Airlaw Flashcards
(223 cards)
1
Q
Part 1
A
General Policies, Procedures and Definition
2
Q
Part 4
A
Aircraft Registration and Markings
3
Q
Part 5
A
Airworthiness
4
Q
Part 2
A
Personnel Licensing
5
Q
Part 3
A
Approved Training Organization
6
Q
Part 6
A
Approved Maintenance Organizations
7
Q
Part 7
A
Instrument and Equipment
8
Q
Part 8
A
Operations
9
Q
No person may commence a flight in an airplane (propeller driven) at night unless considering the wind and forecast weather condition, there is enough fuel to fly (CAR’s Part 8.6.2.14)
A
45 minutes
10
Q
No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless (Part 6.8.1.16)
A
The other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot with category and class rating appropriate to aircraft being flown
11
Q
Vle
A
Landing gear extended
12
Q
Vlof
A
Maximum lift-off speed
13
Q
Vlo
A
Maximum landing gear operating speed
14
Q
Vs1
A
Specified Config (stall speed clean config)
(48 kts)
15
Q
Vs0
A
Stall Landing Config (dirty)
(43 kts)
16
Q
VA
A
Maneuvering Speed (104 kts)
17
Q
Vfe
A
Maximum Flap Extended speed
(Upper limit of White Arc)
(85 kts)
18
Q
The operator of a civil state of foreign aircraft shall file a report of an aircraft that has involved in an accident or incident on the form and manner prescribed by the authority within ____. (PCAR’s Part 13.0.40)
A
10 Days
19
Q
No person may taxi an aircraft in the movement area of an airport unless the permission from air traffic control _____ (CAR’s Part 8.6.1.1)
A
Has authorized by owner agent
20
Q
Part 9
A
Air Operator Certification and Administration
21
Q
Part 10
A
Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Carriers within the Republic of the Philippines
22
Q
Part 11
A
Aerial Work and Operating Limitations for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft
23
Q
Part 13
A
Accident and Incident Reporting and Investigation
24
Q
Part 18
A
Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air
25
Failure to perform preflight cockpit checklist (days)?
15 - 30 days
26
Flying without medical certification (days)?
15 - 60 days
27
Flying without medical certification (days)?
15 - 60 days
28
Failure to adhere taxi clearance or instructions (days)?
30 - 60 days / 1 - 2 months
29
Enroute deviation (days)?
30 - 90 days / 1 - 3 months
30
Collision while taxiing (days)?
30 - 120 days / 1 - 4 months
31
Wheel up landing (days)?
30 - 180 days / 1 - 6 months
32
Approach below VFR minimums (days)?
45 - 90 days
33
Takeoff against clearance (days)?
60 - 120 days / 2 - 4 months
34
Takeoff below weather minimums (days)?
60 - 120 days / 2 - 4 months
35
Vno
Maximum Structural Cruising Speed
(Upper limit of Green Arc)
(111 kts)
36
Vne
Never Exceed Speed
(Red line)
(149 kts)
37
Vx
Best Angle of Climb
(55 KIAS)
38
Vy
Best Rate of Climb
(67 KIAS @ sea level)
39
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
40
After takeoff, which airspeed is the speed which results in the greatest gain of altitude in a given distance of climb?
Vy - best rate of climb
41
The applicant for a PPL shall be not less than ___ (age) (PCAR's Part 2.3.3.2)
17 years old
42
This part contains the requirements for those operators and operations that are considered to be aerial work in the RP.
Part 11
43
This part contains requirements of the RP pertaining to notification, investigation, analysis, and reporting of aircraft incidents and accidents and certain other occurrences in the operation of aircraft.
Part 13
44
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority, a pilot files flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility at least ____ (mins) (PCAR's Part 8.6.1.1)
60 mins
45
The definition of night
Civil twilight
46
With respect to certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Normal, utility, acrobatic
47
With respect to certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
48
Where may an aircraft limitation be found?
In the FAA approved flight manual, approved manual materials, marketing and placards, or any combination thereof.
49
Excessively high engine temperatures will cause?
loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
50
Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?
a. a balloon
b. An aircraft in distress
c. an aircraft on final approach to land
b.
