ACP Questions #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Viral cause of dendritic corneal lesions

A

Herpes simplex

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2
Q

Disease associated with blue sclerae

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta (accept iron deficiency anemia)

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3
Q

Medical term for finding at the margin of the cornea

A

Look up picture of Ciliary flush

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4
Q

Medical term for finding in the anterior chamber below the pupil

A

Look up picture of Hypopyon

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5
Q

Term that describes vision abnormality characterized by wavy and distorted lines

A

Metamorphopsia

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6
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitor that may cause bronchospasm

A

Zanamivir

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7
Q

Antibiotic for UTI associated with hyperkalemia and elevated serum creatinine in absence of renal failure

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (accept trimethoprim)

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8
Q

Vasopressin-receptor antagonist used to treat SIADH secretion

A

Conivaptan or tolvapatan (either)

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9
Q

Anti-tuberculosis drug that reduces blood level of oral contraceptives

A

Rifampin

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10
Q

Sunitinib and sorafenib inhibit this enzyme

A

Tyrosine kinase

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11
Q

Dental finding associated with bulimia

A

Enamel erosions

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12
Q

Eponym for respiratory pattern associated with metabolic acidosis

A

Kussmaul respiration

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13
Q

Name of sign describing inability to maintain a fixed posture associated with cirrhosis

A

Asterixis

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14
Q

Eponym for reflexively flexing knees and hips in response to passive flexion of the neck

A

Brudzinski sign

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15
Q

Device used to measure degree of exophthalmos

A

Exophthalmometer

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16
Q

An anaerobic gram-positive rod that produces two toxins causing mucosal damage

A

Clostridium difficile

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17
Q

Most common form of naturally occurring anthrax

A

Cutaneous anthrax

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18
Q

Treatment for severe parvovirus B19 infection in HIV patient

A

Intravenous immunoglobulin

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19
Q

Most common cause of fatal sporadic encephalitis in USA

A

Herpes encephalitis

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20
Q

Diagnosis consistent with CNS lesions that are dissemination in time and space

A

Multiple sclerosis

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21
Q

Antihypertensive drug class that reduces risk of second stroke regardless of blood pressure

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

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22
Q

Dementia associated with prominent disinhibition and personality change

A

Frontotemporal dementia

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23
Q

The most common hereditary ataxia

A

Friedreich ataxia

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24
Q

Serum marker for vasoactive intestinal peptide tumor

A

Vasoactive intestinal peptide

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25
Q

Syndrome associated with rapid cell lysis, elevated uric acid, potassium, and phosphorus levels

A

Tumor lysis syndrome

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26
Q

Anatomical location of most carcinoid tumors

A

Ileum (accept small bowel)

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27
Q

Genetic mutation associated with MEN 2A

A

RET proto-oncogene (accept RET)

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28
Q

B Vitamin deficiency associated with carcinoid syndrome

A

Niacin (accept B3 or nicotinic acid)

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29
Q

The hallmark microscopic finding of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

A

Red cell fragmentation (accept schistocytes)

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30
Q

The most common cause of thrombocytopenia during pregnancy

A

Gestational thrombocytopenia

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31
Q

Best screening test for factor V Leiden gene mutation

A

Protein C resistance

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32
Q

Anemia associated with increased sensitivity to complement binding

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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33
Q

Clotting factor deficiency most commonly associated with AL amyloidosis

A

Factor X

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34
Q

Developer of the Mini Mental State Exam

A

Folstein

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35
Q

First to describe breath sounds by auscultation

A

Laennec

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36
Q

Translation of belladonna

A

Beautiful lady (accept beautiful woman)

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37
Q

Term used to describe fever disappearing gradually with resolution of disease

A

Lysis

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38
Q

The “jennerian take” refers to this once common vaccination

A

Smallpox

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39
Q

Definitive diagnostic test to evaluate persistent, non-nephrotic proteinuria

A

Kidney biopsy

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40
Q

Antibody associated with Goodpasture syndrome

A

Anti-basement membrane antibody

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41
Q

Most likely diagnosis associated with acute renal injury, anemia and low-anion gap

A

Myeloma kidney (accept multiple myeloma)

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42
Q

Proteus mirabilis infection is associated with this type of crystal

A

Struvite (accept triple phosphate)

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43
Q

Syndrome of hyponatremia and hypovolemia associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Cerebral salt wasting (CSW) syndrome

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44
Q

Diagnosis associated with sentinel loop sign and colon cutoff sign

A

Acute pancreatitis

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45
Q

Best test to confirm current hepatitis C infection

A

HCV RNA level

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46
Q

Nutrition strategy for necrotizing pancreatitis that results in decreased infections

A

Enteral feedings

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47
Q

Biliary complication associated with AIDS

A

Sclerosing cholangiopathy

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48
Q

Cause of fever, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and colitis in transplant recipient

A

CMV infection

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49
Q

Domesticated animal bite associated with greatest risk of rabies in US

A

Cat

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50
Q

Indicated treatment for early localized Lyme disease during pregnancy

A

Amoxicillin

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51
Q

Diagnosis for trismus, unilateral tonsillar swelling, and uvula deviation

A

Peritonsillar abscess

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52
Q

Usual initial drug therapy for cryptogenic organizing pneumonia

A

Corticosteroids (accept prednisone)

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53
Q

Eponym for pulmonary nodules associated with rheumatoid arthritis

A

Caplan syndrome

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54
Q

Name for episodes of muscle extreme weakness in response to emotion

A

Cataplexy

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55
Q

Diagnosis for a subacute illness, eosinophilia and peripheral pulmonary infiltrates

A

Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia (must be “chronic” eosinophilic pneumonia)

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56
Q

Histological changes associated with beryllium exposure

A

Noncaseating granuloma

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57
Q

Device that reduces mortality in patients with cardiomyopathy and low ejection fraction

A

ICD (implantable cardioverter-defibrillator)

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58
Q

Characteristic second heart sound finding associated with atrial septal defect

A

Fixed splitting of S2

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59
Q

Phlebotomy improves heart failure associated with this metabolic disease

A

Hemochromatosis

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60
Q

Substitute for ACE inhibitor to treat heart failure during pregnancy

A

Hydralazine (accept hydralazine and nitrates)

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61
Q

Presumptive diagnosis for acute monoarthritis in a sexually active young adult

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

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62
Q

Eponym applied to a painless nodule in the palmar aponeurosis

A

Dupuytren contracture

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63
Q

Cystic structure on wrist

A

Ganglion

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64
Q

Vasculitis associated with microaneurysms within the renal vasculature

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

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65
Q

Category of scleroderma most commonly associated with anti-Scl-70 antibodies

A

Diffuse cutaneous systemic scleroderma (accept diffuse scleroderma)

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66
Q

Most likely finding on brain imaging that contradicts use of thrombolytic therapy

A

Hemorrhage (accept bleeding, blood)

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67
Q

Syndromic diagnosis for this rash and ipsilateral facial paralysis

A

Ramsay Hunt syndrome (accept herpes zoster oticus)

