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Admin Flashcards

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1
Q

what is PIP?

A

tax free benefit for adults 16-64 years who need help with personal care or have difficulties working because they are physically or mentally disabled

previously known as disability living allowance

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2
Q

what is statutory sick pay?

A

for employees unable to work due to sickness
paid for up to a max of 28 weeks

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3
Q

what is employment and support allowance?

A

support claimed by those not entitled to statutory sick pay - i.e. if they are self employed or when SSP has ended

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4
Q

what age is state pension?

A

66 currently
will rise to 67 years old between 2026-2028

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5
Q

what is bereavement support payment?

A

lump sump followed by 18 monthly payments
received when spouse passes away
spouse must be under pension age
must be claimed within 3 months of passing away to receive full amount

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6
Q

which schedule of drugs are controlled drugs?

A

schedule 2 and 3

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7
Q

what are examples of schedule 2 drugs?

A

morphine, diamorphine, pethidine, oxycodone, morphine

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8
Q

what are examples of schedule 3 drugs?

A

buprenodphone, midazolam, gabapentin, pregabalin

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9
Q

how long are prescriptions for controlled drugs valid?

A

28 days

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10
Q

how should a prescription be written for controlled drugs and what MUST be present on the prescription for it to be considered valid?

A

stating the total quantity required in figures and words

name and address of patient
name, signature, and address of prescriber, and the current date

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11
Q

what information should be sent out to insurers requesting information regarding patient health records?

A

photocopies, originals or print outs of full medical records ARE NOT ACCEPTED.

The full record is NOT necessary and will include information that is not relevant to the insurer. This is likely to also breach data protection laws. Only include a written report that summarises information needed.

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12
Q

how many working days do doctors have to respond to insurance requesting information about a patient?

A

20 days

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13
Q

do patients have the right to see insurance report information before sent to the insurer?

A

yes - doctors should check with patients if they wish to see the report before it is sent out

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14
Q

can doctors comply with applicants request to omit relevant information from insurance reports?

A

doctors cannot comply with applicants or insured peoples requests to leave out relevant information from reports. If an applicant or an insured person refuses to give permission for certain relevant information to be included, the doctor should indicate to the insurance company that he or she cannot write a report, taking care not to reveal any information the applicant or insured person did not want revealed.

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15
Q

how long can a fit note be issued for?

A

maximum 3 months for all patients who have been ill for more than 7 days during the first 6 months of the illness

once someone has been ill for > 6 months, fit notes can be issued indefinitely

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16
Q

are telephone consultations accepted for fitness to work assessments?

A

yes

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17
Q

when can fit notes be issued?

A

on the day that you assessed the patient
you can back date a sick note BUT NOT FORWARD DATE IT
after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered health care professional

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18
Q

what are the 4 tick boxes on a fit note which may represent common approaches to aid return to work?

A

a phased return to work
altered hours
amended duties
workplace adaptations

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19
Q

what is a SC1 form?

A

self certification form for patients not eligible to claim statutory pay - i.e. if self-employed

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20
Q

what is a SC2 form?

A

self certification form for patients eligible to claim statutory sick pay

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21
Q

how quickly can you fly after an uncomplicated MI?

A

7-10 days

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22
Q

how quickly can you fly after a complicated MI?

A

4-6 weeks

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23
Q

how quickly can you fly after CABG?

A

10-14 days

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24
Q

how quickly can you fly after stroke?

