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Flashcards in 202 Deck (185):
1

According to M.P. 202.01 Standard Company Responsibilities (R 11/14), what is the purpose and the benefits of standard company operations?

-Assign basic fireground functions and activities to companies based upon the capabilities and characteristics of each type of unit.

-Assign major fireground functions to the particular company who can best accomplish the operation -Integrate the efforts of engine, ladder, and rescue companies

-Increase the awareness and confidence of company members in the standard performance of other companies operating on the fireground

-Reduce the amount and detail of orders required to get companies into action on the fireground

2

According to M.P. 202.01 Standard Company Responsibilities (R 11/14), what are the Engine Company Functions?

-Search, rescue, and treatment

-Stretch hoselines

-Operate nozzles

-Pump hoselines

-Loss Control

3

According to M.P. 202.01 Standard Company Responsibilities (R 11/14), What are the ladder company functions?

-Search, rescue, treatment

-ventilate

-forcible entry

-raise ladders

-provide access, check fire extension

-utility control -lighting

-operate ladder pipes

-overhaul

-extrication

-loss control

4

According to M.P. 202.01 Standard Company Responsibilities (R 11/14), what are rescue company functions?

-transportation of sick and injured to hospitals

-search, rescue, and treatment

-general firefighting duties as assigned by command

5

According to M.P. 202.01 Standard Company Responsibilities (R 11/14), who determines which functions each company will perform?

Company officers will determine, based upon conditions and the risk management profile, the priority of the functions for their company unless otherwise ordered by command.

6

According to M.P. 202.01 Standard Company Responsibilities (R 11/14), what should command do in the absence or delay of a ladder?

Assign ladder functions to an engine company.

7

According to M.P. 202.02 Fireground Factors (R 07/99), what is the definition of fireground factors?

Fireground factors are a checklist of the basic items that are involved in size-up, decision making, initiating action, review and revision on the fireground. *Command must identify the critical fireground factors that are significant in each tactical situation.

8

According to M.P. 202.02 Fireground Factors (R 07/99), what is size-up?

A conscious process involving the very rapid but deliberate consideration of the critical factors and the development of a strategy and rational plan of attack based on those conditions.

9

According to M.P. 202.02 Fireground Factors (R 07/99), what are the three basic information factors?

1) Visual Factors: obvious and absorbed thru looking; involves the perceptive capability of command 2) Reconnaissance Factors: gained by sending someone for recon (assignment with report back) 3) Preplanning and Familiarity Factors: Preplanning info or MDT info

10

According to M.P. 202.02 Fireground Factors (R 07/99), what are the fireground factors?

1) Building 2) Fire 3) Occupancy 4) Life Hazard 5) Arrangement 6) Resources 7) Other Factors/Conditions

11

According to M.P. 202.02A Tactical Priorities (R 03/00), what are tactical priorities?

Three separate tactical objectives that must be completed (in order) in order to stabilize in fire situation. They are clear, measurable and attainable. 1-Rescue 2-Fire Control 3-Property Conservation

12

According to M.P. 202.02A Tactical Priorities (R 03/00), what is Rescue?

The activities required to protect occupants, remove those who are threatened and to treat the injured.

13

According to M.P. 202.02A Tactical Priorities (R 03/00), what is Fire Control?

The activities required to stop the forward progress of the fire and to bring the fire under control.

14

According to M.P. 202.02A Tactical Priorities (R 03/00), what is property conservation?

The activities required to stop or reduce primary or secondary damage to property.

15

According to M.P. 202.02A Tactical Priorities (R 03/00), what are the benchmarks for completion for the tactical objectives?

Rescue – primary search (all clear) Fire Control – under control Property Conservation – loss stopped

16

According to M.P. 202.02A Tactical Priorities (R 03/00), what is the umbrella of service?

It is three on-going considerations or responsibilities that lie in the Command framework. 1-Firefighter safety: including physical fitness, mental preparedness, training and post incident review. 2-Customer Service (stabilization): always looking for ways to better serve our customers. 3-Loss Control: emphasizing craftsmanship, pride in profession, and compassion.

17

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what are the fireground strategies?

Based on the standard risk management plan, fireground operations will be either in the offensive strategy or the defensive strategy.

18

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what is the risk management plan or profile?

-We may risk our lives a lot to protect savable lives. -We may risk our lives a little to protect savable property. -We will not risk our lives at all to save what is already lost.

19

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what will the strategic mode be based on?

-the building (type of construction, condition, age, etc) -structural integrity of the building (contents vs. structural involvement) -The fire load (what type of fuel is burning and whats left to burn) -the fire and.or smoke conditions (extent, location, etc) -the rescue profile (savable occupants/survivability profile)

20

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), how does the incident commander control overall scene safety?

The incident commanders job is ensure that all personnel are operating within the appropriate fireground strategy. By controlling fireground strategy, the IC provides overall scene safety.

