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Private Pilot License > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

What is the regulatory structure?

A
  • Aeronautics Act
  • The regulations (the CARs)
  • The standards (documents)
  • The advisor material
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2
Q

What is the Aeronautics Act?

A

An act of Parliament providing the basis for the regulations of aeronautics

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3
Q

What are regulations?

A

Rules of conduct made by the Cabinet (on the advice of the Minister of Transport or by the Minister him or herself)

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4
Q

What are standards?

A

The criteria and conditions of each regulation (the “how to”)

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5
Q

What is the advisory material?

A

The recommended procedures or guidance informationi n respect of a regulation or standard

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6
Q

Break down the following reference to its parts:

4 21.26 (6) (b) ii

A

Part - 4

Subpart - 21

Section - .26

Subsection - (6)

Paragraph - (b)

Subparagraph - ii

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7
Q

Explain what the second digit in a CARs reference represents

A

It represents the publication

405.06 - Regulation

425.06 - Standard

445.06 - Advisory

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8
Q

List the first 8 parts of the CAR

A

Part I - General

Part II - Identification, Registration, and Leasing of Aircraft

Part III - Aerodromes and Airports

Part IV - Personal Licensing and Training

Part V - Airworthiness

Part VI - General and Operating Flight Rules

Part VII -Commercial Air Services

Part VIII - Air Navigation Services

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9
Q

Which part of the CARs contains general rules applicable to all aircraft operations?

A

Part VI - General and Operating Flight Rules

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10
Q

Which airspace users do the CARs not apply to?

A

Military aircraft of Her Majesty

Military aircraft of a foreign country

Model aircraft

Rockets

Hovercraft

Wing-in-ground-effect machines

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11
Q

103.04 Record Keeping Summary states that aviaton documentation may be recorded vis-a-vis on which mediums?

A

Paper, electronic, microfiche

Can only be used if the records can be provided on paper upon request

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12
Q

According to 103.02 Inspection of Aircraft, Requests for Production of Documents and Prohibitions Summary, what must the aircraft owner make available for inspection?

A

The aircraft, aviation documents, technical records

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13
Q

What does 103.02 Inspection of Aircraft, Requests for Production of Documents and Prohibitions Summary state about aviation documents?

A

No person shall lend, mutilate, alter, or render illegible an aviation document

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14
Q

Which regulation states that where a Canadian aviation document has been suspended or cancelled, the person to whom it was issued shall return it to the Minister immediately after the effective date of the suspension or cancellation

A

103.03 Return of Canadian Aviation Documents

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15
Q

According to subsection 103.02(1) Administration and Compliance, what are the maximum fines for non compliance?

A

Individual $500

Corporation 2,500

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16
Q

How long must you wait if you fail a TC exam?

A

14 days(1st fail)

30 days(2nd fail)

60 days(3rd fail) (etc. up to 180 days)

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17
Q

According to 401.03 Requirement to Hold a Flight Crew Permit, License or Rating Summary, what must you have when you fly?

A

An appropriate and valid permit, license or rating and medical

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18
Q

What does 401.08(1) Personal Logs state you maintain a personal log of when you apply for, and hold a flight crew permit, license, or rating?

A

Experience accumulated in respect of the flight crew permit, licence or rating, and recency

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19
Q

Who are the only people allowed to make an entry in a personal log?

A

The holder of the log, or someone authorized by the holder of the log to make an entry in the log

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20
Q

What information should a personal log contain, according to 401.08(1) Personal Logs?

A

the holder’s name

the date of the flight

aircraft typeand registration mark

flight crew position

flight conditions(day, night, VFR, IFR)

departure and the place of arrival

all intermediate take-offs and landings

flight time

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21
Q

List the PPL requirements

A

Minimum age➔17years of age

Medical fitness➔Cat 1 or Cat 3

Knowledge➔40 hrs G.S, (min. 60% written) Experience➔45 hrs

(17hrs dual, 3hrs X/C, 5hrs instrument) + (12 hrs solo, 5 hrs X/C)

Skill➔P.P.L flight test

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22
Q

Explain the difference between class, type, and category

A

Class - aircraft have similar operating characteristics (land, sea, multi-land, etc.)

