Flashcards in Assocaited Clinical Science (ACS) Part II (Irene Gold) Deck (588):
What is the name of the condition seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the ventral surface of the penis?
What is the name of the condition that is seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the dorsal side of the penis?
What is the condition of Phimosis?
Foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis
What condition is described as "Foreskin becomes trapped behind/under the glans penis"?
Paraphimosis ("Turtle Neck")
What is the description of a Hydrocele?
Fluid accumulation around testes
Can palpate above the mass
What two male conditions of the male genital area are Not Transillumnate?
In what condition can you not palpate above the mass in a male genital disorder?
What male genital disorder will there be high levels of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) and a Painless nodule?
What is the name of the male genital disorder described as a "Bag of Worms"?
What is often a cause of Varicocele?
What is the name of the male genital condition that is described as "Common, Cutaneous firm, yellow crust"?
What male genital disorder has "Reddened testes that are tender and has posterior superior scrotal swelling"?
What two male genital disorders are Tranillunimate?
What is the name of the male genital disorder that occurs from a blunt trauma and is a surgical emergency?
What male genital disorder is seen in adolescents and is classified as painful and swollen?
What are the two characteristics of Cryptorchism?
Increased risk of Testicular cancer
What is the term used to describe and erection lasting longer than four hours?
What are three things that can cause Priapism?
Erectile Dysfunction Drugs
Central Nervous System (CNS) trauma
Increased intracranial pressure
What is the term for an "Inflamed Penis gland"?
What is the male genital disorder of Peyronie's?
Crooked erection ("up, up and away")
What is a term that is associated with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What part of the reproduction system is most effected by Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What is the main cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What are four other causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease besides Gonorrhea?
What kind of stain is Gonorrhea?
How is the Gonorrhea organism grown in a lab?
Chocolate Agar Plate
What is the most common symptom of Gonorrhea?
Dysuria (Painful Urination)
What is the most common sign of Gonorrhea?
Green Mucopurulent discharge
What is the most common joint effected in Gonorrhea?
In Gonorrhea the MC site of Sequelae in each of the following populations:
Chlamydia is the causative agent for what two disorders/conditions?
What condition does Chlamydia cause in females?
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
What condition is seen in males with Chlamydia?
What is the most common cause of infertility in the United States?
Which Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD), is more common Chlamydia or Gonorrhea?
What is the organism associated with Syphilis?
Spirochete (Treponema Pallidum)
STD transmitted through the placenta?
What is a treatment for Syphilis?
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is associated with Hutchinson's Triad?
What is Hutchinson's Triad?
Notched Permanent Incisors (peg)
CN VIII Deafness
What Diagnostic Test are done for a patient with Syphilis?
What Labs are ordered in the condition of Syphilis?
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
What are characteristics of the First Stage of Syphilis?
Hard painless Singular Chancre
How long does the First Stage of Syphilis last?
Up to 8 weeks
What are the three characteristics of Stage Two of Syphilis?
Condylomata Lata (Flat Warts)
How long does the Second Stage of Syphilis last?
8 weeks to 2 years
What Stage of Syphilis is the most "Transmission"?
What are the three symptoms associated with Stage Three Syphilis?
Tabes Dorsalis (Posterior)
Vascular Damage (Aortic Aneurysm or Aortic Valve Insufficiency)
In what Stage of Syphilis is there no transmission of the disease?
What is the time frame for Stage Three of Syphilis?
Over 25 years; without treatment
What kind of organism causes Trichimoniasis?
What kind of Discharge is seen in Trichimoniasis?
What is another name for Candidiasis?
What organism causes Candidiasis?
STD with White Cottage Cheese Discharge seen in the mouth of the vagina?
What is Candidiasis of the mouth called?
What two conditions are associated with Candidiasis?
Antibiotic Usage (Probiotics)
What two populations will often bee seen with Thrush?
What organism causes Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
What are two signs/symptoms of Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
Affects the lymph nodes of the groin
Produces Rectal Strictures
What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?
What is the incubation time for the bacterium organism of the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?
