7 Flashcards
(50 cards)
1
Q
- What diagnostic test would be performed to diagnose uroperitoneum in a 2 yo colt?
a. Serum BUN
b. Urine BUN
c. Serum creatinine
d. Abdominocenesis
A
d. Abdominocenesis (to obtain creatinine)
2
Q
- How long must a placenta remain in the mare post-partum to be considered retained?
a. 0.5 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
A
b. 3 hours
3
Q
- A horse has fallen down after administration of detomidine. How do you reverse it?
a. Yohimbine
b. Naloxone
A
a. Yohimbine
4
Q
- What do you do with a horse you are treating with TMS and becomes anorexia and develops diarrhea?
a. Stop TMS, CBC, give banamine
b. Continue TMS, CBC, banamine
c. Stop TMS, chem., bute
d. Continue TMS, chem., bute
A
a. Stop TMS, CBC, give banamine
5
Q
100.Once a day drug to be used in a foat with a gastric ulcer?
A
a. Omeprazole
6
Q
- Which schedule drug requires a triplicate form to be sent to the DEA?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
A
b. II
7
Q
- Which of the following species is known to be a reservoir for WEE in CA?
a. Skunks
b. Squirrels
c. Wild horses
d. Birds
A
d. Birds
8
Q
- An owner is concerned about nutrition for a growing foal. He has been feeding a mixture of timothy grass and oat hay. Protein: 8%, calcium 0.6%, phosphorous 0.1%. Is this adequate to meet the needs of the foal (growth, prevention of developmental bone abnormalities)
a. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are adequate
b. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are deficient
c. Protein is adequate, Ca and P are adequate
d. Protein is adequate, Ca and P are deficient
A
b. Protein is deficient, Ca and P are deficient (protein=14-16%, Ca=1% , Phos=0.75%; Ca/P ratio = 3:1)
9
Q
- Corneal ulcers in sheep are frequently caused by which of the following etiologies?
a. Chlamydophila
b. Pseudomonas
c. Mycoplasma
d. Herpes
A
a. Chlamydophila
10
Q
- Corneal ulcers in cats are frequently caused by which of the following etiologies?
a. FeLV
b. FIV
c. FIP
d. Feline calicivirus
e. Herpesvirus
A
e. Herpesvirus (dendritic ulcers)
11
Q
- You are presented with a 5 yr old Dalmatian with bilateral mucopurulent ocular discharge and a positive fluororscein stain on the left eye. What of the following is most important question to ask the owner?
a. What is the dog’s current diet?
b. Has the dog been on antibiotics recently?
c. Has the dog been vaccinated for parvo?
d. Does the dog live outside?
A
b. Has the dog been on antibiotics recently? (KCS secondary to Abtc)
12
Q
- An 8 yr old male GSD presents with weakness in the hind legs of 1 week duration. The owner says the dog’s “hips are giving out.” Neurologic exam reveals normal cranial nerves, normal reflexes in the front limbs, hyperreflexia in the rear limbs. Where is the lesion most likely located?
a. C1-C5
b. C6-T2
c. T3-L3
d. L4-S1
A
c. T3-L3
13
Q
- You have just diagnosed equine viral arteritis (REPORTABLE) on a breeding farm, what is the most appropriate next step?
a. Reassure the owner that EVA is self limiting and that no specific treatment will be required
b. Euthanize the horses immediately due to potential zoonotic risk
c. Contact state veterinarian
d. Separate the horses by age
A
c. Contact state veterinarian
14
Q
- Which of the following species is the primary reservoir for plague in CA?
a. Cat
b. Rat
c. Squirrel
d. Dog
A
c. Squirrel
15
Q
- Which of the following abdominal structures can be palpated rectally in a horse?
a. Stomach, bladder, pelvic flexure
b. Stomach, bladder, cecum
c. Cecum, bladder spleen
A
c. Cecum, bladder spleen
16
Q
- What is the most common active ingredient in snail bate?
a. Strichynine
b. Warfarin
c. Metaldehyde
d. Brodifacoum
A
c. Metaldehyde
17
Q
- What is the most appropriate suture material for wound repair of a contaminated skin laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3?
a. Vicryl
b. PDS (polydioxanone)
c. Silk
d. Prolene
A
d. Prolene (polypropylene - lease reactive)
18
Q
- What is the most appropriate suture pattern for wound repair of a skin laceration to a horse’s dorsal MC3?
a. Horizontal mattress
b. Vertical mattress
c. Simple interrupted
d. Lembert
A
b. Vertical mattress
19
Q
- What is the most effective treatment of trichobezars in rabbits?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Fiber
c. Pineapple and papaya juice
d. Mineral oil
A
b. Fiber
20
Q
- Which of the following species is most sensitive to ivermectin?
a. Guinea pigs
b. Cats
c. Birds
d. Tortoise
A
d. Tortoise (and turtles)
21
Q
- What is the most human way to euthanize a 4 month old calf?
a. Blunt force to the head
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Electrocution
d. Gunshot to the head
A
d. Gunshot to the head
22
Q
- A group of goat kids are exhibiting poor growth, fractured limbs, swollen joints, and have bones with thin cortices. What is the most likely cause?
a. Vitamin A deficiency
b. Vitamin D deficiency
c. Vitamin E deficiency
d. Ca deficiency
A
b. Vitamin D deficiency
23
Q
- 1000 cow herd bulk tank sample has 800,000 SCC. The machinery is clean and there is good post-milking sanitation. What is your next step?
