ADI Question Bank Flashcards

(347 cards)

1
Q

What is the NPR for aircraft departing rwy 23?

A

Climb S/A to 0.6NM then right turn heading 270 degrees, turn O/T on reaching 3.1NM (also applies to CCTs)

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2
Q

What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the NW?

A

For A/C departing tracking 260-360 degrees

Climb S/A to 2DME, then left turn no lower than 1500ft (also applies to LH CCTS)

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3
Q

What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the NE?

A

For A/C departing heading 001-079 degrees

Climb S/A to 1DME then track 075 degrees to 5.6DME before commencing turn

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4
Q

What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the South?

A

For A/C heading between 080-259 degrees

Climb S/A to 1DME then track 075 degrees to 4.1 DME before commencing any turn (also applies to RH CCTS)

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5
Q

What are the NPRs for A/C arriving rwy 26?

A

From the North- establish on final no closer than 3.0DME

From the South- establish on final no closer than 4.1DME

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6
Q

What are the NPRs for A/C arriving rwy 08?

A

Establish on final no closer than 4DME

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7
Q

What is the runway lighting available at EGHH?

A

HI- bi-directional with omni-directional component
HI white edge lighting (CAT I 08 so last 600m is yellow)
HI white centreline lighting, last 300m is red 600m before that alternates red/white
HI green wing bars and threshold lighting
900m HI white flush touchdown zone lighting
LI turning circle lights on both thresholds
LI stopway lighting

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8
Q

What are the approach lights for rwy 26?

A

914m HI white centreline lighting 5 bar crossbars
300m LI red inner supplementary lighting

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9
Q

What are the approach lights for rwy 08?

A

510m HI white centreline 3 crossbars (2 crossbars and Centreline lights are flush fitted into the runway extension)

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10
Q

What are the taxiway lights?

A

HI green centreline lights on A, B, R and T
LI blue edge lights on C, G, N, E, D and M
Green centreline and blue edge reflectors on W and V

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11
Q

What are the holding point lights?

A

LI red flush stop bars at A, B1, B2, R, C, D, G1, G4, N, E, T and M- with exception of B2, C, D and E all of these HPs have green lead on / lead off lights. These illuminate whenever the associated stop-bar is deselected

RGLs at all runway entry points including G3

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12
Q

What holding points have stop bars?

A

A, B1, B2, R, C, D, G1, G4, N, E, T and M

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13
Q

What VRP lies to the NW?

A

Tarrant Rushton TAR

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14
Q

What VRP lies to the NE?

A

Stones Cross

STX

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15
Q

What VRP lies to the SE?

A

Hengistbury Head

HGS

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16
Q

What VRP lies to the SW?

A

Sandbanks

SBX

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17
Q

How many LVP blocks are there and what are they?

A

4

North side
B2 to R
MA to G4
Runway

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18
Q

What vehicles are permitted NSOLO?

A

European (within the are at the top of T between H103 and T, including V)
Fuel
Sierra Mob
Tels
Sparks
Bliss Mobile

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19
Q

Which A/C will require release from Radar?

A

VFR jets
VFR given a level above 2A
All IFR
All SVFR
When Radar have asked for one

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20
Q

What points would require co-ordination with Western Radar?

A

GIBSO
DAWLY
DIKAS
BRIBO
BCN

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21
Q

What is the MAP rwy 26?

A

Continue climb 3A initially on track 251 degrees, on passing 4DME left turn to BIA Hold

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22
Q

What is the MAP rwy 08?

A

Continuous climb 3A, initially heading 080 degrees to 4 DME then right turn to BIA hold

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23
Q

What is the standard airways clearance to the north?

A

SAM-Q41-NORRY

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24
Q

What is the standard airways clearance to the south?

