AG Test Review Flashcards
(134 cards)
1
Q
In the event one engine driven AV generator fails, the ___
A
load of the failed generator automatically transfers to the operating generator
2
Q
Which of the following switches is located on the UFC? BRT ADJ SYM DATA
A
DATA
3
Q
Which HOTAS switch can be used to increment or decrement the EGI steer point, when the HUD is SOI
A
DMS
4
Q
If the right hydraulic system fails, the following systems will be inoperative
A
Speed Brakes
Slats
Slipway Door (norm ops)
Air Refueling nozzle latch rollers
5
Q
What symbol is used to display the current steerpoint when it is not the SPI and is more than 60 degrees outside HUD FOV
A
Destination index (Tadpole)
6
Q
Which database waypoints can only be entered into the CDU via a DTC
A
Navigation (51 through 2050)
7
Q
If the Enhanced Attitude Control (EAC) switch will not stay in the ARM position, which of the following systems will be inoperative? Autopilot & PAC SAS and anti-skid CCIP and GCAS HARS and EGI
A
Autopilot and PAC
8
Q
With the left hydraulic system failed and the right hydraulic system operative, the emergency brake system has ___
A
The same capabilities as normal brakes without anti-skid
9
Q
Fuel in the main tanks will not transfer using the tank gate switch if the fuel in each main tank is below ___ pounds
A
1,300 pounds
10
Q
The A-10C has EGI data entry scratch pads in which of the following cockpit hardware components?
A
CDU, MFCD, and HUD
11
Q
In which of the following HUD modes could a correct HUD altitude reading differ significantly from an equally valid altitude reading on the cockpit marometric altimeter?
A
CCIP, CCRP, GUNS
12
Q
The L or R MAIN FUEL LOW light indicates fuel quantity in the affected tank is approximately ___ pounds
A
500 pounds
13
Q
Which of the following is NOT and A-10C system Sensor of Interest (SOI) MAV HUD TAD TISL
A
Target Identification Set Laser (TISL)
14
Q
Which OSBs are reserved for MFCD page selections
A
12-15
15
Q
Which of the following indications means that the throttle no longer has to be held against the aft OFF stop on shutdown?
A
Fuel has drained
RPM below 5% and ITT below 200*C
16
Q
Which of the following switch action resets the cursor to the middle of the TAD display
A
CHINA HAT AFT / Short
17
Q
The APU provides ____
A
Bleed Air
Electrical Power
Hydraulics (Maint only)
(All of the above)
18
Q
Which MFCD control is used to control the brightness of the symbols displayed in the MFCD?
A
SYM rocker
19
Q
Which of the following is correct with respect to the temperature pressure control switch (labeled NORM, RAM, DUMP) when the main air supply switch is in SUPPLY?
A
In NORM, Conditioned air and cabin pressurization are available
20
Q
The engine core speed indicators are ___
A
Independent of the aircraft electrical system except for instrument lighting purposes
21
Q
Following an unsuccessful APU start attempt, wait ___
A
1 min for the APU to stop rotating and drain fuel before attempting another start
22
Q
SOI is a design concept to share the multi-tasked switches and buttons on the throttle and in an orderly manner (T/F)
A
True
23
Q
Available rudder authority changes from +/-8 to +/-25 degrees at what airspeed?
A
240 KIAS
24
Q
Mark waypoint coordinates can be modified in-flight by ___
A
First copying the Mark WPT into the mission waypoint database and then entering the modified coordinates
25
___ and ___ control and forces are the same with one or both hydraulic systems operating
Pitch and Roll
26
The Instrument Inverter Switch
in OFF shuts off AC power to the AC essential bus from all sources
27
The SOI border and "NOT SOI" indications only appear on pages that are SOI capable (T/F)
True
28
Flight control jams that are NOT associated with a jam indicator light ___
Cannot be overcome by disengaging a flight control path
29
With more than one engine fire handle pulled, the fire extinguishing agent will ___
discharge to all areas selected
30
Following and engine failure on takeoff (core RPM below 56%), if the throttle of the bad engine is retarded to IDLE, the ___
ENG START CYCLE light will come on and thrust of the good engine will be reduced
31
The normal range for hydraulic pressure is ___ PSI
2800-3350
32
During engine start, the start cycle light should automatically go out within approximately __ seconds after reaching ___ percent core RPM
10 seconds, 56%
33
A complete EGI INS alignment is indicated by a ___
Flashing INS NAV RDY
34
```
The TAD provides a plan-view representation of the current tactical situation to aid SA. Which of the following symbols is no included on the TAD display?
