Antibiotic Questions Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

Which antibiotics must you monitor LFTs with?

A

2nd gen cephs
3rd gen cephs
Monobactams

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2
Q

What monitoring occurs with Glycopeptides?

A

IV Vancomycin concentrations

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3
Q

What do you need to monitor with Bactrim use?

A

SCr
BUN
K+ when initiating with other drugs known to cause hyperkalemia

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4
Q

What do you need to monitor with Aminoglycosides?

A

peaks and troughs

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5
Q

What links peptidoglycan together to form the cell walls of bacteria?

A

Penicillin binding protein

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6
Q

What is the MOA of betalactams?

A

inhibits the cross linking of peptioglycan by inhibiting PBP

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7
Q

What are the 4 different classes of Betalactams?

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Monobactam
Carbapenems

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8
Q

Are betalactams bacteristatic or bactericidal?

A

Bactericidal

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9
Q

What PKPD parameters do betalactams have?

A

Time>MIC; low dose, high frequency

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10
Q

What do all members of the betalactams group have?

A

a 4 member ring

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11
Q

How do the members of the betalactam group differ?

A

The side ring that is attached to the main ring

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12
Q

What side ring does Penicillins have?

A

5 member ring

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13
Q

What side ring does Cephalosporins have?

A

6 membered ring

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14
Q

What side ring does Monolactams have?

A

no side ring

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15
Q

What side ring does Carbapanems have?

A

five membered ring

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16
Q

What is penicillinase/betalactamase?

A

enzymes created by the bacteria to destroy betalactams

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17
Q

What does Oxacillin cause?

A

liver damage

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18
Q

What does Ticarcillin cause?

A

bleeding

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19
Q

What is the trend of Cephalosporins?

A

as you continue through the generations, they GAIN Gram neg. coverage but LOSE Gram pos. coverage

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20
Q

What do Cephalosporings not cover?

A

Enterococcus

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21
Q

Which carbapenem has a DDI with valproic acid?

A

Meropenem

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22
Q

Which carbapenem is formulated to protect the kidneys?

A

Imipenem/Cilastatin

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23
Q

Which carbapenem doesn’t have coverage for pseudomonas?

A

Ertapenem

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24
Q

What is monobactams niche?

A

doesn’t have cross reactivty with allergies to penicillins, cephs, or carbapenems so it can be used in patients with allergies to them

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25
What are the culprits for allergic reactions?
the side chains of betalactams
26
What is the best option if a patient has an allergy to a betalactam?
Use a higher generation cephalosporin
27
What generation cephalosporin should you use if patient has allergy to betalactam?
2nd gen. or higher
28
What is a test dose?
1/10th of the full dose
29
What should you do if the patient has a rash reaction to betalactams?
Give FULL DOSE of 3rd gen. ceph or higher | Give TEST DOSE of 1st/2nd gen. ceph
30
What should you do if the patient has a hives or anaphylaxis reaction to betalactams?
Give TEST DOSE of 3rd gen. ceph or higher
31
What do you do if a patient needs a 1st/2nd gen. ceph and has hives or anaphylaxis?
desensitize them by giving the patient 1 millionth of a dose then increasing that dose 10 fold every 30 minutes until you reach the full dose If patient has a reaction, give them benadryl but DON"T STOP the process
32
What type of Vancomycin is used to treat C. Diff?
PO
33
What are the doses of Vancomycin rounded to?
250 mg
34
What must you do for IV Vancomycin?
check random and trough concentrations
35
What is the target of IV Vancomycin for MRSA infections
Troughs 15-20 mcg/mL
36
What is the target of IV Vancomycin for Non-MRSA infections?
Troughs 10-20 mcg/mL
37
What is the trough?
The time before next dose when the drug concentration is lowest in the body
38
Which tetracyclines should not be used in children under the age of 8 because of risk of vestibular toxicity?
Tetracycline | Doxycycline
39
Which class of drugs must you avoid using in elderly and children due to risk of tendinopathies and delirium?
Fluoroquinolones
40
Which macrolides are CYP inhibitors?
Clarithromycin | Erythromycin
41
Which drug must be taken with food in order to decrease GI upset?
Clindamycin
42
Which drug causes C. diff infection?
Clindamycin
43
Which drug is used to treat C. diff from Clindamycin use?
Metronidazole
44
Which drug can a patient NOT drink alcohol on?
Metronidazole
45
Which drug is the DOC for anaerobes?
Metronidazole
46
Which drugs are most often used in synergy to treat endocarditis and ophthalmic and otic solutions?
Aminoglycosides
47
What must you monitor with aminoglycoside dosing?
peaks and troughs
48
What is extended interval dosing for aminoglycoside dosing?
high dose, long interval maximizes peak concentrations random level determines frequency
49
What patients can you NOT use extended interval dosing in?
patients with AKI, at risk for kidney injury or those with HD, or those using for synergy
50
What is conventional dosing for aminoglycoside dosing?
smaller doses, dosed more frequently based on renal function using for synergy monitor peaks and troughs
51
What patients can you use conventional dosing in?
those with AKI, at risk for kidney injury, or on HD
52
What is the monitoring level for Amikacin?
``` Peaks = 20-30 Troughs = <5 ```
53
What is the monitoring level for Gentamicin?
``` Peaks = 6-8 Troughs = <1 ```
54
What is the monitoring level for Gentamicin in synergy?
``` Peaks = 3-4 Troughs = <1 ```
55
What is the monitoring level for Tobramycin?
``` Peaks = 6-8 Troughs = <1 ```
56
Which drug do you avoid use in patients with CrCl <50?
Nitrofurantoin
57
Which drugs only treat UTI's?
Nitrofurantoin | Fosfomycin
58
Which drug has DDIs with SSRI's, TCA's, and MOAI?
Oxazolidinones
59
Which drug cannot be used to treat Pneumonia?
Daptomycin
60
Which drug is used for refractory C. diff only?
Fidaxomicin
61
Which drug can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
Rifampin
62
What do antibiotics cause?
yeast infections | diarrhea
63
What can antibiotics predispose patients to developing?
C. diff