205 Flashcards Preview

Captains Test 2016 > 205 > Flashcards

Flashcards in 205 Deck (174):
1

2

According to M.P. 205.06 Staging Levels I and II (R 03/03), when is Level I staging in effect?

For all incidents with three or more companies responding.

3

According to M.P. 205.06 Staging Levels I and II (R 03/03), how should simultaneous arrival of first due companies be handled?

Affected officers should utilize radio communications to coordinate activities and eliminate confusion.

4

According to M.P. 205.06 Staging Levels I and II (R 03/03), which companies should respond directly to the scene?

The first arriving engine, ladder and chief officer should respond directly to the scene. Rescues should stage in the direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately one block from the scene until assigned by command. All other units will stage in their direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately one block from the scene in a position providing a maximum of possible tactical options, until assigned by command. (For medical responses, the firs arriving rescue will also report directly to the scene.)

5

According to M.P. 205.06 Staging Levels I and II (R 03/03), what should happen if it becomes apparent Command has forgotten the company is in a staged position?

The company officer shall contact Command and advise him of their staged status.

6

According to M.P. 205.06 Staging Levels I and II (R 03/03), what is Level II Staging and when should it be utilized?

-Level II staging places all reserve resources in a central location and automatically requires the implementation of a staging Sector officer. -It will be implemented for all greater alarm incidents. It should also be considered for first alarm medical or hazardous materials incidents. (Companies already in Level I staging or en route to Level I will stay in Level I unless otherwise directed. Command will give an approximate location for staging and request a separate radio channel for staging sector.) -As companies arrive, they should stay off the air and report in person to the staging officer.

7

According to M.P. 205.06 Staging Levels I and II (R 03/03), in the absence of a staging sector officer being assigned, who becomes the staging sector officer?

The first fire department officer to arrive at the staging area will automatically become the staging officer and will notify Command on arrival on the assigned tactical channel.

8

According to M.P. 205.06 Staging Levels I and II (R 03/03), what position should ladders serve in the level II staging sector officer position?

Due to the limited number of ladders, a ladder officer will transfer responsibility for staging to the first arriving engine company officer. Staging officers will assign their company members as needed to assist with staging operations or assign them to another company.

9

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what is the radio communications order model?

-sender will give unit ID and call the receiver by their unit ID -receiver will give their unit ID -Sender will extend order -receiver will give ID and acknowledge receipt of message (brief restatement) -Deployment will acknowledge all communications directed to it

10

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), response requirements are expressed as primary or secondary. A unit can fulfill ______________ primary requirement. A unit can fulfill ________ secondary requirement.

-only one -more than one

11

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), the _________ command can be utilized to determine the specific primary and secondary response requirements per nature code for an individual jurisdiction.

RSPREQ ie: RSPREQ STR1A, PHX

12

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what are the codes for greater alarms?

-Brush -Hazmat -Hirise _Med -Rehab -Rescue -Struct -Strmed

13

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), ____ alarms and greater still require a specific type of alarm to be requested, however the capabilities recommended will be genereic and are the same for each greater alarms up to a ninth alarm.

Third

14

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what is the standard initial radio report?

-Clear alarm

-unit designation/on the scene

-Building/area description

 +occupancy

 +size

+Height

-Obvious problem/conditions

+nothing showing (checking)

+smoke showing (amount/location)

+fire showing (amount/location)

+working fire

+fully involved

-Action Taken

+assuming command

+laying a line

+attacking with ….

-declaration of strategy

+offensive or defensive

-command confirmation with name

follow up report

-any immediate safety concerns

-accountability started (initial location)

-disposition of resources (hold/add/return)

-IRIC in place and identify

15

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), the term _________ indicates a situation that will require the commitment of all responding companies.

-working fire

16

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), command will provide deployment with regular progress reports or whenever significant tactical plans are changed or unusual situations are encountered. The first progress report should be given after ______________ and should include the correct address and an improved description of the building and fire conditions if the arrival report was incomplete.