Type - specific makes or models of aircraft with similar performancecharacteristics (non-high performance, high performance)

Category - aircraft with similar designcharacteristics (balloon, aeroplane, helicopter, etc.)

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23
Q

Who is allowed to supervise flight training?

A

A holder of a flight instructor rating for that category of aircraft

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24
Q

Who conducts a flight test? Are other passengers allowed?

A

A flight examiner. Other passengers are not allowed

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25
Q

401.04 Flight Crew Members of A/C Registered in Contracting States Other Than Canada states that in order to fly in Canada, in an aircraft registered from a contracting state other than Canada, a person must hold and be able to produce:

A

a TC flight crew license(issued under this subpart); or a flight crew license issued under the laws of a Canadian contracting state

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26
Q

401.05(1a,b) state that you cannot act as P.I.C or Co-Pilot of an aircraft if the person has not flown in five years. What is the exception?

A

You have completed a flight review

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27
Q

401.05(2a) Recency Requirements states that no holder of a flight crew permit or license shall exercises the privileges of a license or permit unless they have completed recurrant training in ___ months.

A

24 months

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28
Q

According to 421.05(2a) Recency Requirements, what can count as Reccurant Training?

A

completion of a flight review

attendance at a TC aviation safety seminar

participation in a program designed to update pilot knowledge of human factors, weather, flight planning, navigation, CARs, rules and procedures

PPC or approved company training program

renewals, up-grades, written examsof a permit, license or rating

annual,self-paced TC Aviation Safety Newsletter

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29
Q

What requirements should be met prior to carrying a passanger, as per 401.05(2b) Recency Requirements?

A

within the six months preceding the flight, you must complete:

5 night or day take-offs and landings, if the flight is conducted wholly by day, or 5 night take-offs and landings, if the flight is conducted wholly or partly by night

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30
Q

How often must recurrent training be completed, even if flying regularly?

A

Every 2 years

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31
Q

True or False:

A holder of a PPL is able to act as a pilot for hire or reward

A

False, yet passengers can reimburse you for fuel, oil, and fees associated with flying

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32
Q

401.28 states that you may be reimbursed from an employer for costs incurred while flying under which circumstances?

A

You’re employed on a full-time basis by the employer for purposes other than flying, and you accept reimbursement for flying (employer’s business only) when the flying is incidental to the execution ofyour duties

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33
Q

What does 404.03 Requirement to Hold a Medical Certificate state about medical certificates?

A

No person shall exercise the privileges of a permit, licence or rating unless the person holds a valid medical certificate of a category that is appropriate for that permit, licence or rating

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34
Q

What category of medical certificate do commercial pilot license and airline transport pilot license holders require?

A

Category 1

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35
Q

What category of medical certificate do air traffic controllers and flight engineer license holders require?

A

Category 1 or 2

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36
Q

What category of medical license does a private pilot license holder require?

A

Category 1 or 3

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37
Q

What category of medical license does a recreational pilot permit holder or student pilot permit holder require?

A

Category 1, 3, or 4

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38
Q

What is the validity period of a PPL holder’s medical certificate?

A

Under 40 years old - 60 months

40 years old and older - 24 months

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39
Q

What are the 3 possible medical endorsings listed in 404.18 Permission to Continue to Exercise the Privileges of a Permit, License or Rating?

A

Fit

Fit, subject to any restriction

Unfit

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40
Q

Define aerodrome

A

Any area of land, water (including frozen surface) or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, equipped, or set apart for use (partially or fully) for the arrival, departure, movement or servicing of aircraft and includes any buildings, installations and equipments

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41
Q

What is a registered aerodrome? Are they subject to an ongoing inspection program?

A

An aerodrome listed in the supplement which is not certifiedas an airport. Registered aerodromes are not subject to an ongoing inspection program

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42
Q

Define airport

A

An aerodrome for which an airport certificate is issued, requiring the operator to maintain and operate the site in accordance with applicable Transport Canada standards

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43
Q

What is an aerodrome operator required to do if an aerodrome is permanently closed?

A

Remove all of the markers and markings installed at the aerodrome. Unservicable movement areas still require red flags or red cones

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44
Q

301.04 Markers and Markings states that if a runway (4,001’+) or part of a runway is closed for more than 24 hours, the operator of the aerodrome shall…

A

Place white “X”s at each end of the closed runway, and additional closed markings (or part thereof) located at intervals not exceeding 1000’

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45
Q

Where should closed markings be located on a runway 1501’ to 4000’ in length?