A

THRED

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25
What is the standard airways clearance to the east?
GWC
26
What is the standard airways clearance to the north-west?
SAM-PEPIS-NUBRI
27
What RFFS cat is Bournemouth?
A7 A8 under remission A9 with 24hrs notice
28
What are the taxiway widths?
A-16m B-23m C-16m D-16m E-16m G-16 M-16m N-16m R-23m T-23m V-16m W-16m
29
What type of approaches are available?
NDB ILS (CAT I 08, CAT III 26) RNAV5
30
What is the height of the Bournemouth CTR?
SFC to 2000ft AMSL
31
What is Bournemouth's Transition Alt?
6,000ft
32
What is TWR's Frequency?
125.605MHz DOC 25nm, SFC to 4000ft
33
What is Ground's Frequency?
121.705MHz
34
What is Bournemouth RADAR Frequency?
119.480
35
What is Bournemouth Director Frequency?
118.655
36
What is the ATIS frequency?
133.730
37
What are the CCT heights?
1200ft QNH for A/C MTWA of less than 5700kgs 1500ft QNH for all Turbine A/C and those with a MTWA of greater than 5700kgs 700ft Low level cct to south of runway (max of 2 per sortie or following an instrument approach) Helicopters 700ft
38
What are the VFR criteria for Class D Airspace?
Below 3000ft- Flight vis-5km, 1500m from cloud laterally and 1000ft vertically If less than 140KIAS then Flight Vis- 5km, COCSIS Helicopters if less than 140KIAS then flight vis 1500m, COCSIS If night then 140KIAS exceptions no longer apply
39
Describe Class D airspace
ATC permission required to enter IFR & VFR Permitted IFR separated from IFR IFR and SVFR TX info on VFR VFR TX info on IFR and other VFRs
40
What are the conditions for the refusal of a SVFR clearance for a fixed wing a/c?
Fixed- Ground Vis less than 1,500m and/or C.C. less than 600ft When the reported ground visibility at the aerodrome is less than 1500 m, ATC may issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing the control zone and not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the flight visibility reported by the pilot is not less than 1500 m, or for helicopters, not less than 800 m (GM1 SERA.5010(c)).
41
What are the conditions for the refusal of a SVFR clearance for a helicopter?
Heli- Ground Vis less than 800m and/or C.C. less than 600ft When the reported ground visibility at the aerodrome is less than 1500 m, ATC may issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing the control zone and not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the flight visibility reported by the pilot is not less than 1500 m, or for helicopters, not less than 800 m (GM1 SERA.5010(c)).
42
What is the radio fail procedure for IFR a/c?
3.4.2.4.1 A flight experiencing communications failure in IMC during an approach directed by radar shall: Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C. Continue either visually, or by means of promulgated Initial Approach Procedures and an appropriate approved final approach aid, to land. If this is not practical, carry out the missed approach procedure and continue to a holding facility appropriate to the airfield of intended landing for which an instrument approach is notified and then carry out that procedure. 3.4.2.4.2 Except where communications failure occurs during an approach directed by radar, a flight experiencing communication failure in IMC shall: Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C. Maintain for a period of seven minutes, the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude, if this is higher. The period of seven minutes begins when the transponder is set to 7600 and this should be done as soon as the pilot has detected communications failure. If failure occurs when the aircraft is following a notified departure procedure such as a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) and clearance to climb, or re-routing instructions have not been given, the procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure, has been reached. Then, for that part of the period of seven minutes that may remain, maintain the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher. Following the period of seven minutes, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points. If being radar vectored, or proceeding offset according to RNAV, without a specified limit, continue in accordance with ATC instructions last acknowledged for three minutes only and then proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight planned route. Pilots should ensure that they remain at, or above, the minimum safe altitude. Comply with the loss of communications procedures notified for the destination aerodrome in the AD 2 section of the UK AIP. Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome as closely as possible to the ETA last acknowledged by ATC. If no such ETA has been acknowledged, the pilot should use an ETA derived from the last acknowledged position report and the flight-planned times for the subsequent sections of the flight. Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome at the highest notified Minimum Sector Altitude taking account of en-route terrain clearance requirements. If following a notified Standard Arrival Route (STAR), after the seven minute period detailed in paragraph (b) (i) has been completed, pilots should arrange descent as close as possible to the published descent planning profile. If no descent profile is published, pilots should arrange descent to be at the minimum published level at the appropriate designated Initial Approach fix. On reaching the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome, begin further descent at the last acknowledged EAT. If no EAT has been acknowledged, the descent should be started at the ETA calculated in (e) (i), above, or as close as possible to this time. If necessary, remain within the holding pattern until the minimum holding level, published for the facility, has been reached. The rate of descent in holding patterns should not be less than 500 FT per minute. If ‘Delay not determined’ has been given, do not attempt to land at the destination aerodrome, divert to the alternate destination specified in the current flight plan or another suitable airfield. Carry out the notified instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigational aid and, if possible, land within 30 minutes of the EAT or the calculated ETA. When practical, pilots should take account of visual landing aids and keep watch for instructions that may be issued by visual signals from the ground.
43
What are the R/T failure procedures for fixed wing VFR A/C?
VFR aircraft should select squawk 7600 as soon as R/T failure detected. When outside CAS- the pilot shall route to either the Northern Zone Boundary or Hengistbury Head VRP, dependant on where they had been operating. Once there they may enter the CTR, direct to base leg of the duty runway, not above altitude 2000ft QNH. The pilot should maintain a good lookout for other A/C in the CTR and on the FAT. ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1. Once on base leg pilot is to look out for ALDI lamp signals from the VCR. Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the A/C enters the CTR from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.
44
What are the R/T Failure Procedures for VFR Helis?
Helis should select code 7600 If operating outside CAS the heli should position to either the Northern Zone Boundary of Hengistbury Head VRP and the enter the CTR direct to the Northern/Southern airfield boundary not above alititude 2000ft VFR. Pilots should maintain a good look out for other A/C operating within the CTR . ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1. If the helicopter is inbound from the North, they shall remain North of Runway 08/26 at all times, and land on the grass between Taxiway Tango and Whiskey. If the helicopter is based, they may then reposition to their company, maintaining a good lookout for other aircraft and vehicles moving around the taxiway network. If they are not based, they should wait on the grass until assistance arrives. If the helicopter is inbound from the South, they shall remain South of Runway 08/26 at all times. On passing the airfield boundary, they should position onto the grass, West of Romeo. Based Helicopters should look out for light signals from the VCR for approval to cross Runway 08/26 and land at their company. If the helicopter is not based, they should wait for assistance. It should be noted that helicopters inbound from the North will be given light signals from the VCR but are unlikely to see them. Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the helicopter enters the Control Zone from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.
45
Which lights can be turned off for training?
Any may be individually deselected provided the runway edge lights remain on
46
For which A/C do the noise preferential routes apply?
Any turbine A/C and any with a MTOW of greater than 5700kgs
47
What routings shall A/C with a MTOW of less than 5700kgs take?
Climb S/A to 1DME or 700ft QNH (whichever is first)
48
What are the NPR routings for inbound A/C at night and between which hours does this apply?
2200-0630 local Establish on final no closer than 8 DME and not below 2,500ft
49
Whom do we contact about potential diversion A/C?
The TDOM
50
When can a ready message be sent for an A/C with a CTOT?
From 15 minutes before the EOBT until the CTOT
51
When must a departure message be sent?
When a VFR a/c is departing from Bournemouth to a destination outside of UK Airspace
52
Whom do we inform about known, approved or non-approved flights of hot air balloons?
The forestery commission
53
What are your actions for when a captive balloon breaks free?
1. The type of balloon and whether carrying any person 2. Position of balloon site 3. Direction and speed of drift 4. Last observed height 5. Length of cable attached to the balloon 6. Balloon operators name and tel. No.
54
For a release of small balloons what is the number that would require CAA permission?
When they exceed 2,000 but are less than 10,000 also for the simulatenous release of 1,000 balloons. In these situations you need to ensure that this permission has been granted for approving release
55
56
Whom do we inform of a diversion request?
The Terminal Duty Operations Manager (TDOM). They will inform us where the A/C will be parked after checking it can be accepted. We should also inform the Operations Director regarding any commercial A/C which require to divert in
57
What weather warnings are passed on and to who?
RFFS- All warnings Airport Refuellers- Thunderstorm Snow co-ordinator and head of Ops- Snow and frost warnings
58
Procedure for Dudmoor Farm
Dudmoor Farm is a farm strip located 2.5nm south of the airfield. An Autogyro operates from here and the pilot has agreed to squawk 7377 and has Mode S. If he wishes to depart he must call ATC to bookout and request permission to get airborne, details are passed by the TWR ATSA to RDR ATSA who will then verbally pass any approval granted. The a/c must be airborne within 15 mins. Operations are not permitted when Met Vis is below 1500m and/or the c.c. is below 600ft.