Initial action has been implemented

17

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), units arriving in staging will depress the STG key on the MCT. If assigned to a sector or task on the fireground the __________ key shall be depressed.

-ON SCENE

18

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), when will level 2 staging be identified by command?

Upon the balance of a working 2nd alarm assignment. Deployment will announce level 2 staging location and the staging channel when the additional un its are dispatched. Responding units should direct any staging inquiries to the staging channel.

19

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), typically staging will be assigned to channel ______. The driver of the CV will coordinate information on the staging channel until an officer assumes the position of the staging officer.

2

20

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), on a working fire, the system will generate elapsed time notification every ______ minutes until the incident is placed under control.

5

21

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what does the term 906 mean?

Fire needs immediate police department assistance.

22

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what does the term all clear mean?

On fire calls it indicates the fire building and all exposures have been searched and all civilians evacuated. For medical calls, it indicates the patient has been extricated.

23

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10),when can units operate without SCBA protection?

Level of Carbon Monoxide (CO) is below 50ppm

24

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what does the term loss stopped mean?

Salvage has been completed and there should be no more damage to the building involved.

25

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what does the term fire control mean?

The fire has been contained and will not extend. It does not meant he fire is out.

26

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), Sector officers should use __________ communications with assigned companies as much as possible.

Face to face

27

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what should you do if deployment does not acknowledge emergency traffic?

Establish contact with Command and transmit the emergency message.

28

According to M.P. 205.01 Communications (R 10/10), what does 261 mean?

Rape

29

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), a fire department rescue will be dispatched to transport a patient in stable condition in a non emergency situation only if all private ambulance companies refuse to accept the call for transportation. What is considered stable condition?

State of health in which the prognosis idicates little if any immediate change.

30

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), the ____________ prohibits our rescues from providing service outside of the City of Phoenix.

C.O.N.: Certificate of Need

31

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), requests for transport must meet what criteria prior to any response by a Phoenix rescue (outside Phx)?

-first request to that city current C.O.N. holder -second request to an air transport C.O.N holder (unless its impractical or will cause a greater delay of a critical patient) -third request to PFD

32

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), in order for a Phx rescue to transport from outside of Phx the following requirement must be met. The patient must be _______ or patient condition would __________ as a result of an extended wait for an ambulance.

-unstable -worsen

33

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), when will a a fd rescue respond and transport sick or injured patients from care facilities?

-an unstable patient necessitating emergency pre-hospital assistance and transfer to the closest hospital. -when there are no other transportation options available to a stable patient

34

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), if the FD units respond to a medical care facility and find a patient in a ______ condition under the care of a medical professional, all efforts will be made to contact a private provider for transportation instead of a FD rescue.

-stable

35

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), when a fd rescue is responding to an emergency and will have a response time exceeding ______minutes, the dispatcher will contact ambulance companies and determine if they have a closer unit. If a closer private unit can accept the call, the fd rescue will be cancelled.

-20 minutes

36

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), when a rescue has been at the hospital for approximately ______minutes, the channel 1 operator will make contact with them to confirm their status and determine when they expect to go available.

-20 minutes

37

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), when returning to first due area, rescue should go available when within _______minutes driving time to quarters.

-10 minutes

38

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), the rescue should ______when returning paramedics back to their fire station.

-should not

39

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), what is rescue status 3?

There are less than 3 rescues available in the entire city.

40

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), what does rescue status 2 mean?

There is a shortage ina particular area of the city. Central: I-17 to 24th st/Bethany to I-10 North: North of Bethany South: South of I-10 West: West of I-17 East: East of 24th st

41

According to M.P. 205.04 Rescue Communications (R 03/03), only _____ rescues will be allowed out of service at one time for scheduled activities such as P.M. training, physicals, etc.