51
What action is required when 2 aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?
a. the faster aircraft shall give way
b. the aircraft on the left shall give way
c. each aircraft shall give way to the right.
c.
52
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
The airship
53
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
a. the airplane pilots should give way to the left
b. the glider pilots should give way to the right
c. Both pilots should give way to the right
c.
54
When 2 or more a/c are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft:
a. that has the other to its right
b. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front or overtake another.
c. that is the least maneuverable
b.
55
Prior to starting each manuever, pilot should?
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
56
When activated an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmitter on _____ (frequency)?
121.5 - 243.0 MHz
57
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced (or recharged if rechargeable)?
After one half of the battery's useful life
58
When may an ELT be tested?
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
59
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the ELT has not been activated?
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
60
When must a pilot who deviated from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator?
Upon request
61
Who is responsible for determining if an ac is in condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command
62
What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift
63
Select the 4 flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft?
straight and level flight, turns, climbs, descents
64
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the?
PIC
65
The responsibility of ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the?
Owner and operator
66
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to:
a. review traffic control light signal procedures
b. check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the ELT
c. determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
c.
67
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
a. check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries
b. become familiar with available information concerning the flight
c. review wake turbulence avoidance procedures
b.
68
Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:
a. takeoff and landings
b. all flight conditions
c. flight in turbulent air
a.
69
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight:
a. over a densely populated area
b. in class D airspace under special VFR
c. except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
c.
70
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
a. airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air
b. single engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea
c. lighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon
b.
71
The definition of nighttime is?
a. sunset to sunrise
b. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
c. The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
a.
72
An ATC clearance provides:
a. priority over all other traffic
b. adequate separation from all traffic
c. authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
c.
73
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
a. when acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery
b. only when passengers are carried
c. Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
c.
74
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding:
a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
a.
75
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried abroad an aircraft?
a. in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care
b. only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment
c. under no condition.
a.
76
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the * of an airport, shall include:
a. the designation of an alternate airport
b. a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use
c. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned
c.
77
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
a. certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biannual flight review
b. a pilot certificate with an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience
c. an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required
c.
78
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may:
a. act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment
b. not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses involves only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees
c. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight
c.
79
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with:
a. .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
b. .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
c. .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
c.
80
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
a. enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions
b. enough to fly to the first point of the intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
c. enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
b.
81
Who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives are complied with?
Owner or operator
82
An airport/heliports to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the airport/heliports of intended landing where the necessary services and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can be met and which is operational at the expected time of use.
Alternate airport/aerodrome/heliport
83
Kinds/types of alternate airports/heliports
Take-off alternate
En-route alternate
Destination alternate
84
An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the airport/heliport of departure.
Take-off alternate
85
An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en-route
En-route alternate
86
An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the airport/heliports of intended landing.
Destination alternate
87
For en route operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain that is less than _____ ft.
500 ft
88
For instrument approach operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain that is less than _____ ft. below the MDA or DH.
50 ft
89
For Category ____ and ____ approaches, the Authority may approve use of a flight control guidance system with automatic capability to touchdown.
Category II and III
90
Airmen Category Ratings
airplane
rotorcraft
glider
lighter than air
power lift
91
Aircraft Class Rating
airplane
rotorcraft
glider
lighter than air
92
Aircraft Category Rating
normal
utility
acrobatic
93
CPL holder required medical certificate?
Class I medical certificate
94
VFR day flights shall not takeoff/land at an aerodrome within a control zone or enter traffic pattern or aerodrome traffic zone if:
Ceiling is less than ____ m / _____ ft.
or
Ground visibility ____ km
Ceiling is less than 450 m / 1500 ft.
Ground visibility 5 km
95
VFR night flights shall not takeoff/land at an aerodrome within a control zone or enter traffic pattern or aerodrome traffic zone if:
Ceiling is less than ____ m / _____ ft.
or
Ground visibility ____ km
Ceiling is less than 600 m / 2000 ft.
or
Ground visibility 8 km
96
Commercial air transport documents should be kept for ___ months.