A

At each end of the closed runway or part thereof and an additional closed marking of the same dimensions shall be located at a point equidistant from the two markings

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46
Q

Where should closed markings be located on a runway up to 1500’?

A

At each end of the closed runway

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47
Q

What marking should be placed at each end of a closed taxiway?

A

A yellow “X”

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48
Q

List 4 requirements for a Wind Direction Indicator as stated in 301.06

A

Conspicuous colour or colours

In the shape of a truncated cone

Visible from an aircraft flying at an altitude of 1,000’ above the wind direction indicator

Iluminated at night

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49
Q

When does a wind direction indicator not need to be installed?

A

When the wind direction can be determined by factors like smoke movement in the air or wind lines on the water

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50
Q

State how a dry Transport Canada wind direction indicator will react to wind speeds of 6, 10, and 15+ knots

A
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51
Q

301.07 Lighting states that runways used at night must have parallel lines of fixed white lights that are visible from an aircraft in flight at a distance of at least __ nautical miles

A

Two

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52
Q

Describe the lighting set up for a runway used at night, including length, number of lights, and the positioning

A
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53
Q

Describe the lighting setup of a taxiway used at night

A

Two parallel lines of fixed blue lights or blue retro-reflective markers

The distance between adjacent lightsor markers in each line is not more than 200’

Where two taxiways intersect, two adjacent blue lights are placed at each side of the taxiway

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54
Q

When an aircraft parking area at an aerodrome is used at night, the operator of the aerodrome shall…

A

Indicate the boundary of the area with fixed blue lights or blue retro-reflective markers, placed at intervals not exceeding 200 feet, or with floodlighting

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55
Q

Describe how to activate type J and type K ARCAL

A

Type J - key the microphone 5 times in 5 seconds on the appropriate frequency

Type K - activate by keying the microphone 7 times initially on the appropriate frequency, then 3, 5 or 7 times within 5 seconds for low, medium or high intensities respectively

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56
Q

What does 301.08 Prohibitions state that an aircraft must have if it is to be parked in an active maneuvering area at night?

A

Operating wingtip, tail and anti-collision lights or is illuminated by lanterns suspended from the wingtips, tail and nose of the aircraft

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57
Q

What does 301.08 Prohibitions state that an aircraft must have if it is to be towed in an active maneuvering area at night?

A

Operating wingtip, tail and anti-collision lights or is illuminated by lights mounted on the towing vehicle and directed at the aircraft

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58
Q

Are unrestrained owned birds or other animals allowed at aerodromes?

A

No, except for the purpose of controlling other birds or animals at the aerodrome as permitted by the operator

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59
Q

In which three areas of an aerodrome are smoking and open flames prohibited, according to 301.09 Fire Prevention?

A

On an apron

On an aircraft loading bridge or on a gallery or balcony that is contiguous to or that overhangs an apron

In an area where smoking or the presence of an open flame is likely to create a fire hazard that could endanger persons or property

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60
Q

What is an exception to open flames and sparks listed in 401.09 Fire Prevention?

A

Maintenance/servicing operations on an apron that involve the use, production, or potential development of an open flame or spark where the operations are conducted in a manner that is not likely to create a fire hazard that could endanger persons or property

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61
Q

What is an exception to smoking listed in 401.09 Fire Prevention?

A

Smoking in an enclosed building or shelter located on an apron where such smoking is not likely to create a fire hazard that could endanger persons or property

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62
Q

How is cruising altitude for direction of flight determined in the Northern and Southern Domestic Airspace?

A

Northern Domestic Airspace - True Track

Southern Domestic Airspace - Magnetic Track

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63
Q

What is a Flight Information Region? How many is the CDA divided into?

A

An airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth, in which flight information service and alerting services are provided. CDA is divided into 8 FIRs

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64
Q

Describe the vertical sections of the CDA

A

Low Level Airspace - airspace below 18,000 feet ASL

High Level Airspace - airspace from 18,000 feet ASL and above

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65
Q

What is a controlled airspace?