-2

42

According to M.P. 205.04A Hospital Diversion Management Plan (R 07/99), critical patients with _________ medical problems will always be triaged to the closest appropriate emergency department.

-Uncontrollable (meaning those pertaining to the inability to provide an adequate airway or ventilation, lack of palpable pulse, in the non-traumatic patient.)

43

According to M.P. 205.04A Hospital Diversion Management Plan (R 07/99), at no time will _________ of critical care or medical beds alone be used as a reason to initiate pre hospital diversion. The critically ill patient must be accepted by the facility, evaluated and stabilized by the emergency department or trauma service to go to surgery.

-saturation

44

According to M.P. 205.04A Hospital Diversion Management Plan (R 07/99), pre hospital patients exhibiting _______________ shall be accepted by the closest appropriate facility regardless of hospital status. Critical patients shall be accepted by the closest appropriate hospital when transportation to a more distant hospital will pose a further significant risk to the patient.

-uncontrollable medical problems (meaning those pertaining to the inability to provide an adequate airway or ventilation, lack of palpable pulse, in the non-traumatic patient)

45

According to M.P. 205.04A Hospital Diversion Management Plan (R 07/99), when the entire system is overloaded, all facilities must _______.

Open

46

According to M.P. 205.05 Emergency Deployment (R 02/10), who is in charge of activating emergency deployment?

Emergency deployment will be activated at the direction of the on-duty South deputy Chief in conjunction with the on-duty Deployment Battalion Chief or designee when it is evident that deployment activity may exceed system wide available resource guidelines and/or high activity levels warrant.

47

According to M.P. 205.05 Emergency Deployment (R 02/10), any one large scale incident may use ________ of automatic aid resources. ______ of automatic aid resources must remain in service to handle routine emergency activity within the system.

-60% -40%

48

According to M.P. 205.05 Emergency Deployment (R 02/10), if two large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use ______ of automatic aid resources. _________ of automatic aide resources must remain in service to handle routine emergency activity within the system.

-35% -30%

49

According to M.P. 205.05 Emergency Deployment (R 02/10), if three large scale incidents are working simultaneously each incident may use _______ of automatic aide resources. _________ of automatic aid resources must remain in service to handle routine emergency activity within the system.

-25% -25%

50

According to M.P. 205.05 Emergency Deployment (R 02/10), there are three types of emergency deployment. Describe how the system will modify the response requirements.

-3/1 response becomes a 2/1/1 (eng/lad/bc) -1st alarm becomes a 3/1/1 -TRT2 becomes TRT1 -Haz2 becomes Haz1 -TRT1 and HAZ1 become a new TRT0/HAZ0 which includes MPW, closest SPECOPS with support truck and CAR957 (N or S or BC5 or BC152)

51

According to M.P. 205.05 Emergency Deployment (R 02/10), describe a Type 2 emergency deployment.

Activation of a Type 2 Emergency deployment will require the on-duty South Deputy Chief or designee to call off-duty personnel in to staff Brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus.

52

According to M.P. 205.05 Emergency Deployment (R 02/10), describe a Type 3 emergency Deployment.

Activation of a type 3 emergency Deployment will require the on-duty South Deputy Chief or designees to call off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus.

53

According to M.P. 205.05A Deployment (R 10/97), the _________ section will determine the need to establish a Deployment Sector.

-Planning section

54

According to M.P. 205.05A Deployment (R 10/97), Unlike most sectors, the Deployment sector will communicate directly with Planning via _________ rather than a ___________.

-telephone -tactical radio channel

55

According to M.P. 205.05A Deployment (R 10/97), the ________ in the dispatch center will assume the role of deployment sector officer.

-captain

56

According to M.P. 205.06A Staging Sector (R 03/03), level 2 staging is implemented by command and should be utilized for… (3)

-all greater alarm incidents, -first alarm medical or hazmat incidents, - or other incidents in which command desires to centralize resources or simply park apparatus in a central, unobstructed location.

