Reproductive System - UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

What takes over the role of estrogen and progesterone secretion after the corpus luteum regresses around week 10?

A

Estrogen - fetal adrenal gland

Progesterone - placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hormones involved in the pathogenesis of PCOS

A

High insulin -> high LH:FSH (>3) -> high androgens -> hirsutism and anovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hormones result in involution of the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts, development of the mesonephric (Wolffian ducts) and male external genitalia?

A
MIH = paramesonephric duct involution
Testosterone = Wolffian duct formation (seminal vesicles, epididymus, ejaculatory duct and ductus deferens)
DHT = development of external genitalia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Etiologies of polyhydramnios

A

GI tract obstruction
Anencephaly
High fetal cardiac output -> increased urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Immunochemistry in complete vs. incomplete molar pregnancy

A
Complete = p57-negative
Incomplete = p57-positive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mifepristone mechanism of action

A

Anti-progesterone drug that causes necrosis and sloughing of the decidual layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Immigrant mom has joint pains and a rash on her neck that spread to her extremities while pregnant. Exam reveals posterior auricular and sub occipital lymphadenopathy. What conditions might the fetus have at birth?

A

She has rubella and likely did not receive the live-attenuated MMR vaccine prior to pregnancy. Congenital rubella syndrome consists of cataracts, cardiac defects (PDA) and sensorineural deafness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Regions of the male urethra

A

Posterior urethra: prostatic and membranous segments

Anterior urethra: bulbous and penile segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ligament that contains the ovarian artery, vein, lymphatics and nerve

A

Suspensory ligament of the ovary (i.e. tubuloinfundibular ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ligament that contains the uterine artery

A

Cardinal ligament (i.e. transverse cervical ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Degrees of vaginal tearing with birth

A
1st = through superficial skin + mucosa
2nd = through perineal body
3rd = through external/internal anal sphincter
4th = through rectal mucosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Levator ani muscles

A

Ileococcygeus and pubococcygeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hormones that act on the ovary

A

LH -> theca interna -> progesterone and androgen synthesis

FSH -> granulosa cells -> aromatization of androgen to estradiol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why does hCG work to induce ovulation

A

It has a similar alpha-subunit as LH, FSH and TSH. The similarity to LH induces follicle rupture from the ovary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vaginitis with normal pH

A

Candidiasis.

Trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis have higher pHs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most common cause of Turner syndrome. Why do they have short stature?

A

Paternal non-disjunction of the X chromosome during meiosis II, resulting in 45XO phenotype in almost all cells. Patients will have short stature due to loss of SHOX gene, which promotes long bone growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Differentiating primary ciliary dyskinesia from cystic fibrosis

A

Primary ciliary dyskinesia may have situs inversus and immotile sperm due to defect in dyenin arm.

CF may have pancreatitis and absent vas deferens

18
Q

Which syphilis tests can you use to track response to anti-treponemal therapy?

A

RPR and VDRL test for presence of cardiolipin, a byproduct of T. palladium infection. FTA-ABS tests for antibodies against treponemal antigens that remain positive for life.

19
Q

Cancers associated with trisomy 21

A

AML-M7 and ALL as children

20
Q

Hormone levels in Klinefelter syndrome

A

Hyalinization and fibrosis of seminiferous tubules -> non-functioning Sertoli cells -> increased FSH

Leydig cell dysfunction -> low testosterone -> increased LH

21
Q

Gonadal arteries originate from…

A

Aorta, below renal arteries

22
Q

Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome. Next think to check for when you make this diagnosis?

A

Blind vaginal pouch originates from urogenital sinus and absent uterus due to Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis. The next think you should do is a renal ultrasound because 50% of these patients may have a co-existing renal abnormality like renal agenesis.

23
Q

Post-op patient with scrotal and medial thigh numbness after pelvic surgery

A

Injury to the genitofemoral nerve, most commonly due to retraction against the nerve as it lies on the psoas muscle

24
Q

Nerve at high risk for injury during Pfannensteil incision C-section.

A

Iliohypogastric nerve innervates the suprapubic skin and lies near the site of incision

25
Q

Loss of medial thigh sensation and ability to abduct after retroperitoneal lymph node dissection

A

Obturator nerve injury

26
Q

Definition of primary amenorrhea

A

No menses or secondary sex characteristics by 13

No menses with secondary sex characteristics by 15

27
Q

Mechanism for gestational hyperglycemia

A

Increasing levels of hPL secreted by the syncytiotrophoblasts results in increased insulin resistance, increased insulin release, increased maternal proteolysis and lipolysis. GDM occurs when the pancreas cannot secrete enough insulin to keep up with the increased blood glucose levels.

28
Q

Most common type of ovarian germ cell tumor

A

Mature teratoma

29
Q

Conditions associated with increased and decreased maternal serum AFP

A

Increased: multiple gestations, open neural tube defects and abdominal wall defects

Decreased: aneuploidy. Trisomy 21 will also have low E2, increased inhibin A and increased beta-hCG

30
Q

How can a translocation cause Down syndrome?

A

Translocation of both long arms of chromosome 21 to chromosome 14 with a single normal 21 chromosome results in three chromosome 21s.

31
Q

Common presentation of a gonadotrophic pituitary adenoma

A

Mass effect, the alpha-subunit of FSH and LH are typically inactive

32
Q

Most common cause of an elevated AFP

A

Dating error

33
Q

How does the date of separation determine the placenta and amnion status in monozygotic twinning

A

Days 0-4 = di, di
Days 4-8 = monochorionic diamniotic
Days 8-12 = monochorionic, mono amniotic
> 13 days = conjoined

34
Q

Painful genital ulcer with:
A) Gray-yellow exudate, organisms clumped in long parallel strands like a school of fish

B) Multinucleate giant cells and intracytoplasmic inclusions

Painless genital ulcer with:
C) Extensive and progressive lesions with deeply staining gram-negative intracytoplasmic inclusions cysts and granulation tissue

D) Clean erythematous base with thin, delicate, corkscrew organisms on dark field microscopy

E) Small, shallow rapidly healing ulcers with intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in epithelial cells and leukocytes

A
A) Chancroid
B) Genital herpes
C) K. inguinale (donoviasis)
D) Syphilis
E) Lymphogranuloma venereum
35
Q

Antibiotic that can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol

A

Metronidazole

36
Q

Why might a patient with a germ cell tumor present with paraneoplastic hyperthyroidism?

A

beta-hCG has the same alpha subunit as TSH, LH and FSH and can bind to TSH receptors and cause symptoms of hyperthyroidism

37
Q

Genes that predispose patients to pheochromocytoma

A

VHL, RET1 and NF1

38
Q

Treatment of Graves’ ophthalmopathy

A

High dose steroids to reduce Th1-mediated fibroblast stimulation

39
Q

Lymph node drainage from the testes? Glans and posterior superficial calves? Scrotum?

A

Testes = para-aortic
Glans and posterior calf = deep inguinal
Scrotum = superficial inguinal

40
Q

Why preserve the prostatic shell in a patient undergoing prostatectomy?

A

The inferior hypogastric plexus gives off the prostatic parasympathetic nerve plexus in the prostatic fascia. The greater and lesser cavernous nerves exit the prostatic fascia to innervate the corpora cavernosa and are the nerves involved in erection.

41
Q

Invasive mole vs. gestational choriocarcinoma

A

Invasive mole has diffusely hyper plastic trophoblasts invading the myometrium as chorionic villi
Choriocarcinoma has anaplastic and necrotic trophoblasts invading blood vessels and no chorionic villi