21

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what are the basic guidelines for an offensive strategy?

-Structure determined safe to enter -Assign IRIC prior to entry -Initial attack centered around rescue (primary search); 1st attack line between victims and the fire to protect escape -Determine fire conditions/extent before starting fire ops (as far as possible). Do not operate fire streams into smoke. -Offensive fires fought from the interior unburned side -Avoid exterior application of water, usually the worst application point. -Avoid candlemoth; carefully analyze what is not burning as well as what is.

22

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), simultaneous offensive and defensive strategies should be avoided. What is the most common way that offensive and defensive strategies occur simultaneously?

Typically by first committing personnel to interior positions, then operating master streams from exterior positions.

23

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), command must consider the most critical direction and avenues of fire extension, plus its speed, particularly as they effect...?

-rescue activities -level of risk to firefighters -confinement efforts -exposure protection Note, this problem is solved in the majority of cases by a fast, strong, well placed attack.

24

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what are the seven sides or sectors of the fire command must consider?

-front -rear -both sides -top -bottom -interior

25

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what are the basic variables relating to attack operations?

-location/position of attack -size of attack -support functions

26

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what does it mean when the situation is marginal?

An offensive interior attack has been initiated while setting up defensive positions on the exterior (basically offensive mode leaning towards defensive).

27

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what is the only reason to operate in marginal situations?

Rescue (basically to get a primary search)

28

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), when should “marginal attacks” be abandon?

-A primary all clear is obtained and the situation is still marginal. -The roof is unsafe or untenable, especially working fires in large unsupported, or lightweight trussed attic spaces. -Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the fire. -Heavy smoke is being forced from the building and is increasing.

29

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), it is imperative that command to what in a marginal situation?

It is imperative that command assign a roof sector as early as possible during marginal situation for rapid evaluation of roof conditions. IN certain situation command should strongly consider not committing crews to the interior of a structure unless he/she receives a report from roof sector that the roof if the structure is safe to operate on and under.

30

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), how is a change from offensive to defensive strategy made?

An announcement from offensive to defensive will be made as emergency traffic and all personnel will withdraw from the structure. Captains will report PAR’s to their SO who will report PAR’s for all their crews to IC. A PAR is obtained for any switch from offensive to defensive.

31

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what is the first priority in a defensive situation?

Personnel safety is the first priority in a defensive situation; exposure protection is the second. After that may be to knock down the main body of fire, which may assist in exposure protection.

32

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what is generally the most effective tactic in defensive operations?

Master streams. A standard master stream flow of 750 GPM should be the guideline. The most effective tactic for exposure protection when the exposure is sever and water is limited is to put water on the exposure.

33

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), what does the term Fire Control mean?

Fire under control means the forward progress of the fire has been stopped and the remaining fire can be extinguished with the on scene resources. It does not mean the fire is completely out.After notifying alarm of Fire Under Control, command must initiate a PAR report from all on scene sectors and crews.

34

According to M.P. 202.02B Fireground Strategy (R 09/98), how is the primary search addressed if defensive operations are conducted from the onset of the incident?

Command will notify alarm that there will not be a primary search completed for the affected structure(s).

35

According to M.P. 202.03A “May-Day” Communications (R 05/10), what is the May-Day Communications order model?

-May-Day transmitted (E910 May-day May-day May-day) -TRO transmits emergency traffic tone followed by “we have a mayday, all units hold your radio traffic.” TRO will upgrade the assignment to the next greater alarm with medical component. -Command will transmit the unit ID and ask thenm to explain -Member responds with Location, Conditions, Actions, Needs (If communication lost, command should assign someone to monitor channels 12 and 15 and dispatch must systematically try to contact the firefighter and every channel. -Command acknowledges the mayday and provides guidance -Once resolved, command will announce “mayday resolved.”

36

According to M.P. 202.03A “May-Day” Communications (R 05/10), rescue efforts are best conducted from the inside out. Which options should command pursue in the rescue effort?

-ask ff to self extricate and determine air supply -ask ff’s crew if they can extricate him; determine air supply -contact companies operating inside the structure and determine if they can assist with the rescue -assign RIC/On-deck to assist with the rescue -assign a command officer and FIT to rescue sector -if the mayday occurs in an established sector you may assign the rescue effort to the sector officer -layer resources behind the rescue effort

37

According to M.P. 202.03A “May-Day” Communications (R 05/10), if a mayday is transmitted on a different tactical channel than the one assigned, how will this be handled by command?

Once notified by dispatch, -command will assign someone in the command post to monitor the tactical channel the mayday was transmitted on (the ff will remain on that tactical channel) -request emergency traffic and update crews of the mayday; crews remain on initial tactical channel -develop rescue effort -contact RIC/on-deck and assign them to the channel the ff is transmitting on; begin rescue efforts

38

According to M.P. 202.03A “May-Day” Communications (R 05/10), if an emergency traffic button is pushed, how will this be handled?

