AG Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

In the event one engine driven AV generator fails, the ___

A

load of the failed generator automatically transfers to the operating generator

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2
Q
Which of the following switches is located on the UFC?
BRT
ADJ
SYM
DATA
A

DATA

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3
Q

Which HOTAS switch can be used to increment or decrement the EGI steer point, when the HUD is SOI

A

DMS

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4
Q

If the right hydraulic system fails, the following systems will be inoperative

A

Speed Brakes
Slats
Slipway Door (norm ops)
Air Refueling nozzle latch rollers

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5
Q

What symbol is used to display the current steerpoint when it is not the SPI and is more than 60 degrees outside HUD FOV

A

Destination index (Tadpole)

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6
Q

Which database waypoints can only be entered into the CDU via a DTC

A

Navigation (51 through 2050)

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7
Q
If the Enhanced Attitude Control (EAC) switch will not stay in the ARM position, which of the following systems will be inoperative?
Autopilot & PAC
SAS and anti-skid
CCIP and GCAS
HARS and EGI
A

Autopilot and PAC

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8
Q

With the left hydraulic system failed and the right hydraulic system operative, the emergency brake system has ___

A

The same capabilities as normal brakes without anti-skid

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9
Q

Fuel in the main tanks will not transfer using the tank gate switch if the fuel in each main tank is below ___ pounds

A

1,300 pounds

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10
Q

The A-10C has EGI data entry scratch pads in which of the following cockpit hardware components?

A

CDU, MFCD, and HUD

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11
Q

In which of the following HUD modes could a correct HUD altitude reading differ significantly from an equally valid altitude reading on the cockpit marometric altimeter?

A

CCIP, CCRP, GUNS

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12
Q

The L or R MAIN FUEL LOW light indicates fuel quantity in the affected tank is approximately ___ pounds

A

500 pounds

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13
Q
Which of the following is NOT and A-10C system Sensor of Interest (SOI)
MAV
HUD
TAD
TISL
A

Target Identification Set Laser (TISL)

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14
Q

Which OSBs are reserved for MFCD page selections

A

12-15

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15
Q

Which of the following indications means that the throttle no longer has to be held against the aft OFF stop on shutdown?

A

Fuel has drained

RPM below 5% and ITT below 200*C

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16
Q

Which of the following switch action resets the cursor to the middle of the TAD display

A

CHINA HAT AFT / Short

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17
Q

The APU provides ____

A

Bleed Air
Electrical Power
Hydraulics (Maint only)
(All of the above)

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18
Q

Which MFCD control is used to control the brightness of the symbols displayed in the MFCD?

A

SYM rocker

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19
Q

Which of the following is correct with respect to the temperature pressure control switch (labeled NORM, RAM, DUMP) when the main air supply switch is in SUPPLY?

A

In NORM, Conditioned air and cabin pressurization are available

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20
Q

The engine core speed indicators are ___

A

Independent of the aircraft electrical system except for instrument lighting purposes

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21
Q

Following an unsuccessful APU start attempt, wait ___

A

1 min for the APU to stop rotating and drain fuel before attempting another start

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22
Q

SOI is a design concept to share the multi-tasked switches and buttons on the throttle and in an orderly manner (T/F)

A

True

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23
Q

Available rudder authority changes from +/-8 to +/-25 degrees at what airspeed?

A

240 KIAS

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24
Q

Mark waypoint coordinates can be modified in-flight by ___

A

First copying the Mark WPT into the mission waypoint database and then entering the modified coordinates

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25
Q

___ and ___ control and forces are the same with one or both hydraulic systems operating

A

Pitch and Roll

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26
Q

The Instrument Inverter Switch

A

in OFF shuts off AC power to the AC essential bus from all sources

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27
Q

The SOI border and “NOT SOI” indications only appear on pages that are SOI capable (T/F)

A

True

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28
Q

Flight control jams that are NOT associated with a jam indicator light ___

A

Cannot be overcome by disengaging a flight control path

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29
Q

With more than one engine fire handle pulled, the fire extinguishing agent will ___

A

discharge to all areas selected

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30
Q

Following and engine failure on takeoff (core RPM below 56%), if the throttle of the bad engine is retarded to IDLE, the ___

A

ENG START CYCLE light will come on and thrust of the good engine will be reduced

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31
Q

The normal range for hydraulic pressure is ___ PSI

A

2800-3350

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32
Q

During engine start, the start cycle light should automatically go out within approximately __ seconds after reaching ___ percent core RPM

A

10 seconds, 56%

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33
Q

A complete EGI INS alignment is indicated by a ___

A

Flashing INS NAV RDY

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34
Q
The TAD provides a plan-view representation of the current tactical situation to aid SA. Which of the following symbols is no included on the TAD display?
SPI
Anchor Point/Bullseye
Maverick Diamond
Current Steerpoint
A

Maverick Diamond

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35
Q

The digital readout of the fuel quantity indicator is a continuous display of ___

A

Internal and external fuel

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36
Q

Selecting the forward position of the Master Exterior Lights (pinky) switch results in which of the following?

