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EGHH > ADI Question Bank > Flashcards

ADI Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

What is the NPR for aircraft departing rwy 23?

A

Climb S/A to 0.6NM then right turn heading 270 degrees, turn O/T on reaching 3.1NM (also applies to CCTs)

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2
Q

What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the NW?

A

For A/C departing tracking 260-360 degrees

Climb S/A to 2DME, then left turn no lower than 1500ft (also applies to LH CCTS)

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3
Q

What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the NE?

A

For A/C departing heading 001-079 degrees

Climb S/A to 1DME then track 075 degrees to 5.6DME before commencing turn

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4
Q

What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the South?

A

For A/C heading between 080-259 degrees

Climb S/A to 1DME then track 075 degrees to 4.1 DME before commencing any turn (also applies to RH CCTS)

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5
Q

What are the NPRs for A/C arriving rwy 26?

A

From the North- establish on final no closer than 3.0DME

From the South- establish on final no closer than 4.1DME

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6
Q

What are the NPRs for A/C arriving rwy 08?

A

Establish on final no closer than 4DME

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7
Q

What is the runway lighting available at EGHH?

A

HI- bi-directional with omni-directional component
HI white edge lighting (CAT I 08 so last 600m is yellow)
HI white centreline lighting, last 300m is red 600m before that alternates red/white
HI green wing bars and threshold lighting
900m HI white flush touchdown zone lighting
LI turning circle lights on both thresholds
LI stopway lighting

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8
Q

What are the approach lights for rwy 26?

A

914m HI white centreline lighting 5 bar crossbars
300m LI red inner supplementary lighting

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9
Q

What are the approach lights for rwy 08?

A

510m HI white centreline 3 crossbars (2 crossbars and Centreline lights are flush fitted into the runway extension)

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10
Q

What are the taxiway lights?

A

HI green centreline lights on A, B, R and T
LI blue edge lights on C, G, N, E, D and M
Green centreline and blue edge reflectors on W and V

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11
Q

What are the holding point lights?

A

LI red flush stop bars at A, B1, B2, R, C, D, G1, G4, N, E, T and M- with exception of B2, C, D and E all of these HPs have green lead on / lead off lights. These illuminate whenever the associated stop-bar is deselected

RGLs at all runway entry points including G3

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12
Q

What holding points have stop bars?

A

A, B1, B2, R, C, D, G1, G4, N, E, T and M

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13
Q

What VRP lies to the NW?

A

Tarrant Rushton TAR

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14
Q

What VRP lies to the NE?

A

Stones Cross

STX

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15
Q

What VRP lies to the SE?

A

Hengistbury Head

HGS

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16
Q

What VRP lies to the SW?

A

Sandbanks

SBX

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17
Q

How many LVP blocks are there and what are they?

A

4

North side
B2 to R
MA to G4
Runway

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18
Q

What vehicles are permitted NSOLO?

A

European (within the are at the top of T between H103 and T, including V)
Fuel
Sierra Mob
Tels
Sparks
Bliss Mobile

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19
Q

Which A/C will require release from Radar?

A

VFR jets
VFR given a level above 2A
All IFR
All SVFR
When Radar have asked for one

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20
Q

What points would require co-ordination with Western Radar?

A

GIBSO
DAWLY
DIKAS
BRIBO
BCN

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21
Q

What is the MAP rwy 26?

A

Continue climb 3A initially on track 251 degrees, on passing 4DME left turn to BIA Hold

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22
Q

What is the MAP rwy 08?

A

Continuous climb 3A, initially heading 080 degrees to 4 DME then right turn to BIA hold

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23
Q

What is the standard airways clearance to the north?

A

SAM-Q41-NORRY

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24
Q

What is the standard airways clearance to the south?

A

THRED

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25
Q

What is the standard airways clearance to the east?

A

GWC

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26
Q

What is the standard airways clearance to the north-west?

A

SAM-PEPIS-NUBRI

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27
Q

What RFFS cat is Bournemouth?

A

A7
A8 under remission
A9 with 24hrs notice

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28
Q

What are the taxiway widths?

A

A-16m
B-23m
C-16m
D-16m
E-16m
G-16
M-16m
N-16m
R-23m
T-23m
V-16m
W-16m

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29
Q

What type of approaches are available?

A

NDB
ILS (CAT I 08, CAT III 26)
RNAV5

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30
Q

What is the height of the Bournemouth CTR?

A

SFC to 2000ft AMSL

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31
Q

What is Bournemouth’s Transition Alt?

A

6,000ft

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32
Q

What is TWR’s Frequency?

A

125.605MHz
DOC 25nm, SFC to 4000ft

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33
Q

What is Ground’s Frequency?

A

121.705MHz

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34
Q

What is Bournemouth RADAR Frequency?

A

119.480

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35
Q

What is Bournemouth Director Frequency?

A

118.655

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36
Q

What is the ATIS frequency?

A

133.730

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37
Q

What are the CCT heights?

A

1200ft QNH for A/C MTWA of less than 5700kgs
1500ft QNH for all Turbine A/C and those with a MTWA of greater than 5700kgs
700ft Low level cct to south of runway (max of 2 per sortie or following an instrument approach)
Helicopters 700ft

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38
Q

What are the VFR criteria for Class D Airspace?

A

Below 3000ft-
Flight vis-5km, 1500m from cloud laterally and 1000ft vertically

If less than 140KIAS then Flight Vis- 5km, COCSIS

Helicopters if less than 140KIAS then flight vis 1500m, COCSIS

If night then 140KIAS exceptions no longer apply

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39
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

ATC permission required to enter
IFR & VFR Permitted
IFR separated from IFR
IFR and SVFR TX info on VFR
VFR TX info on IFR and other VFRs

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40
Q

What are the conditions for the refusal of a SVFR clearance?

A

Fixed- Ground Vis less than 1,500m and/or C.C. less than 600ft

Heli- Ground Vis less than 800m and/or C.C. less than 600ft

When the reported ground visibility at the aerodrome is less than 1500 m, ATC may issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing the control zone and not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the flight visibility reported by the pilot is not less than 1500 m, or for helicopters, not less than 800 m (GM1 SERA.5010(c)).

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41
Q

What is the radio fail procedure for IFR a/c?

A

3.4.2.4.1 A flight experiencing communications failure in IMC during an approach directed by radar shall:
Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C.
Continue either visually, or by means of promulgated Initial Approach Procedures and an appropriate approved final approach aid, to land. If this is not practical, carry out the missed approach procedure and continue to a holding facility appropriate to the airfield of intended landing for which an instrument approach is notified and then carry out that procedure.