Dispatch will contact command who will contact the affected company.

39

According to M.P. 202.04 Fire Control (R 07/99), what is the basic SOP regarding Fire control?

It is SOP to attempt to stabilize fire conditions by extending wherever possible an aggressive well placed and adequate offensive interior fire attack effort and to support that aggressive attack with whatever resource and action is required to reduce fire extension and to bring the fire under control.

40

According to M.P. 202.04 Fire Control (R 07/99), what is offensive strategy?

Interior attack and related support directed toward quickly conducting a search for victims and bringing the fire under control. Command must declare which strategy is being used as part of the on-scene report and at each notification of elapsed time.

41

According to M.P. 202.04 Fire Control (R 07/99), what is a defensive strategy?

Exterior attack directed to first reduce fire extension and then bring the fire under control. Command must declare which strategy is being used as part of the on-scene report and at each notification of elapsed time.

42

According to M.P. 202.04 Fire Control (R 07/99), command must define offensive or defensive based on a standard risk management profile. What does that include?

-Fire extent -Structural Conditions -entry capability -ventilation profile -rescue profile of occupants -resources profile

43

According to M.P. 202.04 Fire Control (R 07/99), what is the basic offensive plan?

-take command -identify critical fireground factors -establish IRIC -First line—fast, aggressive, interior attack -provide support activities -do primary search -second line—backup first/cover opposite side -pumped water -quickly evaluate success and react

44

According to M.P. 202.04 Fire Control (R 07/99), what is the basic defensive plan?

-take command -evaluate fire spread/write off lost property -id critical fireground factors -prioritize fire streams (provide big, well placed streams) -pumped water -quick determination of additional resources -surround and drown

45

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), what is the policy regarding a primary search?

It is standard operating procedure to extend a primary search in all involved and exposed occupancies which can be entered.

46

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), what is a primary search?

Primary search means companies have quickly gone through all affected areas and verified the removal and/or safety of all occupants.

47

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), _____ is the critical factor in the primary search process.

Time. It must be extended quickly and during initial fire stages.

48

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), what is a secondary search?

Secondary search means that companies thoroughly search the interior of the fire area after initial fire control and ventilation activities have been completed. Secondary search should preferably be completed by different companies than those involved in primary search activities.

49

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), ____________, rather than time, is the critical factor in secondary search.

Thoroughness.

50

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), what is the standard radio term used to report the completion of the primary search?

Simultaneously

51

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), in working fire situations, what must the primary search be followed by?

A secondary search.

52

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), how is search addressed in cases of a fully involved building?

Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that he will not report and all clear. As quickly as fire control is achieved, Command must structure what is, in effect, a secondary search for victims.

53

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), how should reports from spectators about victims be utilized?

Command and operating companies cannot depend upon reports from spectators to determine the status of victims. They should be utilized for location, number, and condition of victims as supporting primary search efforts and must extend and complete a primary search wherever entry is possible.

54

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), what factors must command consider in developing a basic rescue size up?

1. #, location. And condition of victims 2. Affect the fire has on the victims 3. Capability of the control forces to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire.

55

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), what is the basic rescue decision command must make?

Do we remove the victims from fire? OR do we remove the fire from the victims?

56

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), in what order should rescue efforts be extended?

1. Most severely threatened 2. The largest number (groups) 3. the remainder of the fire area 4. the exposed areas

57

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), all initial attack efforts must be directed toward ___________ rescue efforts and hose lines must be placed in a manner to control interior access, confine the fire, and protect avenues of escape.

Supporting

58

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), in the rescue mode ____________ becomes a critical factor.

Hoseline placement.

59

According to M.P. 202.02C Rescue (R 01/97), what is the most urgent reason for calling additional alarms?

For the purpose of covering life safety. Command must develop a realistic (and pessimistic) rescue size up as early as possible.

60

According to M.P. 202.02D Safety and Risk Management Profiles (R 09/01), what is the risk management profile all members are expected to operate under?

-We will risk our lives a lot, in a calculated manner, to save savable lives. -We will risk our lives a little, in a calculated manner, to save savable property. -We will not risk our lives at all for lives or property that are already lost.

61

According to M.P. 202.02D Safety and Risk Management Profiles (R 09/01), rescuers should consider notification time, dispatch processing time, response time, and time on scene as part of the ______________.

Calculation

62

According to M.P. 202.02D Safety and Risk Management Profiles (R 09/01), actions in a calculated manner requires:

1. Incident command established (where applicable) 2. Proper PPE 3. accountability system established 4. safety procedures in place 5. Continuous risk assessment by all members

63

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), survival depends on a mix of _____________ self survival actions by the lost firefighter and the incident commander.

Predictable

64

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), what is the number one basic self survival responsibility?

Don’t get trapped/lost, or run out of air.

65

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), what must all members entering the hazard zone have?

Portable radio and personal rescue tools.