59
How many model flying clubs are there and how do we control them?
3 Matchams and North End House- require to call and request permission before lifting and on cessation. Oldfield- Only need to inform us when they start/finish as theya re outside the FRZ.
60
What are the procedures for helicopters lifting from Bliss Aviation?
Bliss based helicopters will advise the ADC when they have started and request their departure clearance. When the helicopter reports ready for departure, before issuing “Lift at your discretion” the ADC Controller or in co-ordination with GMC will: complete the following: ▪ A broadcast will be made to all vehicles that a helicopter is lifting or alighting from Bliss or any other nearby destination. ▪ Any vehicles on point to point clearances must have reached their destination or cleared the affected area. ▪ Any other aircraft movement will be co-ordinated or asked to give way as appropriate. ▪ The helicopter will be advised that vehicles are on NSOL, when that is the case. ▪ The helicopter will be asked to report landing complete before any other aircraft or point to point vehicles are given clearance through the area. ▪ Despite being ready it can take a few minutes for the helicopter to lift when departing. If the controller feels this time is becoming excessive, r/t confirmation shall be sought from the pilot that the departure is still imminent. ▪ If Rivergate is flooded and vehicle free flow is in progress, this shall be stopped and confirmation received from security to that effect before a helicopter movement is authorised.
61
What are the procedures for helicopters landing at XLR?
Helicopters that need to land at the XLR facility are not allowed to route directly to the XLR apron. Irrespective of the runway in use, they should alight on the runway 26 threshold, and then ground or air-taxi to the parking area at Juliet, via taxiway November. The same procedure should be used in reverse for departing helicopters. This is all due to the proximity of the XLR apron to the 26 glidepath critical area, aircraft at holding point November and the size of the apron.
62
What is the circuit height for Helicopters?
700ft QNH
63
Describe the EGHH FRZ
Standard ATZ and Runway Protection Zones (RPZ- the rectangles extending from the threshold to 5km that are 500m either side of centreline, from sfc to 2000ft AGL)
64
Describe procedures for FA 20 arrivals when VFR
VFR arrivals must conform to the agreed Noise Abatement Procedures and the Controller can safely facilitate their approach within the arrival sequence. At times when this is not possible, the Controller must consider vectoring the aircraft onto the ILS or for visual positioning onto final. Controllers should note, where traffic information is being given, that the visibility from the FA20 cockpit is restricted, especially during the turn. Runway 26 Operations * VFR Join Left-hand Aircraft will approach along the coast (feet wet) at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4.1 DME. This is termed as a “Standard Noise Join”. In the event that the pilot requests, or ATC require the aircraft to make a short approach inside 4.1 DME, they will join directly onto Base or route along the coast, not below 1500ft and turn inbound at HGS. This is termed as a “Standard HGS Join”. The Standard HGS Join should only be used for safety or optimum sequencing purposes. Permitting such an approach might have to be subsequently justified by the Controller. This approach is permitted for singletons and formations, provided it can be applied to all aircraft in the formation. * VFR Join Right-hand Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 3 DME. Runway 08 Operations * VFR Join Right-hand Aircraft will execute standard SBX join, not below 1500ft, descending onto Final no closer than 4 DME. In the event that they approach from the SE and elect to transit the coast, they will follow the “Standard Noise Join” as for Runway 26 - ie at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME. * VFR Join Left-hand Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME.
65
What are the procedures regarding Draken ops when the NPAS heli is active?
Following a hazard analysis by Draken on the risk of FOD ingestion to their FA20s at holding point Mike due to the proximity of the NPAS HLS, the following procedure is to be used: ▪ Runway 26 Operations Following the landing of an FA20 aircraft which is vacating at Mike: If the Police helicopter has just started and has not yet called ready for departure, it is to be asked to hold on the ground and allow the FA20 to continue taxiing back to base. If the helicopter has called ready for immediate departure, the Controller will instruct the FA20 to hold just north of the holding point and wait for the helicopter to depart before continuing to taxi. ▪ Runway 08 Operations FA20 aircraft taxiing for departure will hold short of the NPAS site if the helicopter has started and has called ready for an immediate departure. FA20s will continue to the holding point after the helicopter has lifted and departed. Due to the increased risk of potential FOD ingestion and in order to avoid an additional Runway crossing, FA20s should only be instructed to vacate left at holding point Alpha and taxi south side as a last resort.
66
What are the procedures for Draken Target Tows?
Draken aircraft may return to the airfield towing a target on short haul. The target is of fabric construction and up to 5m long, with little or no towing wire showing. The pilots prefer not to overfly built-up areas on their approach. When requests are made to drop the target, normal circuit procedures will be followed, and no priorities are normally requested. Targets can be dropped accurately into an area 500 m by 100 m and there is minimum disruption to other aircraft. The RFFS/AST shold be advised for the target collection. Targets will normally be dropped on the grass areas to the north side of Runway 26 and east of Taxiway Tango. Controllers must ensure that Holding Point Delta and Taxiway Delta is clear of aircraft and vehicles.
67
For what aircraft do Western Radar provide a service from EGHH?
For a/c on an air test and those inbound/outbound cruising at or requesting above FL100
68
69
State the objectives of and Air Traffic Controller
Objectives of ATS * To prevent collisions between aircraft * To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area * To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic * To provide information and advice useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight * Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as required. Aerodrome Controller To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control in order to achieve and safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of; * Preventing collisions between; Aircraft flying in and in the vicinity of the ATZ Aircraft landing and taking off from the aerodrome Aircraft, vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area * Assisting in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the apron
70
An Aerodrome control unit provides which services?
A basic service An aerodrome control service Alerting service
71
What is Essential Aerodrome Information?
Information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft. It shall be issued to pilots in sufficient time to ensure the safe operation of aircraft. This may include the provision of urgent information to pilots during take-off or landing runs.
72
What would constitute Essential Aerodrome Information?
Construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area Rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not failure of irregular functioning of Aerodrome lighting system. Defects must be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. Pilot is responsible for deciding his course of action. Aircraft Parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines Failure or irregular operation of Approach aids Water, snow, ice or frost on a runway, a taxiway or apron In snow or ice conditions, information concerning Anti-icing, or de-icing liquid chemicals or other containments or sweeping and/or sanding of runways, taxiways and aprons. Information on the location and operational status of any Arrester gear. Bird formations or individual large birds on the manoeuvring area or in the vicinity of the aerodrome and the extent of any bird dispersal action being carried out. When flocks of birds or single large ones are seen, the aerodrome operator or bird control unit must be informed.
73
What are the conditions for a multiple line-up?
1)it is during daylight hours; 2)all aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller; 3)all aircraft are on the same RTF frequency; 4)pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart; 5)the physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway.
74
What are the conditions for a land after?
1) the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected; (2) it is during daylight hours; (3) the preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway; (4) the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway; and (5) the pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft.
75
What are the conditions for land afer the departing?
Subject A/C is not larger than a PA34 and; -Locally based A/C -Not a solo student -The departing A/C must have passed at least 1/3 along the runway at the time the clearance is given, determined by Rwy 26- Abeam Txy D Rwy 08- Abeam the VDF installation
76
What must a flight do if an anti-collision light fails during the day?
Nothing, he may continue provided that the light is repaired at earliest opportunity.
77
When may standard separtation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?
Also in the vicinity of an aerodrome as per ICAO, when: * ADC continuously sees all the aircraft, and can provide adequate separation * Aircraft see each other and agree to maintain separation (– good in circuit at night if IFR.) * Following aircraft sees the one in front and agrees to maintain separation.
78
Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.
Aircraft in emergency Aircraft which have declared a police emergency Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.
79
Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.
Police flights under normal operational priority Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights
80
Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status
Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement
81
Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.
Flights carrying the; 1) Prime Minister 2) Chancellor of the Exchequer 3) Home secretary 4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs Flights carrying visiting Heads of Gov. notified by the CAA
82
Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.
Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks HEMS/SAR flights positioning for the purposes of their duties Other flights authorised by the CAA