SPI
Anchor Point/Bullseye
Maverick Diamond
Current Steerpoint
```
Maverick Diamond
35
The digital readout of the fuel quantity indicator is a continuous display of ___
Internal and external fuel
36
Selecting the forward position of the Master Exterior Lights (pinky) switch results in which of the following?
Dim steady position lights
37
```
Which of the following HOTAS switches/buttons is located on the right throttle?
TMS
DMS
Coolie
Master Mode Control
```
Coolie
38
What visual confirmation is displayed as long as an OSB is depressed?
A magenta container
39
ITT normal range is ___ degrees
275-865
40
The SPI is defined as the point in ___-dimensional space
3
41
What is the "brain" of the air-refueling system?
Signal Amplifier
42
Rapid fuel transfer between tanks is caused by ___
Defuel Valve failed in the open position
43
The current TAD range scale is displayed in the upper right corner of the display indicating the radius of the outer ring. It may be increased (zoom out) by ___
DMS aft /short
44
Which of the following is true of the yaw control system
Rudder pedal authority should be sufficient to override a single-channel SAS induced rudder displacement (hard-over rudder)
45
Where is the LAAP button located?
Front of the left throttle
46
Following an engine or single hydraulic failure, ___
Engage operable Yaw channel if yaw trim and turn coordinate are desired
(APU on)
(crossfeed)
47
Which of the following is true of the L or R ELEV and L or R AIL jam indicator lights?
The lights will come on for at least 3-5 seconds when the pilot applies 50-65 pounds of stick force
48
Which cockpit lights only come on at full intensity?
Emergency Flood Lights
49
The signal lights lamp test button will test ___
Both AC and DC lights
50
The L or R ENG HOT caution light will come on if the ITT exceeds ___ degrees
880*C
51
The L-R TNKS UNEQUAL caution light comes on when there is an imbalance of ___ pounds between the main fuel tanks
750 +/- 250 pounds
52
Which of the following is true of the IGN position of the engine operate switches?
Momentary selection of IGN provides 30 seconds of ignition regardless of throttle position
53
When the Rotary Selector Switch on the Intercom Control Panel is in the VHF position moving the MIC switch ___ permits keying of the radio transmitter associated with the forward radio control head on the left console
Forward
54
What is the difference between warnings which appear in the middle of the MFCD compared to those that appear at the bottom
Warnings at the bottom may be acknowledged by the pilot
55
During fuel quantity test, what should the indicator show?
6,000 +/- 400 in total
| 3,000 +/- 300 on the pointers
56
An ITT indication above ___ degrees C with core RPM below ___% indicates an engine post shutdown overtemp
540*C and 5%
57
The air turbine starter requires 60 seconds between cycles and can motor the engine for ___ minutes followed by a ___ minute rest period
2 minutes motor and 5 minutes rest
58
Which of the following is correct when dealing with a post shutdown core overtemp as indicated by high ITT/low core RPM and no fire light?
Extinguishing agent will not put out an engine core overtemp
59
With more than one fire handle pulled, the fire extinguishing agent will ___
Discharge to all areas selected
60
To ensure the aircraft CG remains within limits, the ___ tank should not exceed the ___ tank by more than 1,000 pounds
Left Main shouldn't exceed the Right Main
61
Which of the following has a special case for SOI?
AIM-9
62
An erect spin can be confirmed by the turn needle pegged with airspeed at or below ___ KIAS and AOA consistently above ___ units and usually pegged
120 KIAS and 25 AOA
63
What is included in the A-10C Pilot-Vehicle Interface
HOTAS
MFCD
UFC
(all of the above)
64
To change teh ARC-210 radio to FM freq 34.0 you would have to type in ___ to the scratchpad prior to hitting the UFC COM button
034
65
```
Which of the following UFC switches in only used in conjunction with the HUD?
ENT
DATA rocker
DEPR rocker
STPT rocker
```
DEPR
66
Which of the following statements is true concerning automatic synchronization and the SYN-IND annunciator on the HARS control panel?