3.4.2.4.2 Except where communications failure occurs during an approach directed by radar, a flight experiencing communication failure in IMC shall:

Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C.
Maintain for a period of seven minutes, the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude, if this is higher. The period of seven minutes begins when the transponder is set to 7600 and this should be done as soon as the pilot has detected communications failure.
If failure occurs when the aircraft is following a notified departure procedure such as a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) and clearance to climb, or re-routing instructions have not been given, the procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure, has been reached. Then, for that part of the period of seven minutes that may remain, maintain the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher.
Following the period of seven minutes, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points.
If being radar vectored, or proceeding offset according to RNAV, without a specified limit, continue in accordance with ATC instructions last acknowledged for three minutes only and then proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight planned route. Pilots should ensure that they remain at, or above, the minimum safe altitude.
Comply with the loss of communications procedures notified for the destination aerodrome in the AD 2 section of the UK AIP.
Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome as closely as possible to the ETA last acknowledged by ATC. If no such ETA has been acknowledged, the pilot should use an ETA derived from the last acknowledged position report and the flight-planned times for the subsequent sections of the flight.
Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome at the highest notified Minimum Sector Altitude taking account of en-route terrain clearance requirements.
If following a notified Standard Arrival Route (STAR), after the seven minute period detailed in paragraph (b) (i) has been completed, pilots should arrange descent as close as possible to the published descent planning profile. If no descent profile is published, pilots should arrange descent to be at the minimum published level at the appropriate designated Initial Approach fix.
On reaching the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome, begin further descent at the last acknowledged EAT. If no EAT has been acknowledged, the descent should be started at the ETA calculated in (e) (i), above, or as close as possible to this time. If necessary, remain within the holding pattern until the minimum holding level, published for the facility, has been reached. The rate of descent in holding patterns should not be less than 500 FT per minute. If ‘Delay not determined’ has been given, do not attempt to land at the destination aerodrome, divert to the alternate destination specified in the current flight plan or another suitable airfield.
Carry out the notified instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigational aid and, if possible, land within 30 minutes of the EAT or the calculated ETA. When practical, pilots should take account of visual landing aids and keep watch for instructions that may be issued by visual signals from the ground.

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42
Q

What are the R/T failure procedures for fixed wing VFR A/C?

A

VFR aircraft should select squawk 7600 as soon as R/T failure detected.
When outside CAS- the pilot shall route to either the Northern Zone Boundary or Hengistbury Head VRP, dependant on where they had been operating. Once there they may enter the CTR, direct to base leg of the duty runway, not above altitude 2000ft QNH. The pilot should maintain a good lookout for other A/C in the CTR and on the FAT. ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1. Once on base leg pilot is to look out for ALDI lamp signals from the VCR.
Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the A/C enters the CTR from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.

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43
Q

What are the R/T Failure Procedures for VFR Helis?

A

Helis should select code 7600

If operating outside CAS the heli should position to either the Northern Zone Boundary of Hengistbury Head VRP and the enter the CTR direct to the Northern/Southern airfield boundary not above alititude 2000ft VFR.

Pilots should maintain a good look out for other A/C operating within the CTR .

ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1.

If the helicopter is inbound from the North, they shall remain North of Runway 08/26 at all times,
and land on the grass between Taxiway Tango and Whiskey.

If the helicopter is based, they may then reposition to their company, maintaining a good lookout for other aircraft and vehicles moving around the taxiway network.

If they are not based, they should wait on the grass until assistance
arrives.

If the helicopter is inbound from the South, they shall remain South of Runway 08/26 at all times. On passing the airfield boundary, they should position onto the grass, West of Romeo.

Based Helicopters should look out for light signals from the VCR for approval to cross Runway 08/26 and land at their company.

If the helicopter is not based, they should wait for assistance.
It should be noted that helicopters inbound from the North will be given light signals from the VCR
but are unlikely to see them.

Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the helicopter enters the Control Zone from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.

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44
Q

Which lights can be turned off for training?

A

Any may be individually deselected provided the runway edge lights remain on

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45
Q

For which A/C do the noise preferential routes apply?

A

Any turbine A/C and any with a MTOW of greater than 5700kgs

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46
Q

What routings shall A/C with a MTOW of less than 5700kgs take?

A

Climb S/A to 1DME or 700ft QNH (whichever is first)

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47
Q

What are the NPR routings for inbound A/C at night and between which hours does this apply?

A

2200-0630 local

Establish on final no closer than 8 DME and not below 2,500ft

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48
Q

Whom do we contact about potential diversion A/C?

A

The TDOM

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49
Q

When can a ready message be sent for an A/C with a CTOT?

A

From 15 minutes before the EOBT until the CTOT

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50
Q

When must a departure message be sent?

A

When a VFR a/c is departing from Bournemouth to a destination outside of UK Airspace

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51
Q

Whom do we inform about known, approved or non-approved flights of hot air balloons?

A

The forestery commission

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52
Q

What are your actions for when a captive balloon breaks free?

A
  1. The type of balloon and whether carrying any person
  2. Position of balloon site
  3. Direction and speed of drift
  4. Last observed height
  5. Length of cable attached to the balloon
  6. Balloon operators name and tel. No.
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53
Q

For a release of small balloons what is the number that would require CAA permission?

A

When they exceed 2,000 but are less than 10,000

also for the simulatenous release of 1,000 balloons.

In these situations you need to ensure that this permission has been granted for approving release

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54
Q
A
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55
Q

Whom do we inform of a diversion request?

A

The Terminal Duty Operations Manager (TDOM). They will inform us where the A/C will be parked after checking it can be accepted.

We should also inform the Operations Director regarding any commercial A/C which require to divert in

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56
Q

What weather warnings are passed on and to who?

A

RFFS- All warnings
Airport Refuellers- Thunderstorm
Snow co-ordinator and head of Ops- Snow and frost warnings

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57
Q

Procedure for Dudmoor Farm

A

Dudmoor Farm is a farm strip located 2.5nm south of the airfield. An Autogyro operates from here and the pilot has agreed to squawk 7377 and has Mode S. If he wishes to depart he must call ATC to bookout and request permission to get airborne, details are passed by the TWR ATSA to RDR ATSA who will then verbally pass any approval granted. The a/c must be airborne within 15 mins.

Operations are not permitted when Met Vis is below 1500m and/or the c.c. is below 600ft.

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58
Q

How many model flying clubs are there and how do we control them?

A

3
Matchams and North End House- require to call and request permission before lifting and on cessation.
Oldfield- Only need to inform us when they start/finish as theya re outside the FRZ.

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59
Q

What are the procedures for helicopters lifting from Bliss Aviation?

A

Bliss based helicopters will advise the ADC when they have started and request their departure
clearance. When the helicopter reports ready for departure, before issuing “Lift at your discretion” the ADC Controller or in co-ordination with GMC will: complete the following:
▪ A broadcast will be made to all vehicles that a helicopter is lifting or alighting from Bliss or
any other nearby destination.
▪ Any vehicles on point to point clearances must have reached their destination or cleared the
affected area.
▪ Any other aircraft movement will be co-ordinated or asked to give way as appropriate.
▪ The helicopter will be advised that vehicles are on NSOL, when that is the case.
▪ The helicopter will be asked to report landing complete before any other aircraft or point to
point vehicles are given clearance through the area.
▪ Despite being ready it can take a few minutes for the helicopter to lift when departing. If the controller feels this time is becoming excessive, r/t confirmation shall be sought from the pilot that the departure is still imminent.
▪ If Rivergate is flooded and vehicle free flow is in progress, this shall be stopped and
confirmation received from security to that effect before a helicopter movement is
authorised.