66

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), what is the minimum crew size?

Two.

67

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), if a lost firefighter cannot contact command, dispatch, or any other units on the assigned radio channel, what should the firefighter do?

Go to another radio channel to attempt contact and declare an emergency. Channel one is preferred.

68

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), when searching for an exit, when doors, windows, or other egress is not available, firefighters next attempt what?

To reach an exterior wall. Once at the wall he/she will be able to search for doorways, windows, and hallways that generally lead outside. Rescuers will first search hallways, around walls, and around windows and doors before sweeping large interior areas. For this reason, firefighters must avoid collapsing in the middle of open spaces.

69

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), if a firefighter cannot get out, he should assume a horizontal position on the floor. Why?

It maximizes the audible affects of the PASS device.

70

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), when assuming a position to await rescuers, what should a firefighter do with his flashlight?

Position it towards the ceiling because it enhances the rescuers ability to see the light. If possible the firefighter should attempt tapping noises.

71

According to M.P. 202.03 Lost/Trapped Firefighter Basic Self Survival (R 08/02), Company officers or sector officers who are unable to locate a crew or firefighters assigned to them must immediately notify command and use May Day. What should be included?

-Who’s missing -Last known location -Actions being taken

72

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), what is Class A Foam?

It is a synthetic detergent that affects the physical properties of water, thereby enhancing its ability to extinguish fires.

73

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), how is foam solution created?

It is created when 0.1 – 1.0% foam concentrate is added to water.

74

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), how does foam concentrate act?

It acts by reducing surface tension of water and enabling it to penetrate materials more effectively.

75

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), how does air affect foam solution?

The addition of air to foam solution further enhances its firefighting capabilities. The bubbles effectively increase the surface area of water, thereby increasing the steam conversion and allowing for a greater absorbtion of heat and carbonized particles.

76

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), list four advantages of foam over water.

-insulates materials by keeping them wet and cool longer, making them less likely to ignite or rekindle.

-as foam breaks down the bubbles collapse allowing the water droplets to soak into the affected material

-foam has better clinging property than water making it more advantageous when protection of vertical surfaces is necessary

-foam adds opacity or color to water giving it the ability to reflect heat away

77

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), Class A foam should be considered the primary extinguishing agent for any fire involving class A materials. Attacks being mounted on offensive structure fires should utilize class a foam solution with the ________ and __________ hose streams.

-initial -subsequent

78

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), why has Class A Foam has been very effective in extinguishing deep seated fires (I.E.- hay bales or recycled materials)?

Foam allows water to reach the seat of the fire quicker, thereby saving time and reducing manpower needs.

79

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), what are some limitations of class A foam?

-does not suppress flammable vapors and should not be used on fires that could involve flammable/combustible liquids -should not be applied to water reactive materials -should not be mixed with class B foam as the concentrates will become gelatinous and clog most foam systems.

80

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), what is CAFS?

Compressed Air Foam Systems employ the use of air compressors in conjuction with foam solution to produce foam bubbles, producing homogenous foam (far superior to foam produced with air aspirating nozzles). The air is introduced while still in the plumbing of the apparatus, creating a “high energy” hose stream.

81

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), what is dry foam?

Dry foam (like shaving cream) is created by increasing the amount of air introduced into the foam solution. It is desirable in pre-treating or protecting exposures. It will cling to vertical surfaces and act as an insulater against thermal exposure.

82

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), how should dry foam be used on an interior fire fight?

It should not be used. It will not provide adequate thermal protection. For an interior attack crews should disable the air compressor and utilize foam solution.

83

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), what is wet foam?

Wet, sudsy foam produced by adding a decreased amount of air to the foam solution. Wet foam should be used for combating fires (dry foam to protect exposures).

84

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), CAFS and non-CAFS hose streams should not be _________ when making coordinated attacks. Why?

-combined -Regular hose streams will disrupt foam making it less effective.

85

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), what type nozzles are best for CAFS?

Best results are obtained when smooth bore tips are utilized. Greater reach and penetration are achieved. With peripheral tip nozzles the stream can be disrupted and actually degrade the consistency of foam.

86

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), when should CAFS be used on an offensive structure fire?

It should be implemented at the start of overhaul. Its encapsulating qualities can suppress post fire products of combustion, significantly reducing toxic exposure to personnel. It also significantly reduces the chance of reignition.

87

According to M.P. 202.04A Class A Foam – Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS) (R 10/04), how should CAFS be used on large defensive fires?

Reserve CAFS for exposure protection or perimeter sections of the fire and slowly work your way in.

88

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), personnel must use caution when operating in what position (11)?

-above the fire (floors/roof) -where fire can move in behind them -where sector cannot control position/retreat -when involved with opposing fire streams -combining interior and exterior attacks -with limited access-one way in/out -operating under involved roof structures -in areas containing hazardous materials -below ground fires (basements, etc) -in areas where a backdraft potential exists -above/below ground rescue

89

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), the safety of fire personnel represents the major reason for an __________ and __________offensive /defensive decision and the associate write-off by command.