a. Culture a bulk tank sample
b. Culture each individual
c. Cull the whole herd
d. Culture only the clinically affected cattle
A
a. Culture a bulk tank sample (blood agar)
24
Q
- Which vaccine is only available killed?
a. Leptospirosis
b. Distemper
c. FeLV
d. Rabies
A
a. Leptospirosis (old answer -bacterin vax)
25
20. Which of the following is the only way to arrive at a definitive diagnosis of FIP in cats?
a. Coronavirus titers
b. Abdominal ultrasound
c. Biopsy and histopathology
d. ELISA
c. Biopsy and histopathology
26
21. Several lambs in a flock are diagnosed with urolithiasis (most likely struvite). What is the best recommendation you can give the farmer?
a. Increase P in diet
b. Increase Mg in diet
c. Increase salt in diet
d. Decrease Ca in diet
c. Increase salt in diet (increase H2O intake)
27
22. A 3 year old intact male cat presents with severe stomatitis. What is the most likely differential?
a. FeLV
b. FIP
c. FIV
d. Herpes
c. FIV
28
23. What is the most important parameter to monitor while under general anesthesia?
a. Blood pressure
b. Arterial blood gas
c. Venous blood gas
d. Respiration
a. Blood pressure
29
24. What is the most common cause of endodontic disease in dogs?
a. Periodontal disease
b. Fractured tooth exposing pulp cavity
c. Enamel hypoplasia
d. Retained deciduous teeth
b. Fractured tooth exposing pulp cavity
30
25. Under which of the following conditions would infestation with Damalinia species (lice) be most likely?
a. Winter, good body condition, poor hair coat
b. Winter, poor body condition, poor hair coat
c. Summer, poor body condition, good hair coat
d. Summer, good body condition, poor hair coat
b. Winter, poor body condition, poor hair coat
31
26. Which combination of drugs would you use to sedate a warmblood with signs of colic?
a. Xylazine and acepromazine
b. Xylazine and butorphanol
c. Detomidine and atropine
d. Ketamine and valium
b. Xylazine and butorphanol
32
27. A 2 yr old Quaterhorse shows signs of muscle fasciculation, weakness, recumbency and facial spasms. These signs re reduced when the horse is treated with Ca gluconate, Bicarb and dextrose. What changes would you make to the diet?
a. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put onto pasture
b. Increase protein, decrease carbohydrates, supplement with P and Ca
c. Feed more beet pulp
d. Add molasses to feed and increase grains
a. Decrease alfalfa, increase timothy hay, put onto pasture
33
28. What would you expect to see in a cow with a four-point block for encluation
a. Exophthalmos and miosis
b. Enopthalmos and mydriasis
c. Exophthalmos and mydriasis
d. Enopthalmos and miosis
c. Exophthalmos and mydriasis
34
29. A woman bring in a group of budgies that range in age from a few months to 5 years. Two have died, other are sick with ruffled feathers, respiratory distress and lethargy.
She feeds them seeds along with vegetables and fruit. Which food item is most likely responsible for their deaths?
a. Olives
b. Avocado
c. Tomatoes
b. Avocado
35
30. Which of the following is contraindicated in treated retained fetal membranes?
a. Manual removal
b. Oxytocin
c. IV fluids
d. Ca gluconate
a. Manual removal
36
31. A pigeon presents to you with trichomoniasis. What is the best way to diagnose this?
a. A wet mount of the crop and esophagus contents
b. Fecal float
c. Fecal smear
d. Skin scraping
a. A wet mount of the crop and esophagus contents
37
32. How can you tell a horse is under a deep plane of anesthesia with halothane?
a. Absent corneal reflex
38
33. Placing a mare on progestin. Advice to owners?
a. Tell women to wear gloves when handling the drug
39
34. A horse with non-ulcerated, non-painful, non-pruritic lesions has?
a. Nodular necrobacillosis???? Doesn't exist
40
35. Xanthochromia, straining to urinate and decreased perineal tone in horse?
a. EHV-1/EHV-4
41
36. A pig with rectal prolapse is going to fair in 3 days.
a. Put a prolapse ring on it
b. Amputate the rectum
c. Replace and don't do anything else
a. Put a prolapse ring on it (can also do a purse string)
42
37. How do you identify a cow 55 days pregnant
a. Positive membrane slip
b. Fremitus
c. Palpate fetus
d. Placentomes
a. Positive membrane slip
43
38. 3 yo female lab goes hunting and had a purulent vaginal discharge. What is your next diagnostic?
a. Vaginoscopy - look for foxtails
44
39. Castration will not decrease the incidence of which disease in a dog?
a. Prostatic neoplasia
b. Testicular neoplasia
c. Anal sac adenocarcinoma
a. Prostatic neoplasia
45
40. When is the best time to apply a fentanyl patch
a. 12-24 hours before surgery
46
41. A dog has a swelling under his right eye that is painful. Most likely
a. Periapical abscess of PM4
47
42. What is not likely to result in diuresis in ARF dog
a. Dexamethasone
48
43. Why is it not recommended to give a MLV vaccine to pregnant queens and bitches
a. Fetal deformation and death
49
1. What treatment is required for a tooth fracture in a dog involving the enamel but not exposing the pulp cavity?
a. Vital pulpectomy
b. Crown
c. Standard endodontic treatment
d. Smooth the sharp edges of the fracture
d. Smooth the sharp edges of the fracture
50
2. What is a possible complication of a simple, closed, transverse fracture of the distal radius in a 3 lb, 3 year old Yorkie?
a. Non-union
b. Osteomyelitis
c. Sequestrum formation
a. Non-union??
