2022

Question 1

1 In autonomic ganglia, which statement is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release noradrenaline
B both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
C only parasympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine
D sympathetic preganglionic terminals release noradrenaline
E only sympathetic preganglionic terminals release acetylcholine

Answer 1

B

Question 2

2 For postganglionic nerve terminals, which statement is CORRECT? [1.5 marks]
A the majority of sympathetic terminals release noradrenaline and ATP, but a very small number release acetylcholine
B sympathetic terminals release only noradrenaline and ATP
C parasympathetic terminals release noradrenaline
D sympathetic and parasympathetic terminals release different levels of noradrenaline, acetylcholine, and ATP
E parasympathetic terminals release noradrenaline and acetylcholine

Answer 2

A

Question 3

3 The sympathetic nervous system is very plastic, but its continuous activation may result in many disorders. Which statement is INCORRECT? Continuous activation of the sympathetic nervous system may result in [1.5 marks]
A immunosuppression leading to increased infections and cancer
B fertility is increased
C gastro-intestinal irregularities
D high blood pressure leading to cardiovascular disease
E changes that become more permanent as we age

Answer 3

B

Question 4

4 Which statement is INCORRECT? Small levels of stress are a healthy and necessary part of life, since the transient release of noradrenaline [1.5 marks]
A makes problems too difficult to solve
B encourages creative thinking
C creates new memories
D improves mood
E stimulates your brain to grow new connections within itself

Answer 4

A

Question 5

5 Which of the following mechanisms does NOT promote blood flow back to the heart in the systemic venous system? [1.5 marks]
A an increase in thoracic cavity pressure during expiration
B sympathetic neuronal activity
C one-way valves in veins preventing back flow
D enlargement of the right atrial cavity during ventricular contraction
E the veins offering little resistance to flow

Answer 5

A

Question 6

6 The largest decrease in blood pressure occurs in which of the following segments of the systemic circulation?
A from the left ventricle to the end of the conducting arteries
B from the distributing arteries to the start of the capillaries
C from the start of the capillaries back to the right ventricle
D across the arterioles
E across all of the capillaries [1.5 marks]

Answer 6

B (D?) ???

Question 7

7 Which of these agents causes marked vasodilation?
A angiotensin II
B noradrenaline
C endothelins
D antidiuretic hormone
E histamine

Answer 7

E

Question 8

8 Which of the following does NOT affect pre-load of the heart?
A compliance of the pericardium
B ventricular hypertrophy
C arterial compliance
D intra-thoracic pressure
E blood volume [1.5 marks

Answer 8

C

Question 9

9 Heart rate can be altered by chronotropic agents. Which of the following is NOT a positive chronotropic agent? [1.5 marks]
A age
B increased blood calcium ions
C increased body temperature
D thyroxine
E adrenaline

Answer 9

A

Question 10

10 The influence of increased capillary hydrostatic pressure above normal on bulk flow across the capillary is similar to the influence of [1.5 marks]
A increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B increased plasma oncotic pressure
C reduced venous pressure
D reduced tissue oncotic pressure
E reduced plasma oncotic pressure

Answer 10

E

Question 11

11 Which of the following does NOT provide afferent neuronal input into the cardiovascular control centre in the brainstem? [1.5 marks]
A stretch receptors that detect blood volume
B irritant receptors in walls of blood vessels
C limbic system in emotional responses
D proprioceptors that detect joint movement
E chemoreceptors that detect blood oxygen tension

Answer 11

B

Question 12

12 The cerebral reflex (central ischaemic response) is an important reflex to maintain blood pressure in a hemorrhage. Which of the following correctly describes activation of this reflex?
[1.5 marks]
A it occurs when blood flow in the medulla oblongata is compromised
B it occurs because peripheral chemoreceptors detect a decrease in PO2 in systemic arterial blood less than 60 mmHg
C it always occurs when there is any haemorrhage
D it occurs before local auto-regulatory mechanisms are activated to control cerebral blood flow
E it only occurs when mean arterial blood pressure drops below 40 mmHg

Answer 12

A

Question 13

13 Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
A free solute dissolved in plasma
B carbonic acid H2CO3
C carbaminohaemoglobin
D bicarbonate ions HCO3
E chemically bound to haemoglobin

Answer 13

D

Question 14

14 Which of the following would NOT result in respiratory acidosis? [1.5 marks]
A increased ventilation
B decreased alveolar ventilation
C increased blood PCO2
D decreased diffusion across the respiratory membrane
E lack of perfusion of the lung capillaries