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68
Q

Dementing syndrome with parkinsonism and hallucinations

A

Dementia with Lewy bodies

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69
Q

Primary brain tumor that disappears following corticosteroid therapy

A

Lymphoma

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70
Q

Syndrome of quadriplegia, paralysis of horizontal eye movements and bulbar muscles

A

Locked in syndrome

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71
Q

Eponym for pupils that fail to react to light but react to accommodation

A

Argyll Robinson pupil

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72
Q

Part of the macula that is the point of visual fixation

A

Fovea

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73
Q

Hallmark sign of early age-related macular degeneration

A

Drusen

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74
Q

Most likely organism causing this conjunctivitis [purulent]

A

N. gonorrhea

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75
Q

Proliferation of opaque fibrovascular conjunctival tissue medial to iris

A

Pterygium

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76
Q

Hematological complication of severe sleep apnea

A

Polycythemia (accept erythrocytosis)

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77
Q

Non-drug treatment to prevent post-phlebitic syndrome

A

Compression stockings

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78
Q

Syndrome of granulomatous vasculitis, asthma, eosinophilia, and fleeting pulmonary infiltrates

A

Churg-Strauss

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79
Q

Name given to pneumothorax associated with menstruation

A

Catamenial pneumothorax

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80
Q

Eponym for acute interstitial pneumonia

A

Hamman-Rich syndrome

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81
Q

Initial symptom of Rockey Mountain Spotted Fever

A

Fever

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82
Q

Measurement criterion for a positive PPD in injection drug users

A

≥ 10 mm

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83
Q

Infection associated with “sulfur granules” in draining sinuses

A

Actinomycosis

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84
Q

Name of this rash caused by Corynebacterium minutissimum

A

Erythrasma

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85
Q

A gram-negative infection in HIV patients that mimics Kaposi sarcoma

A

Bacillary angiomatosis (accept organism, Bartonella)

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86
Q

Most sensitive dipstick screening test for UTI

A

Leukocyte esterase

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87
Q

A potent intrinsic inhibitor of urine stone formation

A

Citrate

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88
Q

Adrenal cause of euvolemic hypoosmolality

A

Addision disease (accept hypocortisolism)

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89
Q

Name of acute kidney injury associated with a colonoscopy bowel preparation

A

Acute phosphate nephropathy

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90
Q

Acronym for syndrome of polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal gammopathy, and skin manifestations

A

POEMS syndrome

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91
Q

Most common cause of superior vena cava syndrome

A

Lung cancer

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92
Q

Cancer syndrome characterized by thousands of colonic polyps

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis

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93
Q

Cancer associated with new onset left sided varicocele and hydrocele

A

Renal cell carcinoma

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94
Q

Second most common cancer associated with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

A

Endometrial (accept uterine)

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95
Q

Medical term for accentuated inspiratory fall in systolic pressure

A

Pulsus paradoxus

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96
Q

Maternal antibodies associated with neonatal congenital heart block

A

anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB (either antibody and either name for antibody)

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97
Q

Most common reperfusion arrhythmia associated with thrombolytic therapy

A

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

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98
Q

Two drugs for “pill-in-the-pocket” treatment of atrial fibrillation

A

Flecainide and propafenone (name both)

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99
Q

Collective name for the malleus, incus, and stapes

A

The ossicles

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100
Q

Best physical examination test to rule out hearing loss

A

Whispered voice test

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101
Q

Tuning fork frequency recommended for Weber test

A

512 Hz

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102
Q

Vascular condition responsible for Lemierre syndrome

A

Internal jugular vein thrombophlebitis (accept jugular vein thrombophlebitis)

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103
Q

Clotting disorder characteristically associated with menorrhagia

A

von Willebrand disease

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104
Q

Mineral supplement that reduces PMS symptoms

A

Calcium

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105
Q

Eponym for an erythematous vulvar plaque that has a cancer association

A

Extramammary Paget disease (accept Paget disease)

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106
Q

Most common symptom of achalasia

A

Dysphagia

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107
Q

Most likely GERD-related esophageal diagnosis

A

Barrett esophagus [google picture]

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108
Q

Liver disease most closely associated with anti-LKM antibody

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

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109
Q

Diagnosis for diastase resistant, PAS-staining foamy macrophages and villous atrophy

A

Whipple disease

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110
Q

Factor that carries factor VIII in the circulation

A

von Willebrand factor

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111
Q

Four vitamin K dependent coagulation factors

A

II, VII, IX, and X (name all)

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112
Q

Intervention that decreases recurrent stroke in sickle cell disease

A

Exchange transfusion

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113
Q

Cause of splenomegaly and hepatomegaly in myelofibrosis (myeloid metaplasia)

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

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114
Q

Prescription that prolongs life in hypoxic COPD

A

Supplemental oxygen

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115
Q

Severe α1-antitrypsin deficiency is a risk factor for this non-malignant liver disease

A

Cirrhosis

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116
Q

Classification of asthma that recurs 2 days/week or nocturnal symptoms twice/month

A

Mild persistent asthma

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117
Q

Stage of sleep during which hypoventilation is most prominent

A

REM (accept rapid eye movement)

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118
Q

Best test to differentiate sleep apnea from obesity hypoventilation syndrome

A

Daytime (awake) ABG (accept PCO2)

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119
Q

MI location most commonly associated with papillary muscle rupture

A

Inferior wall

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120
Q

Mechanism responsible for the pacemaker syndrome

A

Atrioventricular dyssynchrony (accept dyssynchrony)

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121
Q

The most common symptom of scabies

A

Itching

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122
Q

Common drug that exacerbates chronic idiopathic urticaria

A

Aspirin (accept NSAIDs)

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123
Q

Topical drug treatment for superficial basal cell carcinoma

A

Imiquimod or 5-fluorouracil (either acceptable)

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124
Q

Most frequent side-effect of isotretinoin

A

Dry lips and eyes (accept dry skin)

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125
Q

Anatomical location of pancreatic cancer associated with obstructive jaundice

A

Head of pancreas

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126
Q

Second most common cause of cancer death in the U.S.

A

Colorectal cancer

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127
Q

Surgical intervention associated with increased risk of renal cancer

A

Renal transplantation

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128
Q

Stage classification for a patient with small-cell lung cancer involving both lungs

A

Extensive (accept stage IV)

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129
Q

A tripartite benign tumor composed of blood vessel, muscle, and fat elements

A

Angiomyolipoma (accept hamartoma)

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130
Q

Device that prevents 50% of unintentional carbon monoxide poisonings

A

Carbon monoxide detector

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131
Q

Time after acetaminophen overdose when aminotransferase levels become elevated

A

36 hours (accept any answer within 24 to 72 hours range)

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132
Q

Cause of bright red venous blood due to mitochondria poisoning

A

Hydrogen cyanide

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133
Q

Acute metal exposure associated with abdominal colic, headache, and fatigue

A

Lead

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134
Q

Stimulation of this parasympathetic receptor produces salivation, bronchorrhea, and bronchospasm

A

Muscarinic

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135
Q

Syndrome characterized by BMI >35 and PCO2 >45 torr

A

Obesity hypoventilation (Pickwickian)

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136
Q

Look up picture of…

A

Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (accept hilar lymphadenopathy)