A

patients advised to wait 10 days following an event, although if stable may be able to fly within 3 days

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25
what is the flight advice re pneumothorax?
may travel 2 weeks after successful drainage if no residual air, or 1 week post CXR if well
26
what are the flight rules re pregnancy?
most airlines state unable to fly after 36 weeks if single pregnancy or 32 weeks if twin pregnancy
27
what are the flight rules re after abdominal surgery?
10 days
28
what are the flight rules re laparoscopic surgery?
24 hours
29
what are the flight rules re after application of a plaster cast?
wait 48 hours for long flights 24 hours if flight < 2 hours
30
which body do GP surgeries need to be registered with in order to comply with the data protection act?
the information commissioners office
31
do patients have the right to correct factually incorrect information about them in the record?
yes
32
how often is universal credit recieved?
monthly
33
what are the requirements to receive universal credit?
live in the UK aged over 18 years earn a low income or out of work have LESS THAN £16,000 collectively in savings are below the age of receiving state pension
34
what would entitle someone to receive extra payments of universal credit?
up to 2 children , either of them having a disability caring for a severely disable person if needs universal credit for housing costs
35
what is the age of consent in the UK for medical decisions?
at 16 years of age or older, a young person can be treated as an adult and can be presumed to have capacity to decide under 16 years - gillick competence
36
what is the age of consent for sexual intercourse in the UK?
age of consent is 13 years - with fraser competence - re issue of contraception under the age of 12 - considered to be statutory rape
37
what is clinical governance?
'the system through which NHS organisations are accountable for continuously improving the quality of their services and safeguarding high standards of care, by creating an environment in which clinical excellence will flourish'
38
what are the 6 elements of clinical governance?
education and training clinical audit clinical effectiveness research and development risk management openness
39
list some notifiable deaths, where the death should be referred to the coroner?
unexpected or sudden deaths when the doctor has not seen them within 28 days before the death if a death occurs within 24 hours of hospital admission accidents or injuries suicide industrial injury or disease (asbestosis) deaths occurring as a result of ill treatment, starvation or neglect the death occurred during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic poisoning, including taking illicit drugs stillbirths - if there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive prisoner or people in police custody service disability pensioners
40
what is carers credit?
Carer's Credit is a UK government scheme designed to help carers maintain their National Insurance (NI) record, which can affect their entitlement to the State Pension. It provides NI credits to those who are caring for someone for at least 20 hours per week and are not receiving any other benefits that provide NI credits, such as Carer's Allowance. These credits help fill gaps in the carer's NI record, which may occur due to reduced working hours or stopping work altogether to care for someone.
41
what is carers allowance?
weekly payment made by the UK government to eligible individuals who care for someone for at least 35 hours a week and meet other eligibility criteria
42
what are the two components of PIP assessments?
daily living component and mobility component - each allocated separately depending on your needs in that area each of these components have a "standard" and "enhanced" levels depending on the level of need
43
what is PIP?
benefit to help with the extra cost caused by long term illness or disability
44
what ages are eligible for PIP?
16 to 64 years
45
what are the conditions of the PIP?
16 to 64 years condition must lead to difficulties in daily living or mobility must have been happening for 3 months, and expect them to last for at least 9 months (unless terminally ill - then not needed to wait for 3 months)
46
what is attendance allowance?
tax free allowance for people aged 65 years or over who claim they need help with their personal care - usually need help for > 6 months
47
what is the SR1 form?
special rules form - used to provide information about a patients terminal illness when applying for benefits
48
how quickly must a SR1 form be completed?
within 28 days of the date that the healthcare professional first believes the patient meets criteria for the special rules
49
which hospital treatment is free of charge for anyone no matter residency in the UK?
contraception AE treatment - excludes emergency treatment given anywhere else in the hospital compulsory psychaitric treatment treatment for certain communicable disease - TB, malaria, meningitis, HIV
50
is it a requirement for every NHS organisation to have a caldicott garudian?
yes
51
in what situations can old age or frailty be the sole cause of death?