A

Airspace within which Air Traffic Control service is provided

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66
Q

Define airspace structure

A

The physical dimensions of the elements into which the airspace is divided, such as Control Zones, Terminal Control Areas, Control Area Extensions and Airways

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67
Q

What are airways? How are they identified?

A

Controlled corridors of airspace between two stations

Identified with a single letter plus a number(G1 - golf 1, J500 - jet 500)

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68
Q

What are air routes? How are they identified?

A

Uncontrolled corridors of airspace between two stations

Identified with two letters plus a number(GG1 - golf golf 1, BR4 - bravo romeo 4)

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69
Q

Describe the distances and drift lines of different types of airways

A
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70
Q

Describe Class A airspace classification

A

From FL180 up to and including FL600

No VFR Permitted

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71
Q

Describe Class B airspace classification

A

Above 12,500 to below FL180

VFR permitted but only if you meet certain criteria

Controlled VFR (VFR operating under IFR procedures -except Wx) (Mapping Surveys, etc.)

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72
Q

Describe Class C airspace classification

A

Is not altitude related

VFR permitted but clearance required and only if you meet certain criteria

None in the Atlantic Region

73
Q

Describe Class D airspace classification

A

Is not altitude related

A mix of IFR/VFR traffic is likely

In our region, applies to Control Zones serviced by an ATC tower

Becomes class E if Control Tower closes

74
Q

Describe Class E airspace classification

A

Is not altitude related

A mix of IFR/VFR traffic is likely

In our region, normally class E control zone is also a designated MF area

Usually associated with a FSS

75
Q

Describe Class F airspace classification

A

Special use airspace (Advisory, Restricted areas)

Limitations are imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of activities happening in class F airspace

76
Q

Describe Class G airspace classification

A

Uncontrolled airspace

Applies to airspace outside of Control Zones and Terminal Control areas below 2200’ (south of Bathurst)

A mix of IFR/VFR traffic is possible

A - G (Ref: RAC 2.8)

77
Q

CAR 601.03 Transponder Airspace states that aircraft shall be equipped with a functioning transponder incorporating an automatic pressure reporting device (MODE C) when operating in the following airspace:

A

Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace that is classified as “Transponder Airspace” in the DAH

78
Q

What is required to fly VFR in Class B airspace?

A

A/C equipped with proper COMM, NAV, & Transponder Mode C

Continuous listening watch on Radio

Position Reports as required by ATC

A/C operated in VMC at all times.

79
Q

What sources can you refer to for information on airspace?

A

VFR Navigation Charts (VNC)

VFR Terminal Area Charts (VTA)

Low Level EnrouteCharts (LO Charts)

Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH TP1820)

Canada’s Airspace Poster (TP6010)

ATC/FSS

A.I.M.

80
Q

What does 602.01 Reckless or Negligent Operation of Aircraft state?

A

No person shall operate an aircraft in such a reckless or negligent manner as to endanger or be likely to endanger the life or property of any person

81
Q

602.02Fitness of Flight Crew Members states that no operator of an aircraft shall require any person to act as a flight crew member and no person shall act as a flight crew member, if that person:

A

Is, or will be, fatigued

Unfit to perform flight crew duties

82
Q

What rules are in place for aircraft crew members regarding alcohol and drug use?

A

No person shall act as a crew member of an aircraft within twelve hoursafter consuming an alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of alcohol, or while using any drug that impairs the person’s faculties in a way that can endanger the aircraft or other crew members

83
Q

What rules are in place for aircraft passengers regarding alcohol?

A

Alcohol cannot be consumed by passengers unless served by the aircraft operator. An exception is if there are reasonable grounds to believe serving alcohol to the passenger may put the aircraft at risk

84
Q

Is an aircraft operator permitted to allow intoxicated (drunk) passengers aboard the aircraft?

A

Only if the operator believes that the intoxicated person will not pose a risk to the aircraft or other crew

85
Q

Is the operator of an aircraft permitted to allow passengers under the influence of drugs aboard the aircraft?

A

Only if the passenger is supervised by an attendant and the drug was administered with medical authorization

86
Q

According to 602.05 Compliance With Instructions, who should passengers take instruction from? Who should the flight crew take instruction from?

A

Passengers shall comply with instructions given by crew members.