57

According to M.P. 205.06A Staging Sector (R 03/03), command should request a separate radio channel and may designate a Staging sector officer. Where an officer is not designated, ______________will automatically become the staging officer.

-the first company to arrive at the designated staging location.

58

According to M.P. 205.06A Staging Sector (R 03/03),where the first company to staging is a ladder company, staging sector responsibilities…

-Should be transferred to an engine company officer upon arrival on the scene.

59

According to M.P. 205.06A Staging Sector (R 03/03), the staging area should allow staged companies to access ________ of the incident without delay or vehicle congestion.

-any geographic point

60

According to M.P. 205.06A Staging Sector (R 03/03), when directed by command, the staging sector officer will _________ assign companies to report to specific sectors, telling them where and whom to report.

-verbally

61

According to M.P. 205.06A Staging Sector (R 03/03), during major incidents where a ___________section is implemented, the staging sector will be working under the direction of the ___________ officer.

-Logistics

62

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), what regulates apparatus placement?

Apparatus function should regulate placement.

63

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), the placement of all apparatus on the fireground should be a reflection of what?

-standard operational procedure for first arriving company -tactical objectives and priorities -staging procedure -a direct order from command -a conscious decision on the part of the company officer based on existing or predictable conditions

64

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), where should companies place their apparatus?

Initial engine, ladder and rescue should be placed based upon the initial size up and general conditions upon arrival. Later arriving companies should stage a minimum of one block short of the immediate fire area and remain uncommitted until ordered into action by command.

65

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), apparatus on the fireground should be regard as one of two categories. What are they?

-Working -Parked

66

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), how far away should apparatus generally be positioned from a building?

Apparatus should generally be positioned at least 30ft away from involved buildings, even with nothing showing. Greater distances are indicated in many situations.

67

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), what should key tactical positions be supported with?

A strong water supply which is at least one pumped line from an engine on a hydrant. When high volume is indicated, two pumped supply lines should be provided.

68

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), instead of making “daisy chain” supply line connections, what should be done instead?

Instead of bringing in more apparatus, connect extra lines to pumpers which already have good supply line instead of making “daisy chain” supply line connections.

69

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), how should an engine lay a supply line?

Try to lay lines on the same side of the street as the hydrant and crossover near the fire.

70

According to M.P. 205.07 Apparatus Placement (R 01/95), how should aerial apparatus be positioned?

When the aerial apparatus is not needed for upper level access or rescue, spot apparatus in a position that would provide an effective position for elevated stream operation if the fire goes to a defensive mode. Ladder officers must consider extent and location of fire, most dangerous direction of spread, confinement, exposure conditions, overhead obstructions and structural conditions in spotting apparatus.

71

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), it shall be the policy of the regional fire department to position apparatus at the scene of emergencies in a manner that…

-best protects the work area and personnel from vehicle traffic and other hazards.

72

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), we should always operate from a _________ posture.

-defensive

73

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), list the 5 safety approaches.

-never trust the traffic -engage in proper protective parking -wear high visibility reflective vests -reduce motorist vision impairment -use traffic cones and flares

74

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), where possible angle apparatus at _____ degrees away from curbside.

-45 degrees

75

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), where apparatus is in limited numbers, prioritize the blocking from ___________.

-the most critical to the least critical.

76

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), the initial company officer must assess the parking needs of later arriving fire apparatus and _________ the parking and placement of these vehicles as they arrive to provide protective blocking of the scene.

-specifically direct

77

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), for the first arriving engine companies where a charged hoseline may be needed, angle the engine so that the _____________ on the side of oncoming traffic.

-pump panel is down stream

78

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), for nighttime operations _________ fire apparatus headlights. Other emergency lighting should be reduced to yellow lights and emergency flashers where possible.

-turn off

79

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), what are the general recommendations for the start of traffic cones/flares?