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60
Q

What are the procedures for helicopters landing at XLR?

A

Helicopters that need to land at the XLR facility are not allowed to route directly to the XLR apron.
Irrespective of the runway in use, they should alight on the runway 26 threshold, and then ground or
air-taxi to the parking area at Juliet, via taxiway November.
The same procedure should be used in reverse for departing helicopters.

This is all due to the proximity of the XLR apron to the 26 glidepath critical area, aircraft at holding
point November and the size of the apron.

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61
Q

What is the circuit height for Helicopters?

A

700ft QNH

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62
Q

Describe the EGHH FRZ

A

Standard ATZ and Runway Protection Zones (RPZ- the rectangles extending from the threshold to 5km that are 500m either side of centreline, from sfc to 2000ft AGL)

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63
Q

Describe procedures for FA 20 arrivals when VFR

A

VFR arrivals must conform to the agreed Noise Abatement Procedures and the Controller can safely facilitate their approach within the arrival sequence. At times when this is not possible, the Controller must consider vectoring the aircraft onto the ILS or for visual positioning onto final.
Controllers should note, where traffic information is being given, that the visibility from the FA20
cockpit is restricted, especially during the turn.

Runway 26 Operations

  • VFR Join Left-hand
    Aircraft will approach along the coast (feet wet) at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final
    no closer than 4.1 DME. This is termed as a “Standard Noise Join”.
    In the event that the pilot requests, or ATC require the aircraft to make a short approach
    inside 4.1 DME, they will join directly onto Base or route along the coast, not below 1500ft
    and turn inbound at HGS. This is termed as a “Standard HGS Join”.

The Standard HGS Join should only be used for safety or optimum sequencing purposes.
Permitting such an approach might have to be subsequently justified by the Controller. This
approach is permitted for singletons and formations, provided it can be applied to all aircraft in the formation.

  • VFR Join Right-hand
    Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 3 DME.

Runway 08 Operations

  • VFR Join Right-hand
    Aircraft will execute standard SBX join, not below 1500ft, descending onto Final no closer than 4 DME. In the event that they approach from the SE and elect to transit the coast, they will follow the “Standard Noise Join” as for Runway 26 - ie at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME.
  • VFR Join Left-hand
    Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME.
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64
Q

What are the procedures regarding Draken ops when the NPAS heli is active?

A

Following a hazard analysis by Draken on the risk of FOD ingestion to their FA20s at holding point Mike due to the proximity of the NPAS HLS, the following procedure is to be used:

▪ Runway 26 Operations
Following the landing of an FA20 aircraft which is vacating at Mike:
If the Police helicopter has just started and has not yet called ready for departure, it is to be asked to hold on the ground and allow the FA20 to continue taxiing back to base. If the helicopter has called ready for immediate departure, the Controller will instruct the FA20 to hold just north of the holding point and wait for the helicopter to depart before continuing to taxi.

▪ Runway 08 Operations
FA20 aircraft taxiing for departure will hold short of the NPAS site if the helicopter has started and
has called ready for an immediate departure. FA20s will continue to the holding point after the helicopter has lifted and departed.

Due to the increased risk of potential FOD ingestion and in order to avoid an additional Runway crossing, FA20s should only be instructed to vacate left at holding point Alpha and taxi south side as a last resort.

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65
Q

What are the procedures for Draken Target Tows?

A

Draken aircraft may return to the airfield towing a target on short haul. The target is of fabric
construction and up to 5m long, with little or no towing wire showing. The pilots prefer not to overfly built-up areas on their approach. When requests are made to drop the target, normal circuit procedures will be followed, and no priorities are normally requested. Targets can be dropped accurately into an area 500 m by 100 m and there is minimum disruption to other aircraft.

The RFFS/AST shold be advised for the target collection. Targets will normally be dropped on the grass areas to the north side of Runway 26 and east of Taxiway Tango. Controllers must ensure that Holding Point Delta and Taxiway Delta is clear of aircraft and vehicles.

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66
Q

For what aircraft do Western Radar provide a service from EGHH?

A

For a/c on an air test and those inbound/outbound cruising at or requesting above FL100

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67
Q
A
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68
Q

State the objectives of and Air Traffic Controller

A

Objectives of ATS

  • To prevent collisions between aircraft
  • To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
  • To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
  • To provide information and advice useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight
  • Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as required.

Aerodrome Controller

To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control in order to achieve and safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of;

  • Preventing collisions between;
    Aircraft flying in and in the vicinity of the ATZ
    Aircraft landing and taking off from the aerodrome
    Aircraft, vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area
  • Assisting in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the apron
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69
Q

An Aerodrome control unit provides which services?

A

A basic service

An aerodrome control service

Alerting service

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70
Q

What is Essential Aerodrome Information?

A

Information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft. It shall be issued to pilots in sufficient time to ensure the safe operation of aircraft. This may include the provision of urgent information to pilots during take-off or landing runs.

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71
Q

What would constitute Essential Aerodrome Information?

A

Construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area

Rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not

failure of irregular functioning of Aerodrome lighting system. Defects must be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. Pilot is responsible for deciding his course of action.

Aircraft Parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines

Failure or irregular operation of Approach aids

Water, snow, ice or frost on a runway, a taxiway or apron

In snow or ice conditions, information concerning Anti-icing, or de-icing liquid chemicals or other containments or sweeping and/or sanding of runways, taxiways and aprons.

Information on the location and operational status of any Arrester gear.

Bird formations or individual large birds on the manoeuvring area or in the vicinity of the aerodrome and the extent of any bird dispersal action being carried out. When flocks of birds or single large ones are seen, the aerodrome operator or bird control unit must be informed.

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72
Q

What are the conditions for a multiple line-up?

A

1)it is during daylight hours; 2)all aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller; 3)all aircraft are on the same RTF frequency; 4)pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart; 5)the physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway.

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73
Q

What are the conditions for a land after?

A

1) the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected; (2) it is during daylight hours; (3) the preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway; (4) the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway; and (5) the pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft.

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74
Q

What are the conditions for land afer the departing?

A

Subject A/C is not larger than a PA34 and;
-Locally based A/C
-Not a solo student
-The departing A/C must have passed at least 1/3 along the runway at the time the clearance is given, determined by
Rwy 26- Abeam Txy D
Rwy 08- Abeam the VDF installation

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75
Q

What must a flight do if an anti-collision light fails during the day?

A

Nothing, he may continue provided that the light is repaired at earliest opportunity.

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76
Q

When may standard separtation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?