Crew members shall comply with instructions given by the pilot in command, or anyone authorized by the pilot in command

87
Q

When is smoking aboard an aircraft prohibited, as stated in 602.06 Smoking?

A

During take off an landing, in the lavatory, and when prohibited by the pilot in command

88
Q

602.07 Aircraft Operating Limitations states that no person shall operate an aircraft unless it is operated in accordance with the operating limitations. Where are the operating limitations indicated?

A

In the aircraft flight manual, set out in a approved document (S.O.P), indicated bymarkings or placards

89
Q

What does 602.08 say about the use of Portable Electronic Devices aboard an aircraft?

A

No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a portable electronic device on board an aircraft, where the device may impair the functioning of the aircraft’s systems or equipment

90
Q

According to 602.09 Fuelling with Engines Running, when is fuelling of the aircraft prohibited?

What are the exceptions?

A

When passengers are aboard, embarking, or disembarking the aircraft.

Exceptions are Airline, Commuter, and Private operator

91
Q

What conditions must be met to start the engine of an aircraft?

A

A pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft, and precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving

92
Q

What conditions must be met to leave the engine of an aircraft running?

A

A pilot’s seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft

Where no persons are on board the aircraft, precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving, and the aircraft is not left unattended

93
Q

Define critical surface

A

The wings, control surfaces, rotors, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers or any other stabilizing surface of an aircraft and, in the case of an aircraft that has rear-mounted engines, includes the upper surface of its fuselage

94
Q

What does 602.11 state about aircraft icing?

A

No person shall conduct or attempt to conduct a take-offin an aircraft that has frost, ice or snow adhering to any of its critical surfaces

Sight of ice on the aircraft must be reported to the PIC

Crew members and passengers must be notified if the aircraft is to be de-iced

95
Q

How is lift affected by aircraft icing?

A

Lift can be decreased by 30-40%

96
Q

What does 602.13 Take-offs, Approaches and Landings within Built-up Areas of Cities and Towns state? What are the exceptions?

A

No person shall conduct a take-off, approach or landing in an aircraft within a built-up area of a city or town, unless that take-off, approach or landing is conducted at an airport or a military aerodrome

Exceptions: the flight is conducted without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface; and the aircraft is operated for a police operation or to save a life

97
Q

What is the minimum altitude & horizontal distance allowed over a built-up area or over an open-air assembly of persons?

A

1,000’ above the highest obstacle located within a horizontal distance of 2,000’ from the A/C

In other circumstances: no distance less than 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure

98
Q

What are some examples of permissable low altitude flight?

A

police operation

saving human life

fire-fightingor air ambulance operations

fisheries Act or Coastal Fisheries Protection Act

national/provincial parks

flight inspection, aerial application or aerial inspection

aerial photography (air operator cert. required)

helicopter external load operations

flight training(flight instructor required)

99
Q

In the event of a potential collision, what must the PIC with the right of way do?

A

Take necessary action to avoid collision, and if required in emergency, give right of way to the other aircraft

100
Q

What are the blind spots created by the wing and fuselage?

A
101
Q

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the PIC of the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way, except in what situations?

A

Power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons

Airship shall give way to gliders and balloons

Glider shall give way to balloons

Power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft that are seen to be towing gliders or other objects or carrying a slung load.

102
Q

Where an aircraft is required to give way to another aircraft, the P.I.C of the first-mentioned aircraft shall not:

A

Pass over or under, orcross ahead of, the other aircraft unless at such a distance as will not create a risk of collision

103
Q

Where two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is a risk of collision, what should each PIC do?

A

Alter heading to the right

104
Q

Two aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing. Who has the right of way?

A

The aircraft at the lower altitude

105
Q

What does 602.21 Avoidance of Collision state?

A

No person shall operate an aircraft in such proximity to another aircraft as to create a risk of collision

106
Q

602.22Towing states that no person shall operate an aeroplane that is towing an object unless it is equipped with:

A

An approved tow hook and release control system

107
Q

Is the dropping of objects from aircraft permitted?

A

No

108
Q

602.24 Formation Flight states that no person shall operate an aircraft in formation with other aircraft. What are the exceptions?

A

Pre-arrangement between the P.I.C of each aircraft or where the flight is conducted within a control zone

109
Q

In what areas is parachuting from an aircraft prohibited?