-25 mph (65 feet) -40 mph (105 feet) -60 mph (160 feet)

80

According to M.P. 205.07A safe Parking while Operating In or Near Vehicle Traffic (R 03/03), rescues should be brought into the scene _________ at a time.

-1 or 2 at a time

81

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), vehicles shall be operated in compliance with the Arizona motor vehicle code. This code provides specific legal exceptions to regular traffic regulations, which apply to fire department vehicles only when….

-responding to an emergency or -when transporting a patient to a medical facility.

82

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), engine, ladder, ladder tenders and rescues should have 2 PFD members in the front seats of the apparatus whenever possible while responding code 3. the driver is responsible for operating the vehicle __________. The co-driver is responsible for being ___________ anytime a unit is responding code 3. Driver and co-drivers must be focused on _____________ any time a PFD vehicle enters into an intersection code 3.

-safely -a second set of eyes and ears -intersection management

83

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), the co-driver in addition to the driver should be accounting for clearance in all traffic lanes, accounting for all pedestrian traffic and announce _____________.

-if it is clear or not clear to proceed.

84

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), response codes will be determined by the company officer based on…

-info received from alarm -time of day -traffic conditions, -weather conditions -other factors

85

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), rescue units will respond code 2; they do not have the authority to upgrade their response to code 3 unless…

-directed by the responding or on scene company officer.

86

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), response codes for rescue units during patient transport will be established by the on-scene company officer prior to the rescue unit leaving the scene. If the on-scene officer determines that a code 3 transport is required, the officer should….

-make every reasonable effort to have a crewmember in the co-driver position.

87

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), when responding code 3, __________ must be on.

-warning lights and sirens

88

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), the use of sirens and warning lights does not automatically give the right of way to the emergency vehicle. These devices simply request the right of way from other drivers, based on their…

-awareness of the emergency vehicle presence.

89

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), FD vehicles are authorized to exceed posted speed limits only when responding code 3 under favorable conditions. This applies…

-with light traffic -good roads -good visibility -dry pavement

90

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), under less favorable conditions ________ is the absolute maximum.

-the posted speed limit

91

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), when emergency vehicles must travel in center or oncoming lanes, the maximum permissible speed shall be_______.

-20 mph

92

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), ____________ provide the greatest potential dangers to emergency vehicles.

-Intersections NOTE: when approaching and crossing an intersection with the right of way, drivers shall not exceed the posted speed limit.

93

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), when emergency vehicles must use center or oncoming traffic lanes to approach controlled intersections (traffic light or stop sign) they must _____________ before proceeding through the intersection, including occasions when the emergency vehicle has green traffic lights.

-come to a complete stop

94

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), when approaching a negative right of way intersection (red light, stop sign) the vehicle shall come to a complete stop and may proceed only when …

-the driver can account for all oncoming traffic lanes yielding the right of way.

95

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), how will unnecessary emergency response be avoided?

-when the first unit reports on the scene with “nothing showing” or an equivalent report, any additional units shall continue code 3, but shall not exceed the posted speed limit. -the first arriving unit will advise the additional units to respond code 2 whenever possible.

96

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), drivers shall avoid backing wherever possible. Where backing is unavoidable, …

-spotters shall be used. If no spotter is available, the driver shall dismount and walk completely around apparatus to determine if obstructions are present before backing.

97

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), fire vehicles should avoid passing other emergency vehicles during an emergency response. If passing is necessary, permission must be obtained through_________.

-radio communications, using the order model.

98

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), ______ shall always have priority over unnecessary speed and reckless driving enroute to an emergency.

-safe arrival

99

According to M.P. 205.08 Driver Safety (R 10/04), what are the emergency response criteria (code 3 driving rules)?

-max 10mph over speed limit -traveling in center or oncoming traffic lanes, 20 mph max. -traveling in center or oncoming traffic, complete stop at all traffic lights/stop signs. -posted speed limit when entering intersections with green light -complete stop at all red lights, stop signs.