83
Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.
Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests
84
What flight category are training and non standard flights?
Class Z
85
What are the different flight categories relevant to police flights?
Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A Cat B- Normal operational priority Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc
86
What is a HEMS flight and what flight category can it operate under?
Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved. They can operate as; Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks Cat E when positioning for its duties Cat Z when training, testing etc.
87
What is the call sign for a Helimed flight?
HLE- "Helimed" Suffixed by A or E when operating under either of these categories of priority. If no suffix than aircraft is performing routine tasks.
88
Describe in detail, low approach restrictions and their uses
* If the runway in use is occupied by aircraft or vehicles, an approaching aircraft that has requested a low approach or a touch and go, may be cleared to carry out a low approach restricted to a height not below 400 feet above the threshold elevation. In such circumstances, the pilot is to be informed of the aircraft or vehicles on the runway. Additionally, the aircraft or vehicle on the runway is to be informed of the aircraft carrying out the low approach. * For aircraft operating on the aerodrome QNH, the low approach altitude restriction is to be based on 400ft plus threshold elevation, rounded up to the nearest 50ft (450ft at Cambridge) * The runway in use shall be kept clear of aircraft and vehicles if an approaching aircraft is likely to descend below 400 feet above the threshold elevation.
89
What is the definition of windshear?
A sustained change in wind velocity along an aircraft’s flight path which occurs significantly faster than an aircraft can accelerate or deccelerate.
90
Give an example of the phraseology that will be used to pass on reports of windshear
“G-CD, at 0745 a departing B757 reported windshear at 800 feet. Airspeed loss 20 knots, strong right drift” When wind shear is forecast or is reported by aircraft, ATC will warn other aircraft until such time as aircraft report the phenomenon no longer exists.
91
What is the definition of a runway incursion?
A runway incursion is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft take-off and landing. The protected area of a surface for aircraft take-off and landing is determined by the existence and location of the runway strip, clear and graded area, obstacle free zone and ILS sensitive areas.
92
What is the definition of a full emergency?
When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.
93
What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident/ Aircraft Accident Imminent?
Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.
94
Who’s responsibility is it to stand-down emergency services during an aircraft accident?
The SAFO who shall advise ATC as soon a possible
95
What is the published RFFS crash category? If you had any doubts, how would you find out?
A7 A8 under remission A9 with 24hrs notice By calling the fire station
96
Why do we have the generators turned on when RVR is <600m
Due to the requirement to have a change over to an alternate power source of less than 1 second, as the generator takes longer to switch on than this then the only viable option is to have the generator as the primary source of power with the mains acting as the alternate
97
What is the phraseology for cancelling the take-off of an aircraft not rolling?
“C/S, hold position, cancel take-off, I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge”
98
What is the phraseology for cancelling the take-off of an aircraft already rolling?
“C/S, stop immediately, I say again, C/S stop immediately acknowledge”
99
Can an aircraft cross a red stop bar? If so how can you achieve this?
Yes, in exceptional circumstances where the inoperable stop-bar cannot be taken out of service and cannot be suppressed. With this phraseology; “G-AC, Stop bar unserviceable, cross red stop bar....(then the rest of your instructions)” in addition- The a/c or vehicle must be visible to the ATCO The R/T Phraseology leaves no doubt in the pilot or drivers mind that they may cross a red stop-bar No conditional clearances allowed.
100
How many hours does an ATCO have to file an MOR?
72 hours
101
What is the difference between a precision and a non-precision approach?
A precision approach includes vertical profile whereas a non-precision does not
102
Can an aircraft depart an aerodrome after the failure of a light required to be displayed by the ANO?
Yes but only during the day, at night it cannot.
103
What should a controller consider if an aircraft in flight has a failure of a light required to be displayed by the ANO?
At night if the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight: (1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority; (2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.
104
What are the objectives of aerodrome control?
To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly and efficient flow of air traffic with the objective of; 1. Preventing collisions between: a) Aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ b) Aircraft taking off or landing c) Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area 2. Assist in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the aprons
105
What are the additional specific responsibilities of aerodrome control?
1. Notifying **E**mergency services as per local instructions 2. Informing Aircraft under its control of any depletion of the aerodrome **E**mergency services 3. Providing an **A**pproach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control 4. Supplying the following **I**nformation to approach control and, according to unit instructions, approach radar control; a) Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR, and VFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft b) Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information 5. Informing aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a **D**eterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible 6. Initiating **O**verdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established. **ODE EAI**
106
What reporting action do you take for various incidents?
107
What reporting action do you take for various incidents?
108
What do you do after you've given the first RVR reading to a pilot on approach the pilot says 'Roger no further RVR reports'?
Continue to transmit RVR readings if there is a significant change in those readings.
109
When do we have to perform runway inspections?
1. At least one a day 2. Before any night flying takes place 3. At cessation of work on the manoeuvring area 4. When a runway not previously in use is brought into use 5. Following an aircraft accident 6. Following an abandoned take-off by a turbine engined aircraft due to engine malfunction, or by an aircraft due to burst tyres 7. During snow and ice conditions as frequently as conditions warrant 8. When considered necessary by ATC 9. The aerodrome operator details in local instructions; -Prior to and following arrival/dep of 4 engined code E A/C -When a period of 30 mins or more has elapsed since the last runway movement
110
What does dry mean in terms of runway contamination?
The runway surface is considered dry if it is free of visible moisture and not contaminated within the area intended to be used
111
What does wet mean in terms of runway contamination?
The runway is covered by an visible dampness or water up to and including 3mm depth witthin the intended area of use.
112
What does slippery wet mean in terms of runway contamination?
A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant portion of the runway have been determined to be degraded
113
What does standing water mean in terms of runway contamination?
water of depth greater than 3mm
114
Define slush
Snow that is so water saturated that water will drain from it when picked up or will splatter if stepped on forcefully
115
What are the basic uses of the ATM?
1. To determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving A/C 2. To assist in the provision of longitudinal Sep 3. To provide tx info to A/C on other A/C in the cct or making an instrument approach 4. To confirm that the intitial outbound track of a departing A/C conforms with the clearance issued
116
What are the advanced uses of the ATM?
Subject to the controller having been trained; 1. Following identification, validate SSR codes of departing A/C and verify Mode C read-outs 2. monitor the progress of overflying A/C identified by APS to ensure that they do not conflict with the tracks of arriving or departing A/C 3. establish separation between departing A/C 4. pass Traffic Info 5. establish separation in the event of a missed approach 6. Assist in taking initial corrective action when the separation between arriving A/C becomes less than the prescribed minima.
117
What runways are available at Bournemouth and what are their dimensions?
Rwy 08/26 2272m x 46m according to the AIP
118
Where is the RVP for external emergency vehicles?
Dont know and can't find it
119
Following an aircraft accident, describe the procedures to be followed for removing a crashed aircraft from a runway
Removal of crashed aircraft is the responsibility of the Aerodrome Operator and the aircraft owner or operator. In the case of a reportable accident the permission of the AAIB is required before removal action can be commenced. **Emergency Removal** If it is apparent that continued obstruction of a runway, or interference with an approach aid, by a crashed aircraft might further endanger life, e.g. other arriving aircraft having insufficient fuel for diversion, the senior controller should ensure that the emergency situation is fully understood by the Aerodrome Operator. Under normal circumstances the AAIB may be contacted at any time without undue delay. Exceptionally, if there are communication difficulties, the Aerodrome Operator may wish to take action in accordance with the Civil Aviation (Investigation of Accidents) Regulations 1996, which provide that an aircraft may be removed or interfered with so far as may be necessary for the purpose of preventing any danger or obstruction to the public or to air navigation.
120
What are the approved intermediate departure points?
M and E
121
What is the minimum horizontal separation to be applied between A/C?
3NM, this must be increased to 5NM if the A/C are not on the same frequency
122
What horizontal separation is to be applied between A/C operating inside CAS and unknown traffic believed to be infringing the CTR?
5NM
123
Describe the deemed separations for EGHH Traffic against EGHI traffic
Traffic holding at the BIA up to FL60 are separated from EGHI arriving and holding traffic SVFR flights within EGHH CTR are separated against SVFR flights within EGHI CTR