A

In controlled airspace

Over or into a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons

110
Q

Where are aerobatic maneuvers prohibited?

A

Over a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons

In controlled airspace, except in accordance with a special flight operations certificate

When flight visibility is less than 3 miles

Below 2,000 feet AGL, except in accordance with a special flight operations certificate

111
Q

Aerobatic maneuvres are prohibited with passengers unless P.I.C has engaged in:

A

At least 10 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting of aerobatic maneuvres or 20 hours conducting aerobatic maneuvres; and at least 1 hour of conducting aerobatic maneuvres in the last 6 months

112
Q

ATC directs an instruction at you. How do you respond?

A

Comply and acknowledge the instruction

Read back is required

113
Q

After accepting an ATC clearance, your safety is at risk. What do you do?

A

Inform ATC ASAP of any deviations

114
Q

Is read back required for ATC clearances?

A

Only when requested

115
Q

What emergency equipment is required aboard a power-driven aircraft?

A

A checklist or placards

Current aeronautical charts

Hand-held fire extinguisher in the cockpit

Timepiece (indication of seconds)

Flashlight(“means of illumination” for night flying)

First aid kit

116
Q

Survival equipment for flights over land must include means for:

A

Starting a fire

Providing shelter

Providing or purifying water

Visually signaling distress

117
Q

What are the exceptions for having survival equipment on flights over land?

A

Operations within 25 nm of the aerodrome of departure provided you are capable of radio communication with a surface-based radio station for the duration of the flight

Operations in a geographical area where(and at a time of year when) the survival of the persons on board is not jeopardized

118
Q

What is required for an aircraft to be permitted to fly over 50nm away from shore?

A

A life preserver for each person on board

119
Q

Explain the difference between life preserver, personal floatation device, and individual floatation device

A

Life preserver - keeps head out of water

Personal floatation device - keeps body out of water

Individual floatation device - something to hold onto to keep afloat in the water

120
Q

When is an aircraft required to have a liferaft on board?

A

S/E aeroplane, or a M/E aeroplane that is unable to maintain flight with any engine failed when operating at more than 100 Nm, or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site

M/E aeroplane that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than 200 NM, or the distance that can be covered in 60 minutesof flightat the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site

121
Q

What does 602.73 Requirement to file a Flight Plan or Flight Itinerary state about IFR and VFR flights?

A

All IFR are required to file (with some exceptions)

All VFR aircraft or required to file a flight planoritinerary when beyond 25 NMs from the departure point

All VFR and IFR are required to file a flight plan, in any case, for a trans-boarder flight(in or outside 25 NMs)

122
Q

What do you do if you decide to change your destination, route, or duration mid flight?

A

Flight plan - get clearance from ATC in controlled airspace

Flight iterinary - inform ATC, FSS or CARS (or responsible person) ASAP in controlled or uncontrolled airspace.

123
Q

How long do VFR aircraft have to close their flight plan and flight itinerary?

A

Flight plan - 1 hour

Flight itinerary - 24 hours

124
Q

Do IFR aircraft have to close when landing at a destination with an ATC or FSS?

A

No, unless requested

125
Q

What are the regulations regarding carry on baggage?

A

Must be stowed in a bin, compartment, rack or other location that is certified in accordance with the aircraft type and restrained to prevent them from shifting during movement of the aircraft

126
Q

How much of a fuel reserve should VFR aircraft have?

A

Day flights - to destination + a 30 minute reserve

Night flights - to destination + a 45 minute reserve

127
Q

What must passengers be briefed on before take-off, according to 602.89?

A

Emergency and normal exits

Safety belts, shoulder harnesses and restraint devices

The positioning of seats and the securing of seat backsand chair tables

The stowage of carry-on baggage

Any prohibition against smoking

Life preservers, individual flotation devices or personal flotation devices

First aid kits and survival equipment

ELT

Life raft

128
Q

As stated in 602.96, before operating an aircraft at an aerodrome, what must the pilot be sure of?

A

No potential of collision with another aircraft or vehicle

Aerodrome is suitable for the intended operation

129
Q

Unless otherwise directed, which direction should aircraft turn while in the aerorome traffic circuit?

A

Left

130
Q

How should an aircraft land and takeoff relative to the wind?