3 months
97
Internal operation
__ hrs / week
__ hrs / month
__ hrs / year
30 hrs / week
100 hrs / month
1000 hrs / year
98
Cat I
- DH not lower than __ m / __ ft
- Visibility not less than __ m
- RVR not less than __m
- DH not lower than 60 m / 200 ft
- Visibility not less than 800 m
- RVR not less than 550 m
99
(PCAR 8.8.4.15)
Where a DH and MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate a civil aircraft at any airport below authorized MDA, or continue an approach below DH unless ___
.. the red terminating bars or the right side row bars are also distinctively visible and identifiable
100
(PCAR 8.8.3.9)
If radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot should:
1.
2.
3.
1. continue flight under VFR
2. land nearest suitable airport
3. report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible
101
(PCAR 8.6.2.20)
No person may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without a new operational flight plan if the aircraft has been on the ground more than ____ hours
6 hours
102
Republic Act 9497 is also known as
CAAP
103
(PCAR 8.9.1.1)
No PIC may allow an airplane to be refueled when passengers are embarking on board or disembarking unless
1.
2.
1. properly attended by qualified personnel
2. two-way comms is maintained by ground crew supervising the refueling and qualified personnel on board the aircraft
104
Flying an unworthy aircraft = ____ suspension
30 - 180 days / 1 - 6 months
105
No pilot may operate in VFR flight above this altitude unless authorized by the appropriate ATC authority
FL 200 and transonic and supersonic speeds
106
No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a required PIC in single pilot operations on aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations if that person has reached his or her ____th birthday.
60th birthday
107
For aircraft engaged in domestic commercial air transport operations requiring more than one pilot as flight crew members, the AOC holder may use one pilot up to age __ provided that the other pilot is less than age ___.
age 67 ; age 60
108
For aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations requiring more than one pilot as flight crew members, the AOC holder may use one pilot up to age ___ provided that the other pilot is less than age __.
age 65 ; age 60
109
(PCAR 8.4.1.9)
No person may act as PIC or a co-pilot of an aircraft unless, within the preceding (1)___ days that pilot has:
Made (2)____ takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required, of the same type or in a flight simulation training device approved for this purpose.
(1) 90 days
(2) 3 takeoffs and landings
110
Maximum speed below 10,000 ft MSL
250 kts
111
Applicant of IR must at least be a
PPL holder
112
Civil Aviation Act = RA ____
RA 9497
113
Minimum flight visibility SVFR
6.5 km
114
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
a.
115
To act as a pilot of civil aircraft of the republic of the PH registry, a pilot shall have his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a valid pilot license or special purpose authorization issued under these regulations when?
inspection of license
116
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?
a. 4500 ft
b. 5000 ft
c. 5500 ft
c. (half moon principle)
117
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3000 ft AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?
a. 4000 ft
b. 4500 ft
c. 5000 ft
b. (half moon principle)
118
Issuance of airmen licenses is based on PCAR Part?
Part 2
119
Applicant for CPL must complete at least (1)___ hours of cross country time as a pilot in command including a cross country flight with distance totalling not less than (2) _____ km / _____ nm
(1) 20 hours
(2) 540 km / 300 nm
120
During aircraft operations on the ground, no person may taxi an aircraft on the movement area of an airport unless the person at the controls:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. has been authorized by the owner, the lessee, or a designated agent
2. is fully competent to taxi the aircraft
3. is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required
4. has received instruction from a competent person in respect of airport layout and...
121
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
a. enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions
b. enough to fly to the first point of the intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
c. enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c.
122
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
a. an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
b. an altitude of 500 ft above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
c. an altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1000 ft.
a.
123
SVFR weather minimums
remain clear of clouds / 5km visibility
124
ATC LIGHT GUN SIGNALS
ARALIN
125
An imaginary line or a line on a map joining points on the earth's surface at which the magnetic declination is the same
Isogonic line
126
An imaginary line around the earth passing through both the north pole and the north magnetic pole, at any point on which a compass needle points to true north.
Agonic line
127
Which part of PCAR refers to the ICAO Annex 1?
Part 2
128
A series of green flashes directing from the control tower to an aircraft on ground is a signal to
Clear to taxi
129
A CPL applicant shall have completed not less than ___ hrs of flight time or 150 hrs of flight time if he or she has satisfactorily completed a course of approved training.
200 hrs
130
Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitude over any congested area of the city or town or settlement or over any open air assembly of persons at altitudes below:
1. 300 m / 1000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of
2. 600 m / 2000 ft. of the aircraft
131
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to the other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be?