If the patient is at least 80 years old and... That you have personally cared for the deceased over a long period (years, or many months) You have observed a gradual decline in your patient's general health and functioning You are not aware of any identifiable disease or injury that contributed to the death (this may not have been diagnosed) You are certain that there is no other reason that the death should be reported to the procurator fiscal
52
how often does revalidation happen?
every 5 years
53
what is revalidation?
process through which every doctor in the UK renews fitness to hold medical license and fitness to be on speciality (GP) register
54
how many learning credits are required per year for annual appraisal?
at least 50 learning credits
55
how long must patients with schizophrenia be stable before they can drive?
inform DVLA stable for 3 months
56
what is widowed parents allowance?
payable to a parent whose husband or wife has died
57
what is the criteria of eligibility for widowed parents allowance?
surviving partner is bringing up child < 19 years and receiving child benefit decreased partner had made adequate national insurance contributions woman was expecting late husbands baby
58
who is not eligible for widowed parents allowance?
if parents are divorced if the surviving parent remarries
59
on a death certificate - what is 1a/b/c?
1a - direct cause of death 1b + c - underlying causes
60
which controlled drugs should be kept on a register in the practice?
schedule 2
61
what are the requirements of this register?
must be bound rather than loose leaved. Computerised records are acceptable as long as they are secure and auditable each drug should have its own individual section entries should be chronological and made in indelible ink the following information should be recorded when receiving CDs: date, name and address of the supplier, quantity received, name, form and strength the following information should be recorded when supplying CDs (either to patients or practitioners): date, name and address of the person receiving the CD, person who prescribed or ordered the CD, quantity supplied, name, form and strength must be kept for a minimum of 2 years after the date of the last entry
62
who must LPA decision be registered with before it can be used?
Office of the public garden
63
who is exempt from paying for prescriptions?
Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year are entitled to free prescriptions after the issuing of a prescription exemption certificate. Patients who have certain chronic medical conditions children < 16, or 16-18 in full time education aged 60 or over if pt recieves jobseekers allowance or income support if has prescription exemption certificate
64
what is a pre-payment certificate?
Pre-payment certificates (PPC) are for patients not entitled to free prescriptions but who receive frequent prescriptions. They are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year
65
what conditions allow a patient to have a prescription exemption certificate?
hypoparathyroidism hypoadrenalism for which specific substitution therapy is essential (e.g. Addison's Disease) diabetes insipidus and other forms of hypopituitarism diabetes mellitus except where treatment is by diet alone myasthenia gravis hypothyroidism requiring thyroid hormone replacement epilepsy requiring continuous anti-convulsive therapy a permanent fistula requiring continuous surgical dressing or requiring an appliance undergoing treatment for cancer. This includes treatment for the effects of cancer or for the effects of cancer treatments
66
what is the personal medical services contract?
The Personal Medical Services (PMS) contract is a locally agreed and managed contract. The original aims of PMS were: to give greater freedom for GP's to address patients needs to encourage flexible and innovative ways of working to tackle under doctored areas
67
what is the prescription exemption certificate also known as
FP92A
68
who should be notified if a patient is using methadone?
national drug treatment monitoring system - but only if the patient consents
69
what is a MATB1 form?
form completed to allow a pregnant woman to claim statutory maternity pay
70
what are the 4 domains of the good medical practice?
Domain 1: Knowledge, skills and performance Domain 2: Safety and quality Domain 3: Communication, partnership and teamwork Domain 4: Maintaining trust
71
what is an SR1 form?
form completed by any healthcare professional caring for the patient if life expectancy is less than 12 months - this expedites the PIP or AA claims
72
what is the criteria for carers allowance?
Carers do not have to be related or live with the person they care for The carer must be aged 16 years or over, and spend at least 35 hours per week caring for a person The ill or disabled person must be in receipt of either Attendance Allowance or Disability Living Allowance The carer must have been living in England, Scotland or Wales for at least 2 of the last 3 years prior to applying
73
What is the criteria for sensorineural hearing loss experienced that would entitle patients to claim industrial disablement beneift
Sensorineural hearing loss amounting to at least 50 dB in each ear The average of losses at 1, 2 and 3 kHz frequencies (main speech frequencies) Owing in the case of at least one ear to occupational noise
74

AKT revision (25 decks)

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