A

Also in the vicinity of an aerodrome as per ICAO, when:

  • ADC continuously sees all the aircraft, and can provide adequate separation
  • Aircraft see each other and agree to maintain separation (– good in circuit at night if IFR.)
  • Following aircraft sees the one in front and agrees to maintain separation.
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77
Q

Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.

A

Aircraft in emergency

Aircraft which have declared a police emergency

Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.

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78
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.

A

Police flights under normal operational priority

Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops

Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights

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79
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status

A

Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement

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80
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.

A

Flights carrying the;
1) Prime Minister
2) Chancellor of the Exchequer
3) Home secretary
4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs

Flights carrying visiting Heads of Gov. notified by the CAA

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81
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.

A

Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks

HEMS/SAR flights positioning for the purposes of their duties

Other flights authorised by the CAA

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82
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.

A

Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests

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83
Q

What flight category are training and non standard flights?

A

Class Z

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84
Q

What are the different flight categories relevant to police flights?

A

Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A

Cat B- Normal operational priority

Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc

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85
Q

What is a HEMS flight and what flight category can it operate under?

A

Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved.

They can operate as;

Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks

Cat E when positioning for its duties

Cat Z when training, testing etc.

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86
Q

What is the call sign for a Helimed flight?

A

HLE- “Helimed” Suffixed by A or E when operating under either of these categories of priority. If no suffix than aircraft is performing routine tasks.

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87
Q

Describe in detail, low approach restrictions and their uses

A
  • If the runway in use is occupied by aircraft or vehicles, an approaching aircraft that has requested a low approach or a touch and go, may be cleared to carry out a low approach restricted to a height not below 400 feet above the threshold elevation. In such circumstances, the pilot is to be informed of the aircraft or vehicles on the runway. Additionally, the aircraft or vehicle on the runway is to be informed of the aircraft carrying out the low approach.
  • For aircraft operating on the aerodrome QNH, the low approach altitude restriction is to be based on 400ft plus threshold elevation, rounded up to the nearest 50ft (450ft at Cambridge)
  • The runway in use shall be kept clear of aircraft and vehicles if an approaching aircraft is likely to descend below 400 feet above the threshold elevation.
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88
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

A sustained change in wind velocity along an aircraft’s flight path which occurs significantly faster than an aircraft can accelerate or deccelerate.

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89
Q

What are ATC actions in the event of windshear?

A

In the event of a pilot executing a missed approach due to a windshear alert, controllers should be prepared for the aircraft to exceed the missed approach altitude. Controllers should provide enhanced traffic information as necessary and provide instructions and advice as deemed appropriate to ensure safety.

Whenever a pilot reports windshear conditions to ATC, the information shall be relayed to subsequent inbound and outbound aircraft until confirmation is received that the condition no longer exists.

Additionally ADI should consider the following and issue warnings as considered necessary;

  • Possible turbulence/wind-shear on short final rwy 10/ departure rwy 28, caused by the mound of earth west of H17. This is especially significant when the wind is a strong North-westerly
  • Possible turbulence/ wind-shear on short final of rwy 23 caused by the engine running bay. Especially when North westerly winds
  • ERB. ADI should be mindful that prop/jet wash from the engine running bay may affect aircraft on final approach for rwy 23, especially when wind is north-westerly
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90
Q

Give an example of the phraseology that will be used to pass on reports of windshear

A

“G-CD, at 0745 a departing B757 reported windshear at 800 feet. Airspeed loss
20 knots, strong right drift”

When wind shear is forecast or is reported by aircraft, ATC will warn other aircraft until such time as aircraft report the phenomenon no longer exists.

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91
Q

What is the definition of a runway incursion?

A

A runway incursion is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft take-off and landing. The protected area of a surface for aircraft take-off and landing is determined by the existence and location of the runway strip, clear and graded area, obstacle free zone and ILS sensitive areas.

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92
Q

What is the definition of a full emergency?

A

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.

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93
Q

What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident/ Aircraft Accident Imminent?

A

Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.

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94
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to stand-down emergency services during an aircraft accident?

A

The SAFO who shall advise ATC as soon a possible

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95
Q

What is the published RFFS crash category? If you had any doubts, how would you find out?

A

A7
A8 under remission
A9 with 24hrs notice

By calling the fire station

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96
Q

Why do we have the generators turned on when RVR is <600m

A

Due to the requirement to have a change over to an alternate power source of less than 1 second, as the generator takes longer to switch on than this then the only viable option is to have the generator as the primary source of power with the mains acting as the alternate

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97
Q

What is the phraseology for cancelling the take-off of an aircraft not rolling?

A

“C/S, hold position, cancel take-off, I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge”

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98
Q

What is the phraseology for cancelling the take-off of an aircraft already rolling?

A

“C/S, stop immediately, I say again, C/S stop immediately acknowledge”

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99
Q

Can an aircraft cross a red stop bar?

If so how can you achieve this?

A

Yes, in exceptional circumstances where the inoperable stop-bar cannot be taken out of service and cannot be suppressed.

With this phraseology;

“G-AC, Stop bar unserviceable, cross red stop bar….(then the rest of your instructions)”

in addition-
The a/c or vehicle must be visible to the ATCO
The R/T Phraseology leaves no doubt in the pilot or drivers mind that they may cross a red stop-bar
No conditional clearances allowed.

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100
Q

How many hours does an ATCO have to file an MOR?

A

72 hours

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101
Q

What is the difference between a precision and a non-precision approach?

A

A precision approach includes vertical profile whereas a non-precision does not

102
Q

Can an aircraft depart an aerodrome after the failure of a light required to be displayed by the ANO?

A

Yes but only during the day, at night it cannot.

103
Q

What should a controller consider if an aircraft in flight has a failure of a light required to be displayed by the ANO?

A

At night if the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight:

(1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority;
(2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.

104
Q

What are the objectives of aerodrome control?

A

To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly and efficient flow of air traffic with the objective of;

  1. Preventing collisions between:
    a) Aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ
    b) Aircraft taking off or landing
    c) Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area
  2. Assist in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the aprons
105
Q

What are the additional specific responsibilities of aerodrome control?

A
  1. Notifying Emergency services as per local instructions
  2. Informing Aircraft under its control of any depletion of the aerodrome Emergency services
  3. Providing an Approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control
  4. Supplying the following Information to approach control and, according to unit instructions, approach radar control;
    a) Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR, and VFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft
    b) Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information
  5. Informing aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a Deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible
  6. Initiating Overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established.

ODE EAI

106
Q

What reporting action do you take for various incidents?

A
107
Q

What reporting action do you take for various incidents?

A
108
Q

What do you do after you’ve given the first RVR reading to a pilot on approach the pilot says ‘Roger no further RVR reports’?

A

Continue to transmit RVR readings if there is a significant change in those readings.

109
Q

When do we have to perform runway inspections?

