Aaron: Infectious Disease Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

Bands more than 10% are what?

A

Sepsis or SIRS qualification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SIRS/pancreatitis criteria, what is the most common test to observe and look at outcomes?

A

BUN > 20 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HIV induced hypercholosterolemia, hyperlipidemia, what is the first drug of choice?

A

-statin, not a fibrate, fibrates are not the first go to drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IV drug abuser, first time new murmur, septic pulmonary emboli, what is the next best step?

A

Transthoracic Echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Classic Triad of pleuritic chest pain, cough, hemoptysis, what is the most likely cause? Immunosuppressed patient with “ground glass opacity” (not PCP).

A

Invasive Pulmonary Aspergillious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A patient is scared to drink, hydrophobia is common in what disease?

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a pulmonary indication for corticosteroids?

A

Alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient >35 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PCP is seen with a CD4 count less than 200, if the sputum analysis is negative for PCP, can a patient still be infected with PCP?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If I have TB meningitis, what is the length of treatment?

A

2 months of 4 drug therapy then 9-12 months of isoniazid and Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TB meningitis, will patients have long term neurological problems?

Are intrathecal drugs helpful?

A

Yes, to long term neuro issues

No intrathecal drugs are helpful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does Dexamethasone (glucocorticoid therapy) reduce morbidity and mortality in TB patients?

A

Yes, should be given for 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient obtains C. Diff. does not want to be admitted, what is the scariest C. Diff complication?

A

Intestinal Perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

All things being equal, what is a quick easy difference between Meningococcal Meningitis and Tertiary Syphilis?

A

Syphilis happens over weeks and months, Meningococcal Meningitis is hours to days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three criteria for acute liver failure?

If a patient has 1 of 3 and an acute Hep B infection, should they be admitted?

A

Elevated Liver Enzymes, Encephalopathy, and INR > 1.5

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Does antiviral Hep B treatment make a huge difference?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Centor Criteria of the following gets what?

Less than 3?
3-4?

A

Less than 3 = symp. treatment

3-4 = Streptococcal Rapid Antigen Test, if +, then get abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Before starting HIV treatment, what should be investigated before treatment starts?

A

Hep B serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Assuming I have an HIV exposure, what is a perfect timeframe that triple therapy retroviral treatment should be started?

A

less than 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A positive p24 HIV tests can take up to how long to be positive?

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a patient had a rabies vaccine one year ago, then they were bitten by a bat, what is the treatment?

A

Vaccine on day 0 and 3, yes despite the fact that he had it a year before, I know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Multiple Small papules with central umbilication, on face, neck, trunk, and upper thighs. Oral Thrush and HIV non-compliant, what is the most likely cause?

A

Cryptococcus, confirmed via biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mycotic aneurysms are what?

A

Infected Aneurysms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Close contact has meningococcal infection, what is the treatment of choice?

What condition makes it so that a woman cannot take Rifampin?

A

One dose ciprofloxacin 500 mg

OCP use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis can have what hallmark sign and treatment?