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137
Q

Position that relieves platypnea

A

Lying flat

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138
Q

Disease characterized by arthritis, carditis and erythema marginatum

A

Rheumatic fever

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139
Q

Syndrome of purpura, arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, and hepatitis C infection

A

Cryoglobulinemic vasculitis (accept cryoglobulinemia)

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140
Q

Schober test is associated with this condition

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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141
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis complication producing pain in the arms, hyperreflexia, and hypertonia

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation (accept AAS or cervical spine disease)

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142
Q

Next test for high probability subarachnoid hemorrhage but normal CT

A

Lumbar puncture

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143
Q

Cause of painless weakness, muscle atrophy, and upper and lower motor neuron signs

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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144
Q

Syndrome manifested by motor function limited to blinking or moving eyes vertically

A

Locked-in syndrome

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145
Q

Type of weight loss diet that can worsen symptoms of patients treated for Parkinson’s disease

A

High protein

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146
Q

Neurological term that describes inability to correctly draw a clock face

A

Constructional apraxia

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147
Q

Most useful diagnostic test for superior vena cava syndrome

A

Contrast CT

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148
Q

Most common cancer causing palpable gall bladder and jaundice

A

Pancreatic cancer

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149
Q

Predictive score derived by summing the two most prevalent histological grades of prostate adenocarcinoma

A

Gleason score

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150
Q

Complication associated with bisphosphonate infusion

A

Osteonecrosis of jaw

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151
Q

Inherited syndrome of breast cancer, brain tumors, soft tissue sarcomas, and leukemia

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

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152
Q

Look up picture of..

A

Kyphoscoliosis

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153
Q

Name for fever that exacerbates every 48 hours

A

Tertian fever

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154
Q

Condition associated with Austin-Flint murmur

A

Aortic regurgitation

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155
Q

Name of test that measures tear production

A

Schirmer’s test

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156
Q

The most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the U.S.

A

Gallstones

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157
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for Zenker diverticulum

A

Barium swallow

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158
Q

Non-malignant diagnosis associated with dysphagia for solids and liquids and regurgitation

A

Achalasia

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159
Q

Enzyme deficiency in Gilbert syndrome

A

Glucuronosyltransferase

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160
Q

Gene mutation associated with familial adenomatous polyposis

A

APC gene

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161
Q

Look up bone marrow picture of..

A

Aplastic anemia

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162
Q

Look up picture of for thrombocytopenia

A

Platelet clumping (accept pseudothrombocytopenia)

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163
Q

Name the most common anatomical site for occurrence of warfarin skin necrosis

A

Limbs and breasts (accept either answer)

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164
Q

Treatment for ITP that is used only in Rh(+) patients

A

Anti-Rho(D)

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165
Q

A metalloproteinase that cleaves large multimers of von Willebrand factor

A

ADAMTS 13

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166
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for Zenker diverticulum

A

Barium swallow

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167
Q

Non-malignant diagnosis associated with dysphagia for solids and liquids and regurgitation

A

Achalasia

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168
Q

Enzyme deficiency in Gilbert syndrome

A

Glucuronosyltransferase

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169
Q

Gene mutation associated with familial adenomatous polyposis

A

APC gene

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170
Q

Look up bone marrow picture of..

A

Aplastic anemia

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171
Q

Look up picture of for thrombocytopenia

A

Platelet clumping (accept pseudothrombocytopenia)

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172
Q

Name the most common anatomical site for occurrence of warfarin skin necrosis

A

Limbs and breasts (accept either answer)

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173
Q

Treatment for ITP that is used only in Rh(+) patients

A

Anti-Rho(D)

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174
Q

A metalloproteinase that cleaves large multimers of von Willebrand factor

A

ADAMTS 13

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175
Q

Common drug poisoning responsible for aminotransferase levels >5000 U/L

A

Tylenol toxicity

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176
Q

Diagnosis associated with anion gap acidosis, osmolar gap, and urinary calcium oxalate crystals

A

Ethylene glycol poisoning

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177
Q

Gas poisoning associated with flame-shaped retinal hemorrhages

A

Carbon monoxide

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178
Q

Alcohol poisoning associated with increased osmolar gap but a normal anion gap

A

Isopropyl alcohol

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179
Q

Fish responsible for ciguatera fish poisoning

A

Groupers, parrot fish, snappers, mackerel, moray eels, and barracudas (name only 1)

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180
Q

Type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with IgE antibody and allergen

A

Type I hypersensitivity

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181
Q

Diagnosis for fever, adenopathy, and arthralgias following drug exposure

A

Serum sickness

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182
Q

Intravenous epinephrine concentration used for anaphylactic shock

A

1:10,000

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183
Q

Disease associated with Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

Syphilis

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184
Q

Type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with contact dermatitis

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

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185
Q

Mental health disorder associated with increased risk for recurrent hospitalization after MI

A

Depression

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186
Q

Disorder associated with nightmares, flashbacks, or intrusive memories

A

Posttraumatic stress disorder

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187
Q

Common sexual complication associated with SSRI therapy

A

Anorgasmia

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188
Q

Condition characterized by excessive worry on most days for at least 6 months

A

Generalized anxiety disorder (accept anxiety)

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189
Q

Drug used in treatment of alcohol-dependent patients that are still drinking

A

Naltrexone

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190
Q

Clinical features of B12 deficiency can be acutely precipitated by this anesthetic agent

A

Nitrous oxide

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191
Q

Mechanism by which Graves disease causes blindness

A

Compression of optic nerve

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192
Q

Cause of giant papillary conjunctivitis

A

Allergy

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193
Q

Eponym applied to pupil that has an afferent pupillary defect

A

Marcus Gunn pupil

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194
Q

Systemic disease with highest prevalence of anterior uveitis

A

Behçet’s disease

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195
Q

Blocks peripheral metabolism of levodopa

A

Carbidopa

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196
Q

A common antibiotic that increases serum creatinine without altering GFR

A

Trimethoprim (accept Bactrim or Septra or TMP)

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197
Q

Antiemetic that is now used for immunosuppressant properties

A

Thalidomide

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198
Q

Drug is a direct renin inhibitor

A

Aliskiren

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199
Q

Diagnosis for respiratory distress following removal of a central venous catheter

A

Venous air embolism (accept air embolism)

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200
Q

Time after radiation therapy that radiation pneumonitis is most likely to become symptomatic

A

1 to 3 months (any answer within range)

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201
Q

Radiographic hallmark of asbestos exposure

A

Calcified pleural plaques and diaphragmatic plaques (accept either or both answers)

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202
Q

Altitude sickness characterized by mental status changes and ataxia

A

High altitude cerebral edema (accept HACE or cerebral edema)

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203
Q

Cause of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain at beginning of menstruation

A

Catamenial pneumothorax (accept endometriosis or pleural endometriosis)

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204
Q

Recommended vitamin supplementation for any chronic hemolytic anemia

A

Folic acid

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205
Q

Cause of physiological anemia associated with normal pregnancy

A

Increased plasma volume

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206
Q

Red blood cell membrane receptor for human parvovirus 19

A

P antigen receptor

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207
Q

STD characterized by painful, exudative genital ulcer and painful regional lymphadenopathy

A

Chancroid

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208
Q

Cause of all clinical variants of Kaposi sarcoma

A

Human herpesvirus-8 (or Kaposi’s sarcoma herpes virus, or KSHV)

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209
Q

Classical bacterial cause of cellulitis after sea water exposure

A

Vibrio vulnificus

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210
Q

The incubation period for smallpox

A

12 to 17 days (accept any value within range)

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211
Q

Implication of new first degree heart block associated with aortic valve endocarditis

A

Abscess of annular ring

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212
Q

Most likely infectious cause of Bell palsy

A

Herpes simplex

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213
Q

Asymmetric arm swing is an early physical finding of this movement disorder

A

Parkinson’s disease

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214
Q

Initial multiple sclerosis disease pattern for most patients

A

Relapsing-remitting

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215
Q

Cause of loss of feeling of the lateral thigh.