Steady red
132
Where a DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate a civil aircraft at any airport or heliport below the authorized MDA, or continue an approach below the authorized DH unless
1.
2.
3.
1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers
2. For commercial air transport operations, a descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of the intended landing
3. the reported flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used or the...
133
VFR shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone or enter the aerodrome traffic pattern zone or traffic pattern when
1.
2.
3.
1. When the ceiling is less than 450 m or 1500 ft
2. When the ground visibility is less than 5km
3. visibility at least 5 km except when a clearance is obtained from ATC ceiling less than...
134
Unless authorized by the appropriate ATC authority, no pilot may operate in VFR flight when?
between sunset and sunrise
135
In the manner of compliance, what is the basic difference between ATC procedures and CAR?
Mandatory for CAR, optional for ATC
136
In aircraft converging rules, which statement is correct?
The aircraft having the other to its right have the right of way
137
What part of PCAR prescribed the requirements for instruments and equipment to be installed on aircraft expected to operate in the republic of PH?
Part 7
138
An aircraft overtaken should expect to be passed on
should expect to be passed from the right
139
The training required for flight crew members qualifying on another type or variant with the same or essentially the same cockpit configuration, due to aircraft type commonality and by defining the differences between the base and variant aircraft some of these training courses are shorter than a full transition syllabus.
Cross crew qualification
140
Which category of aircraft must give right of way to all others in normal circumstances?
airplane
141
If the privileges of the CPL are to exercised at night, 5 hours of night flight time including?
5 takeoffs and 5 landings as PIC
142
This part describes the requirements of the republic of PH that apply to the carriage of dangerous goods by air as specified in the ICAO document, technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air
Part 18
143
Unless otherwise authorized by the authority, no pilot operating an aircraft in commercial air transport operations may accept a clearance to take off from a civil airport under IFR unless weather conditions are at or above
1.
2.
1. for aircraft other than helicopters, having two engines or less = 1500m (1 sm) visibility
2. for aircraft having more than two engines = 800 m (1/2 sm)
144
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority, a pilot should submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility
at least 60 minutes before departure ; or if submitted during a flight time which will ensure its receipt by appropriate ATC facility at least 10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into control area or advisory area.
145
In categories of precision approach and landing operations (CAT I) means?
1.
2.
3.
1. a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height
2. not lower than 60 m (200 ft)
3. and either visibility not less than 800m or RVR not less than 550m.
146
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or except by permission from the appropriate authority, a VFR flight shall not be flown
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. over the congested areas of cities, towns, or settlements or over an open air assembly
2. of persons at a height less than 300m (1000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a radius
3. of 600m from the aircraft, elsewhere than as specified in
4. at height less than 150m (500 ft) above the ground or water
147
The CAAP is headed by?
Director general
148
The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed in airplane not less than
1.
2.
1. 100 hours as PIC or in case of a course approved training
2. 70 hours as PIC
149
No person may land or takeoff an aircraft under VFR from an aerodrome located within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern airspace unless the
1.
2.
1. reported ceiling is at least 450m (1500 ft)
2. reported ground visibility is at least 5km or when a clearance is obtained from ATC ceiling less than 1500 ft.
150
No person may continue a flight from an intermediate airport w/o a new operational flight plan if the aircraft has been the ground more than
6 hours
151
No person may operate an aircraft in maneuvers exceeding a bank of 60 degrees or pitch of 30 degrees from level flight attitude unless all occupants of the aircraft are wearing parachutes packed by a qualified parachute riggers, licensed in accordance with part 2 of these regulations, in the past 12 calendar months
Aerobatic flight / TRUE
152
A class 1 medical certificate is required for the issuance of what licenses?
CPL
ATPL
Flight Engineer
Flight Navigator
153
In accordance with table of sanction under PCARS part 1, the penalty for landing at wrong airport
90 - 180 days
154
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
1. over any city, towns or settlement
2. over an open air assembly of persons
3. within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of class B, C, D, or E
4. below an altitude of 1500 ft. above the surface
5. when the flight visibility is less than 5km
6. unless in compliance with any other conditions prescribed by the authority
155
At what altitude should all the flight crew members use breathing oxygen continuously?
