the time that is calculated using the HI alarm (125°F).
c. CORRECT - The max allowable temperature is 150°F. 150°F - 94°F is 56 then divide by 3°F per hour which yields
approximately 18.7 hours.
d. Plausible as this is the time that is arrived at by using the temperature that is used in the calculation in the ONP for loss
of SFP cooling, ONP-23.4 (200°F).

62

Given the following:
• The Plant tripped from full power ten minutes ago
• 386/AST, Turbine Trip Lockout Relay, did not actuate when the turbine tripped
• Both Main Steam Isolation Valves are closed
• All other equipment functioned as designed
Assuming no other Operator actions, what is the approximate PCS cold leg temperature for the
above event?
a. 535°F.
b. 540°F.
c. 545°F.
d. 550°F.

c. 545°F

a. Plausible if the student believes that the Turbine Bypass valve will be controlling for this event, however, with the MSIVs
closed, this is not possible.
b. Plausible if the student believes that the Steam Dump valves will be controlling for this event, however, since 386/AST
did not actuate, this is not possible.
c. CORRECT - The first set of 8 Main Steam Safety Valves will open at 1000 psia to maintain temperature in the
PCS. Using steam tables this corresponds to 545°F in the S/G. PCS cold leg temperature will be approximately
the same as S/G temperature.
d. Plausible if the student believes that the second set of 8 Steam Relief valves will open, however, since each relief can
pass ~ 4% of full steam flow, decay heat would need to be greater than 32% for these to open.

63

During a Plant startup, GOP-5, "Power Escalation in MODE 1," requires that Reactor power be
maintained between 15% and 28.5% to perform a heat balance calculation and corresponding
instrument adjustments (NIs and Δ T power).
Performing the heat balance calculation above 15% power ensures (1) and
performing the heat balance calculation below 28.5% power ensures (2) .
a. (1) the heat balance calculation is accurate.
(2) ASI and AXIAL OFFSET track within 1.5% at higher powers.
b. (1) the heat balance calculation is accurate.
(2) the VHPT function meets the requirements of the safety analysis at higher powers.
c. (1) the Thermal Margin Monitor bias is within the required adjustment range.
(2) ASI and AXIAL OFFSET track within 1.5% at higher powers.
d. (1) the Thermal Margin Monitor bias is within the required adjustment range.
(2) the VHPT function meets the requirements of the safety analysis at higher powers

b. (1) the heat balance calculation is accurate.
(2) the VHPT function meets the requirements of the safety analysis at higher powers.

a. Plausible because ASI is required to be operable above 25% power and proper operation of the ex-cores would ensure
this.
b. CORRECT - performing the heat balance below 15% power will not be accurate and ensuring power is

64

Which one of the following Area Radiation Monitors will cause an automatic equipment
actuation due to a valid high radiation condition?
a. RIA-2300, Engineered Safeguards Room Monitor.
b. RIA-2314, Air Room Monitor.
c. RIA-5709, Spent Fuel Pool Criticality Monitor.
d. RIA-5710, Penetration and Fan Room Monitor.

d. RIA-5710, Penetration and Fan Room Monitor.

a. Plausible because the ventilation to the safeguards rooms is isolated on a high rad condition but the signal comes from
RIA-1810 and RIA-1811.
b. Plausible because there is recirculation fan associated with the air room, the student believes that a high rad alarm on
RIA-2314 shuts down this fan.
c. Plausible because there are two ventilation systems that are associated with the SFP area and they shutdown on a high
radiation condition but not from this monitor.
d. CORRECT - This area monitor trips ventilation fans V-78 and V-79 upon an alarm.

65

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• C-2C, Instrument Air Compressor, is in HAND
• C-2A, Instrument Air Compressor, is in AUTO
• C-2B, Instrument Air Compressor, is out of service for maintenance
• 480 VAC Bus 11 (LCC-11) de-energizes due an overcurrent condition
• The following alarms annunciate:
o EK-1101, "CONTAINMENT INSTR AIR LO PRESS"
o EK-1102, "INSTRUMENT AIR LO PRESS"
o EK-1103, "SERVICE AIR LO PRESS"
Which one of the following describes the impact on the Plant and the action that will restore
Instrument Air pressure?
a. Track Alley Sprinkler System actuates.
Manually start C-2A, Instrument Air Compressor.
b. Track Alley Sprinkler System actuates.
Open CV-1221, Plant Air Cross-tie from Feedwater Purity Air.
c. Cooling Tower Deluge System actuates.
Manually start C-2A, Instrument Air Compressor.
d. Cooling Tower Deluge System actuates.
Open CV-1221, Plant Air Cross-tie from Feedwater Purity Air

b. Track Alley Sprinkler System actuates.
Open CV-1221, Plant Air Cross-tie from Feedwater Purity Air.

a. Plausible if the student correctly assumes the impact but believes that C-2A is powered from LCC-12.
b. CORRECT - Service air supplies the track alley sprinkler system and opening CV-1221 is the only option for
restoring air pressure because there are no available compressors to start.
c. Plausible if the student believes that the Cooling Tower deluge system receives air from station air (it is bottled nitrogen)
and that C-2A is powered from LCC-12.
d. Plausible if the student believes that the Cooling Tower deluge system receives air from station air (it is bottled nitrogen).