A

Into the wind

131
Q

What are two exceptions to not being able to fly less than 2000’ AGL over an aerodrome?

A

For the purpose of landing/takeoff

Unless directed/authorized by ATC

132
Q

Describe MF reporting procedures

A
133
Q

What should an aircraft operating within a MF area be equipped with? What should the PIC be doing?

A

Must be equipped with proper radio communication equipment

PIC should maintain a listening watch at the specified frequency

134
Q

The PIC of a NORDO VFR aircraft may operate to/from an U/C aerodrome within a MF area if:

A

ground station is in operation at the A/D

Prior noticegiven to ground station of intention to operate at A/D

When conducting T/O, PIC confirms visuallly that no danger of collision with other traffic exists

when approaching to land, the A/C enters the A/D traffic circuit so as to complete two sides of the circuit before turning onto final approach

135
Q

Describe how a NORDO aircraft can enter a MF area

A
136
Q

Why is it is essential that you’re aware of other traffic and exchange information when approaching (or departing) an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

Some aircraft may not have communicatons capability

137
Q

How can information be exchanged with an FSS, CARS, UNICOM, or vehicle operators?

A

By directed transmissions or with other aircraft by broadcast transmissions

138
Q

What is ATF? What is it normally designated for?

A

Aerodrome Traffic Frequency - all radio equipped aircraft in area are on the same frequency

Normally designated for active uncontrolled aerodromes that do not meet MF criteria

139
Q

Describe reporting in an ATF area

A
140
Q

Describe the size of an zone designated as MF or ATF

A

Circle with a 5NM radius capped at 3000 feet AAE

141
Q

At what altitude should you cross over an aerodrome prior to joining the circuit?

A

at least 500 feet above ciruit altitude

142
Q

What should you report when flying continious circuits? When can you initiate the turn?

A

You can initiate the turn at 500’ after take-off

Report entering downwind

Report established on final

Report clear of the active runway after the final landing.

143
Q

In MF/ATF zones, what should you report when taxiing on maneuvering areas?

A

Report intentions and maintain a listening watch prior to entering the manoeuvring area

144
Q

In non MF/ATF aerodromes, at what frequency should position reporting be made?

A

123.2MHz

145
Q

At non-MF aerodromes (or when MF procedures are not invoked), what should you be on the lookout for?

A

NORDO traffic may also be established in or be entering the circuit without other traffic or the ground station being aware

If the aerodrome is equipped with an IFR approach, IFR arrivals may also be landing via straight-in or circling procedures

146
Q

Describe the VFR weather minima as outlined in 602.114

A
147
Q

605.03 Flight Authority (C of A) states that no person shall operate an aircraft in flight unless:

A

The C of A is in effect

The aircraft is operated in accordance with the conditions set out in C of A

The C of A is carried on boardthe aircraft

148
Q

What does 605.04 Availability of Aircraft Flight Manual state?

A

The A/C flight manual must be on board and availableto the flight crew members at their duty stations

149
Q

What does 605.08 Unserviceable and Removed Equipment - General state about taking off in an aircraft with unservicable equipment?

A

No person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft that has equipment that is not serviceable or from which equipment has been removed if, in the opinion of the pilot-in-command, aviation safety is affected

150
Q

What equipment must power-driven aircraft for the purpose of DVFR flight have?

A

Altimeter, airspeed indicator, magnetic compass, tachometer, oil pressure indicator, oil temperature indicator, fuel quantity gauge, 2-way radio communication system

manifold pressure gauge, coolant temperature indicator, landing gear indicator, radio navigation equipment

151
Q

What equipment must power driven aircraft operating VFR OTT have, other than equipment required for DVFR

A

Altimeter with subscale, pitot heat, directional gyro, attitide indicator, turn coordinator

152
Q

What equipment must power driven aircraft operating NVFR have, other than equipment required for DVFR

A

Altimeter with subscale, turn coordinator, directional gyro, landing light, instrument illumination, position and anti-collision lights, adequete source of electrical energy for all electrical and radio equipment, spare fuses

153
Q

When can anti-collision lights be turned off at night?

A

When the PIC determines that, because of operating conditions, doing so would be in the interests of aviation safety

154
Q

What are the safety belt requirements for aircraft other than balloons?