124
When do we issue SVFR clearances?
When the Met Visibility is below 5000m and or the C.C is below 1500ft
125
What separation standards apply to SVFR A/C?
The standard one that would exist for IFR A/C. Use of Reduced Sep visually is not permissible as contact between the A/C may be lost before the CTR boundary.
126
Where must SVFR A/C route from/to when leaving/entering the CTR?
The VRPs unless there is no other traffic to affect.
127
What are the weather minima below which you can no longer issue SVFR clearances?
Met vis less than 1,500m and/or C.C less than 600ft for fixed wing A/C Met vis less than 800m and/or C.C less than 600ft for Helicopters
128
What A/C are exempt from SVFR minima?
Police Helimed Rescue Pipeline Powerline Rail track inspections
129
Tail wind for runway is now 10kts, what effect does this have on operations?
Jet A/C and those with a MTOW in excess of 5700kgs can no longer use this runway.
130
How do you change the runway?
You must follow the runway change checklist and log the time of the change on the left hand page of the logbook
131
Can we do opposite direction ILS approaches?
no
132
What are the restrictions for the issuance of conditional clearances?
Conditional clearances shall not be used for movements affecting the active runway except when the aircraft or vehicles concerned can be seen by both controller and pilot or driver. Conditional clearances are to relate to one movement only and, in the case of landing traffic, this must be the first aircraft on approach. Not to be used when inoperable stop bars are being crossed Not to be issued to student pilots or first solo flights
133
What are the conditions for crossing a red stop bar that cannot be surpressed and no other option is available?
Minimum conditions: (1) The affected runway or intermediate holding position and the aircraft are visible to the controller. (2) The phraseology used is to leave the pilot or driver in no doubt that the crossing instruction only applies to the particular inoperable stop bar. (3)Conditional clearances shall not be used under these circumstances.
134
What are the dimensions of the ILS critical areas for Rwy 26?
Loc- 120m wide area symmetrically dispersed about runway centreline and extending from 30m behind the array to the near end of the runway GP- Rectangle extending in width from near edge of the runway to a parallel line 53m beyond the GP aerial and extending a distance of 304m in front of the aerial.
135
What are the dimensions of the ILS critical areas for Rwy 08?
Loc- 120m wide area symmetrically dispersed about runway centreline and extending from 30m behind the array to the near end of the runway GP- Rectangle extending in width from near edge of the runway to a parallel line 53.34m beyond the GP aerial and extending a distance of 326.7m in front of the aerial.
136
What are the restrictions for crossing A/C vehicles through the ILS critical areas?
Rwy 26- No A/C or vehicle (regardless of size) to cross the area once APS have passed the established check or the A/C is observed to have establised on a 10NM final This means no crossing from N to G, G to N, E to G, G to E, No exit or entry from J, no A/C to enter/vacate from N, J or E Rwy 08- No A/C or vehicle (regardless of size) to cross the area once APS have passed the established check or the A/C is observed to have establised on a 10NM final. So no entering/vacating or crossing to or from HP A
137
What conditions apply to use of runways by Code E A/C?
Whenever a 4 engined Code E aircraft is to use the runway a comprehensive runway inspection must be carried out prior to and after their arrival/departure with emphasis on the edges. The post flight inspection must be completed before any further A/C movements are permitted on the runway.
138
What code is a A320?
C
139
What code is a B738?
C
140
What code is a 747?
E
141
What code is a 777?
E
142
What code is a 787?
E
143
What code is a C-130?
C
144
What must ADI co-ordinate with APS?
Mats 1 -Departing IFR A/C -Inbound A/C which make their first call on tower frequency Mats 2 * The Visual Circuit is active. * Any unplanned go-around from an instrument approach requiring further Radar assistance * IFR departure Release. * The circuit area is congested and arriving VFR aircraft are required to hold at, or outside the Zone boundary. * Greater landing intervals are required between arriving aircraft to allow higher category aircraft to depart. * There is essential airfield information that may affect the flow of traffic, e.g. Lighting unserviceabilities, blocked taxiways, etc. * A departure aircraft requests the out of duty runway. * Full runway change in the event an instrument arrival is to be accommodated on the out of duty runway. * Aircraft taxiing who require a Special VFR clearance. * Imminent VFR jet departures, including their required direction. * Aircraft in the visual circuit wish to climb above circuit height. * Acknowledgement of any inbound aircraft via a VRP/CTR boundary which is not painting on radar and any co-ordination effected.
145
When can you not extend a CCT A/C downwind to position behind other traffic on final approach?
When the pilot is a solo student
146
What would you expect an A/C to do in the event of a MAP due windshear?
Expect them to fly the MAP however there is a greater chance of them exceeding the maximum altitude of the procedure.
147
When must the Parley Road traffic lights be used?
When Runway 26X is in use When a jet aircraft larger than a B767/A330 is departing rwy 08 Formation landings of red arrows on rwy 08
148
How many times in a day can the Parley Road Traffic Lights be used?
As often as required except for; 3 times only between the hours of 0730-0900(L) and 1600-1800(L)
149
What are the positions where a B747 will have achieved 80kts on take off and can no longer abort?
26- Half way between E and D 08- 08 Threshold ie end of concrete section
150
What are the positions where a B738 will have achieved 80kts on take off and can no longer abort?
26- Touchdown markings west of E 08- Before end of concrete section (no obvious marking)
151
What are the positions where a FA20 will have achieved 80kts on take off and can no longer abort?
26- Touchdown markings west of E 08- End of concrete section
152
What happens if a 787-900 series is parked on stand 1R?
Barriers will be positioned south of Apron Crossing Point 1 to block off the taxi-lane and there will be no access to Apron from the northside
153
When must the Apron Crossing Traffic Lights be selected?
Whenever an A/C is being towed, pushed back, or taxiing on any part of the apron When an emergency is in progress to give emergency vehicles an unhindered route
154
When must the Draken crossing Lights on N be activated?
During night ops and LVPs whenever an A/C requires to use that portion of the taxiway.
155
When may ground engine runs take place?
0800-2030(L) M-F 0900-1700(L) Saturdays and public holidays Not between 1055 and 1105 (L) on Armistice Day
156
When must the DME be switched off?
Whenever an A/C of B737 size or greater is positioned in the vicinity of Txy T for a significant period of time (eg compass swings, engine runs, or parking)
157
How do we switch off the DME?
Call Tels and request them to do it
158
When are Own Lookout Procedures no longer permitted?
When vis is equal to or less than 3000m and/or the C.C equal to or less than 300ft or during night time
159
Which vehicles may use the roadway between the RFFS building and the tower?
All AFS/Safety vehicles ATE/ Sparks vehicles Works/Utilities Security vehicles Fuel vehicles ATC mobile Sweeper/Habitat/Chef/XLR Callsigns
160
What are the dimensions of the runway strip at EGHH?
150m either side of the runway centreline
161
What are the dimensions of the clear and graded area?
105m either side of the runway centreline
162
Which aircraft must use the turning circles to backtrack on the runway?
any with a MTOW in excess of 5700kgs
163
When must bird control runs be conducted?
Before flying commences Prior to commencent of night flying Prior to each movement if 30 mins or more has elapsed since last movement In periods of poor vis at frequent intervals during flying Whenever considered necessary by ATC
164
What is the radius of action of the RFFS?
Within the airfield boundary, however may respond within 8km of aerodrome at the discretion of the SAFO
165
What is the difference between a stage 1 and stage 2 Full Emergency?
Stage 1 - an A/C with a capacity of 20 or less pax Stage 2- An A/C capable of carrying 21 pax or more
166
What emergency condition do we call for a Hi-Jack?
Full Emergency
167
What emergency condition do we call for a bomb threat?
Local Standby
168
What is the definition of a weather standby?
When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe
169
Where does hang gliding and para gliding take place?
Barton and Southbourne not above 1000ft AMSL
170
What is the route for a standard North and what level does it need to be to be standard?
SAM Q41 NORRY FL100
171
What is the route for a standard North-west and what level does it need to be to be standard?
SAM PEPIS NUBRI FL100
172
What is the route for a standard East and what level does it need to be to be standard?
GWC FL100
173
What is the route for a standard South and what level does it need to be to be standard?
THRED FL060
174
What is the level for Western Radar working our A/C? What reporting points will go to W-Rad?
FL100 GIBSO DAWLY DIKAS BCN BRIBO
175
What vehicles can be given own lookout?
Fuel Bliss European S mob S support
176
A Captive balloon has broken free from Castlepoint and is observed from the tower, what are your actions?
Take the following details; Type of Ballon Position Speed of drift or direction Last observed height Length of cable Balloon operators name and number
177
What are the met criteria for turning on the lights during the day?
Vis <5000m and/or C.B <700ft
178
Cat III conditions all runway lights are on. Met cis is 100m IRVR 200m when the runway centreline lights fail. You have a B737 on a 7 mile final, what do you do?
At least 95% of the centreline lights are required for a CAT III app. CAP 168
179
RT Fails, what do you do?
Check the PTT Check your headset Check the headset socket Switch to 125.605 standby Use emergency radio if required Can use hand held radio Switch positions if required
180
Describe the airspace around us, class, dimensions and height
Class D CTR sfc- 2000ft CTA 2000ft to 5000ft Gap then to airway at FL95 Roughly 4 miles south, 5 miles north and 10 miles west and east
181
R44 helicopter not locally based taxos slowly to holding point T. PA28 from Fly With Me told to follow helicopter, what is the minimum area to avoid downwash from the helicopter?
3 times the rotor diameter
182
What wake turbulence would be applied for a PA28 following a B737?
5NM
183
What is the wake turbulence separation criteria between an arriving S and L? LM and L? H and L?
S and L= 4NM LM and L= 5NM H and L= 7NM
184