14,000 ft
156
What is the next higher appropriate cruise altitude or flight level from 5000 ft MSL for VFR flight along an airway whose magnetic course is 180?
6500 ft
157
For flight planning document distribution and retention for operator engages in commercial air transport, completed flight preparation documents shall be kept by the operator for a period of
3 months
158
No person may conduct a special VFR flight operation to enter the traffic pattern, land or takeoff an aircraft under special VFR from an airport in class B, C, D, or E airspace unless
1.
2.
3.
1. authorized by an ATC clearance, under exceptional circumstances
2. the aircraft remains clear of clouds
3. the flight visibility is at least 5 km
159
Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by reference to instruments without external reference points
Instrument flight / instrument time
160
When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head on, nearly so), who has the right of way?
The aircraft to the other's right has the right of way
161
In accordance with table of sanction under PCAR part 1, the penalty for deviation from instrument approach procedure is
30 - 90 days
162
When operating an airplane beneath the ceiling within a control zone under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?
remain clear of clouds
at least 5km
163
The applicant for CPL shall have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time or ____ hours of flight time if completed during an authority approved training course provided for in an approved training organization under part 3.
150 hours
164
What is the minimum fuel requirements for VFR flight for turbo jet aircraft during day?
30 minutes for day VFR, enough fuel to reach destination
165
The applicant for CPL shall have completed not less 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totaling not less than
540 km (300 nm)
166
No scheduled or any non scheduled international operator may schedule any flight crew member and no flight crew member may accept an assignment for flight time in commercial flying if that flight crew member's total time in all flying will exceed
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. 30 hours in any 7 consecutive days
2. 100 hours in any calendar months
3. 1000 hours in any calendar year
4. 8 hours between required rest period
167
Name of the two aircraft documents required for all aircraft in operations
aircraft registration
airworthiness
168
A pilot shall not operate an aircraft carrying passengers as PIC or copilot to operate the flight controls of a type or a variant of a type of aircraft during at least 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding ____
90 days
169
What is sterile cockpit?
1.
2.
1. when non essential activities are refrained during the critical phases of flight
2. when all preflight checks have been made
170
Autopilot (altitude)
FL 200 or 20,000
171
Airbus inspection after 100 hours conditions
should not exceed 10 hours
172
Which fire incident needs CAAP to be notified immediately?
In flight
173
VFR minimums
1.
2.
1. cannot go below 500 ft above land or sea
2. at least 1000 ft obstacle clearance
174
Night flying required number of touch and gos
5 touch and gos
175
The operation of a base aircraft and variant of the same type, common type related type or different type by one or more flight crew members, between training or checking events
Mixed fleet flying
176
No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight condition unless
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. that aircraft has fully functioning dual controls except in the case of airships
2. in a single engine airplane equipped with a throw over control wheel in place of fixed, dual control of the elevator and ailerons
3. the other control set is occupied by a safety pilot who holds at least PPL with category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown
4. the safety pilot is adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft of a competent observer.
177
What altitude required breathing oxygen to be worn at all times?
1.
2.
1. above 13,000 ft
2. 10,000 ft =20,000 ft 30 minutes after
178
What privileges can a CPL holder have subject to compliance with the requirements?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. to exercise all the privileges of the holder of PPL
2. to act as PIC in any airplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation
3. to act as PIC in commercial air transportation in any airplane certificated for single pilot operation
4. to act as a copilot in commercial air transportation in airplanes required to be operated with a copilot
179
Which part addresses article 32 of the Chicago Convention that required the republic of the PH to issue certificates of competency and licenses or validates such?
Part 2
180
No person may act as a pilot under IFR nor in IMC, unless he or she has, within the past six calendar months
1.
2.
1. logged at least 6 hours of instrument flight time including at least 3 hours in flight in the category of aircraft
2. completed at least 6 instrument approaches
181
What is the minimum flight visibility for a special VFR flight?
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. 1 sm visibility
2. clear of clouds
3. within ATC clearance
4. except for helicopters, when flight visibility is at least 1 sm
182
No person may act as PIC or a copilot of an aircraft, within the preceding 90 days unless that pilot has
1.
2.
3.