A

The aircraft must be equipped with a seat and safety belt for each person on board (other than an infant)

Safety belt must have metal-to-metal latching device

155
Q

What are the shoulder harness requirements on an aircraft?

A

Each front seat shall be equipped with a safety belth that includes a shoulder harness. Exception is small aeroplanes manufactured before July 18, 1978

156
Q

When should the PIC of the aircraft direct all persons on board to fasten safety belts?

A

During movement on the surface

During take off and landing

Any time during the flight that the PIC considers it necessary

157
Q

605.29 states that no operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a flight control lock in respect of the aircraft unless:

A

The flight control lock is incapable of becoming engaged when the aircraft is being operated

An unmistakable warning is provided to the person operating the aircraft whenever the flight control lock is engaged

158
Q

When must oxygen equipment and an oxygen supply be available for all crew and 10% of passengers?

A

At cabin pressure altitudes between 10,000’-13,000’ ASL for the entire period of flight exceeding 30 minutes

159
Q

When must oxygen equipment and an oxygen supply be available for all persons on board an aircraft?

A

At cabin pressure altitudes above 13,000’ASL for the entire period of flight

160
Q

When should all crew wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen during operations between 10,000’-13,000’ ASL?

A

For any part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutse in duration

161
Q

When should each person on board an aircraft flying over 13,000’ASL wear an oxygen mask and use supplemental oxygen?

A

For the duration of the flight at those altitudes

162
Q

What should you do in the case of losing your transponder en route?

A

With ATC clearance, fly to next aerodrome of intended landing in fligh plan, or to the first aerodrome with facilities to remove and fix the unit

163
Q

605.38 states that no person shall operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with one of more ELTs. What are the exceptions?

A

F.T.U engaged in flight training and operated within 25 NM of the aerodrome of departure

Engaged in a flight test

A new aircraft engaged in flight operations incidental to manufacture, preparation or delivery of the aircraft (test flight)

164
Q

When can you fly without an ELT (as per the MEL)?

A

There is displayed on a readily visible placard within the aircraft cockpit, for the period of removal of the ELT from the aircraft, stating that the ELT has been removed and setting out the date of removal, and the aircraft is to be re-equiped with a serviceable ELT within 30 days after the date of removal

165
Q

When should an ELT be activated?

A

Only in an emergency

During first 5 minutes of any hour for no more than five seconds, for the purpose of testing

166
Q

Who should be notified if the ELT is accidentally activated during flight?

A

ATC, FSS, CARS

167
Q

605.84 states that take-off is prohibited unless the aircraft is maintened in accordance with:

A

Any airworthiness limitations

The requirements of any airworthiness directives issued by the Minister

168
Q

605.85 states that after undergoing maintenance, and aircraft shall not fly unless:

A

A maintenance release is signed

169
Q

Is maintenance release required for tasks identified as elementary work?

A

No

170
Q

605.86 prohibits taking off in an aircraft unless it is maintained in accordance with a regular maintenance schedule. Who approves the maintenance schedule?

A

The Minister

171
Q

When can the Minister authorize an operator to deviate from the requirements of the maintenance schedule?

A

When the operator submits a request in writing which demonstrates that the deviation will not affect aviation safety

172
Q

What should be done before taking off in an aircraft that has been subjected to any abnormal occurence?

A

Inspect the aircraft for damange. Can be done by the PIC if it does not require disassembly

173
Q

What technical records should be kept by the owner in respect of the aircraft?

A

Journey log

Seperate technical record for the airframe, each installed engine, and each variable-pitch propeller

174
Q

How long should the owner of an aircraft retain every entry in a journey log?

A

1 year

175
Q

When can the operator take off in an aircraft without carrying the journey log on board?

A

It is not planned that the aircraft will land and shut down at any location other than the point of departure

176
Q

What should also be delivered when transferring the title of an aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller, or appliance to another person?

A

All the technical records that relate to that aeronautical product

177
Q

When can weapons, ammunition, or other equipment designed for use in war be carried on board an aircraft?

A

The aircraft is a Canadian aircraft, or when authorized by the Minister

178
Q

What does 606.02 state about liability insurance?

A

No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless proof of liability insurance is carried on board

Private Pilot License (9 decks)

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