A
  1. At least one a day
  2. Before any night flying takes place
  3. At cessation of work on the manoeuvring area
  4. When a runway not previously in use is brought into use
  5. Following an aircraft accident
  6. Following an abandoned take-off by a turbine engined aircraft due to engine malfunction, or by an aircraft due to burst tyres
  7. During snow and ice conditions as frequently as conditions warrant
  8. When considered necessary by ATC
  9. The aerodrome operator details in local instructions;
    -Prior to and following arrival/dep of 4 engined code E A/C
    -When a period of 30 mins or more has elapsed since the
    last runway movement
110
Q

What does dry mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

The runway surface is considered dry if it is free of visible moisture and not contaminated within the area intended to be used

111
Q

What does wet mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

The runway is covered by an visible dampness or water up to and including 3mm depth witthin the intended area of use.

112
Q

What does slippery wet mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant portion of the runway have been determined to be degraded

113
Q

What does standing water mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

water of depth greater than 3mm

114
Q

Define slush

A

Snow that is so water saturated that water will drain from it when picked up or will splatter if stepped on forcefully

115
Q

What are the basic uses of the ATM?

A
  1. To determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving A/C
  2. To assist in the provision of longitudinal Sep
  3. To provide tx info to A/C on other A/C in the cct or making an instrument approach
  4. To confirm that the intitial outbound track of a departing A/C conforms with the clearance issued
116
Q

What are the advanced uses of the ATM?

A

Subject to the controller having been trained;

  1. Following identification, validate SSR codes of departing A/C and verify Mode C read-outs
  2. monitor the progress of overflying A/C identified by APS to ensure that they do not conflict with the tracks of arriving or departing A/C
  3. establish separation between departing A/C
  4. pass Traffic Info
  5. establish separation in the event of a missed approach
  6. Assist in taking initial corrective action when the separation between arriving A/C becomes less than the prescribed minima.
117
Q

What runways are available at Cambridge and what are their dimensions?

A

Rwy 08/26 2272m x 46m according to the AIP

118
Q

Where is the RVP for external emergency vehicles?

A

Dont know and can’t find it

119
Q

Following an aircraft accident, describe the procedures to be followed for removing a crashed aircraft from a runway

A

Removal of crashed aircraft is the responsibility of the Aerodrome Operator and the aircraft owner or operator. In the case of a reportable accident the permission of the AAIB is required before removal action can be commenced.

Emergency Removal
If it is apparent that continued obstruction of a runway, or interference with an approach aid, by a crashed aircraft might further endanger life, e.g. other arriving aircraft having insufficient fuel for diversion, the senior controller should ensure that the emergency situation is fully understood by the Aerodrome Operator. Under normal circumstances the AAIB may be contacted at any time without undue delay. Exceptionally, if there are communication difficulties, the Aerodrome Operator may wish to take action in accordance with the Civil Aviation (Investigation of Accidents) Regulations 1996, which provide that an aircraft may be removed or interfered with so far as may be necessary for the purpose of preventing any danger or obstruction to the public or to air navigation.

120
Q

What are the approved intermediate departure points?

A

M and E

121
Q

What is the minimum horizontal separation to be applied between A/C?

A

3NM, this must be increased to 5NM if the A/C are not on the same frequency

122
Q

What horizontal separation is to be applied between A/C operating inside CAS and unknown traffic believed to be infringing the CTR?

A

5NM

123
Q

Describe the deemed separations for EGHH Traffic against EGHI traffic

A

Traffic holding at the BIA up to FL60 are separated from EGHI arriving and holding traffic

SVFR flights within EGHH CTR are separated against SVFR flights within EGHI CTR

124
Q

When do we issue SVFR clearances?

A

When the Met Visibility is below 5000m and or the C.C is below 1500ft

125
Q

What separation standards apply to SVFR A/C?

A

The standard one that would exist for IFR A/C. Use of Reduced Sep visually is not permissible as contact between the A/C may be lost before the CTR boundary.

126
Q

Where must SVFR A/C route from/to when leaving/entering the CTR?

A

The VRPs unless there is no other traffic to affect.

127
Q

What are the weather minima below which you can no longer issue SVFR clearances?

A

Met vis less than 1,500m and/or C.C less than 600ft for fixed wing A/C

Met vis less than 800m and/or C.C less than 600ft for Helicopters

128
Q

What A/C are exempt from SVFR minima?

A

Police
Helimed
Rescue
Pipeline
Powerline

129
Q

Tail wind for runway is now 10kts, what effect does this have on operations?

A

Jet A/C and those with a MTOW in excess of 5700kgs can no longer use this runway.

130
Q

How do you change the runway?

A

You must follow the runway change checklist and log the time of the change on the left hand page of the logbook

131
Q

Can we do opposite direction ILS approaches?

A

no

132
Q

What are the restrictions for the issuance of conditional clearances?

A

Conditional clearances shall not be used for movements affecting the active runway except when the aircraft or vehicles concerned can be seen by both controller and
pilot or driver.
Conditional clearances are to relate to one movement only and, in the case of landing traffic, this must be the first aircraft on approach.
Not to be used when inoperable stop bars are being crossed
Not to be issued to student pilots or first solo flights

133
Q

What are the conditions for crossing a red stop bar that cannot be surpressed and no other option is available?

A

Minimum conditions:
(1) The affected runway or intermediate holding position and the aircraft are visible to the controller.
(2) The phraseology used is to leave the pilot or driver in no doubt that the crossing instruction only applies to the particular inoperable stop bar.
(3)Conditional clearances shall not be used under these circumstances.

134
Q

What are the dimensions of the ILS critical areas for Rwy 26?

A

Loc- 120m wide area symmetrically dispersed about runway centreline and extending from 30m behind the array to the near end of the runway

GP- Rectangle extending in width from near edge of the runway to a parallel line 53m beyond the GP aerial and extending a distance of 304m in front of the aerial.

135
Q

What are the dimensions of the ILS critical areas for Rwy 08?

A

Loc- 120m wide area symmetrically dispersed about runway centreline and extending from 30m behind the array to the near end of the runway

GP- Rectangle extending in width from near edge of the runway to a parallel line 53.34m beyond the GP aerial and extending a distance of 326.7m in front of the aerial.

136
Q

What are the restrictions for crossing A/C vehicles through the ILS critical areas?

A

Rwy 26-
No A/C or vehicle (regardless of size) to cross the area once APS have passed the established check or the A/C is observed to have establised on a 10NM final
This means no crossing from N to G, G to N, E to G, G to E, No exit or entry from J, no A/C to enter/vacate from N, J or E

Rwy 08-
No A/C or vehicle (regardless of size) to cross the area once APS have passed the established check or the A/C is observed to have establised on a 10NM final. So no entering/vacating or crossing to or from HP A

137
Q

What conditions apply to use of runways by Code E A/C?

A

Whenever a 4 engined Code E aircraft is to use the runway a comprehensive runway inspection must be carried out prior to and after their arrival/departure with emphasis on the edges.
The post flight inspection must be completed before any further A/C movements are permitted on the runway.