1. made 3 takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required of the same type or in flight simulation training device approved for the purpose
2. for tailwheel airplane, made 3 takeoffs and landings
3. for night operation, made 3 takeoffs and landing
183
No person may act as flight operations officer in realizing a scheduled passenger carrying commercial air transportation operation unless that person
1.
2.
3.
1. holds a flight operation officer license or an ATP license
2. is currently qualified with the operator for the operation and type of aircraft used
3. when the authority requires that a flight operation officer/flight dispatch
184
A series of white flashes is transmitted from the control tower to an aircraft on ground. What does it mean?
Return to the starting point
185
A co pilot is required for IFR commercial air transportation operation operations, unless the authority has issued an exemption. This exemption shall be for domestic operations only and airplane weighing less than 5700 kg or helicopters weighing less than 3175 kg.
Composition of flight crew / TRUE
186
What segment starts from the initial approach fix to an intermediate fix or if possible the final approach fix?
Initial approach segment
187
Applicants for CPL license must complete at least
20 hours
188
In accordance with the table of sanction under PCAR part 1 the penalty for approach below weather minimum is
45 - 90
189
In accordance with the table under PCARS part 1 the penalty for takeoff below weather minimum is
60 - 120
190
In accordance with the table of sanction under PCARS part 1 the penalty for takeoff in overload aircraft is
60 - 120 days
191
The operator of a civil, state or foreign aircraft shall file a report in the form and manner prescribed by the authority
1.
2.
(1)within 10 days after an incident or incident
(2)after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing
192
Aircraft flights under VFR condition shall have visibility and distance from cloud
(1)(day) horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000ft
(2)(night) 3sm flight visibility,500ft below clouds,1000ft above clouds and 2,000 horizontal distance from clouds
193
In accordance the table of sanction under PCAR part 1 the penalty for deviation from ATC clearance or instruction on enroute is
30 - 90 days / 1 - 3 months
194
Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13,000ft (%)
100 % of passengers
195
Entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10,000ft but not exceeding 13,000ft (%)
10% of passengers
196
The applicant for CPL shall receive and log not less than
1.
2.
(1)25 hours of dual instruction from an authorized instructor
(2)these 25 hours may include 5 hours completed in flight simulator or flight procedures.
197
If the privileges of CPL (A) are to be exercised at night the applicant shall have received 4 hours dual instruction in airplanes in night flying, including takeoffs, landings and
1 hour navigation
198
What kind of training should give for mixed fleet flying for crewmembers by operators?
Cross Crew Qualification (CCQ)
199
operating VFR within clouds (days)?
90 days suspension to revocation
200
Operating within restricted or prohibited area (days)?
30 - 90 days suspension / 1 - 3 months
201
operating without required equipment (days)?
15 - 120 days suspension
202
Exceeding speed limitation in ATC area (days)?
30 - 60 days suspension / 1 - 2 months
203
overweight landing (days)?
30 - 90 days suspension / 1 - 3 months
204
Landing at wrong airport (days)?
90 - 180 days suspension / 3 - 6 months
205
When you are on ground, if tower gives flashing green, what is it indicating?
cleared to taxi
206
What is the precision approach altitude / visibility for IFR flight?
600 ft / 3 km
207
What is the altitude / visibility for non precision approach?
800 ft. ; 5km / 3nm
208
Aerobatic flight not allowed to fly under
A & B
209
Unless otherwise the ATC approved, what is the minimum altitude to fly in VFR?
2000 ft
210
Runway edge light color?
white
211
threshold light color?
light green
(as you takeoff = light red)
212
Displaced threshold color?
green appear
213
touchdown zone lighting color?
white
214
Taxiway lead if light color?
alternating green and yellow light
215
Taxiway centerline light color?
green
216
taxiway edge light color?
blue
217
(2 bar VASI)
above glide path indication
2 white / 2 white (too high)
218
(2 bar VASI)
on glide indication
2 white / 2 red
219
(2 bar VASI)
below glide path indication
2 red / 2 red
220
lighted heliport may be identified by a?
green, yellow, and white rotating beacon
221
Steady red, flashing red ahead means
aircraft crossing to the left
222
steady white, flashing red ahead, same altitude means
aircraft flying away from you
223
steady red and green light ahead means
aircraft approaching head on