A
Treatment = 6 weeks of ciprofloxacin
Sign = pain during ejaculation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
HSV encephalitis will cause what problems?
Altered Mental Status, will not be able to follow commands well
26
26-year-old with a white lesion that can be scrapped off with a tongue depressor, is this enough to think about oral cancer? 5-year smoking history
no, think about HIV, particularly with the enlarged regional lymph nodes
27
How do you tell Erysipelas vs Cellulitis?
Cellulitis does not have a distinct cut off, Erysipelas does have a well demarcated line The red rash is also elevated and raised
28
If a tick is engorged, does there need to be abx treatment? If a tick has been attached less than 36-48 hours, does the patient need abx, even with a rash?
Yes No, tick saliva can cause red rash after the fact
29
A patient has urethritis, given a shot of azithromycin, does not get better a few weeks later, what is the next best test?
Do another gram stain and urethral swab
30
Assuming a patient has active TB, what is the next best step?
Sputum Acid Fast Culture and smear, IFN gamma and TB skin test do not have distinguish an active infection
31
P. Aeruginosa has what skin disease? IBD has what skin disease?
Ecthyma Gangrenosum Pyoderma Gangrenosum
32
Bartonella has what specific disease characteristic?
Very tender lymphadenopathy
33
Bacteremia in a cancer patient, what is the first treatment step?
Empiric IV abx, Pseudomonas abx should get Beta Lactam and Aminoglycoside
34
After fungal meningitis treatment, how long should patients wait for HIV treatment initiation?
2-10 weeks after meningitis treatment start
35
Fluconazole treatment, CD4 count must be over _____ to stop?
100
36
Cryptococcal Meningoencephalitis can clog up the arachnoid villi, and what treatment needs to be done? Look out for continued symptom headaches, nausea, vomiting, and lethargy
Serial Lumbar Punctures
37
``` MCV lesions Elevated opening pressure low leukocyte count, lymphocytic predominance Elevated protein and glucose Meningitis symptoms, what am I? ```
Cryptococcal Meningitis Positive India Ink preparation
38
Shingles in an 82 year old patient, what is the best treatment?
Oral Valacyclovir, if under 72 hours
39
Shingles patient is admitted for pain control, what are the necessary PPE precautions?
Airborne and Contact
40
Can a Jarisch-Herxheimer Reaction be prevented with anti-histamines or steroids?
No
41
A new HIV diagnosed patient, +RPR, +FTA, headaches, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, what is the next step?
LP, the symptoms may be tertiary syphilis
42
Recurrent C. diff infection is seen based on what patient history contribution? Is a +PCR stool antigen test enough to diagnose
3 loose, watery stools in 24 hours, look out for elevated white count and fever, too No to +PCR test only
43
Best way to prevent C. Diff?
Stop gastric acid suppression
44
Bladder cancer will have blood when during micturation?
Through out urination
45
Schistosomiasis will have blood when during micturation?
Terminal part of urination
46
Schistosomiasis in a Ghana Man, dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and anemia, what is a good next step?
Urine Sediment microscopy
47
Dengue Fever is seen via what test?
Petechiae after blood pressure cuff inflation
48
Osteomyelitis in a diabetic patient, what is the best radiography test?
MRI
49
What is a common Isoniazid side effect besides nerve damage?
Drug induced hepatitis
50
If a patient's airway is about to close off, what is the best immediate treatment besides intubation?
Corticosteroids
51
Does EBV or Strept infection more likely cause hepatosplenomegaly?
EBV
52
EBV treatment is what?
Supportive care, no anti-viral medications are helpful
53
If I have necrotizing fasciitis, what is the most common culprit?
Group A strep, not C. Perfringens (also a cause, but not #1) from uworld
54
If an elderly woman is brought from a nursing home, cloudy urine, +urine culture, but no burning during urination, no increased urinary frequency, and no other symptoms. What is the next best step?
Leave alone, if UTIs are asymptomatic, do not treat, the only time to treat if not symptomatic is if +culture/results and pregnant
55
Oseltamivir is best used in Flu patients via what time table?
Less than 48 hour onset
56
How long after infection does it take for a Giardia infection to take place?
At least one week
57
How long after infection does it take for an E. Coli infection to take place?
A few days
58
Do you treat E. Histolytica if the patient has stool cysts but no symptoms?
Yes, paromomycin
59
If a patient had unprotected sex with a known HIV positive partner, and they present within 72 hours after the sexual encounter, what can be done?
Triple Therapy anti-viral medications for 28 days
60
Can Thiazide diuretics cause pancreatitis?
Yes
61
Fever AMS Late spring, summer, or early autumn Flaccid paralysis --> transverse myelitis Extrapyramidal symptoms What am I? Treatment?
West Nile Encephalitis Tx: Fluids, supportive care