138
Q

What code is a A320?

A

C

139
Q

What code is a B738?

A

C

140
Q

What code is a 747?

A

E

141
Q

What code is a 777?

A

E

142
Q

What code is a 787?

A

E

143
Q

What code is a C-130?

A

C

144
Q

What must ADI co-ordinate with APS?

A

Mats 1
-Departing IFR A/C
-Inbound A/C which make their first call on tower frequency

Mats 2
* The Visual Circuit is active.
* Any unplanned go-around from an instrument approach requiring further Radar assistance
* IFR departure Release.
* The circuit area is congested and arriving VFR aircraft are required to hold at, or outside the Zone boundary.
* Greater landing intervals are required between arriving aircraft to allow higher category aircraft to depart.
* There is essential airfield information that may affect the flow of traffic, e.g. Lighting unserviceabilities, blocked taxiways, etc.
* A departure aircraft requests the out of duty runway.
* Full runway change in the event an instrument arrival is to be accommodated on the out of duty runway.
* Aircraft taxiing who require a Special VFR clearance.
* Imminent VFR jet departures, including their required direction.
* Aircraft in the visual circuit wish to climb above circuit height.
* Acknowledgement of any inbound aircraft via a VRP/CTR boundary which is not painting on radar and any co-ordination effected.

145
Q

When can you not extend a CCT A/C downwind to position behind other traffic on final approach?

A

When the pilot is a solo student

146
Q

What would you expect an A/C to do in the event of a MAP due windshear?

A

Expect them to fly the MAP however there is a greater chance of them exceeding the maximum altitude of the procedure.

147
Q

When must the Parley Road traffic lights be used?

A

When Runway 26X is in use
When a jet aircraft larger than a B767/A330 is departing rwy 08
Formation landings of red arrows on rwy 08

148
Q

How many times in a day can the Parley Road Traffic Lights be used?

A

As often as required except for;

3 times only between the hours of 0730-0900(L) and 1600-1800(L)

149
Q

What are the positions where a B747 will have achieved 80kts on take off and can no longer abort?

A

26- Half way between E and D

08- 08 Threshold ie end of concrete section

150
Q

What are the positions where a B738 will have achieved 80kts on take off and can no longer abort?

A

26- Touchdown markings west of E

08- Before end of concrete section (no obvious marking)

151
Q

What are the positions where a FA20 will have achieved 80kts on take off and can no longer abort?

A

26- Touchdown markings west of E

08- End of concrete section

152
Q

What happens if a 787-900 series is parked on stand 1R?

A

Barriers will be positioned south of Apron Crossing Point 1 to block off the taxi-lane and there will be no access to Apron from the northside

153
Q

When must the Apron Crossing Traffic Lights be selected?

A

Whenever an A/C is being towed, pushed back, or taxiing on any part of the apron

When an emergency is in progress to give emergency vehicles an unhindered route

154
Q

When must the Draken crossing Lights on N be activated?

A

During night ops and LVPs whenever an A/C requires to use that portion of the taxiway.

155
Q

When may ground engine runs take place?

A

0800-2030(L) M-F
0900-1700(L) Saturdays and public holidays
Not between 1055 and 1105 (L) on Armistice Day

156
Q

When must the DME be switched off?

A

Whenever an A/C of B737 size or greater is positioned in the vicinity of Txy T for a significant period of time (eg compass swings, engine runs, or parking)

157
Q

How do we switch off the DME?

A

Call Tels and request them to do it

158
Q

When are Own Lookout Procedures no longer permitted?

A

When vis is equal to or less than 3000m and/or the C.C equal to or less than 300ft or during night time

159
Q

Which vehicles may use the roadway between the RFFS building and the tower?

A

All AFS/Safety vehicles
ATE/ Sparks vehicles
Works/Utilities
Security vehicles
Fuel vehicles
ATC mobile
Sweeper/Habitat/Chef/XLR Callsigns

160
Q

What are the dimensions of the runway strip at EGHH?

A

150m either side of the runway centreline

161
Q

What are the dimensions of the clear and graded area?

A

105m either side of the runway centreline

162
Q

Which aircraft must use the turning circles to backtrack on the runway?

A

any with a MTOW in excess of 5700kgs

163
Q

When must bird control runs be conducted?

A

Before flying commences
Prior to commencent of night flying
Prior to each movement if 30 mins or more has elapsed since last movement
In periods of poor vis at frequent intervals during flying
Whenever considered necessary by ATC

164
Q

What is the radius of action of the RFFS?

A

Within the airfield boundary, however at the discretion of the SAFO they may respond to incidents outside of this.

165
Q

What is the difference between a stage 1 and stage 2 Full Emergency?

A

Stage 1 - an A/C with a capacity of 20 or less pax

Stage 2- An A/C capable of carrying 21 pax or more

166
Q

What emergency condition do we call for a Hi-Jack?

A

Full Emergency

167
Q

What emergency condition do we call for a bomb threat?

A

Local Standby

168
Q

What is the definition of a weather standby?

A

When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe

169
Q

Where does hang gliding and para gliding take place?

A

Barton and Southbourne not above 1000ft AMSL

170
Q

What is the route for a standard North and what level does it need to be to be standard?

A

SAM Q41 NORRY

FL100

171
Q

What is the route for a standard North-west and what level does it need to be to be standard?

A

SAM PEPIS NUBRI

FL100

172
Q

What is the route for a standard East and what level does it need to be to be standard?

A

GWC

FL100

173
Q

What is the route for a standard South and what level does it need to be to be standard?

A

THRED

FL060

174
Q

What is the level for Western Radar working our A/C? What reporting points will go to W-Rad?

A

FL100

GIBSO
DAWLY
DIKAS
BCN
BRIBO

175
Q

What vehicles can be given own lookout?

A

Fuel
Bliss
European
S mob
S support

176
Q

A Captive balloon has broken free from Castlepoint and is observed from the tower, what are your actions?

A

Take the following details;

Type of Ballon
Position
Speed of drift or direction
Last observed height
Length of cable
Balloon operators name and number

177
Q

What are the met criteria for turning on the lights during the day?

A

Vis <5000m and/or C.B <700ft

178
Q

Cat III conditions all runway lights are on. Met cis is 100m IRVR 200m when the runway centreline lights fail. You have a B737 on a 7 mile final, what do you do?

A

Advise the pilot of the AGL failure in the way it has been passed to you. It is at the discretion of the pilot whether to continue.

179
Q

RT Fails, what do you do?

A

Switch to 125.605 standby
Use emergency radio if required
Can use hand held radio
Check headset is working correcty

180
Q

Describe the airspace around us, class, dimensions and height

A

Class D
CTR sfc- 2000ft
CTA 2000ft to 5000ft
Gap then to airway at FL95

Roughly 4 miles south, 5 miles north and 10 miles west and east

181
Q

R44 helicopter not locally based taxos slowly to holding point T. PA28 from Fly With Me told to follow helicopter, what is the minimum area to avoid downwash from the helicopter?