What are the wake turbulence separations for a/c landing/departing in the opposite direction to a heavier aircraft on a low approach?
L/M following H= 3 mins L following M= 3 mins L/M following J= 4 mins - Departing on the opposite runway heading. - Is landing in the opposite direction on the same runway. or; - Is landing in the opposite direction on a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
185
What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when intermediate?
H behind J= 3 mins L/M behind H= 3 mins L behind S/M= 3 mins L, S & M behind J= 4 mins H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent *Just add 1 min to the normal separations*
186
What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate?
H behind J= 2 mins L/M behind H= 2 mins L behind S/M= 2mins L, S & M behind J= 3 mins H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent
187
What wake turbulence separations do we apply for an a/c on a touch and go behind a departing a/c?
The same as an intermediate departure ## Footnote H behind J= 3 mins L/M behind H= 3 mins L behind S/M= 3 mins L, S & M behind J= 4 mins H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent Just add 1 min to the normal separations
188
What wake turbulence is applied for aircraft departing or arriving behind another on a low approach and go-around?
For wake turbulence separation purposes, aircraft carrying out a touch-and-go or a low approach shall be considered as making a departure from an intermediate point on the runway
189
What are the wake turbulence separations for arriving aircraft when using a displaced threshold?
Arr L/S/M behind a H dep= 2mins Arr L behind M/S dep= 2mins Arr H behind J dep= 2mins Arr L/S/M behind J dep= 3 mins **or** Dep L/S/M behind a H arr= 2mins Dep L behind a S/M arr= 2mins Dep H behind a J arr= 2mins Dep L/S/M behind J arr= 3mins ***If projected flight paths are expected to cross.***
190
What wake turbulence would be applied for a DA40 following a AH64?
4 NM AH64 is a S
191
What wake turbulence would be applied for a HR20 following a CH47?
5NM (CH47 is a S)
192
What A/C type is a H64?
Apache
193
What A/C type is a PA23?
Apache a/c
194
What A/C type is a V22?
Osprey
195
What A/C type is a AS65?
Dauphin
196
What A/C type is a D328?
Dornier 328
197
What A/C type is a PC24?
Pilatus PC24 Jet
198
A B737 running engines at T, with the engines at Idle how far does the jet blast extend?
up to 600m
199
UKP01 on frequency near Matchams what is it's normal operating priority?
B
200
What do you do with traffic on the approach with a CAT A?
Break them off or send around
201
RYR B738 goes around due windshear, what would you expect them to do?
Follow the Standard MAP, however be prepared for them to bust the altitude
202
RYR calls TCAS RA what would you say?
Roger
203
What is the FAT for rwy 26 NDB?
252 degrees
204
RYR on final approach reports a laser shone on the A/C what would you do?
Note position Warn other pilots Anticipate need to adopt manoeuvres to minimise impact to A/C Call police Log all details File an MOR
205
Radar give you a route direct to RUDMO, where is RUDMO?
West of Portsmouth
206
What are your actions in the event of being attacked with a laser?
(1) Look away from the laser beam if possible. Do not attempt to find the light source by staring at the laser; (2) Shield eyes and consider the feasibility of lowering/raising ‘sun blinds’ to reduce the effects of the laser; (3) Advise aircraft under your control that a laser is illuminating you; (4) Avoid rubbing the eyes to reduce the potential for corneal abrasion; (5) Consider the feasibility of increasing ambient light levels to minimise any further illumination effects; (6) Consider handing over the control position to a colleague in a position not exposed to the laser; (7) Where local arrangements have not been established, inform a Supervisor who in turn can: decide on restricting traffic in/out of the aerodrome; inform the aerodrome operator; dial 999 and pass all relevant information to the local police; (8) Ensure the event is recorded in the ATC watch log and reported for further investigation in accordance with Section 6.
207
MOVIE on a two mile final calls Windshear go-around, talk me through your actions and what you would expect the a/c to do?
Call RADAR and advise go around and reason Expect the aircraft to fly the MAP but not level off at 3000ft When situation is resolved get windshear details from the pilot and continue reporting until no further reports are given. A log of the windshear report must be made in the relevant folder and the log book, file an AIRREP too.
208
You are plugged in to tower and approaching two hours on consol when you are advised that the ATCO taking over from you is sick and unable to plug in what would you do?
2 hours is the limit. Due to unforseen circumstances this can be extended provided it is for the minimum time required and a SRATCOH bust form is completed. Limit the traffic and if possible combine TWR/APP
209
Somebody calls the ATSA and advises that there is a suspicious package at the bottom of the main staircase, what actions would you take?
Controllers are to inform aircraft under their control of the emergency evacuation and transfer them to 125.605 MHz, or an appropriate ATC frequency having resolved any immediate conflictions * Landing aircraft are to be instructed to continue at their discretion * Taxiing aircraft are to be held on the ground * LATCC, Southampton and Plymouth Mil are to be informed * Once all action (Paras 2 and 3 above) is complete, ATC staff will leave the Control Tower and assemble at the RFFS, taking current Flight Progress Strips with them
210
What are your actions in the event of a tower evacuation?
Controllers are to inform aircraft under their control of the emergency evacuation and transfer them to 125.605 MHz, or an appropriate ATC frequency having resolved any immediate conflictions * Landing aircraft are to be instructed to continue at their discretion * Taxiing aircraft are to be held on the ground * LATCC, Southampton and Plymouth Mil are to be informed * Once all action (Paras 2 and 3 above) is complete, ATC staff will leave the Control Tower and assemble at the RFFS, taking current Flight Progress Strips with them as well as the standby radio and emergency phone. Also the evacuation folder down by the stairs to the fire exit must also be grabbed.
211
What are the conditions required for North Side own lookout of vehicles?
During daytime only Met vis must be >3000m and C.C >300ft
212
You have cleared FRA 81 for an immediate departure, what would you expect them to do?
From the HP taxi immediately onto the runway and commence take-off without stopping If lined-up take off without delay
213
What flight priority categories are relevant to Search and Rescue Flights?
Cat A when safety of life is involved Cat B when priority is required Cat E when repositioning following a SAR shout Normal, when flight priority is not required Cat Z when training
214
What is the trigraph for British Rescue?
SRG
215
What is the trigraph for Coastguard?
SRD
216
The airfield manager calls and advises that N121JN at Jets is subject to a Mareva injunction, what is your understanding of this?
Aircraft is under a freezing order, specific RT to be used as reference in Mats Pt 1 Cha 4. “You are subject to a Court Order prohibiting your aircraft from leaving the United Kingdom, what are your intentions?”.
217
RADAR release a SVFR A/C to the north and then before the A/C gets airborne give you an 8 mile call on an inbound ILS. What actions do you take?
Query the release on the SVFR as no separation is being provided (? dont get this answer, MATS 2 says RADAR sep is permitted and that is 3NM, there is more than 3NM in this scenario so why isnt it separated?)
218
What is the aerodrome elevation?
38ft
219
What is the threshold elevation for Rwy 08?
38ft
220
What is the threshold elevation for rwy 26?
31ft
221
EGHI?
Southampton
222
EGHP?
Popham
223
EGDM?
Boscombe Down
224
EGVP?
Middle Wallop
225
EGLS?
Old Sarum
226
EGHO?
Thruxton
227
EGHA
Compton Abbas
228
EGHS
Henstridge
229
EGDY
Yeovilton
230
EGHN
Sandown
231
EGHJ
Bembridge
232
EGHF
Fairoaks
233
In the event of an incident in the Moors Valley Flood Plain what additional actions are required?
ATC to switch off 26 approach lights.
234
When given to an aircraft in flight what does a white flashing light mean?
Land at the aerodrome and proceed to apron
235
When given to an aircraft in flight what does a red flashing light mean?
Aerodrome unsafe do not land
236
When given to an aircraft in flight what does a green flashing light mean?
Return for landing
237
When given to an aircraft in flight what does a steady red light mean?
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
238
When given to an aircraft in flight what does a steady green light mean?
Clear to land
239
When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a red flashing light mean?
vacate the landing area in use
240
When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a steady red light mean?
stop
241
When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a green flashing light mean?
clear to taxi
242
When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a white flashing light mean?
return to starting point on the aerodrome
243
When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a steady green light mean?
cleared for take-off
244
Action to be taken when notified of a reduction in fire cover
-RFFS will inform the Aerodrome Authority -Aerodrome Authority responsible for ensuring arrangement are made to warn pilots and a/c ops -NOTAM and on ATIS, place on left side of log -A/C witha RFFS cat of 2 or more above the reduced level are not permitted -CCT and taxiing a/c are informed by R/T -If RFFS are attending an incident A/C ops are to be suspended until the RFFS cover is confirmed by fire command -ATC actions on red pullout boards -Detailed instructions are in red folder "emergency orders".
245
What are the MATS 2 responsibilities for an ADC ATCO?
-Control of a/c in the vicinity of the ATZ -Control of a/c transferred from approach at the CTR boundary, or when the a/c has the field in sight, whichever is the later -Control of instrument traffic when transferred from approach, either when established on Final or Base tuen complete -A/C taking off and landing and for completion of the relevant FIDS entry when required -Liaising with GMC for A/C, vehicles or personnel who wish to enter or cross the active ruwnay -Control of vehciles operating on the ruway, using VHF frequency -Obtaining a release from APP/APS for all IFR and SVFR departures -Obtaining Airways/Zone or other clearances, when a.c have been transferred from GMC without a clearance. When it is necessary for an a/c to enter the active runway, before a clearance has been received. -eg to meet and ADT or a/c requires to backtrack the runway, transfer of control to the AIR ATCO is to be effect at, or before the appropriate holding point, and the clearance obtained by the Air ATCO -Transferring a/c, after landing to the GMC ATCO for taxiing instructions. Control is not to be transffered until the a/c is seen to be, or has reported clear of the active runway