Answer 14

A

Question 15

15 The chloride shift [1.5 marks]
A is important in oxygen binding to haemoglobin
B forces oxygen out of erythrocytes to the tissues
C produces carbonic acid
D results in more carbon dioxide being transported by erythrocytes
E counteracts movement of bicarbonate out of erythrocytes

Answer 15

E

Question 16

16 Which of the following is NOT a component of the control of normal rhythmic involuntary breathing? [1.5 marks]
A a dorsal respiratory neuronal group in the pons
B input from the motor cortex
C phrenic and intercostal motor neuron pools
D central chemoreceptor input
E a central pattern generator in the brainstem

Answer 16

B

Question 17

17 Which of the following statements is CORRECT? The interlobar artery gives rise to the
A cortical radiate artery
B afferent arteriole
C arcuate vein
D cortical radiate vein
E arcuate artery

Answer 17

E

Question 18

18 Which of the following can be used to estimate glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A sodium clearance
B glucose secretion
C urea clearance
D creatinine clearance
E glucose clearance

Answer 18

D

Question 19

19 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Angiotensin II [1.5 marks]
A increases sodium reabsorption
B stimulates aldosterone production
C is a vasodilator
D stimulates antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release
E is a potent vasconstrictor

Answer 19

C

Question 20

20 Renin release is stimulated by [1.5 marks]
A reduced glucose levels in the tubular fluid
B reduced urea levels in the glomerular capillaries
C reduced activity of the renal sympathetic nerves
D augmented activity of the renal sympathetic nerves
E increased delivery of NaCl to macula densa cells

Answer 20

D

Question 21

21 Which of the following statements about the fundic gastric glands is CORRECT? Fundic gastric glands
A contain cells termed enteroendocrine cells
B release mucus and gastrin
C contain cells termed parietal and chief cells
D release mucus to protect the stomach from self
E promotes contractions of the stomach muscles

Answer 21

C

Question 22

22 Pepsin is [1.5 marks]
A a hormone secreted by gastric glands
B an acid secreted by the large intestine
C an acid secreted by the gastric glands
D an enzyme secreted by the large intestine
E an enzyme secreted by the gastric glands

Answer 22

E

Question 23

23 Cardiac gastric glands are located in the
A stomach
B small intestine
C pancreas
D liver
E large intestine

Answer 23

A

Question 24

24 Which of the following statements about the gallbladder is CORRECT? Muscular contractions of the gallbladder release [1.5 marks]
A hydrochloric acid via the pancreatic duct, which flows into the hepatic duct.
B mucus via the hepatic duct, which flows into the bile duct.
C bile via the cystic duct, which flows into the bile duct
D bile via the hepatic duct, which flows into the bile duct.
E hydrochloric acid via the hepatic duct, which flows into the bile duct.

Answer 24

C

Question 25

25 A unique feature of the vertebrate neuromuscular synapse is that [1.5 marks] A it is just like all other chemical synapses found throughout the nervous system B it contains only one pre-synaptic release site C it is relatively big, simple and can undergo successful re-innervation at original synaptic sites D its nerve terminal contains numerous neurotransmitters E it is well studied

Answer 25

C

Question 26

26 A motor unit is defined as [1.5 marks] A the parts of an individual muscle that are sequentially recruited during increased load placed upon a muscle B the sequential contraction of muscle fibres under increasing load C the number of motor neurons supplying one individual muscle D the number of individual muscle fibres innervated by one motor neuron E the number of motor neurons supplying muscles at the same segmental level

Answer 26

D

Question 27

27 Muscle spindles are innervated by [1.5 marks] A gamma motor neurons only B gamma motor neurons and type 2x sensory neurons C alpha and gamma motor neurons D type 1b sensory neurons only E gamma motor neurons and type 1a sensory neurons

Answer 27

E

Question 28

28 The primary motor cortex A does not receive inputs from the premotor cortex B is active when a person is told to mentally rehearse a movement, but not to execute it C is located in the parietal lobes D develops motor programs for voluntary tasks E is somatotopically organized

Answer 28

E

Question 29

29 Increasing the frequency of action potential stimulation to elicit a tetanic force response will more rapidly cause fatigue by [1.5 marks] A making the mitochondria resynthesise ATP at a faster rate B due to a more rapid build-up of lactic acid C exhausting the amount of Ca2+ that is releasable from the sarcoplasmic reticulum D causing disruption of structural links between the transverse tubular (t-) system and sarcoplasmic reticulum membranes E progressively increasing the [K+] concentration inside the transverse tubular (t-) system