How does the condition of Granuloma Inguinale present?
Red Beefy Lesions
Nodular, lead to Ulcerations
Where is the condition of Granuloma Inguinale seen at?
Anogenital to Perineal Area
What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Genital Herpes?
What is the appearance of Genital Herpes?
What two things makes Genital Herpes reoccur?
What is another name for Genital Warts?
What is the organism that causes Genital Warts?
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is linked to Cervical Caner?
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has a Papilloma?
What are four characteristics of a Papilloma?
What organism is linked to the Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) of Chancroid?
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has "Papules that become soft and painful"?
What test is performed on a patient with Chancroid?
What kind of organism is the HIV Virus?
What is the condition of AIDS often associated with?
What is one contraindication of a person with AIDS?
What are two high risk populations of contacting AIDS?
IV Drug users
What two Labs are ordered for AIDS patients?
1-ELISA; Screening test (RNA)
2-Western Blot; Most accurate (Proteins)
What are three associated conditions in AIDS patients?
Pneumocystis Carinii (Fungal Lung) (Most Common)
Giardia Lamblia (Diarrhea)
What is the organism in the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
What two populations will you see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Adults-transmitted via sex
What is the only Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) that can be transmitted by a fomite?
(Fomite-Bath Towel etc.)
What are two common locations to see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Mucosa of the Mouth
What are the characteristics of the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Flesh Colored or Gray umbilicated papule that becomes *pearly white* with a cancerous core
What is the size, description and an example of a Macule?
Size: Less the 0.5 cm
What is the size and description of a Papule?
Size: Less that 0.5 cm
What two conditions are associated with a Papule?
What is the size and description of a Vesicle?
Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Serous Fluid filled
What two conditions are associated with a Vesicle?
What is the size and description of a Pustule?
Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Pus Filled
What condition is associated a Pustule?
What causes the Staph infection in conjuncture with the Pustule?
Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)
What population has several Furuncles, usually seen at the base of the hair line?
What is the size and description of a Nodule?
Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Hard, Raised
*Grown up Papule*
What is the size and description of a Bulla?
Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Fluid filled
*Grown up Vesicle*
What condition is associated with a Bulla?
What is the name of a "Precancerous lesion seen on the mucus membrane that is associated with the use of tobacco products"?
What two conditions are "white" in the mouth which one can be scrapped off?
Thrush (Can be scrapped off)
What is the location of Acne Rosacea? (3 areas)
What three things exacerbate Acne Rosacea?
What population is the condition of Acne Vulgaris seen in?
What gland is infected in the condition of Acne Vulgaris?
How are the Sebaceous Glands of Acne Vulgaris characterized?
Comedones (Blackheads= open, Whiteheads=closed)
Pus filled cyst
What is the name of the most common benign sun induced lesion?
What are two types of spots seen in the condition of Actinic Lentigo?
What are the two most common places to see Actinic Lentigo?
Back of Hands
*Areas that get high amounts of sun exposure*
What condition is described as "Pitted Erythematous lesion/ulcer of the mouth"?
What are two other terms associated with Aphthous Stomatitis?
What is a "Carload of Furuncles"? Has the same findings as a Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)
What condition is an "Accumulation of sebum within in a pore"?
Comedone (Acne Vulgaris)
How is the condition of a Epidermal Cyst (Wen) described?
Non-tender cyst that is filled with sebum
What is the organism that is linked tot eh condition of Erysipelas?
Beta Hemolytic STREP
What condition has a "Red Fiery, advancing lesion on the skin"?
What are two signs/symptoms a patient with Erysipelas will have?
Elevated ASO Titer
What condition is; A skin reaction usually associated with strep and characterized by bilateral, red, tender nodules?
What is the term for "Any surface injury to the skin"?
How do you diagnosis Fungal/Mycotic Infections?
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Corpus?
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Pedis?
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Ungunum?
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Capitus?
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Cruris?
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Barbae?
What kind of infection causes Tinea Versicolor?
What is Tinea Versicolor?