246
Where is Holmsley South?
5NM east of the aerodrome?
247
Where is Beaulieu?
13nm East of the Aerodrome
248
Procedures for engine runs
High power engine running is only permitted; 0800-2030(L) M-F 0900-1700(L) Saturdays and public holidays Not between 1055 and 1105 (L) on Armistice Day Outside of these hours will only be approved in an emergency Only permitted on T All engine runs are to be logged on the sheet provided and each request issued with a code authorising the run. Additionally, engine runs using either the runway, Taxiway Tango, or any other chargeable parking area (1) must be logged on the Chroma system. When facing South Nose must be next to HP T, if north then nose must be next to concrete edge of T just short of taxiway M not permitted during LVPs IDLE RUNS; On apron-not allowed if pax embarking/disembarking Light a/c are permitted to do idle runs on their aprons for no longer than 5 minutes A340 idle runs may be done in situ on the northern end of txy T and subject to following conditions; -Idle power only -A/c is pulled forward so the engines are not handing over the grasss and EAF ensure the engines do not affect the Gama apron -No non EAF vehicles are permitted to use the lane in front of the parked A340's to proceed up or down T whilst a run is in progress -Any vehicle on NSOLO is warned of the run taking place and told not to use the lane in front of the A340's- an acknowledgement must be obtained from each vehicles before the run commences -Any helicopters operating NSOLO or into/out of bliss must be told -Any A340 situated anywhere els that requires an idle run must be towed to T unless there is specific permission from the aerodrome authority for the run to take place elsewhere -No WIP will be permitted in the grass area immediately east of T and north of the Gamma Apron whilst idling is in progress.
249
Procedures for aircraft parking and handling
Apron- for all pax carrying a/c. Light A/C not generally permitted to park here XLR Bliss- light G/A up to citation size T and R may be used for remote parking
250
Describe the airspace around us, class, dimensions and height
Class D CTR sfc- 2000ft CTA 2000ft to 5500ft Gap then to airway at FL95 Roughly 4 miles south, 5 miles north and 10 miles west and east
251
Describe the operations of GMC
10:00-18:00 (L) 121.705 Duties and responsibilites; -A/C moving and parking on the apron -A/C vehicles and personnel on the Manoeuvring area, except for the active runway -Co-ordinating with the Air ATCO for a/c, vehicles and personnel who wish to enter or cross the active runway -Informing EGHI ATSA when IFR/ Airways traffic is starting or taxiing and placing the clearance on request as appropriate -Informing APC when IFR/Airways/SVFR traffic is starting or taxiing as required -Informing APC when A/C are ready for an IFR or airways clearance -Obtaining the appropriate clearances from APC and passing them to A/C -When a flight is subject to an ATFM departure slot, this must be included in the clearance passed to the a/c -If it is apparent that an a/c has missed the required off blocks time, to meet the limits of a Dep slot, it should not be permitted to taxy until a slot reivision is confirmed -Transferring control of a/c to Air with a clearance ticked if passed -Passing VFR clearances to a/c as appropriate and liaising with APC on those requiring release -Arranging taxiing a/c to arrive at the relevant HP in the correct order, or in a manner where AIR can change the order. All clearances received and read back, strips annotated accordingly and control transferred to Air -Assisting the Air in the event of an emergency, taking or retaining control of A/c where required or requested and assisting the ATSA to inform those listed in the emergency callout procedures
252
What are the ATCOs actions on receipt of a windshear, icing or severe turbulence report?
ATCOs should be aware of the possibility of the a/c passing the MAP altitude. ATCOs should provide enhanced tx info as necessary and provide advice as deemed appropriate to ensure safety. Pilot should advise if a go around is due to windshear but may not Medium-strong south westerlies are likely to cause windshear when rwy 26 is in use All reports info windshear or turbulence on approach must be reported to subsequent landing a/c. The information should also be included in ATIS broadcasts until further reports indicate that there is no recurrence of such conditions. A note of the windshear report must be entered in the file retained at the ADC position.
253
What conditions would necessitate an AIREP from a pilot?
Moderate or severe icing Moderate or severe turbulence Severe mountain waves Thunderstorms with or without hail Volcanic Ash Cloud Pre eruption activity or volcanic activity
254
What are the ATCOs actions on receipt of a special Air Report?
Reference the AIREP folder in the VCR 1. Note the following details and disseminate via the forms contained in the AIRREP folder; -Pos or lat/long of the a/c -Time -Flight level or altitude -The met info/conditions 2. Inform other a/c concerned 3. Inform met office on phone no or via emailing the form to them 4. Inform other ATS units concerned 5. Transmissions to a/c shall continue until it is reported by an aircraft that the condition no longer exists 6. Retain forms for future reference in AIRREP folder
255
What is the maximum duty period at EGHH?
10 Hours
256
What is the maximum amount of hours you can work in 30 days?
300 provided that periods of duty do not exceed 200 hours
257
What is defined as a early start duty period and how many hours can you work?
Any duty starting between 0530 and 0629. Max 8 hours
258
What is defined as a morning duty period and what are the maximum hours?
Starting between 0630 and 0759 Max 8.5 hours
259
What is defined as a night duty and what are the maximum hours?
A period wholly or partly within the period 0140-0529. Must conclude by 0730 Max 9.5 hours No more than 2 night duty periods should be worked in immediate succession
260
What is the minimum rest period following night duties?
54 hours following a single or dual night duty shifts. This may be reduced to 48 hours for a single night duty leading into a day duty to cover short notice staffing difficulties.
261
What is the maximum amount of consecutive days you can work?
Cannot work more than 6 consecutive days or a period of duty totalling 50 hours within 6 days, whichever is achieved earlier
262
What is the minimum interval between shifts?
12 hours, this may be reduced to 11 hours with the approval of the ATCO concerned and no more than once in a period of 720 consecutive hours (30 days)
263
What is the minimum interval between cycles?
60 hours
264
What is the ratio of operational duty to breaks?
15 mins for every hour
265
What is the maximum operational duty time?
2 hours During low traffic periods it can be 4 hours Early start duty periods this cannot exceed 1.5 houra
266
What emergency cat do we call for a hijack?
Full Emergency
267
What flight priority cat do we treat hijacks?
A
268
What are our actions in the event of a hijack?
emergency services will follow the aircraft on landing and it is to be directed to the north end of Taxiway Tango, short of the intersection with Taxiway Whiskey. Controllers must also be alert to the prospect that, in certain situations, the aircraft captain might dictate that the aircraft taxies to a different location. The call-out procedure for a Full Emergency is to be implemented. In the event of a Hijack aircraft landing at Bournemouth, the ATM has two hand-sets in the Tels equipment room for use by Security Services or Police in attendance, on frequency 134.975 MHz.
269
What is an air incident and what are our responses to it?
An Air Incident covers any situation on board an aircraft, other than a Hijack situation, involving violence, terrorism or any act of aggression. Such situations cover a variety of circumstances and so are not specifically detailed within the Emergency Orders but could require Police or an armed response on the ground and/or special handling. In the event that such a situation is made known to ATC, the Airport Authority (1) is to be contacted for a decision on where to park the aircraft and for guidance on the level of response required from the security forces.
270
What are your actions on receipt of a bomb threat?
Any call alleging a bomb threat should be treated as genuine until properly assessed as not. The following actions to be completed; .The person receiving the call should attempt to keep the caller on the line, record the call and try to learn the following information: When is the bomb set to explode? Where is it? What kind is it? What does it look like? Who placed the bomb and why? What type of explosive is it? The time and duration of the call and the exact words of the person making the call should be noted. Customer Service Manager (Ext. 182) or his nominated deputy and the TDOM (Ext. 170) must be informed immediately. All particulars obtained during the conversation are to be passed to the Dorset Police immediately on the direct line (ask for Control Room). In the event of no contact on this number call the Police on 999. If a written warning is received, the person receiving the message should immediately inform the Customer Service Manager or his nominated deputy of the content, the TDOM and Dorset Police as previous and arrange to hand the message to the Police as soon as possible. Do not delay contacting the Police if the Airport Management cannot be contacted immediately. If the aircraft is in flight the senior controller shall, in addition, ensure that the Watch Supervisor at Swanwick ACC is informed. ATC will not advise aircraft in flight of bomb warnings unless requested to do so by the airline or operator. However, if the operator or representative is not known, or cannot be contacted, or if the airline has no representative, pass a message to the pilot by the quickest means available stating that neither operator nor representative has been advised. In such circumstances care must be taken to give an accurate statement of the words used in the threat so that the Captain’s assessment of the risk can, as far as possible, be based on fact. Until the arrival of the Police, a senior member of BOH staff qualified in Bomb Warning Assessment will act as Incident Officer. The Incident Officer is responsible for the assessment of the level of risk of the Bomb Warning and for the co-ordination of the Emergency Services at the Remote Search Area. He will liaise with the aircraft Captain, senior representative of the Airline/Handling Agent and the Aerodrome Fire Service present and agree a course of action to be taken. For the purposes of the paragraphs above, the Airport Bomb Warning Assessors are: Customer Services Manager ext 182 (mob 07768 620 445), Security Compliance Manager ext 180 (mob 07950 866530)Security Supervisors Ext. 183 When the warning is given RED or AMBER category by the Airport Bomb Warning Assessor, or where there has been no time to categorise the threat, ATC will carry out the following actions: * Initiate a LOCAL STANDBY. The flight is to be provided with flight priority A. * If the Captain elects to evacuate the aircraft using emergency equipment, or if an explosive device or suspicious item is found on the aircraft, the LOCAL STANDBY shall be upgraded to an AIRCRAFT GROUND INCIDENT. * The controller will request a Remote Search Area to be nominated by one of the following: Operations Director Head of Technical Services MATS Ext. 174 (07768 620442) Ext. 199 (07768 620441) Ext. 308 * Direct the aircraft to the nominated Remote Search Area and advise the aircraft Captain to establish R/T communication with the Aerodrome Fire Service, frequency 121.6. * Give priority to the movement of ground handling equipment or vehicles connected with the incident under Marshalling escort across the Manoeuvring Areas. * After consultation with the Operations Director / Head of Technical Services, the Airport may be closed. * When advised by the Incident Officer that the incident is cleared, take appropriate cancellation action of the Aircraft Ground Incident or Local Standby.