A

Dim steady position lights

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37
Q
Which of the following HOTAS switches/buttons is located on the right throttle?
TMS
DMS
Coolie
Master Mode Control
A

Coolie

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38
Q

What visual confirmation is displayed as long as an OSB is depressed?

A

A magenta container

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39
Q

ITT normal range is ___ degrees

A

275-865

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40
Q

The SPI is defined as the point in ___-dimensional space

A

3

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41
Q

What is the “brain” of the air-refueling system?

A

Signal Amplifier

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42
Q

Rapid fuel transfer between tanks is caused by ___

A

Defuel Valve failed in the open position

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43
Q

The current TAD range scale is displayed in the upper right corner of the display indicating the radius of the outer ring. It may be increased (zoom out) by ___

A

DMS aft /short

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44
Q

Which of the following is true of the yaw control system

A

Rudder pedal authority should be sufficient to override a single-channel SAS induced rudder displacement (hard-over rudder)

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45
Q

Where is the LAAP button located?

A

Front of the left throttle

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46
Q

Following an engine or single hydraulic failure, ___

A

Engage operable Yaw channel if yaw trim and turn coordinate are desired
(APU on)
(crossfeed)

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47
Q

Which of the following is true of the L or R ELEV and L or R AIL jam indicator lights?

A

The lights will come on for at least 3-5 seconds when the pilot applies 50-65 pounds of stick force

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48
Q

Which cockpit lights only come on at full intensity?

A

Emergency Flood Lights

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49
Q

The signal lights lamp test button will test ___

A

Both AC and DC lights

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50
Q

The L or R ENG HOT caution light will come on if the ITT exceeds ___ degrees

A

880*C

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51
Q

The L-R TNKS UNEQUAL caution light comes on when there is an imbalance of ___ pounds between the main fuel tanks

A

750 +/- 250 pounds

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52
Q

Which of the following is true of the IGN position of the engine operate switches?

A

Momentary selection of IGN provides 30 seconds of ignition regardless of throttle position

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53
Q

When the Rotary Selector Switch on the Intercom Control Panel is in the VHF position moving the MIC switch ___ permits keying of the radio transmitter associated with the forward radio control head on the left console

A

Forward

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54
Q

What is the difference between warnings which appear in the middle of the MFCD compared to those that appear at the bottom

A

Warnings at the bottom may be acknowledged by the pilot

55
Q

During fuel quantity test, what should the indicator show?

A

6,000 +/- 400 in total

3,000 +/- 300 on the pointers

56
Q

An ITT indication above ___ degrees C with core RPM below ___% indicates an engine post shutdown overtemp

A

540*C and 5%

57
Q

The air turbine starter requires 60 seconds between cycles and can motor the engine for ___ minutes followed by a ___ minute rest period

A

2 minutes motor and 5 minutes rest

58
Q

Which of the following is correct when dealing with a post shutdown core overtemp as indicated by high ITT/low core RPM and no fire light?

A

Extinguishing agent will not put out an engine core overtemp

59
Q

With more than one fire handle pulled, the fire extinguishing agent will ___

A

Discharge to all areas selected

60
Q

To ensure the aircraft CG remains within limits, the ___ tank should not exceed the ___ tank by more than 1,000 pounds

A

Left Main shouldn’t exceed the Right Main

61
Q

Which of the following has a special case for SOI?

A

AIM-9

62
Q

An erect spin can be confirmed by the turn needle pegged with airspeed at or below ___ KIAS and AOA consistently above ___ units and usually pegged

A

120 KIAS and 25 AOA

63
Q

What is included in the A-10C Pilot-Vehicle Interface

A

HOTAS
MFCD
UFC
(all of the above)

64
Q

To change teh ARC-210 radio to FM freq 34.0 you would have to type in ___ to the scratchpad prior to hitting the UFC COM button

A

034

65
Q
Which of the following UFC switches in only used in conjunction with the HUD?
ENT
DATA rocker
DEPR rocker
STPT rocker
A

DEPR

66
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning automatic synchronization and the SYN-IND annunciator on the HARS control panel?