A

3 times the rotor diameter

182
Q

What wake turbulence would be applied for a PA28 following a B737?

A

5NM

183
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation criteria between an arriving S and L? LM and L? H and L?

A

S and L= 4NM

LM and L= 5NM

H and L= 7NM

184
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for a/c landing/departing in the opposite direction to a heavier aircraft on a low approach?

A

L/M following H= 3 mins

L following M= 3 mins

L/M following J= 4 mins

  • Departing on the opposite runway heading.
  • Is landing in the opposite direction on the same runway. or;
  • Is landing in the opposite direction on a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
185
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when intermediate?

A

H behind J= 3 mins

L/M behind H= 3 mins

L behind S/M= 3 mins

L, S & M behind J= 4 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

Just add 1 min to the normal separations

186
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for Departing A/C when not intermediate?

A

H behind J= 2 mins

L/M behind H= 2 mins

L behind S/M= 2mins

L, S & M behind J= 3 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

187
Q

What wake turbulence separations do we apply for an a/c on a touch and go behind a departing a/c?

A

The same as an intermediate departure

H behind J= 3 mins

L/M behind H= 3 mins

L behind S/M= 3 mins

L, S & M behind J= 4 mins

H behind H= 4nm or time equivalent

Just add 1 min to the normal separations

188
Q

What wake turbulence is applied for aircraft departing or arriving behind another on a low approach and go-around?

A

For wake turbulence separation purposes, aircraft carrying out a touch-and-go or a low approach shall be considered as making a departure from an intermediate point on the runway

189
Q

What are the wake turbulence separations for arriving aircraft when using a displaced threshold?

A

Arr L/S/M behind a H dep= 2mins

Arr L behind M/S dep= 2mins

Arr H behind J dep= 2mins

Arr L/S/M behind J dep= 3 mins

or

Dep L/S/M behind a H arr= 2mins

Dep L behind a S/M arr= 2mins

Dep H behind a J arr= 2mins

Dep L/S/M behind J arr= 3mins

If projected flight paths are expected to cross.

190
Q

What wake turbulence would be applied for a DA40 following a AH64?

A

4 NM
AH64 is a S

191
Q

What wake turbulence would be applied for a HR20 following a CH47?

A

5NM (CH47 is a LM)

192
Q

What A/C type is a H64?

A

Apache

193
Q

What A/C type is a PA23?

A

Apache a/c

194
Q

What A/C type is a V22?

A

Osprey

195
Q

What A/C type is a AS65?

A

Dauphin

196
Q

What A/C type is a D328?

A

Dornier 328

197
Q

What A/C type is a PC24?

A

Pilatus PC24 Jet

198
Q

A B737 running engines at T, with the engines at Idle how far does the jet blast extend?

A

up to 600m

199
Q

UKP01 on frequency near Matchams what is it’s normal operating priority?

A

B

200
Q

What do you do with traffic on the approach with a CAT A?

A

Break them off or send around

201
Q

RYR B738 goes around due windshear, what would you expect them to do?

A

Follow the Standard MAP, however be prepared for them to bust the altitude

202
Q

RYR calls TCAS RA what would you say?

A

Roger

203
Q

What is the FAT for rwy 26 NDB?

A

252 degrees

204
Q

RYR on final approach reports a laser shone on the A/C what would you do?

A

Note position
Warn other pilots
Anticipate need to adopt manoeuvres to minimise impact to A/C
Call police
Log all details

205
Q

Radar give you a route direct to RUDMO, where is RUDMO?

A

West of Portsmouth

206
Q

What are your actions in the event of being attacked with a laser?

A

(1) Look away from the laser beam if possible. Do not attempt to find the light
source by staring at the laser;
(2) Shield eyes and consider the feasibility of lowering/raising ‘sun blinds’ to
reduce the effects of the laser;
(3) Advise aircraft under your control that a laser is illuminating you;
(4) Avoid rubbing the eyes to reduce the potential for corneal abrasion;
(5) Consider the feasibility of increasing ambient light levels to minimise any
further illumination effects;
(6) Consider handing over the control position to a colleague in a position not
exposed to the laser;
(7) Where local arrangements have not been established, inform a Supervisor
who in turn can: decide on restricting traffic in/out of the aerodrome; inform the
aerodrome operator; dial 999 and pass all relevant information to the local
police;
(8) Ensure the event is recorded in the ATC watch log and reported for further
investigation in accordance with Section 6.

207
Q

MOVIE on a two mile final calls Windshear go-around, talk me through your actions and what you would expect the a/c to do?

A

Call RADAR and advise go around and reason
Expect the aircraft to fly the MAP but not level off at 3000ft
When situation is resolved get windshear details from the pilot and continue reporting until no further reports are given.

208
Q

You are plugged in to tower and approaching two hours on consol when you are advised that the ATCO taking over from you is sick and unable to plug in what would you do?

A

2 hours is the limit. Due to unforseen circumstances this can be extended provided it is for the minimum time required and a SRATCOH bust form is completed. Limit the traffic and if possible combine TWR/APP

209
Q

Somebody calls the ATSA and advises that there is a suspicious package at the bottom of the main staircase, what actions would you take?

A

Controllers are to inform aircraft under their control of the emergency evacuation and
transfer them to 125.605 MHz, or an appropriate ATC frequency having resolved any
immediate conflictions
* Landing aircraft are to be instructed to continue at their discretion
* Taxiing aircraft are to be held on the ground
* LATCC, Southampton and Plymouth Mil are to be informed
* Once all action (Paras 2 and 3 above) is complete, ATC staff will leave the Control Tower and
assemble at the RFFS, taking current Flight Progress Strips with them

210
Q

What are the conditions required for North Side own lookout of vehicles?

A

During daytime only
Met vis must be >3000m and C.C >300ft

211
Q

You have cleared FRA 81 for an immediate departure, what would you expect them to do?

A

From the HP taxi immediately onto the runway and commence take-off without stopping
If lined-up take off without delay

212
Q

What flight priority categories are relevant to Search and Rescue Flights?

A

Cat A when safety of life is involved
Cat B when priority is required
Cat E when repositioning following a SAR shout
Normal, when flight priority is not required
Cat Z when training

213
Q

What is the trigraph for British Rescue?

A

SRG

214
Q

What is the trigraph for Coastguard?

A

SRD

215
Q

The airfield manager calls and advises that N121JN at Jets is subject to a Mareva injunction, what is your understanding of this?

A

Aircraft is under a freezing order, specific RT to be used as reference in Mats Pt 1 Cha 4.
“You are subject to a Court Order prohibiting your aircraft from leaving the
United Kingdom, what are your intentions?”.

216
Q

RADAR release a SVFR A/C to the north and then before the A/C gets airborne give you an 8 mile call on an inbound ILS. What actions do you take?