271
What is the DOC of Twr Frequency?
DOC 25nm, SFC to 4000ft
272
What are the minimum hours required to maintain currency?
At least 16 hours per month or an aggregate of 48 hours over 3 months
273
To whom should extension requests be made?
Handling/TDOM
274
What are the airports opening hours?
0630-2130 L Anything outside of this requires an extension
275
Whom do we contact regarding snow or snow clearing?
The snow co-ordinator number is on the sign on the stairs
276
Who makes the decisions about what parts of the aerodrome are to be swept following snow?
The snow coordinator
277
Can vehicles cross the runways when snow has settled?
Only at the thresholds so as to avoid compacting the snow
278
How is the status of the runway determined following snow?
A Runway Snow Clearance Status form will be completed by the snow coordinator in consultation with an available ATCO who (when able) will accompany the coordinator on a runway inspection. The recorded data will then be used to issue the SNOWTAM
279
Where can further info regarding winter ops be found?
In the winter planning box in the technical library
280
Who are responsible for initiating the snow action plan outside of airport hours?
Security, the Snow Coordinator will then contact ATC at an appropriate time to confirm airport status
281
What is the frequency for the ILS?
110.500MHz (GP 329.600MHz)
282
What is the frequency for the NDB?
339 KHz
283
What is the frequency for the DME?
110.500MHz Channel 42X
284
What is the frequency for the VOR/DME?
113.350MHz (SAM)
285
What are the ATCOs actions on the receipt of a report of severe turbulence, icing or wind shear?
ATCOs should be aware of the possibility of the a/c passing the MAP altitude. ATCOs should provide enhanced tx info as necessary and provide advice as deemed appropriate to ensure safety. Pilot should advise if a go around is due to windshear but may not Medium-strong south westerlies are likely to cause windshear when rwy 26 is in use All reports info windshear or turbulence on approach must be reported to subsequent landing a/c. The information should also be included in ATIS broadcasts until further reports indicate that there is no recurrence of such conditions. A note of the windshear report must be entered in the file retained at the ADC position.
286
When does Aerodrome Ground Lighting have to be activated?
During night time During the day when the met vis is less than 5000m and/or the C.B less than 700ft
287
What action is taken by ADI when they are informed of a reduction in available fire cover?
RFFS will inform us, this may restrict aerodrome ops. Notification of reduced level is to be made through NOTAM and included on the ATIS. Details of the level of cover available must be entered on the left-hand page of the log book. Operations by a particular a/c type should not be permitted when the level of protection falls below that provided for two categories below the appropriate category for the a/c. A/C in the cct or taxying are to be informed on the R/T Following any incident where the RFFS have been deployed to the incident site, a/c ops are to be suspended until the fire cat has been confirmed by Fire Command or the Incident Commander
288
What are your actions in the event of a GPWS warning or unplanned go-around?
ATCOs not to dissuade pilot from climbing. Appropriate pressure setting to be passed when able. GPWS warnings to climb will temporarily suppress TCAS RAs for the a/c suffering the GPWS warning, all other a/c will have their TCAS operate as normal. Essential tx info and/or avoiding action shall be passed first to the a/c in conflict with the one receiving the GPWS warning. Essential tx info and/or avoidance advice to be passed to GPWS a/c once Mode C or S indicates it is above the appropriate SMAC level. TI may be passed earlier but only if deemed necessary to avoid collision.
289
LVPS
Don’t forget to do LVPs
290
What wake turbulence would be applied for a DA40 following a AH64?
4 NM AH64 is a S
291
What wake turbulence would be applied for a HR20 following a CH47?
5NM (CH47 is a LM)
292
What A/C type is a H64?
Apache
293
What A/C type is a PA23?
Apache a/c
294
What A/C type is a V22?
Osprey
295
What A/C type is a AS65?
Dauphin
296
What A/C type is a D328?
Dornier 328
297
What A/C type is a PC24?
Pilatus PC24 Jet
298
EGHI?
Southampton Solent Radar 120.230 Southampton Radar 122.730 Twr 118.205
299
EGHP?
Popham 129.805
300
EGDM?
Boscombe Down 126.7
301
EGVP?
Middle Wallop 118.6
302
EGLS?
Old Sarum 123.205
303
EGHO?
Thruxton 118.280
304
EGHA
Compton Abbas 122.710
305
EGHS
Henstridge 130.255
306
EGDY
Yeovilton 127.350
307
EGHN
Sandown 119.280
308
EGHJ
Bembridge 123.255
309
EGHF
Lee on Solent 118.930
310
EGHG
Yeovil 130.805
311
What is the frequency for Solent Radar?
120.230
312
What is the frequency for LF LARS West?
125.250
313
What is the frequency for Yeovilton LARS?
127.350
314
What is the frequency for Ply MIL east?
124.150
315
What is the frequency for London Info West?
124.750
316
How do we determine the runway in use and what is the runway change procedure?
Should a change of runway be necessary Aerodrome Control, after consultation with Approach Control, shall inform the following: (1) Aircraft under their control; (2) Aerodrome Fire Service; (3) Contractors working on the aerodrome who will be affected by the change; (4) Other agencies according to local instructions. Additionally, at a local level, the local prevailing weather conditions, runway lighting and surface condition as well as the runway in use at Southampton should be taken into account before deciding on the Runway- in- use. All jet aircraft and all other aircraft with a MTWA greater than 5700 kg should not be allowed departure or arrival on either runway, if there is a tail wind component in excess of 10kts. If a change of runway becomes necessary, the GMC and ADI Controllers will liaise with APP/APS before changing runways and agree the timing of the change, depending on traffic conditions. At the agreed moment of the runway change, the ADI controller should follow the Runway Change Check List, which is accessible on the existing Tower Information pull-out board. A number of actions may be delegated to the tower assistant, as specified in the check list.
317
What is the frequency for the GP?
329.600MHz
318
What is the FAT for the ILS app 26?
255
319
What is the FAT for the NDB rwy 26?
251
320
What is the FAT for the ILS app rwy 08?
075
321
What is the FAT for the NDB App rwy 08?
080
322
Over the RT how would you report the runway surface conditions for a grass runway?
Using one term to describe the whole runway
323
Lasers, searchlights and fireworks
-specific guidelines apply to light displays within 500m either side of an airports centreline within 10nm of the ARP -Within 3NM of the ARP but not on the extended centreline the same guidelines apply but with the addition that any light should not stray towards the aerodrome or the extended centreline. -in both cases information should be passed to affected aircraft -Guidelines have also been laid out for fireworks displays which should be limited to 1500ft all and should not take place within 500m either side of the extended runway centreline within 10nm of an ARP or within 3NM radius of an ARP. There are guidelines for if the displays Requires to be within these distances.
324
What is the maximum period an a/c can operate without serviceable TCAS?
10 days
325
Which a/c cannot be given an immediate take-off?
Heavy and Super
326
When does ATC need to be informed of the release of carrier pigeons?
When it occurs within 13km of the aerodrome. Releases must be notified by telephone at least 30 mins before release
327
Sqk 0024
Radar calibration
328
Sqk 0033?
Para dropping
329
Sqk 7001
Military fixed wing low level and climb out
330
Sqk 7002
Danger Areas General
331
Sqk 7003
Red Arrows displays/transit
332
Sqk 7004
Aerobatics and display
333
Sqk 7005
High energy manoeuvres
334
Sqk 7006
Autonomous ops within TRA/TRA(G)
335
What are the airports that we need to call GS for?
EGKB EGKK EGGW EGLC EGLF EGLL EGMC EGSS EGWU EGHL EGLK EGTD EGTF EGVO
336
What hours are Western Radar open?
0630-2015L
337
What is the AFTN address for Western for Slamming A/C?
EGTTZFZC
338
What is the ratio for the minimum level which the PSR will pick up A/C?
1000ft per 10NM
339
What level is the maximum service ceiling for the RADAR?
FL120 and within 50NM
340
What MET data do we derive from the Surface Net?
Temp Dew Point Wind QNH
341
What are our actions in the event of failure of the weather editor input?
Observers will manually record the info on the form provided. This info should then be passed around the operational positions.
342
What are our actions in the event of ATIS failure?
Info must be passed to a/c over the R/T. Consideration must be given to cancellation of traffic due ATCO workload.
343
What is the contingency sensor for the wind?
10 min average from the ATCOs Wind sensor
344
What is the contingency sensor for the temp and dew point?
From the Gill system
345
What is the contingency sensor for the pressures?
PAB or failing that the Gill system
346
Whom do we inform of a fuel spillage?
RFFS
347
What are our actions in the event of unauthorised UAS activity at the airport?
Essential tx info to be passed to a/c Advise airport authority Dorset police to be informed Consider temporarily suspending ops Verify sighting, if it can be confirmed that no risk exists than ops may continue, if no further sighting is reported after 30 mins than ops may resume If shortly after resumption of ops further UAV activity is observed or reported again, ops should be suspended pending further consultation with the airport authority and Dorset police