A

Meralgia paresthesia (accept lateral femoral cutaneous nerve syndrome)

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216
Q

Class of drug that worsens aortic regurgitation by prolonging diastole

A

β-blocker

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217
Q

INR target to reduce stroke in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation

A

2-3

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218
Q

Echocardiographic mitral valve finding associated with acute aortic regurgitation

A

Early closure of the mitral valve

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219
Q

Implication of new first degree heart block associated with aortic valve endocarditis

A

Abscess of annular ring

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220
Q

Term for age-related hearing loss

A

Presbycusis

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221
Q

Category of disease causing abnormal Rinne test result

A

Conductive hearing loss

222
Q

Most likely diagnosis associated with whitish, middle ear mass

A

Cholesteatoma

223
Q

Diet for initial treatment for Meniere’s disease

A

Low Salt Diet

224
Q

Syndrome of sore throat, fever, sepsis, and unilateral neck swelling

A

Lemierre syndrome

225
Q

Syndrome of elevated fasting gastrin level and elevated basal acid output

A

Gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome)

226
Q

Collagenous colitis and lymphocytic colitis are subtypes of this colitis

A

Microscopic colitis

227
Q

Eponym for aberrant submucosal vessel causing obscure UGI bleeding

A

Dieulafoy lesion

228
Q

Most likely diagnosis causing generalized pruritus in the setting of inflammatory bowel disease

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

229
Q

Pulmonary syndrome in young women with recurrent pneumothorax and airflow obstruction

A

Pulmonary lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)

230
Q

Parotid gland finding associated with bulimia

A

Parotid enlargement

231
Q

The Finkelstein test is positive in this condition

A

de Quervain’s tenosynovitis

232
Q

Name to describe fever with temperature variation ≥1.4 °C daily

A

Hectic fever (accept spiking fever)

233
Q

Titubation is a sign of disease in this part of the brain

A

Cerebellum (head and/or trunk tremor)

234
Q

Syndrome of abnormal sensations in the legs and restlessness relieved by movement

A

Restless leg syndrome

235
Q

Lymph node finding on chest x-ray suggestive of pulmonary silicosis

A

“Egg shell” calcification

236
Q

Most likely tumor syndrome characterized by wheezing, flushing and diarrhea

A

Carcinoid syndrome

237
Q

Pulmonary syndrome in young women with recurrent pneumothorax and airflow obstruction

A

Pulmonary lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM)

238
Q

Turner’s syndrome karyotype

A

XO

239
Q

Urinary albumin excretion defining microalbuminuria

A

30 to 300 mg (accept ≥ 30 mg)

240
Q

Obesity treatment associated with decreased overall mortality

A

Bariatric surgery

241
Q

Dermal accumulation of this substance accounts for the cutaneous findings of myxedema

A

Mucopolysaccharides

242
Q

Syndrome of hypothalamic hypogonadism and anosmia

A

Kallmann’s syndrome

243
Q

Name of model that predicts risk of breast cancer

A

Gail model

244
Q

Radiograph that helps establish cause of bilateral ankle periarthritis and erythema nodosum

A

Chest x-ray (Lofgren’s syndrome)

245
Q

Eponym for hereditary disorder of renal carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, and neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors

A

von Hippel?Lindau disease

246
Q

Meaning of 2 in CHADS2 mnemonic

A

Stroke or TIA awarded 2 points

247
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for patients with acute monarticular arthritis

A

Arthrocentesis (accept analysis of synovial fluid including synovial fluid leukocyte count, gram stain, culture)

248
Q

Google picture of..

A

Bouchard’s nodes

249
Q

Diagnosis for oligoarthritis of knees, ankles, or wrists associated with new periosteal bone formation

A

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

250
Q

Target level for uric acid in the treatment of tophaceous gout

A

<6 mg/dL

251
Q

Radiograph that helps establish cause of bilateral ankle periarthritis and erythema nodosum

A

Chest x-ray (Lofgren’s syndrome)

252
Q

The most common disorder of erythrocyte metabolism

A

Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

253
Q

Meaning of 2 in CHADS2 mnemonic

A

Stroke or TIA awarded 2 points

254
Q

Location of blood vessels most often involved in Moyamoya disease

A

Cerebrovascular (accept brain, intracranial)

255
Q

Ranolazine produces this ECG change

A

Increases QT interval

256
Q

Most common cause of hospital admission for sickle cell anemia

A

Pain crisis

257
Q

Genetic transmission of von Willebrand’s disease

A

Autosomal dominant disorder

258
Q

Cause of acute renal failure associated with oral sodium phosphate bowel cleansing preparations

A

Acute phosphate nephropathy

259
Q

The most common disorder of erythrocyte metabolism

A

Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

260
Q

Smear with smudge smell.

A

Chronic myeloid leukemia (accept CML)

261
Q

Eponym for a renal-pulmonary vasculitis syndrome and positive anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody

A

Goodpasture syndrome

262
Q

Category of acute kidney injury associated with muddy brown casts

A

ATN (acute tubular necrosis)

263
Q

Syndrome of normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia, urine pH > 5.5 and renal stones

A

Type 1 (distal) renal tubular acidosis (RTA alone not acceptable)

264
Q

Neurological complication of overly rapid correction of serum sodium in severe hyponatremia

A

Pontine and extrapontine myelinolysis (accept either, accept myelinolysis, central pontine myelinolysis or osmotic demyelination)

265
Q

Cause of acute renal failure associated with oral sodium phosphate bowel cleansing preparations

A

Acute phosphate nephropathy

266
Q

First diagnostic test for abnormal uterine bleeding

A

Pregnancy test

267
Q

Name of a low-powered magnification device for detecting invasive cervical cancer

A

Colposcope

268
Q

The most common etiology of hirsutism and oligomenorrhea

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome (accept Stein-Leventhal syndrome)

269
Q

Blood test for women with headache, oligomenorrhea and galactorrhea

A

Prolactin level

270
Q

Diabetic drug that increases ovulation rates in women with polycystic ovary syndrome

A

Metformin

271
Q

A multifocal, angioproliferative tumor presenting as purple cutaneous papules

A

Kaposi sarcoma

272
Q

Criterion for a positive PPD in patients receiving a tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitor

A

≥5 mm

273
Q

CNS disease caused by polyomavirus JC in HIV patients

A

Multifocal leukoencephalopathy

274
Q

Disease associated with this x-ray and infection with Taenia solium [brain cyst]

A

Neurocysticercosis (accept cysticercosis)

275
Q

Syndrome of nasal congestion, sneezing and rhinorrhea triggered by allergen

A

Allergic rhinitis

276
Q

Most common viral infection associated ampicillin-induced maculopapular rash

A

Epstein-Barr (accept infectious mononucleosis)

277
Q

Life-threatening complication associated with IV immunoglobulin in IgA deficiency

A

Anaphylaxis

278
Q

Most common plant cause of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Poison ivy or poison oak (either)

279
Q

Diagnosis for unilateral findings of constricted pupil, facial dryness, and ptosis

A

Horner syndrome

280
Q

Recommended point in time to begin screening for microalbuminuria in type 1 diabetes

A

5 years after diagnosis

281
Q

Thyroid disease associated with anti-thyroid peroxidase antibody

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

282
Q

Syndrome of autoimmune thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes, and Addison disease

A

Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type II (accept autoimmune polyglandular syndrome or Schmidt’s syndrome)

283
Q

Look up x-ray of..

A

Paget disease (accept osteitis deformans)

284
Q

Most likely cause of secondary amenorrhea following uterine curettage

A

Asherman syndrome (accept uterine synechiae)

285
Q

Diagnosis for young, obese woman with headache, papilledema, and normal brain MRI

A

Benign intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri)

286
Q

This finding is associated with von Recklinghausen disease [google image]

A

Neurofibroma

287
Q

Part of the brain affected by the “locked-in syndrome”

A

Base of pons (accept pons)

288
Q

Cause of symptomatic carotid artery stenosis and angiogram showing “string of beads” image

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

289
Q

Classification of asthma that recurs 2 days/week or nocturnal symptoms twice/month

A

Mild persistent asthma

290
Q

Stage of sleep during which hypoventilation is most prominent

A

REM (accept rapid eye movement)

291
Q

Best test to differentiate sleep apnea from obesity hypoventilation syndrome

A

Daytime (awake) ABG (accept PCO2)

292
Q

Vasculitis associated with antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

293
Q

Next test when RPR serologic test is reactive

A

A treponemal-specific test (i.e., FTA-ABS, TP-PA)

294
Q

Extra-pulmonary Pneumocystis infection is mainly associated with this disease

A

AIDS (accept HIV disease)

295
Q

Microbiological stain for tuberculosis

A

Ziehl-Neelsen or Kinyoun (either)

296
Q

Wild animal bite associated with greatest risk of rabies in US

A

Bat

297
Q

Duration of rifampin treatment for latent pulmonary TB

A

4 months

298
Q

Acid-base abnormality associated with renal tubular acidosis

A

Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

299
Q

Besides casts, microscopic urinalysis finding specific for glomerulonephritis

A

Dysmorphic red blood cells

300
Q

Non-drug treatment for acute renal failure due to cryoglobulinemia

A

Plasmapheresis

301
Q

Drug that suppresses hematuria associated with BPH

A

Finasteride

302
Q

Neurological term that describes inability to correctly draw a clock face

A

Constructional apraxia

303
Q

Initial imaging choice to diagnose uterine fibroids

A

Initial imaging choice to diagnose uterine fibroids

304
Q

Best test to confirm premature ovarian failure

A

FSH level (accept FSH and LH)

305
Q

This test and cervical cytology increases the accuracy of cervical cancer screening

A

HPV testing

306
Q

Drug class that increases bladder internal sphincter tone and outflow resistance

A

α-Adrenergic agonists (accept phenylpropanolamine)

307
Q

Drug class effective for hot flashes in estrogen receptor positive breast cancer

A

SSRI

308
Q

Name of inclusion bodies in G6PD def

A

Heinz Body

309
Q

Hematological diagnosis in asymptomatic young man [target cells on smear]

A

Thalassemia trait (accept thalassemia)

310
Q

First vital sign to be routinely recorded in the hospital

A

Temperature

311
Q

Test that used blood pressure cuff to measure capillary fragility

A

Rumpel-Leed test

312
Q

Egophony was originally described sounding like this animal sound

A

Bleating of a goat (accept goat)

313
Q

First physician to describe clubbing of the fingers

A

Hippocrates

314
Q

Diagnosis for otalgia, ear discharge, and pruritus

A

Otitis externa

315
Q

Clinical examination maneuver with best sensitivity and specificity to diagnose otitis media in children

A

Pneumatic otoscopy

316
Q

A mass composed of keratinized epithelial debris located in the middle ear

A

Cholesteatoma

317
Q

Class of drug used to treat Meniere’s disease

A

Diuretics (accept betahistine hydrochloride)

318
Q

Cause of discharging sinus on the point of the chin and toothache

A

Root abscess of lower incisors (accept dental abscess)

319
Q

AST/ALT ratio associated with alcoholic hepatitis

A

> 2.0 (accept 2.0)

320
Q

Antibody associated with primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Antimitochondrial antibody

321
Q

Non-malignant condition associated with dysphagia with cold or carbonated beverages

A

Achalasia (also accept neuromuscular dysfunction)

322
Q

Condition predisposing to sclerosing cholangiopathy caused by cryptosporidium

A

AIDS (accept HIV disease)

323
Q

Most common reason why stools float

A

Fecal gas (not fat)

324
Q

Cardiac diagnosis associated with rib notching on chest x-ray

A

Aortic coarctation

325
Q

Diagnosis for acute chest pain and new diastolic murmur

A

Ascending aortic dissection (accept aortic dissection)

326
Q

Palpation of this neck tumor produces bradycardia

A

Carotid body tumor (accept Glomus Tumor)

327
Q

Diagnosis for regular tachycardia associated with intermittent jugular cannon waves

A

Ventricular tachycardia

328
Q

Google picture of..

A

Bullous pemphigoid

329
Q

Cause of tetany following thyroid surgery

A

Hypocalcemia (accept hypoparathyroidism)

330
Q

Bone mass T score diagnostic of osteoporosis

A

< - 2.5 (accept - 2.5)

331
Q

Physical examination finding most effective in ruling out hyperthyroidism

A

Absence of goiter (- LR = 0.1)

332
Q

Karyotype associated with androgen resistance syndrome

A

XY

333
Q

Diagnosis associated with physical sign called accoucheur’s hand

A

Hypocalcemia (sign is carpal spasm)

334
Q

Diagnosis for hypotension and edema involving skin, oropharynx, genitalia

A

Angioedema

335
Q

Most common gastrointestinal infection associated with IgA deficiency

A

Giardiasis

336
Q

Best initial screening test for recurrent Neisserial infections

A

CH50 (accept total hemolytic complement or terminal complement components)

337
Q

Type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with a positive PPD test

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

338
Q

Endocrine deficiency associated with nasal congestion and rhinitis

A

Thyroid (accept hypothyroidism)

339
Q

Non-drug therapy that decreases risk for ventilator associated pneumonia

A

Elevation of bed to 45 degrees (accept elevation of head of bed)