100

According to M.P. 205.08A Standard Signals for Backing of Fire Department Apparatus (R 05/93), in addition to when backing spotters shall be used…

-when vehicles must negotiate forward turns with restrictive side clearances and where height clearances are uncertain.

101

According to M.P. 205.08B Emergency Transportation Safe Customer Escort (R 05/98), an escort may be refused in what situations?

-infectious exposures -contamination -danger to rescue driver or patient

102

According to M.P. 205.12 Response to Violent Incidents (R 10/04), what is the definition of a violent incident?

-any type of incident in which fire department members may be exposed to harm as a result of a violent or threatening act.

103

According to M.P. 205.12 Response to Violent Incidents (R 10/04), a unit should stage level 2 in quarters if the incident is within ___________ of the station. Otherwise, stage a minimum of _______ from the incident, out of sight of the incident, with at least ______________.

-1 mile -1/2 mile -2 means of egress (backing doesn’t count)

104

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), units responding to calls on the freeway will respond code 2 on the freeway mainline. However, alternating _______________ may be used.

Alternating headlights and rear flashers

105

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), units should attempt the reach the scene in the _____________ of the reported incident.

direction

106

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), units should proceed in the opposite direction of normal flow only at the specific request of DPS when it is assured that all traffic has been stopped. Fire units should _______________ before entering the freeway against traffic.

Confirm traffic is stopped.

107

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), describe the procedures for a multiple unit response.

-first unit approaching or entering the freeway within a mile of the incident will report its identity, location, direction. -other units will then stage level 1 preferably near an on ramp to avoid premature commitment. These companies may block the access road to prevent additional traffic from entering the freeway.

108

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), it is important to establish a _________ as soon as possible.

-unified command post

109

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), leave one crew member (usually the engineer) to watch the traffic and set up warning devices until ____________.

-DPS arrives

110

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is “against the wall?’

-area around the median barrier wall aka -inside shoulder -median wall

111

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is “the curve?”

Refers to the I17 Durango curve; may also refer to the broadway curve on the I10 or the I10 curve at the squaw peak interchange Aka Durango curve

112

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the distress lane?

Refers to the area between the median barrier wall and the number one traffic lane; may also refer to the emergency lane Aka Emergency lane

113

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the gore point?

Area around freeway entrance and exit.

114

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the main lane?

Controlled access freeway

115

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the mini stack?

-squaw peak interchange to I10, SR51 and Loop 202, near 20th st and Roosevelt and Mcdowell rd aka short stack

116

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the shoulder?

Refers to the area off the roadway to the right of the emergency lane; may also refer to the median area near the left side of the roadway

117

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the split?

The Maricopa interchange (I10/I17) traffic interchange west of the airport.

118

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the stack?

The papago (I10)/Black canyon (I17) interchange between 19th ave and 27th ave.

119

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the tunnel?

Portion of papago freeway (I10) under central ave, 3rd st to 3rd ave Aka The deck

120

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is unified command?

Command post consisting of more than one agency.

121

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), describe the lane numbering sequence.

No. 1 is the traffic lane nearest the median or center, excluding the HOV lane.

122

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is Black canyon freeway (Interstate 17)?

Begins at the Durango curve and continues north thru Phoenix

123

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the East papago freeway (Loop 202)?

Begins at the I10/SR51/Loop 202 interchange and continues east to the Price Freeway

124

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the Hohokam Freeway (State route 143)?

Begins at the I10 and 48th st and continues north to mcdowell rd.

125

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the Maricopa freeway?

I17 south (east) of the Durango curve to the Maricopa interchange and I10 continuing East

126

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the papago freeway (I10)?

Entering Phoenix from the west to the Maricopa interchange where it become the Maricopa freeway.

127

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is squaw peak freeway(SR51)?

Begins at the I10/L202/SR51 interchange and continues north

128

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the superstition freeway (US60)?