A

Automatic synchronization takes place and whenever the SLAVE-DG mode selector is switched from DG to SLAVE mode

67
Q

A battery failure caused by thermal runaway or internal short will be indicated to the pilot by ___

A

A popped converter circuit breaker along with loss of caution/warning lights and communications

68
Q

A characteristic of stalls below mach 0.6 is ___

A

A post-stall buffet

69
Q

When modifying an existing TAD profile, if the TAD profile is cycled or the TAD Profile Control Page is exited before depressing SAVE, all changes are lost (T/F)

A

True

70
Q

Unlike the SPI Locator Line, in the HUD, the Hookship Locator Line is always connected to the TVV (T/F)

A

True

71
Q

Which of the following is true?

  • Pitch trim is only available if the pitch SAS is engaged
  • Aileron trim is only available if the roll SAS is engaged
  • Yaw trim is only available if at least one SAS channel is engaged
  • The pitch SAS automatically compensates for gear, flaps, and speedbrake extension
A

Yaw trim is only available if at least one yaw SAS channel is engaged

72
Q

Which of the following is true of yaw control in the A-10?

A

Loss of one hydraulic system increases rudder pedal force requirements

73
Q

When operating in Primary Control Mode, changes to mode 1 and mode 3/A squawks are accomplished on the ___

A

IFF control page(s) on either MFCD

74
Q

When flying an emergency landing pattern and prior to establishing the landing configuration, maintain a minimum airspeed of ___ KIAS and, when possible, ___ feet AGL until beginning descent on final approach

A

200 KIAS and 2,000’ AGL

75
Q

Which of the following EGI navigation modes would tend to show the most geographical drift over a given period of time?

A

INS

76
Q

Pulling out a fire handle ___

A

Shuts off fuel and arms the fire extinguishing system to that system

77
Q

Two hydraulic pressure lights, L HYD PRESS and R HYD, on the caution panel will come on if the pressure in the respective system drops below ___ psi

A

900 +/- 100

78
Q

If a manual reversion approach/landing is necessary, ___

A

Fly a shallow approach, fly the aircraft onto the runway, and do not use pitch trim to flare the aircraft

79
Q

What symbol is used to display the current steerpoint when it is not the SPI and is more than 60 degrees outside the HUD FOV?

A

Destination Index (tadpole)

80
Q

What must be done if using the T/O Trim button?

A

Pitch/roll trim override switch must be in NORM and the yaw trim knob must be in the neutral detent

81
Q

In the event one engine driven AC generator fails, the ___

A

load of the failed generator automatically transfers to the operating generator

82
Q

A bleed air leak or overheat in the environmental system precooler may be indicated by on the of following:

A

BLEED AIR LEAK caution light on
SERVICE AIR HOT caution light on
Unexplained loss of environment system air
(All of the above)

83
Q

Which of the following is energized through the battery bus and only requires the external battery switch turned ON?

A

Canopy and Ladder Door

84
Q

As a backup source of electrical power while airborne, the APU generator is capable of providing AC power for ___ indefinitely.

A

Flight-essential equipment (electrical loads minimized)

85
Q

The master volume control on the Intercom Control Panel adjusts the volume level of ___

A

all audio inputs simultaneously

86
Q

What is true about the roll control system?

A

If one hydraulic system is lost, both ailerons will be powered by the operable hydraulic system

87
Q

Following an intentional (training) transition to manual reversion, if one or both hydraulic pressure gauges fail(s) to drop below 250 psi,

A

Immediately return to normal flight control mode

88
Q

With the landing gear down and the landing gear circuit breaker open, ___, ___, and ___ will NOT be available.

A

Normal brakes, NWS, and Anti-Skid

89
Q

Which of the following conditions would prevent the anti-collision lights switch from staying engaged in the ON position?

A

Master exterior light (Pinky) switch centered

90
Q

Failure to place the flight control mode switch to MAN REVERSION following a dual hydraulic failure results in ___

A

essentially no roll control

91
Q

A positive sign of oil pump driveshaft failure and impending engine failure within 1 to 3 minutes is simultaneous loss of ___ and ___ indications

A

Core RPM and Oil Pressure

92
Q

In a dual hydraulic failure, the stick will essentially lock in roll. Partial roll control will be available approximately ___ seconds after selecting MAN REVERSION

A

4 seconds

93
Q

When programming a manual frequency into a preset channel on the AN/ARC-186(V) VHF radio control head, the frequency control/emergency select knob must be set to ___

A

MAN

94
Q

If two-channel pitch SAS engagement CANNOT be maintained or an undesireable transient is experienced on engagement, ___

A

Leave pitch SAS off

95
Q

Pulling the auxiliary landing gear extension handle accomplishes which of the following?