A

Query the release on the SVFR as no separation is being provided (? dont get this answer, MATS 2 says RADAR sep is permitted and that is 3NM, there is more than 3NM in this scenario so why isnt it separated?)

217
Q

What is the aerodrome elevation?

A

38ft

218
Q

What is the threshold elevation for Rwy 08?

A

38ft

219
Q

What is the threshold elevation for rwy 26?

A

31ft

220
Q

EGHI?

A

Southampton

221
Q

EGHP?

A

Popham

222
Q

EGDM?

A

Boscombe Down

223
Q

EGVP?

A

Middle Wallop

224
Q

EGLS?

A

Old Sarum

225
Q

EGHO?

A

Thruxton

226
Q

EGHA

A

Compton Abbas

227
Q

EGHS

A

Henstridge

228
Q

EGDY

A

Yeovilton

229
Q

EGHN

A

Sandown

230
Q

EGHJ

A

Bembridge

231
Q

EGHF

A

Fairoaks

232
Q

In the event of an incident in the Moors Valley Flood Plain what additional actions are required?

A

ATC to switch off 26 approach lights.

233
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a white flashing light mean?

A

Land at the aerodrome and proceed to apron

234
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a red flashing light mean?

A

Aerodrome unsafe do not land

235
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a green flashing light mean?

A

Return for landing

236
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a steady red light mean?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

237
Q

When given to an aircraft in flight what does a steady green light mean?

A

Clear to land

238
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a red flashing light mean?

A

vacate the landing area in use

239
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a steady red light mean?

A

stop

240
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a green flashing light mean?

A

clear to taxi

241
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a white flashing light mean?

A

return to starting point on the aerodrome

242
Q

When given to an aircraft on the ground what does a steady green light mean?

A

cleared for take-off

243
Q

Action to be taken when notified of a reduction in fire cover

A

-RFFS will inform the Aerodrome Authority
-Aerodrome Authority responsible for ensuring arrangement are made to warn pilots and a/c ops
-NOTAM and on ATIS, place on left side of log
-A/C witha RFFS cat of 2 or more above the reduced level are not permitted
-CCT and taxiing a/c are informed by R/T
-If RFFS are attending an incident A/C ops are to be suspended until the RFFS cover is confirmed by fire command
-ATC actions on red pullout boards
-Detailed instructions are in red folder “emergency orders”.

244
Q

What are the MATS 2 responsibilities for an ADC ATCO?

A

-Control of a/c in the vicinity of the ATZ
-Control of a/c transferred from approach at the CTR boundary, or when the a/c has the field in sight, whichever is the later
-Control of instrument traffic when transferred from approach, either when established on Final or Base tuen complete
-A/C taking off and landing and for completion of the relevant FIDS entry when required
-Liaising with GMC for A/C, vehicles or personnel who wish to enter or cross the active ruwnay
-Control of vehciles operating on the ruway, using VHF frequency
-Obtaining a release from APP/APS for all IFR and SVFR departures
-Obtaining Airways/Zone or other clearances, when a.c have been transferred from GMC without a clearance. When it is necessary for an a/c to enter the active runway, before a clearance has been received.
-eg to meet and ADT or a/c requires to backtrack the runway, transfer of control to the AIR ATCO is to be effect at, or before the appropriate holding point, and the clearance obtained by the Air ATCO
-Transferring a/c, after landing to the GMC ATCO for taxiing instructions. Control is not to be transffered until the a/c is seen to be, or has reported clear of the active runway

245
Q

Where is Holmsley South?

A

5NM east of the aerodrome?

246
Q

Where is Beaulieu?

A

13nm East of the Aerodrome

247
Q

Procedures for engine runs

A

High power engine running is only permitted;

0800-2030(L) M-F
0900-1700(L) Saturdays and public holidays
Not between 1055 and 1105 (L) on Armistice Day

Outside of these hours will only be approved in an emergency

Only permitted on T

All engine runs are to be logged on the sheet provided and each request issued with a code
authorising the run. Additionally, engine runs using either the runway, Taxiway Tango, or any other
chargeable parking area (1) must be logged on the Chroma system.

When facing South Nose must be next to HP T, if north then nose must be next to concrete edge of T just short of taxiway M

not permitted during LVPs

IDLE RUNS;

On apron-not allowed if pax embarking/disembarking

Light a/c are permitted to do idle runs on their aprons for no longer than 5 minutes

A340 idle runs may be done in situ on the northern end of txy T and subject to following conditions;
-Idle power only
-A/c is pulled forward so the engines are not handing over the grasss and EAF ensure the engines do not affect the Gama apron
-No non EAF vehicles are permitted to use the lane in front of the parked A340’s to proceed up or down T whilst a run is in progress
-Any vehicle on NSOLO is warned of the run taking place and told not to use the lane in front of the A340’s- an acknowledgement must be obtained from each vehicles before the run commences
-Any helicopters operating NSOLO or into/out of bliss must be told
-Any A340 situated anywhere els that requires an idle run must be towed to T unless there is specific permission from the aerodrome authority for the run to take place elsewhere
-No WIP will be permitted in the grass area immediately east of T and north of the Gamma Apron whilst idling is in progress.

248
Q

Procedures for aircraft parking and handling

A

Apron- for all pax carrying a/c. Light A/C not generally permitted to park here
XLR
Bliss- light G/A up to citation size
T and R may be used for remote parking

249
Q

Describe the airspace around us, class, dimensions and height

A

Class D
CTR sfc- 2000ft
CTA 2000ft to 5500ft
Gap then to airway at FL95

Roughly 4 miles south, 5 miles north and 10 miles west and east

250
Q

Describe the operations of GMC

A

10:00-18:00 (L)
121.705

Duties and responsibilites;
-A/C moving and parking on the apron
-A/C vehicles and personnel on the Manoeuvring area, except for the active runway
-Co-ordinating with the Air ATCO for a/c, vehicles and personnel who wish to enter or cross the active runway
-Informing EGHI ATSA when IFR/ Airways traffic is starting or taxiing and placing the clearance on request as appropriate
-Informing APC when IFR/Airways/SVFR traffic is starting or taxiing as required
-Informing APC when A/C are ready for an IFR or airways clearance
-Obtaining the appropriate clearances from APC and passing them to A/C
-When a flight is subject to an ATFM departure slot, this must be included in the clearance passed to the a/c
-If it is apparent that an a/c has missed the required off blocks time, to meet the limits of a Dep slot, it should not be permitted to taxy until a slot reivision is confirmed
-Transferring control of a/c to Air with a clearance ticked if passed
-Passing VFR clearances to a/c as appropriate and liaising with APC on those requiring release
-Arranging taxiing a/c to arrive at the relevant HP in the correct order, or in a manner where AIR can change the order. All clearances received and read back, strips annotated accordingly and control transferred to Air
-Assisting the Air in the event of an emergency, taking or retaining control of A/c where required or requested and assisting the ATSA to inform those listed in the emergency callout procedures

EGHH (6 decks)

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