66

ONP-25.2, "Alternate Safe Shutdown Procedure," contains the following step:
16. VERIFY Bus 1C OR Bus 1D is energized.

The symbol "☼" indicates this step:
a. must be performed in the Control Room.
b. must be performed locally.
c. is continuously applicable.
d. has emergency lighting provided.

d. has emergency lighting provided.

a. Plausible distracter.
b. Plausible distracter.
c. Plausible distracter.
d. CORRECT

67

Given the following with the Plant operating at full power:
• T-2, Condensate Storage Tank, temperature is 100°F
• T-81, Primary System Makeup Storage Tank, temperature is 80°F
• Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) flow will be initiated to the 'B' Steam Generator only at the
programmed value for an Auxiliary Feedwater Actuation Signal (AFAS)
Prior to initiation of AFW flow, Heat Balance power must be lowered to a maximum of ...
a. 99.5%.
b. 99.4%.
c. 99.3%.
d. 99.1%.

a. 99.5%.

a. CORRECT - using 100°F as AFW temperature and 165 gpm as flow rate.
b. Plausible if the student correctly arrives at 165 gpm but believes that power must be less than the number obtained on
the graph.
c. Plausible if the student uses 330 gpm and 100°F as AFW temperature.
d. Plausible if the student uses 330 gpm and 80°F as AFW temperature.

68

With the Plant operating at full power, NI-5, Power Range Nuclear Instrument, subchannel 'A'
fails low due to a faulty amplifier (see picture below showing C-06, Reactor Protective System
Panel, indications).

Shows two amps A and B. A is low off scale.

a. EK-0601A, "VARIABLE HIGH POWER LEVEL CHANNEL TRIP."
b. EK-0606A, "HIGH POWER RATE CHANNEL PRE-TRIP/ASI."
c. EK-0604C, "CHANNEL DEVIATION LEVEL 2 - 10%."
d. EK-0601C, "TM/LO PRESSURE CHANNEL TRIP."

a. EK-0601A, "VARIABLE HIGH POWER LEVEL CHANNEL TRIP."

a. CORRECT - This alarm is not expected for this condition because the summation of the two detectors will be
much lower than the VHPT setpoint. The student may believe that this alarm is expected if they believe that the
VHPT is calculated by adding 15% to the lower of Δ T power or NI power but the VHPT is calculated by adding
15% to the higher of the two.
b. Plausible but the lower NI reading of '0' will cause the ASI calculation to alarm.
c. Plausible but when NI-5 lowers it will meet the threshold for this alarm because it will be > 10% different that all the other
PRNIs.
d. Plausible but the ASI calculation due to the lower NI reading '0' causes the Thermal Margin Monitor to trip for the 'A'
channel.

69

Which one of the following is an example of a work activity that does not require protective
tagging in accordance with EN-OP-102, "Protective and Caution Tagging?"
a. Alignment of motors, generators, or pumps that are electrically disconnected from their
remote power source.
b. Lifting of electrical leads that can be performed safely while energized.
c. Opening a fluid system that has a working pressure of 25 psig or less.
d. Working inside a tank that has been drained and the atmosphere deemed safe for
occupancy.

b. Lifting of electrical leads that can be performed safely while energized.

a. Plausible because it seems like it may be safe but it requires tagging.
b. CORRECT - this is an example from EN-OP-102 that does not require tagging.
c. Plausible because it seems like it may be safe but it requires tagging.
d. Plausible because it seems like it may be safe but it requires tagging.

70

The Plant experiences a loss of load event from full power. The Control Room team then
stabilizes power at 90%. The following parameters are observed:
• Pressurizer level is 61%
• Pressurizer pressure is 2115 psia
• All Control Rods are full out
• TC is 541°F (all cold legs)
Which one of the following LCOs is not met due to the above conditions?
a. LCO 3.4.9 for Pressurizer Level.
b. LCO 3.4.1 for PCS Cold Leg Temperature.
c. LCO 3.1.6 for Rod Insertion Limits.
d. LCO 3.4.1 for PCS Pressure.

d. LCO 3.4.1 for PCS Pressure.

a. Plausible because this is close to the PZR Level TS limit of 62.8%.
b. Plausible because this is close to the Cold leg TS limit of 544°F.
c. Plausible because student may believe that there is a SDM issue with this configuration but the rods must be inserted
past a certain point to exceed this TS limit. The student misapplies this concept.
d. CORRECT - LCO requires PCS pressure to be 2010 - 2100 psia.