-effective -well-timed

90

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), when operating in a defensive strategy, operating positions should be as far from the involved area while _________________.

-remaining effective.

91

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what is the risk management plan?

-We may risk our lives a lot to protect savable lives. -We may risk our lives a little to protect savable property. -We will not risk our lives at all to save what is already lost.

92

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), all personnel shall be (3):

-positioned in staging

-assigned to a task or operating within a sector

-(having completed an assignment and no other assignment is available within that sector) crews should be assigned to resource, staging, or rehab sector until they can be reassigned to an operating sector or released to in service status.

93

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), in extremely hazardous situations (flammable liquids, LP gas, special ops, etc.) Command will engage only an __________________ within the hazard zone. Unmanned master streams will be utilized whenever possible.

-absolute minimum number of personnel

94

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what actions should be taken when crews must operate from opposing or conflicting positions?

Utilize radio or face to face communications to coordinate actions. Command should notify sector officers or company officers.

95

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), ground crews must be ______ and ________ from interior positions before ladder pipes go into operation.

-notified

-evacuated

Note: Do not operate exterior streams, whether hand lines, master streams, ladder pipes, etc., into an area where interior crews are operating.

96

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), how high should the ladder extend beyond the roof line?

2’-3’ feet so that personnel operating on the roof have a visible means of egress.

97

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what locations should ladders be placed in?

Place ladders near building corners or fire walls as these areas are generally more stable in the event of structural failure.

98

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what actions should be taken when operating either above or below ground level?

Establish at least 2 separate escape routes/means where possible (stairways, ladders, etc) preferably at opposite ends or diagonal corners of the building or separated by considerable distance.

99

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what is the hot zone and what situations will be included?

any area that requires the use of a SCBA, charged hoseline, special protective clothing, or in which fire fighting personnel are at risk of being lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

-entering a structure reported to be on fire

-operating in close proximity to the structure during exterior operations

-confined space/trench rescue

-operating close to crane ops or swift water ops

-building collapse

-operating close to helicopter ops

-extrication

100

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what is the warm zone and what functions can be done in this zone?

just outside of the hot zone where firefighters start their ops on the fireground. Firefighters are not at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

-forward fire apparatus working in the incident

-laying lines

-HMRT and TRT developing strategies and tactics

-utility trucks

-special equipment needs

-accountability officer

-fire investigations

101

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), if at any time firefighters in the warm zone become threatened, this area ____________.

would become a hot zone.

102

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what is the cold zone and what functions could be done in this area?

Outside of the warm zone where no one is at risk because of the incident.

-Command

-Level 1 and 2 staging

-support and staff personnel

-canteen

-rehab

-media

-P.D. liaison

-interviewing the RP

103

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what 3 things are required when entering the hot zone?

-Wear full turnouts

-have crew intact

-be assigned to a sector

104

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), the safety of firefighting personnel represents a major reason for fireground sectorization. Sector officers must maintain the capability to communicate with forces under their command so that they can control both the _________ and __________ of their companies.

-position -function

105

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), crews must not leave their respective sectors unless _____________.

Authorized by the sector officer.

106

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), company officers shall keep the sector officer informed of ____________.

Changing conditions

107

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), how should hazards that affect only a specific sector area be dealt with.

They should be dealt with within that sector and need not necessarily affect the entire operation.

108

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), when should a safety sector be established?

At incidents involving an inordinate danger to personnel or on any situation where it may be advantageous to the overall safety of operations. (Safety sector is a high priority assignment)

109

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), a 100’ length of unprotected steel will expand _______ when heated to 1100 degrees F.

9”

110

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what is the most likely area of failure in a fire involved building?

The roof however, failure of the roof may very likely trigger a collapse of one or more wall sections. This is especially true if the roof is a peak or dome type which may exert outward pressure against both the bearing and non-bearing walls upon collapse.

111

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), signs of building collapse may include ... (8)

-cracks in exterior walls

-bulges in exterior walls sounds of structural movement

-creaking, groaning, snapping, etc.

-smoke or water leaking through walls

-flexible movement of any floor or roof where firefighters walk

-interior or exterior bearing walls or columns leaning, twisting or flexing

-sagging or otherwise distorted rooflines

-time of fire involvement

112

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), list construction features or conditions that have been known to fail prematurely or to contribute to early structural failure when affected by fire (7).

-parapet walls

-large open (unsupported) areas, supermarkets, warehouses, etc.

-large signs or marquess which may pull away from weakened walls

-cantilevered canopies, which usually depend on the roof for support and may collapse as the roof fails

-ornamental or secondary front or sidewalls, which may pull away or collapse

-buildings with light weight truss, bar joist, or bow strung truss, roofs

-buildings supported by unprotected metal - beams, columns, etc

113

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), if after ___________ of interior operations heavy fire conditions still exist, Command should initiate a careful evaluation of structural conditions, and should be fully prepared to withdraw interior crews and change to a defensive strategy.