340
Q

Systemic disease associated with shrinking lung syndrome

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

341
Q

Bouchard’s nodules involved these joints

A

Proximal interphalangeal joints (accept PIP joints)

342
Q

Name of finding in patient with rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheumatoid nodule [google picture]

343
Q

Name for physical finding affecting left 3rd and 4th digits

A

Dactylitis [google picture]

344
Q

Antibody most specific for diffuse systemic sclerosis

A

Anti-Scl-70 antibodies

345
Q

Gastrointestinal symptom that predicts a complicated course in polymyositis

A

Dysphagia

346
Q

Most likely diagnosis in person with normal vision [ red conjunctiva]

A

Conjunctivitis

347
Q

Most likely cause of this opacity [white mass inside eye]

A

Cataract

348
Q

Term for inflammation of the iris and ciliary body

A

Anterior uveitis (accept uveitis)

349
Q

Blinding disease of the elderly associated with a chronic blistering skin disease

A

Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid (accept pemphigoid)

350
Q

Antibiotic class associated with tooth discoloration in young children

A

Tetracycline

351
Q

A topical cream that depletes substance P

A

Capsaicin

352
Q

Most common cause of hyperuricemia in renal transplant patients

A

Cyclosporine therapy

353
Q

Cisplatin causes significant depletion of these two cations

A

Magnesium and calcium

354
Q

Growth factor for T-cells and natural killer cells

A

IL-2 (interleukin-2)

355
Q

Condition defined by daily urinary albumin excretion of 30 to 300 mg

A

Microalbuminuria

356
Q

Non-drug treatment for acute renal failure due to Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

Plasmapheresis

357
Q

Most common cause of urine eosinophilia

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

358
Q

Diagnosis associated with hematuria and nephritic urine sediment within days of URI

A

IgA nephropathy

359
Q

Diastolic pressure threshold to withhold rt-PA for acute stroke

A

> 110 mm Hg (accept 110 mm Hg)

360
Q

Neurological disorder associated with this skin finding [dermatofibroma]

A

Neurofibromas

361
Q

Most common cause of acquired spastic paresis in adults

A

Osteoarthritis of cervical spine (accept osteoarthritis)

362
Q

Most common sign of renal cancer

A

Hematuria

363
Q

Mutations of this gene causes familial adenomatous polyposis

A

APC gene

364
Q

Cancer diagnosis classically associated with pain after drinking alcohol

A

Hodgkin’s disease (accept lymphoma)

365
Q

Malignant cause of black cerebrospinal fluid

A

Malignant melanoma

366
Q

Drug that causes regression of erythroplakia

A

Isotretinoin

367
Q

Best drug for Trichomonas vaginitis during pregnancy

A

Metronidazole

368
Q

Amsel’s criteria are used to diagnose this disorder

A

Bacterial vaginosis

369
Q

Three anatomical areas associated with “Paget’s disease”

A

Breast (accept nipple), vulva, and bone

370
Q

The major high-risk HPV types for cervical cancer

A

16, 18

371
Q

“Gold standard” for diagnosing iron deficiency anemia

A

Bone marrow aspirate for iron

372
Q

Diagnosis that is confirmed by the cellular inclusion [Auer Rod]

A

Acute myeloid leukemia (accept myeloid leukemia, AML)

373
Q

Antibody associated with transfusion-related acute lung injury

A

Granulocyte antibody

374
Q

A platelet lowering drug that is less leukemogenic than hydroxyurea

A

Anagrelide

375
Q

Prolactin inhibitory hormone secreted by the hypothalamus

A

Dopamine

376
Q

Onset of action of lispro/aspart insulins

A

15 minutes (accept any value within range 10-20 minutes)

377
Q

Effect of placenta on circulating thyroxine

A

Increased metabolism

378
Q

Incretin mimetic agent that enhances glucose-dependent insulin secretion

A

Exenatide

379
Q

Ethnic group most commonly affected by thyrotoxic periodic paralysis

A

Asians

380
Q

Type of hearing loss associated with otitis media

A

Conductive

381
Q

Tuning fork test that is most predictive of conductive hearing loss

A

Rinne (+LR = 16.8)

382
Q

Disease treated with otolith repositioning maneuver

A

Benign positional vertigo

383
Q

Anatomical change associated with ozena

A

Nasal mucosal atrophy (accept atrophic rhinitis)

384
Q

Condition associated with endolymphatic hydrops

A

Meniere’s disease

385
Q

Streptococcus organism associated with colon cancer

A

S. bovis

386
Q

Criterion for a positive PPD in patients with HIV

A

5 mm

387
Q

New “gold standard” for gonorrhea performed on vaginal or urine specimens

A

NAAT

388
Q

Total duration of antibiotic treatment for inhalational anthrax

A

60 days

389
Q

Diarrhea associated with curved, gram-negative rods arranged as “seagull wings”

A

Campylobacter jejuni

390
Q

Diagnosis for nasal congestion and rhinorrhea triggered by allergen exposure

A

Allergic rhinitis

391
Q

Most common metal causing a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Nickel

392
Q

Anaphylaxis treatment for patient on beta-blocker not responding to epinephrine

A

Glucagon

393
Q

Drug that reduces mortality by irreversibly inhibiting thromboxane A2

A

Aspirin

394
Q

Most common cause of palpable pulsus bisferiens

A

Aortic regurgitation

395
Q

Diagnosis associated with “water-wheel” sound on cardiac auscultation

A

Air embolism

396
Q

Skin rash associated with Lyme disease

A

Erythema chronicum migrans (accept erythema migrans)

397
Q

Most likely diagnosis for this transient, very itchy skin finding [ image]

A

Annular urticaria (accept urticaria) [google photo]

398
Q

Diagnosis of this allergic skin condition [ image ]

A

Fixed drug eruption [google photo]

399
Q

The three classic percussion sounds

A

Resonance, tympany, dullness (must name all three)

400
Q

Most common cause of unilateral decreased vocal fremitus

A

Pneumothorax, hydrothorax (pleural effusion) (accept either answer)

401
Q

Bilirubin threshold detectable by 70% of physicians on physical examination

A

2.5 - 3 mg (any answer in this range)

402
Q

Medical name for skin tags

A

Acrochordons

403
Q

Cardiac disease associated with systolic pulsation of the uvula (Muller’s sign)

A

Aortic regurgitation

404
Q

A sickle cell complication characterized by fever, chest pain, and pulmonary infiltrates

A

Acute chest syndrome

405
Q

The principal treatment modality for TTP

A

Plasma exchange (accept plasmapheresis)

406
Q

Most common ECG finding associated with amyloidosis

A

Decreased voltage

407
Q

Name for thyrotoxicosis related proptosis, ocular paresis, and optic neuropathy

A

Grave’s ophthalmopathy

408
Q

Diagnosis associated with retinal microaneurysms, dot hemorrhages, and macular edema

A

Diabetic retinopathy (accept diabetes)

409
Q

Name for continuous low-pitched supraclavicular sound which disappears with pressure to the veins above the stethoscope

A

Venous hum

410
Q

Eponym for uveitis, parotid enlargement, and fever seen in sarcoidosis

A

Heerfordt’s syndrome

411
Q

Name for systolic sound heard with stethoscope over the breasts in late pregnancy