71

Given the following during preparations to synchronize the Turbine Generator with the Grid:
• TAVE is 538°F and stable
• Reactor power is 11% and stable
• PIC-0511, Turbine Bypass Valve Controller, output is 55% and stable
Which one of the following actions must be taken to meet the requirements for synchronizing
the Turbine Generator with the Grid per SOP-8, "Main Turbine and Generator Systems?"
a. Place PIC-0511 in "MANUAL" and raise output.
b. Place PIC-0511 in "MANUAL" and lower output.
c. Insert Control Rods to lower TAVE.
d. Withdraw Control Rods to raise PIC-0511 output.

d. Withdraw Control Rods to raise PIC-0511 output.

a. Plausible because the output must be > 60% but the TBV must be in AUTO.
b. Plausible if the student believes that PIC-0511 output is too high.
c. Plausible if the student believes that TAVE is too high.
d. CORRECT - PIC-0511 must be > 60%.

72

The Plant is being cooled down in MODE 4 following a Steam Generator Tube Rupture event.
An RP Technician performing a survey in the Component Cooling Water room measures a
dose rate of 120 mrem/hr one-foot away from the ‘B’ Steam Generator Main Steam line.
Which one of the following postings is required for this dose rate at this location?
a. Radiation Area.
b. High Radiation Area.
c. Very High Radiation Area.
d. Locked High Radiation Area.

b. High Radiation Area.

a. Plausible that the student believes that this meets the threshold for a radiation area 5 - 100 mr/hr.
b. CORRECT - areas that are > 100 mr/hour but 500 rem/hr.
d. Plausible that the student believes that this meets the threshold for a locked high radiation area > 1 rem/hr.

73

An Operator has been assigned to work on the Reactor head assisting the fuel handling team
in preparation for refueling operations. Given the following radiation exposure history for the
Operator:
• No undocumented quarters for the current year
• Lifetime exposure to date is 2.712 rem
• Annual exposure to date is 890 mrem
The Operator will not be wearing respiratory protection. The dose rate on the head is
250 mrem/hr and 20 DAC (Derived Air Concentration). How long must the Operator work on
the head until reaching the Entergy routine annual administrative exposure limit?
a. 3.7 hours.
b. 4.1 hours.
c. 5.4 hours.
d. 7.0 hours.

a. 3.7 hours

a. CORRECT - 1 DAC is 2.5 mr/hour which is 50 mr/hour. Admin dose limit is 2000 which leaves 1110 mr left.
1110mr/(250 + 50)mr/hr is 3.7 hours.
b. Plausible if the student correlates 1 mr/hr for each DAC which would be 1110mr/270mr/hr = 4.1 hours.
c. Plausible if the student uses 2500 mr as the admin limit which would be 1610mr/300mr/hr = 5.4 hours.
d. Plausible if the student uses 3000 mr as the admin limit which would be 2110mr/300mr/hr = 7.0 hours.

74

During an accident the instruments most likely to be representative of actual Plant conditions
have labels with a background color of ...
a. black.
b. white.
c. brown.
d. blue.

d. blue

Plausible because there are instrument and component labels in the control room with this background color.
b. Plausible because there are instrument and component labels in the control room with this background color.
c. Plausible because there are instrument and component labels in the control room with this background color.
d. CORRECT - Post accident instrumentation have labels that are blue.

75

Given the following during a Loss of Offsite power event:
• EOP-1.0, "Standard Post-Trip Actions," are in progress
• Diesel Generator (D/G) 1-1 is supplying 2400 VAC Bus 1C loads
• D/G 1-1 load is 2790 kW
Which one of the following is the least amount of load that must be removed from D/G 1-1 to
be below the continuous operational load limit?
a. 100 kW.
b. 200 kW.
c. 300 kW.
d. 400 kW.

c. 300 kW

a. Plausible if the student confuses the continuous load limit with the two hour load limit of 2750 kW.
b. Plausible if the student confuses the continuous load limit with the DBA load testing minimum of 2625 kW.
c. CORRECT - Continuous load limit is 2500kW. 2790-300 is 2490.
d. Plausible if the student confuses the continuous load limit with the nominal full load test value of 2400 kW.