10-15 minutes

114

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), when should interior firefighting operations be abandoned?

When the extent of the fire prohibits control or the structure becomes unsafe to operate within. When such conditions make the building untenable, evacuate, account for personnel, regroup, recommunicate, and redeploy.

115

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), the method of evacuation selected will vary depending on what circumstances?

-imminence of the hazard

-type and extent of the hazard

-perception of the area affected by the hazard

116

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), the _______________ is designated to provide immediate notification for all fireground personnel.

emergency traffic announcement

117

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), when should emergency traffic be initiated?

Only when the hazard appears to be imminent or has just occurred.

118

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), the initiator (of emergency traffic) should describe the apparent hazard and order a ____________, usually to evacuate a particular area or section, according to the scope of the hazard.

positive response.

119

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), any member has the authority to utilize the emergency traffic announcement when it is felt that a ___________________ is present.

notable danger to personnel

120

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), whenever a search is conducted that exposes search crews to fire conditions (particularly above the fire floor) the search team should be ....

protected with a charged hoseline.

121

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), if search personnel are operating without a hose line, _________ should be used when encountering conditions of severely limited visibility.

life lines

122

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), high rise buildings containing a working fire are considered ___________.

a high hazard area.

123

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), if a working fire is suspected in a high rise, stairways should be utilized to go aloft. Elevators may be used provided ...

-the elevator shaft is checked to insure that heat/fire have not damaged the hoist mechanism (done by checking the space between the door frame and the elevator car and shining a light up the shaft) if smoke/fire are visible don’t use the shaft. -locate the nearest enclosed stairwell -verify that the floor you are going to is uninvolved

124

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), how should firefighters using an elevator in a high rise fire verify that the floor they are going to is uninvolved?

-engage the emergency operations -take elevator to floor two floors below the suspected fire floor -be prepared to close elevator door immediately by removing your finger from door control button

125

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what consideration should be taken for elevators without emergency operations on high rise with working fire?

They should not be used.

126

According to M.P. 202.05 Fireground Safety (R 10/99), what should the perimeter be around a high-rise building?

When operating around a high-rise building where hazards of falling glass and debris exist, a fireground perimeter shall be established 200’ from the building.

127

According to M.P. 202.05A Thermal Imaging Camera Deployment (R 09/03), A TIC can save a great deal of time by helping to pinpoint a concentration of heat within a particular area of the building, especially in ________________________.

Large commercial or multistory structures.

128

According to M.P. 202.05A Thermal Imaging Camera Deployment (R 09/03), what are some factors that can be assessed from the outside (using the TIC)? (4)

-finding the seat of the fire, -observing changing or spreading conditions, -identifying critical building construction features, -identifying conditions that could threaten structural integrity

129

According to M.P. 202.05A Thermal Imaging Camera Deployment (R 09/03), the early and rapid deployment of the TIC, while operating in the _______ strategy, may enhance the visibility in a visibly diminished atmosphere, thus increasing firefighter safety and survival, as well as increasing the survival potential of our customers.

offensive

130

According to M.P. 202.05A Thermal Imaging Camera Deployment (R 09/03), what is the primary use of the TIC for the Fire Department? (2)

Conducting search/rescue and crew accountability tasks.

131

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), facial hair shall not be allowed at points where the SCBA facepiece is designed to ________________. ___________________ shall be accountable for compliance with this requirement.

-seal with the face. -Individual members

132

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), when should members check their condition of their SCBA? (3)

-at the beginning of the shift -after each use -any other time it may be necessary to render the equipment in a ready state of condition.

133

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), each member shall be accountable for their personal facepiece and _______________.

-regulator

134

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), what are members required to do if they are expected to respond and function in areas of atmospheric contamination?

Undergo a physical exam annually

135

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), what should happen to an SCBA that is found to be functioning improperly?

-taken out of service, -red tagged, -reported and replaced immediately.

136

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), SCBA shall be used by all personnel operating... (4) What areas does this include?

-in a contaminated atmosphere -in an atmosphere that may suddenly become contaminated -in an atmosphere that is oxygen deficient -in an atmosphere that is suspected of being contaminated or oxygen deficient.

137

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), SCBA shall be used by all personnel operating in a contaminated atmosphere,in an atmosphere that may suddenly become contaminated, in an atmosphere that is oxygen deficient, and in an atmosphere that is suspected of being contaminated or oxygen deficient. What areas does this include? (5)

-in an active fire area, -directly above an active fire area, -in a potential explosion or fire area, including gas leaks or fuel spills, -where products of combustion are visible in the atmosphere, including vehicle fires, and dumpster fires--where invisible contaminants are suspected to be present (overhaul) -where toxic products are present, suspected to be present, or may be released without warning -in any confined space which has not been tested to establish respiratory safety.