A

Directs right hydraulic pressure (if avail) or accumulator pressure to release the gear uplocks

96
Q

During a single engine approach/landing, the flight manual recommends a relatively ___ approach and that the crosswind be from the ___ engine side if possible

A

Steep (3-degree) and wind from the operative side

97
Q

If the boost pump of a full wing tank fails, its fuel should eventually gravity feed to the associated main tank once the fuel in the main tank drops below ___

A

600 pounds

98
Q

Flight tests have shown a significantly higher rudder force is required to maintain controlled flight following the failure of the ___

A

right engine, as opposed to the left engine

99
Q

During engine start, the ENG START CYCLE light will go off withing approximately ___ seconds after reaching ___ RPM, indicating the ATS valve has closed

A

10 seconds after reaching 56% RPM

100
Q

Which of the following occurs with the throttle at IDLE and core RPM below the normal operating range?

A

The ATS valve opens and the ENG START CYCLE light comes on

101
Q

External tanks, when selected, will not feed unless ___

A

Bleed air is available

102
Q

During an APU or engine assisted airstart, ___

A

Cool the engine to below 150 degrees ITT if altitude permits

103
Q

Following a “Q” sensor retraction, flaps will automatically re-extend when airspeed is reduced below approx ___ KIAS

A

190

retract 185-210

104
Q

When the EMERGENCY BRAKE HANDLE is pulled out, the ___

A

Right hydraulic system (or emergency accumulator) supplies pressure for braking

105
Q

If the DISCONNECT status light remains on after air refueling, what will reset the system?

A

Pressing the air refuel system disconnect/reset button

106
Q

What is indicated when the HARS caution light comes on?

A

a HARS malfunction has occured

107
Q

When loading frequencies into preset channels, to which setting should the ARC-164 UHF radio MNL-PRESET-GRD switch be set?

A

PRESET

108
Q

How many presets does the ARC-164 have?

A

20

109
Q

In the ARC-186 VHF Radio, DF (homing) mode, where is the steering information to the transmitting FM station shown?

A

ADI pitch and bank steering bars

110
Q

On startup, what will automatically be the operating heading and attitude reference?

A

HARS

111
Q

the ARC-210 has how many presets?

A

25

112
Q

In the ARC-164 UHF Radio ADF (homing) mode, relative bearing to the transmitting station is shown on the ___

A

HSI number 1 bearing pointer

113
Q

Which of the following is required for good DME reading on the air-to-air TACAN?

A

channel separation of 63 channel between cooperating aircraft

114
Q

If the ARC-186 VHF radio is set to EMER FM, what frequency is used?

A

40.5 MHz

115
Q

What modes can be set on the IFF control panel in the cockpit?

A

1 and 3/A

116
Q

A mode 4 Caution Light indicates ___

A

Mode 4 is not replying to interrogation

117
Q

With the OMS set to TR+G, when the ARC-210 is tuned to 125.1 MGz, the guard receiver will be tuned to ___ MHz

A

121.5

118
Q

How do you transmit on the ARC-164 UHF radio?

A

Mic switch DOWN

119
Q

With the SLAVE - DG switch in DG position, ___

A

The HSI shows basic gyroscopic heading

120
Q

Which of the following switch-indicators can be concurrently selected on the NMSP?

A

TCN and ILS

121
Q

The REPLY light indicates the IFF/SIF is correctly responding to a Mode ___ interrogatoin

A

4

122
Q

Where is the TACAN bearing information displayed?

A

HSI #1 bearing pointer

123
Q

Which of the following is correct concerning the TACAN air-to-air capability when working with another A-10?

A

Only DME can be shown

124
Q

What would you do to monitor incoming audio from the ARC-186 VHF radio?

A

FM
fwd ARC-210: VHF
mid ARC-164: UHF
aft ARC-186: FM

125
Q

When the ILS is selected, where is the glide path information displayed?

A

ADI

126
Q

Depressing the ILS switch-indicator on the NMSP will cause the pitch and bank steering bars to provide ILS steering when the PTR switch is set to ___

A

ABLE

127
Q

All of the signal lights are powered by DC busses (T/F)

A

False

128
Q

In the center position, the Master Exterior Lights (pinky) switch turns off ___

A

All of the aircraft exterior lights

129
Q

The formation lights switch effects the ___

A

Formation lights and nose illume lights

130
Q

The signal lights dim whenever you move the ___

A

FLT INST light switch past the 9 o’clock position

131
Q

The ___ lights switch controls the lighting of the Armament HUD control Panel

A

AUX

132
Q

When the APU generator comes online, which lights are available?

A

All exterior and interior lights

133
Q

When you first get into the cockpit [at night], the ___ lights will be available

A

Emergency Flood

134
Q

The ___ lights switch controls the lighting of the HSI and ADI.

A

FLT INST