A

Mammary souffle

412
Q

Eponym for deforming osteoarthritis of PIP joints

A

Bouchard’s nodules

413
Q

First-line drug class to preserve renal function in scleroderma renal crisis

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

414
Q

Diagnosis for self-limited, symmetric polyarthritis associated with “slapped cheeks” disease

A

Parvovirus (fifth disease)

415
Q

Eponym for nonerosive, deforming arthritis in SLE

A

Jaccoud’s arthritis

416
Q

Type of urinary incontinence associated with coughing

A

Stress incontinence

417
Q

Most likely cause of dysfunctional bleeding associated with irregularly-shaped uterus

A

Uterine fibroids

418
Q

Common benign mass at the vaginal introitus

A

Bartholin’s cyst

419
Q

Chronic, idiopathic vulvar syndrome characterized by burning, stinging, and irritation

A

Vulvodynia

420
Q

Chronic, diffuse vulvar condition characterized by hypopigmentation and thin “parchment paper” skin

A

Lichen sclerosus

421
Q

Most likely etiology of central visual loss of the elderly

A

Age-related macular degeneration (accept macular degeneration)

422
Q

Most common cardiac complication of cataract surgery

A

Bradyarrhythmias and hypotension (either acceptable)

423
Q

Benign deposits of subepithelial tissue confined to the medial or lateral conjunctiva

A

Pinguecula

424
Q

Class of drug that inhibits sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle

A

Loop diuretics

425
Q

An idiosyncratic reaction to antipsychotic medications producing high fever

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

426
Q

Antibiotic that causes “red-man” syndrome

A

Vancomycin

427
Q

Generic term for both nicotinic acid and nicotinamide

A

Niacin

428
Q

Anti-viral drug that also stimulates dopamine release and blocks dopamine reuptake

A

Amantadine

429
Q

Behavioral condition causing acquired shortened height of molars

A

Bruxism (accept teeth grinding)

430
Q

Histological finding associated with erythroplakia

A

Carcinoma in situ

431
Q

Most common cause of episodic tinnitus

A

Age-related hearing loss (accept presbycusis)

432
Q

Eponym for internal jugular vein septic thrombophlebitis following a sore throat

A

Lemierre syndrome

433
Q

Most common presenting sign of ampulla of Vater cancer

A

Jaundice

434
Q

Histological finding associated with Barrett’s esophagus

A

Intestinal metaplasia (accept columnar metaplasia, adenomatous hyperplasia)

435
Q

Color of gallstones associated with hemolysis

A

Black

436
Q

Autoimmune gastrointestinal disease associated with IgA deficiency

A

Celiac sprue

437
Q

Syndrome of recurrent cholangitis and hepatolithiasis in Southeast Asians

A

Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis

438
Q

Disease with chest x-ray described as “lower zone emphysema”

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

439
Q

Disease with chest x-ray described as “photographic negative of pulmonary edema”

A

Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia

440
Q

Syndrome of familial, prion-related progressive insomnia and in death within a year

A

Fatal familial insomnia

441
Q

Treatment to prevent hemochromatosis associated hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Phlebotomy

442
Q

Eponym for gastroesophageal mucosal ring associated with dysphagia

A

Schatzki’s ring

443
Q

Chronic bacterial carrier state associated with gallbladder cancer

A

Salmonella typhi (accept typhoid)

444
Q

Cause of isolated gastric varices following acute pancreatitis

A

Splenic vein thrombosis

445
Q

Eponym for obstruction of the proximal duodenum by a gallstone

A

Bouveret’s syndrome

446
Q

Acid-base abnormality associated with renal tubular acidosis

A

Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis

447
Q

Diagnosis for urine finding under polarized light

A

Fat droplet, lipiduria, or nephrotic syndrome (accept any)

[google photo]

448
Q

Cause of renal insufficiency and sterile pyuria associated with prior antibiotic treatment

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

449
Q

Type of stones treated by alkalinization of the urine

A

Uric acid stones

450
Q

Renal syndrome associated with venous thromboembolism

A

Nephrotic syndrome

451
Q

Hematologic paraneoplastic syndrome associated with renal cancer

A

Polycythemia

452
Q

Most common of all paraneoplastic syndromes

A

Hypercalcemia

453
Q

Diagnosis for perioral pigment spots and polyps of small bowel, colon, and stomach

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

454
Q

The fastest increasing cancer in the U.S.

A

Thyroid cancer

455
Q

Most common syndrome of inherited renal cancer

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease

456
Q

Anticonvulsant drug most commonly associated with gum hypertrophy

A

Phenytoin (accept Dilantin)

457
Q

Syndrome characterized by tinnitus, hearing loss, vertigo, and aural fullness

A

Meniere’s disease

458
Q

Diagnosis for velvety red, premalignant oral lesion

A

Erythroplakia

459
Q

Bacterial syndrome associated with external otitis and facial nerve paralysis

A

Malignant external otitis

460
Q

Name of therapeutic maneuver for benign positional vertigo

A

Epley otolith repositioning maneuver

461
Q

Word describes a yellow discoloration of cerebrospinal fluid

A

Xanthochromia

462
Q

Eponym associated with impaired memory, ophthalmoparesis, and ataxia

A

Wernicke’s disease

463
Q

Dementing disease associated with parkinsonism and hallucinations

A

Dementia with Lewy bodies

464
Q

Eponym for viral syndrome causing unilateral vesicles, facial paralysis, and auditory or vestibular symptoms

A

Ramsay Hunt syndrome (accept herpes zoster oticus)

465
Q

Second most common entrapment neuropathy of the upper extremity

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome

466
Q

Diagnosis for recurring thoughts causing anxiety and repetitive physical behaviors

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

467
Q

Diagnosis for panic attacks resulting from being reminded of trauma

A

Posttraumatic stress disorder

468
Q

Diagnosis for diffuse worries about bad things that could happen

A

Generalized anxiety disorder

469
Q

Anxiety specific to the fear of criticism and being embarrassed

A

Social anxiety disorder (accept social phobia)

470
Q

Anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult

A

Agoraphobia

471
Q

Infection characterized by white plaques on inflamed mucosa that can be removed

A

Candidiasis

472
Q

Name of sign associated with dislodgement of epidermis with lateral pressure

A

Nikolsky’s sign

473
Q

Disease associated with “corkscrew hairs”

A

Scurvy

474
Q

Severe hypomagnesemia inhibits this hormone

A

Parathyroid hormone

475
Q

A device that tests peripheral sensation in diabetes

A

Monofilament (accept tuning fork)

476
Q

Autoimmune hematologic disease associated with type 1 diabetes

A

Pernicious anemia

477
Q

Most sensitive hormonal measure of early pituitary dysfunction

A

Growth hormone

478
Q

Eponym for hyperthyroidism, a multi-nodular goiter, and recent exposure to iodine

A

Jod-Basedow phenomenon

479
Q

Vector for West Nile virus disease

A

Mosquitoes

480
Q

Diagnosis suggested by severe sore throat with dyspnea, drooling, and stridor

A

Epiglottitis

481
Q

Most common cause of liver abscess worldwide

A

Amebic liver abscess

482
Q

Most common location of Mycobacterium marinum granuloma

A

Digit (accept hand)