138

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), the SCBA shall be worn by all personnel operating at the fire incidents above ground or in any other area which is not, but which may become contaminated by products of combustion or other hazardous substances. In these circumstances only, the SCBA may be worn __________________.

-with the facepiece removed.

139

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), who will make the decision to remove SCBA during routine fire situations?

The company officer with the approval of the sector officer, based on an evaluation of atmospheric conditions.

140

According to M.P. 202.05B Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (R 06/97), an evaluation of all members of the operations division in the use of the SCBA shall be conducted both ____________ and _________.

Quarterly and annually.

141

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), once the low air alarm of an SCBA is activated, a firefighter can crawl approximately __________ until their air supply is exhausted.

150 feet Note: This is the reason the maximum distance a crew will enter a building is 150 feet. When operating from a horizontal standpipe, gated Y devices are not to be taken inside a structure.

142

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), if the fire is located further than 150 feet (in a structure), what actions will be taken?

Command will assign additional companies to attack from a closer access point.

143

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), what is the number 1 rule of air management?

All members utilizing an SCBA in the hazard zone of an incident shall monitor the amount of air in their SCBA cylinder as well as their rate of air consumption in order to exit the hazard zone prior to the low air alarm activation of the SCBA.

144

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), it is critical that firefighters understand the initial ____% of the air supply is the _______ and ______ air. The remaining ___% of the air supply is the ______________ to be used inly in the event an emergency occurs while exiting such as becoming lost, trapped, or entangled upon exiting the hazard zone.

-75% -working -exiting -25% -emergency reserve

145

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), the incident commander shall consider air management a _____________ when evaluating the risk management profile of a building, performing size up, and determining strategy.

-critical fireground factor

146

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), how will command assist crews in air management? (5)

-controlling position and function of crews in the hazard zone (accountability) -maintaining an awareness of how long crews have been working (elapsed time notification -insuring adequate resources are on scene to maintain a tactical reserve (layered resources) -assigning companies to multiple points of egress (150’ rule) -relieving and rotating crews as needed (recycle/rehab/on deck)

147

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), what is a PACAN report?

Position Air status Conditions Actions Needs

148

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), what are the benchmarks for a PACAN reports? (4)

-10 minutes elapsed time on air -all clear -fire control -loss stopped

149

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), prior to entry into the hazard zone, the company officer will brief his crew on the plan for achieving tactical objectives including __________ the hazard zone together. This is kwon as a _____________.

-exiting -round trip ticket

150

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), all members of the crew will exit prior to the ________________________.

low air alarm sounding on the SCBA.

151

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), what is an air emergency.

An air emergency is defined as anytime the breathing apparatus being used cannot deliver air to the user as designed, whether by mechanical failure or if the individual has consumed the air supply beyond the designated work cycle, or an individual becomes lost or trapped within an IDLH environment regardless of air supply.

152

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), activation of the low air warning is an _______________ for the individual and the crew involved.

immediate action item

153

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), what is an immediate action item?

Immediate action is described as notifying command of low air alarm activation and immediately exiting the IDLH atmosphere intact as a crew and notifying command that you are out with a PAR after exiting.

154

According to M.P. 202.05C Air Management (R 12/09), when remaining air supply reaches the ____% to _____% range a MAY-DAY should be called if personnel are still inside an IDLH atmosphere and will be unable to exit within ____ minutes.

-18% -15% -5 minutes

155

According to M.P. 202.06 Roof Sector (R 08/03), command should establish a roof sector during __________ fire operations to ____________ roof conditions and complete roof ___________.

-offensive -evaluate -ventilation

156

According to M.P. 202.06 Roof Sector (R 08/03), roof crews must enter the roof from an established safe area and must have a _____________ to escape the roof, or to a safe refuge on an unexposed and structurally sound roof surface.

-secondary means

157

According to M.P. 202.06 Roof Sector (R 08/03), no firefighter shall operate on a bow strung roof if there is any evidence that the fire has penetrated the ________ or involves the _______ area.

-attic -truss

158

According to M.P. 202.06 Roof Sector (R 08/03), no firefighter shall operate in the roof of a ______________ structure fire covered with tile shingles.

-residential

159

According to M.P. 202.06 Roof Sector (R 08/03), the initial roof sector officer must report to command the following...

-roof design and construction -structural conditions -fire conditions and effects of fire on roof -locations of fire walls -locations of heavy objects affected by fire conditions -ventilation plan

160

According to M.P. 202.06 Roof Sector (R 08/03), ventilation holes of at least _____% of roof surface of the involved area is a rule of thumb.

-10%

161

According to M.P. 202.06 Roof Sector (R 08/03), crews must move from the first hole towards ________ areas with each consecutive ventilation hole.