Automatic synchronization takes place and whenever the SLAVE-DG mode selector is switched from DG to SLAVE mode
67
A battery failure caused by thermal runaway or internal short will be indicated to the pilot by ___
A popped converter circuit breaker along with loss of caution/warning lights and communications
68
A characteristic of stalls below mach 0.6 is ___
A post-stall buffet
69
When modifying an existing TAD profile, if the TAD profile is cycled or the TAD Profile Control Page is exited before depressing SAVE, all changes are lost (T/F)
True
70
Unlike the SPI Locator Line, in the HUD, the Hookship Locator Line is always connected to the TVV (T/F)
True
71
Which of the following is true?
- Pitch trim is only available if the pitch SAS is engaged
- Aileron trim is only available if the roll SAS is engaged
- Yaw trim is only available if at least one SAS channel is engaged
- The pitch SAS automatically compensates for gear, flaps, and speedbrake extension
Yaw trim is only available if at least one yaw SAS channel is engaged
72
Which of the following is true of yaw control in the A-10?
Loss of one hydraulic system increases rudder pedal force requirements
73
When operating in Primary Control Mode, changes to mode 1 and mode 3/A squawks are accomplished on the ___
IFF control page(s) on either MFCD
74
When flying an emergency landing pattern and prior to establishing the landing configuration, maintain a minimum airspeed of ___ KIAS and, when possible, ___ feet AGL until beginning descent on final approach
200 KIAS and 2,000' AGL
75
Which of the following EGI navigation modes would tend to show the most geographical drift over a given period of time?
INS
76
Pulling out a fire handle ___
Shuts off fuel and arms the fire extinguishing system to that system
77
Two hydraulic pressure lights, L HYD PRESS and R HYD, on the caution panel will come on if the pressure in the respective system drops below ___ psi
900 +/- 100
78
If a manual reversion approach/landing is necessary, ___
Fly a shallow approach, fly the aircraft onto the runway, and do not use pitch trim to flare the aircraft
79
What symbol is used to display the current steerpoint when it is not the SPI and is more than 60 degrees outside the HUD FOV?
Destination Index (tadpole)
80
What must be done if using the T/O Trim button?
Pitch/roll trim override switch must be in NORM and the yaw trim knob must be in the neutral detent
81
In the event one engine driven AC generator fails, the ___
load of the failed generator automatically transfers to the operating generator
82
A bleed air leak or overheat in the environmental system precooler may be indicated by on the of following:
BLEED AIR LEAK caution light on
SERVICE AIR HOT caution light on
Unexplained loss of environment system air
(All of the above)
83
Which of the following is energized through the battery bus and only requires the external battery switch turned ON?
Canopy and Ladder Door
84
As a backup source of electrical power while airborne, the APU generator is capable of providing AC power for ___ indefinitely.
Flight-essential equipment (electrical loads minimized)
85
The master volume control on the Intercom Control Panel adjusts the volume level of ___
all audio inputs simultaneously
86
What is true about the roll control system?
If one hydraulic system is lost, both ailerons will be powered by the operable hydraulic system
87
Following an intentional (training) transition to manual reversion, if one or both hydraulic pressure gauges fail(s) to drop below 250 psi,
Immediately return to normal flight control mode
88
With the landing gear down and the landing gear circuit breaker open, ___, ___, and ___ will NOT be available.
Normal brakes, NWS, and Anti-Skid
89
Which of the following conditions would prevent the anti-collision lights switch from staying engaged in the ON position?
Master exterior light (Pinky) switch centered
90
Failure to place the flight control mode switch to MAN REVERSION following a dual hydraulic failure results in ___
essentially no roll control
91
A positive sign of oil pump driveshaft failure and impending engine failure within 1 to 3 minutes is simultaneous loss of ___ and ___ indications
Core RPM and Oil Pressure
92
In a dual hydraulic failure, the stick will essentially lock in roll. Partial roll control will be available approximately ___ seconds after selecting MAN REVERSION
4 seconds
93
When programming a manual frequency into a preset channel on the AN/ARC-186(V) VHF radio control head, the frequency control/emergency select knob must be set to ___
MAN
94
If two-channel pitch SAS engagement CANNOT be maintained or an undesireable transient is experienced on engagement, ___
Leave pitch SAS off
95
Pulling the auxiliary landing gear extension handle accomplishes which of the following?