483
Q

Common diagnosis associated with edematous and pale nasal mucosa

A

Allergic rhinitis

484
Q

First-line topical drug for allergic rhinitis

A

Intranasal corticosteroids

485
Q

Screening test for hereditary angioedema

A

C2 and C4 levels, C1-INH [C1 esterase inhibitor] (any acceptable)

486
Q

Most common disease causing inability to produce antibody to specific antigen

A

Common variable immunodeficiency

487
Q

Acute, non-allergic fever, rash, and hypotension following treatment of primary syphilis

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

488
Q

Hematologic complication associated with glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists

A

Thrombocytopenia (bleeding accepted)

489
Q

Diagnosis for chest pain and ST-segment elevation resolving with vasodilator drugs

A

Selective aldosterone receptor antagonist that limits ventricular remodeling after MI

490
Q

Selective aldosterone receptor antagonist that limits ventricular remodeling after MI

A

Eplerenone

491
Q

The major cause of renal artery stenosis in the Indian subcontinent

A

Takayasu’s arteritis

492
Q

Infectious agent associated with anal cancer

A

Human papillomavirus

493
Q

Traditional culture media for urogenital gonorrhea

A

Thayer-Martin agar

494
Q

Viral DNA found in primary central nervous system lymphoma

A

Epstein-Barr virus

495
Q

Diagnosis suggested by hypotension, fever, rose spots, and bradycardia

A

Typhoid fever

496
Q

Non-blanching finding associated with bleeding

A

Petechiae

497
Q

Most common cause of generalized pruritis in the elderly

A

Xerosis (dry skin acceptable)

498
Q

Diagnosis associated with acute tenosynovitis and this skin finding

A

Disseminated gonorrhea (accept gonorrhea)

499
Q

Underlying vascular cause of chronic skin condition on left leg

A

Venous insufficiency

500
Q

Primary skin disease associated with rhinophyma

A

Rosacea

501
Q

Isolated insulin in a Toronto research laboratory

A

Sir Frederick Banting and Charles Herbert Best (either last name acceptable)

502
Q

Previous name for reactive arthritis

A

Reiter’s syndrome

503
Q

Year in which first cases of Pneumocystis pneumonia reported in homosexual men

A

1981

504
Q

Discovered vitamin B12

A

George Minot, William Murphy, or George Whipple (any last name)

505
Q

First to describe the microscopic appearance of pulmonary capillaries

A

Marcello Malpighi (accept last name)

506
Q

Common poisonous gas that is odorless, colorless, and tasteless

A

Carbon monoxide

507
Q

Common ingested substance that increases the hepatic toxicity of methotrexate

A

Alcohol

508
Q

Initial symptoms of Amanita phalloides poisoning

A

Nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea (accept any)

509
Q

Diagnosis associated with vomiting, diarrhea, and paresthesias within hours of eating fish

A

Ciguatera fish poisoning

510
Q

Drug for nerve gas exposure that reactivates acetylcholinesterase

A

Pralidoxime (2-PAM)

511
Q

Most common non-iatrogenic cause of adrenal insufficiency in the United States

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis (accept Addison’s disease)

512
Q

Oral hypoglycemic agent that should discontinued prior to contrast imaging studies

A

Metformin

513
Q

Diagnosis suggested by high insulin, proinsulin, C-peptide levels and hypoglycemia

A

Insulinoma

514
Q

Long-acting, irreversible nonselective alpha-blocker used for pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

515
Q

Drug stimulates new bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity

A

Teriparatide (accept recombinant human parathyroid hormone)

516
Q

The first sign of bladder cancer

A

Hematuria

517
Q

Condition associated with dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine

A

Glomerulonephritis

518
Q

Nutrient malabsorption causing hyperoxaluria

A

Fat

519
Q

Renal vascular disease associated with angiographic “string of beads” appearance

A

Fibromuscular disease (accept fibromuscular dysplasia)

520
Q

Diagnosis for absence of all cerebral hemispheric and brainstem functions

A

Brain death (accept dead or death)

521
Q

Disease associated with Kayser-Fleischer rings

A

Wilson’s disease (accept hepatolenticular degeneration)

522
Q

Most consistently effective treatment for spasmodic torticollis (cervical dystonia)

A

Botulinum toxin injection

523
Q

Diagnosis associated with acute onset of headache, vomiting, and ataxia

A

Cerebellar infarction or hemorrhage (accept either)

524
Q

Diagnosis for extra-axial, calcified brain mass with overlying skull hyperostosis

A

Meningioma

525
Q

Term describing change in size and shape of the ventricle following an MI

A

Ventricular remodeling (accept remodeling)

526
Q

ECG manifestation of hypocalcemia

A

Prolonged QT interval

527
Q

First-line drug to prevent recurrent pericarditis

A

Colchicine

528
Q

Most common type of paroxysmal reentrant supraventricular tachycardia

A

Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia

529
Q

City associated with Legionnaire’s disease (pneumonia)

A

Philadelphia

530
Q

Invented the electrocardiogram

A

Willem Einthoven (accept last name)

531
Q

Vaccine used for over 200 years

A

Vaccinia virus (accept smallpox vaccine)

532
Q

Discovered tubercle bacillus

A

Robert Koch (accept last name)

533
Q

Eponym for costochondral swelling and pain

A

Tietze’s syndrome

534
Q

Disease associated with lupus pernio

A

Sarcoidosis

535
Q

Country with last case of naturally occurring small pox

A

Somalia

536
Q

Eponym for neck pain with extension of the knee when hip is flexed

A

Kernig sign

537
Q

Diagnosis for midline cystic mass at level of hyoid bone

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

538
Q

Finding described by the medical term lagophthalmos

A

Inability to close eyes completely

539
Q

Life-saving drug for anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

540
Q

Most common cause of food-related anaphylaxis

A

Peanut ingestion (accept nut ingestion)

541
Q

Rhinitis caused by overuse of topical nasal decongestants

A

Rhinitis medicamentosa

542
Q

Gene responsible for hereditary angioedema

A

C1-esterase inhibitor gene

543
Q

Immunoglobulin finding in Job’s syndrome

A

Elevated IgE levels

544
Q

Most common anemia associated with variation in erythrocyte distribution width

A

Iron deficiency

545
Q

Red cell morphology seen on this peripheral blood smear

A

Spherocytes [look up photo]

546
Q

Irradiated blood reduces the risk of this immune condition

A

Graft-versus-host disease

547
Q

The anemia associated with koilonychia

A

Iron deficiency

548
Q

Drug class that inhibits sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule

A

Thiazide Diuretic

549
Q

Hepatic complication of erythromycin estolate

A

Cholestatic hepatitis (accept hepatitis or jaundice)

550
Q

Class of drug associated with Achilles tendon rupture

A

Fluoroquinolone (accept quinolone)

551
Q

Original source of hirudin

A

Leeches

552
Q

Emetic drug approved for treating hypomotility (“off”) episodes in Parkinson’s disease

A

Apomorphine (accept Apokyn)