Answer 29

E

Question 30

40. Which of the following is NOT a metabolic effect of growth hormone? [1.5 marks] A. increased amino acid uptake into myocytes B. lipolysis of fat reserves in adipocytes C. protein anabolic effect D. decreased gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes E. decreased glucose uptake into adipocytes

Answer 30

D

Question 31

30 In skeletal muscle, Ca2+ release through the ryanodine receptor is inhibited during continuous exercise because [1.5 marks] A the resting membrane potential cannot be depolarized B Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is precipitated in the cytoplasm C cytoplasmic free magnesium levels rise D there is an increase in protons in the cytoplasm E the stabilization of the ATP to ADP ratio in the cytoplasm

Answer 31

C

Question 32

31 The main differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscles are [1.5 marks] A fast-twitch muscles are for explosive and powerful contractions and slow-twitch muscles are for continuous work or posture B slow-twitch muscle is susceptible to contraction-induced damage than fast -twitch muscle C the resting ATP levels in the cytoplasm D different mechanisms of excitation-contraction coupling E different sarcomere lengths

Answer 32

A

Question 33

32 What disrupts excitation-contraction coupling following a bout of unaccustomed eccentric contractions? [1.5 marks] A loss of the contractile apparatus from the muscle fibre B severing of the coupling between the transverse tubular (t-) system and sarcoplasmic reticulum membranes C a displacement of mitochondria from its normal position inside the muscle fibre D depolarization of the transverse tubular (t-) system E loss of Ca2+ from the muscle fibre

Answer 33

B

Question 34

33 The type-2 glucose transporter GLUT2 is A constitutively present on hepatocytes and mediates glucose uptake in the fed state by facilitated diffusion B sequestered and inactivated in cytoplasmic vesicles in muscle and adipose cells in the fed and fasted states C constitutively present on the blood-brain barrier and signals the rise in blood glucose to the brain in the fed state D stimulated by insulin to translocate to the plasma membrane in pancreatic β cells and trigger insulin release E translocated to the plasma membrane by exocytosis and becomes active when insulin binds to the insulin receptor of muscle and adipose cells in the fed state

Answer 34

A

Question 35

34 Insulin secretion from β cells of the pancreas involves which of the following? A phosphorylation of insulin receptor substrate 1 (IRS-1) on serine and threonine residues B GLUT2, glycolysis, ATP production and closure of ATP-sensitive K+ channels C activation of the PI3-kinase AKT pathway and GLUT4 translocation to the cell surface D ATP production, hyperpolarisation of the cell and Ca2+ influx E GLUT2, glycogen synthesis, ATP opening of ATP-sensitive K+ channels and depolarisation

Answer 35

B

Question 36

35 Considering energy metabolism, which of the following hormones in general acts quite DIFFERENTLY to the others? [1.5 marks] A insulin B glucagon C adrenaline D cortisol E growth hormone

Answer 36

A

Question 37

36 Which of the following is NOT a key metabolic role of insulin? [1.5 marks] A promotion of amino acid uptake in myocytes B stimulation of GLUT4 translocation to the cell membrane in myocytes C promotion of glycogenesis in adipocytes D inhibition of gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes E inhibition of lipolysis in adipocytes

Answer 37

C

Question 38

37 Glucagon A causes breakdown of liver glycogen to glucose B acts on skeletal muscle to stimulate protein catabolism C is important in the fed state D decreases gluconeogenesis in the liver E promotes glycogen synthesis in hepatocytes

Answer 38

A

Question 39

38 In diagnosis of diabetes mellitus which of the following is LEAST informative compared to the others? [1.5 marks] A a plasma glucose concentration after an overnight 8 hour fast B a plasma glucose concentration obtained 4 hours after an oral glucose tolerance test C a blood glucose concentration obtained at random during the day D a plasma glucose concentration obtained 2 hours post oral glucose tolerance test E a glycosylated haemoglobin concentration obtained 1 hour after a meal

Answer 39

C

Question 40

39 Growth hormone [1.5 marks] A increases in exercise and promotes protein anabolism B increases the sensitivity of tissues to insulin C acts as an insulin antagonist by binding to insulin receptors D is the primary anabolic hormone during fasting and stress E promotes hypoglycaemia during stress

Answer 40

D