Directs right hydraulic pressure (if avail) or accumulator pressure to release the gear uplocks
96
During a single engine approach/landing, the flight manual recommends a relatively ___ approach and that the crosswind be from the ___ engine side if possible
Steep (3-degree) and wind from the operative side
97
If the boost pump of a full wing tank fails, its fuel should eventually gravity feed to the associated main tank once the fuel in the main tank drops below ___
600 pounds
98
Flight tests have shown a significantly higher rudder force is required to maintain controlled flight following the failure of the ___
right engine, as opposed to the left engine
99
During engine start, the ENG START CYCLE light will go off withing approximately ___ seconds after reaching ___ RPM, indicating the ATS valve has closed
10 seconds after reaching 56% RPM
100
Which of the following occurs with the throttle at IDLE and core RPM below the normal operating range?
The ATS valve opens and the ENG START CYCLE light comes on
101
External tanks, when selected, will not feed unless ___
Bleed air is available
102
During an APU or engine assisted airstart, ___
Cool the engine to below 150 degrees ITT if altitude permits
103
Following a "Q" sensor retraction, flaps will automatically re-extend when airspeed is reduced below approx ___ KIAS
190
| retract 185-210
104
When the EMERGENCY BRAKE HANDLE is pulled out, the ___
Right hydraulic system (or emergency accumulator) supplies pressure for braking
105
If the DISCONNECT status light remains on after air refueling, what will reset the system?
Pressing the air refuel system disconnect/reset button
106
What is indicated when the HARS caution light comes on?
a HARS malfunction has occured
107
When loading frequencies into preset channels, to which setting should the ARC-164 UHF radio MNL-PRESET-GRD switch be set?
PRESET
108
How many presets does the ARC-164 have?
20
109
In the ARC-186 VHF Radio, DF (homing) mode, where is the steering information to the transmitting FM station shown?
ADI pitch and bank steering bars
110
On startup, what will automatically be the operating heading and attitude reference?
HARS
111
the ARC-210 has how many presets?
25
112
In the ARC-164 UHF Radio ADF (homing) mode, relative bearing to the transmitting station is shown on the ___
HSI number 1 bearing pointer
113
Which of the following is required for good DME reading on the air-to-air TACAN?
channel separation of 63 channel between cooperating aircraft
114
If the ARC-186 VHF radio is set to EMER FM, what frequency is used?
40.5 MHz
115
What modes can be set on the IFF control panel in the cockpit?
1 and 3/A
116
A mode 4 Caution Light indicates ___
Mode 4 is not replying to interrogation
117
With the OMS set to TR+G, when the ARC-210 is tuned to 125.1 MGz, the guard receiver will be tuned to ___ MHz
121.5
118
How do you transmit on the ARC-164 UHF radio?
Mic switch DOWN
119
With the SLAVE - DG switch in DG position, ___
The HSI shows basic gyroscopic heading
120
Which of the following switch-indicators can be concurrently selected on the NMSP?
TCN and ILS
121
The REPLY light indicates the IFF/SIF is correctly responding to a Mode ___ interrogatoin
4
122
Where is the TACAN bearing information displayed?
HSI #1 bearing pointer
123
Which of the following is correct concerning the TACAN air-to-air capability when working with another A-10?
Only DME can be shown
124
What would you do to monitor incoming audio from the ARC-186 VHF radio?
FM
fwd ARC-210: VHF
mid ARC-164: UHF
aft ARC-186: FM
125
When the ILS is selected, where is the glide path information displayed?
ADI
126
Depressing the ILS switch-indicator on the NMSP will cause the pitch and bank steering bars to provide ILS steering when the PTR switch is set to ___
ABLE
127
All of the signal lights are powered by DC busses (T/F)
False
128
In the center position, the Master Exterior Lights (pinky) switch turns off ___
All of the aircraft exterior lights
129
The formation lights switch effects the ___
Formation lights and nose illume lights
130
The signal lights dim whenever you move the ___
FLT INST light switch past the 9 o'clock position
131
The ___ lights switch controls the lighting of the Armament HUD control Panel
AUX
132
When the APU generator comes online, which lights are available?
All exterior and interior lights
133
When you first get into the cockpit [at night], the ___ lights will be available
Emergency Flood
134
The ___ lights switch controls the lighting of the HSI and ADI.
FLT INST