Begins at the I10/US60 interchange and continues east

129

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the sky harbor expressway (State Route 153)?

Begins at university drive to sky harbor blvd

130

According to M.P. 205.15 Freeway Response (R12/98), what is the aqua fria freeway?

Begins at the I17 and L101 interchange and continues west/southwest to Glendale ave.

131

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), how many lanes of traffic travel in each direction?

5

132

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), what is the maximum volume of traffic?

8000 autos/hour/tunnel

133

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), there is a single _________ between the 2 vehicular tunnels to serve bus traffic. _______ access doors provide access from this transit tunnel to the vehicular tunnels (2 on each side) and are located approximately _____________ of the way in from the vehicular entrance/exit. They are locked from the _______ side.

-Bus transit tunnel -Four -1/3 -transit

134

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), each tunnel has _________ ventilation. There are ________ ventilation rooms, _____ for each tunnel, that control air flow. Normal air flow is drawn into the tunnel near the middle and flows to exit points at either end of the tunnel. Air flow volume is determined by __________ readings. The bus transit tunnel does not have any mechanical ventilation.

-mechanical -4 -2 -carbon monoxide

135

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), each vent room can be accessed from the surface via the structures on the deck. There are two separate elvels to each room that go to a depth of _____ feet below the surface.

-35

136

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), the ADOT Control Room serves as the entry point for the main __________switch gear. It is located below the _____________. Access is from the Deck Park Ground level. It is staffed 24 hours a day.

-electrical -the central ave overpass on the south side.

137

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), lockboxes are located in hwat locations?

-location access -fan room access buildings at deck into fan room -fire detection system

138

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), the two vehicular tunnels are equipped with linear _________ heat detectors at the ceiling. After an alarm is transmitted to the ADOT control room, the fans in the quadrant automatically go to full exhaust. It takes _____ minutes to cycle from full supply to full exhaust. When in full exhaust they are discharging ____________.

-rate of rise -5 -400,000 cfm

139

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), there are hydrant cabinets in the 2 vehicle tunnels located approximately _______ on alternating sides of the tunnel (_______ separation on the same side). Each cabinet has a _______ and _______hydrant fitting.

-every 300 feet -600 feet -2 1/2 “ -4”

140

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), the hydrants are fed by a _______ water mains.

6”

141

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), the location of the hydrant cabinets is indicated by a __________ hydrant sign.

-blue and white

142

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), the tunnel standpipe system is a _________ system.

wet

143

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), a _______ fire dept standpipe connection to support the wall hydrant system is located on __________, 50’ west of central. Intake fittings on the connection is _______.

-four-way -Culver -2 ½”

144

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), there are a total of ____ fan rooms, ____ for each tunnel. Each fan room has ____ fans, so each tunnel has a total of _____ fans.

-4 -2 -4

145

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), each vent room has a UPS system that provides _______ of bridge power between loss of APS power and generator startup.

15 minutes

146

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), what frequencies will operate in the tunnel?

-fire channels 1,2,3 (vhf) -Medical channels 3 and 9 (uhf)

147

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), companies should repeat their company identity ______.

Twice.

148

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), the MCT’s _______ in the tunnel.

Will not

149

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), there are emergency telephone cabinets located every _______ on bith sides of the tunnels. The are identified by __________.

-150 feet -large reddish brown vertical strips on the walls which are numbered 1-9 in the direction of traffic flow.

150

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), when there is a loss of APS power, one fan in each room is on emergency power. It provides __________ of normal supply.

-1/3 to ½

151

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), there are 2 pump houses, one at _____ and one at ____.

-third st -third ave.

152

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), the most direct access besides 7th ave and 7th st is _____.

-19th ave and 16th st

153

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), if traffic congestion is severe, creating significant delays in reaching the incident site, the second due company should enter the ________. This company should enter the freeway with the flow of traffic from the opposite direction. Other companies should level II stage on ___________ (the tunnels hydrant system standpipe connection is located there.