-safer areas

162

According to M.P. 202.06 Roof Sector (R 08/03), the objectives of roof sector operations include...(7)

-determining a safe working surface -complete adequate size ventilation holes and achieve effective ventilation -coordinate roof ventilation with interior crews -coordinate roof fire control operations as directed by command -maintain roof top monitoring of roof structure an fire conditions -communicate with interior sections -provide progress reports to command

163

According to M.P. 202.07 Resource Sector (R 11/96), the resource sector is established as a supply pool to provide a standby supply of personnel and/or equipment for operating services. For high rise operations, it is normally established _________ floors below the fire floor or other safe location environment location below the fire.

-two

164

According to M.P. 202.07 Resource Sector (R 11/96), a minimum of ______ company on the fire floor should be maintained in Resource.

one

165

According to M.P. 202.07 Resource Sector (R 11/96), in high rise fires how shall resource be designated on the radio?

Resource and the floor number resource is located on.

166

According to M.P. 202.07 Resource Sector (R 11/96), a log will be maintained of all assignments of companies to other sectors including ________________.

Time of assignment.

167

Which sector exists to provide immediate support to operating sectors?

Resource Sector.

168

According to M.P. 202.08 Rehabilitation Sector (R 02/10), the Rehab team will consist of... (5)

-rehab truck -utility truck -rescue truck -ALS company -designated sector officer with crew

169

According to M.P. 202.08 Rehabilitation Sector (R 02/10), the rehab truck will be dispatched on all __________ or greater incidents.

-First Alarm

170

According to M.P. 202.08 Rehabilitation Sector (R 02/10), command should assign _________ as the initial Rehab sector officer whenever possible.

C959

171

According to M.P. 202.08 Rehabilitation Sector (R 02/10), the rehab sector area will be defined with ________ tape and will have only one ___________.

-blue tape -entry point

172

According to M.P. 202.08 Rehabilitation Sector (R 02/10), the rehab sector will be divided into these four sections.

-Section A: Entry Point -Section B: Hydration and Replenishment -Section C: Medical Treatment and Transport -Section D: Documentation

173

According to M.P. 202.08 Rehabilitation Sector (R 02/10), at the entry point, any member who has a pulse rate greater than _______ will report directly to section C: Medical treatment and transport.

120

174

According to M.P. 202.08 Rehabilitation Sector (R 02/10), after allowing for 20 minutes for cooling down period the pulse, BP and temp will be rechecked. Any person with _______(4) will be unavailable for reassignment to the incident and will require ALS treatment and evaluation.

-pulse greater than 70% of their max (220-age) -BP less than 100 systolic -BP greater than 105 diastolic -temp greater than 99.5

175

According to M.P. 202.08 Rehabilitation Sector (R 02/10), which section of rehab will be operated by health center staff?

-Section E: Reassignment

176

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), what are support activities?

Tactical support activities are those functions that assist active fire control and rescue operations. Generally, they include forcible entry, ventilation, and provision of access. Most confusion on the fireground is a result of lack if support functions not basic eater application.

177

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), what are the two reasons to ventilate a building?

1) To prevent mushrooming 2) To gain and maintain entry

178

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), in a working interior fire situation, what is the most effective form of ventilation?

Vertical ventilation as close to over the fire as possible. Ventilation should be provided in advance of attack lines. As a general rule, if you cut a hole cut a big one.

179

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), what is defensive ventilation?

If they fire burns through the roof rather than a cut from a ladder company.

180

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), what happens if vent holes are cut in the wrong place?

The fire will naturally be channeled to them and expand loss.

181

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), describe the policy regarding operating hoselines on the roof.

-Do not operate hoselines, particularly ladder pipes, down ventilation holes. -Operate roof lines only for the purpose of protecting personnel and external exposures unless Command orders a coordinated roof attack.

182

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), if a ladder crew cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of the conditions/roof profile, what type of situation does this become?

This a marginal situation. Hose line crews can probably get inside and stay inside longer than the ladder crews can stay on the roof but remember its always better to abandon the building too early rather than too late.

183

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), describe the Bowstrung Truss/Arched Roof Policy.

1) When fire is in the attic/truss space, and it is safe to do so, quickly search the building and implement a defensive strategy. 2) When crews are unable to locate the fire, and it is safe to do so, quickly search the building and implement a defensive strategy. 3) When fire involves a room and contents with no evidence of extension to the attic/truss space--implement a quick, aggressive, offensive strategy.

184

According to M.P. 202.09 Support Activities (R10/99), what is the residential tile roof policy?

For interior and or attic fires in single family residences with tiled roofs firefighters are prohibited from going to the roof. Any other structure with lightweight truss construction requires a careful evaluation of fire conditions/roof profile prior to committing personnel to the roof.

185

According to M.P. 202.10 Attack Teams (R 10/99), what is an attack team?

A group of companies assigned on the fireground to work toward a specific objective within a specific area, often assigned to a sector. A standard attack team consists of two engine companies plus a ladder.