-transit tunnel -culver, just west of central

154

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), if there is a major fire, confirm with ADOT control room that the ________ are working at maximum volume and in the direction needed to control the tunnel environment. Also confirm the ________ is turned off.

-exhaust fans -sump pump

155

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), for a fire, the firs attack lines should ___________ and the second attack lines should address__________.

-protect victims and rescuers -address fire control in extinguishment

156

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), a fire in one of the below grade facilities should be considered a confined space operation. If no person are believed to be trapped, or the survival profile suggests no rescue should be attempted, the best approach may be to seal the facility, secure all power, and ____________.

-let the fire burn itself out

157

According to M.P. 205.15A Papago Tunnel Response (R 03/03), the tunnel has a radio repeater system for fire channels 1, 2, 3 and medical channels 3 and 9. Should the assigned channel fail, communications should_____________.

-be switched to the other tactical radio channel. If all comm’s fail, command must establish a communications relay system (sector) outside the tunnel.

158

According to M.P. 205.17 Mutual Aid Response (R 03/03), what is the minimum dispatch to a mutual aid request?

A 3-1 assignment plus a rescue, BC, and utility, shift commander, safety officer and rehab.

159

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), electricity will travel any conductive pathway it can as it seeks a ________.

Ground.

160

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is a direct path to ground?

Occurs when contact is made between something energized and a portion of your body.

161

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is an indirect path to ground?

Occurs when you are holding something or touching an object that is in contact with something energized.

162

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), when power lines are down they will ___________ the ground around them.

Energize

163

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is step potential?

Voltage decreases as it radiates out from point of ground contact. If your feet are in areas where there is a voltage difference, you could complete the circuit and be the source to ground.

164

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is an indicator of step potential?

Tingling sensation. Also note step potential is more sever when the ground is wet.

165

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what are the ways lines can reset and become hot or energized?

-manual operation -automatic reclosing -induction (deenergized line can become hot if its near an energized line) -back feed conditions

166

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is reel memory?

When power lines curl back or roll on themselves when down.

167

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), never spray directly into power lines. Use a _________ spray at the ______ of the pole. Your primary responsibility is to protect the ____________________. _______________ of water are preferred methods to avoid being grounded. Never spray water onto electrical equipment until a utility rep has confirmed that the equipment is de-energeized or dead.

-fog -base -surrounding area -short bursts

168

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what are the three classifications of electrical equipment?

-energized -de-energized (cant be 100% guaranteed) -dead (confirmed by utility companies after grounding the lines)

169

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), you ________ tell the voltage of a power line by the size of the conductor.

-cannot

170

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is the basic response to power lines down?

-request utility company -consider all lines as energized -place apparatus away from fown lines and power poles and out from under involved overhead lines that could fail -secure area/deny entry -during high activity may leave one crewmember with a radio -call additional resources for multiple lines down

171

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is the basic response to down power lines and vehicles?

-request utility company -do not touch vehicle -have occupants remain inside vehicle -place apparatus a safe distance away -if occupants must leave the vehicle (fire) instruct them to open the door without stepping out. Jump free of the vehicle without touching both at the same time. Walk away with very small steps.

172

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is the basic response to sub-station, transformer, electrical vault and manhole fires?

-request utility company -clear the area -be aware of explosion potential -place apparatus safe distance away - protect exposures -do not make entry until the utility rep has verified that the above electrical equipment has been de-energized.

173

According to M.P. 205.20 Response to Power Lines/Energized Electrical Equipment (R 03/09), what is the basic response to power pole fires?

-request utility company respond -consider all wires/poles energized -place apparatus away from lines/poles -secure area/deny entry -do not make any fire attack until the utility rep has verified that the electrical equipment has been de-energized

174

According to M.P. 205.21 Portable Radios (R 09/00), the best means of communication at an emergency scene is ________________ and should be utilized whenever possible within the company or sector.

-face to face