Multiple Hypo pigmented
Varying in color from white to brown
Where is one place you can acquire the condition of Tinea Versicolor?
What is the name of the condition that is described as "Staph infected hair follicle that presents as a Painful nodule"?
What condition is characterized by small vesicles located on the mouth or the genital region?
HSV 1- Cold Sores (Mouth Region)
HSV 2- Genital Herpes (Genital Area)
When can the Herpes Simplex be reactivated?
What test is done in a patient that has the Herpes Simplex?
What is another term for Herpes Zoster?
Where is Herpes Zoster most often found? (2 Locations)
Cranial Nerve V; area
In what population is Herpes Zoster exacerbated in?
What are two characteristics of Herpes Zoster?
Will not cross midline (Thoracic Outbreak)
Will have pain before outbreak on the skin
Where is Herpes Zoster found?
Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)
What is another name for Icthyosis?
What condition is an "Increase keratinization producing a Non-inflammatory skin lesion"?
What is the most common organism to cause Impetigo?
What is the sign of Impetigo?
Crusty (Yellow Honey) lesions
What two locations are common places to see Impetigo?
Corners of the mouth
What skin condition is very contagious and often seen in children?
What condition is seen in the folds of the skin, that has reddened areas caused by trapped moisture, friction and warmth retained?
What is the name of the condition that is "Dense, sharply elevated, progressive enlarging/excessive scar with collagenous hyperplasia"
What three populations have a high level of Keloids?
What condition has a "Rough thick skin due to constant scratching"(Chronic Dermatitis)?
What is the name of the condition that is an inflammatory pruritic (itching) disease?
What are the three characteristics of Lichen Planus?
Fine inconspicuous SCALES
Whitish lines or puncta
What condition has a "Discrete coin shaped, ring/annular lesion that coalesces to form patches with ooze and then crust overs"
What condition is "Tender Bacterial (Maybe Fungal) hand/foot infection where the nail bed meets the skin at the side"?
What causes the condition of Pediculosis?
What are the three locations of the condition of Pediculosis?
Pubic Area- Pubis
What is the most common population to have the condition of Pemphigus Vulgaris?
Males of Jewish Decent
What is condition that is potentially life threatening condition of bulla (blisters) on the skin"?
What condition has an oval/round lesion called a "Herald Patch"?
What is the cause of the condition of Pityriasis Rosea?
What condition has silver scales on the extensor surface of the knees and elbows?
What is a transmittable infection caused by mites?
What are two characteristics signs of Scabies?
Superficial linea furrows in the groin (Burrow under the skin)
What condition is like dandruff and similar to "Cradle Cap" in newborns?
What causes the condition of Urticaria?
Hive called a Wheal due to an Allergy (Penicillin or Food)
What is the name of the auto immune condition that has an absence of melanocytes (Depigmentation) after development?
Where is the condition of Vitiligo most commonly seen?
What condition has a complete depigmentation (Lack of Melanin) of the entire body observed from birth?
Where are two symptoms of Albinism?
Poor Visual Acuity
What is the organism that causes Yeast Infections?
What is the most common skin cancer?
What Is the Least Invasive Skin Cancer?
What are four characteristics of Basal Cell
Rat Bite Appearance (Small area)
What is the name of the cancer that is a malignant tumor of epithelial cells?
What areas usually get Squamous Cell Cancer?
Sun exposed area
What are three terms to describe Squamous Cell?
What is the least common type of skin cancer?
What is the most invasive type of skin cancer?
What skin cancer will be multicolored and be mole like that follows the "ABC's" of cancer?
What is the term for "Premalignant condition of the skin caused by exposure to the sun"?
Who is a person who "acts out conflict with out remorse or guilt and struggles to follow rules"?
What category is a Psycho/Sociopath fall under?
What personality disorder is described as "thoughts or behaviors that are automatic responses to anxiety or stress"?
What personality disorder is "Attention seeking, aggressive, seductive person who is unable to be deeply involved emotionally"?
What is another term for Hysterical in the Personality Disorders?
What is the definition of Narcissism?
No one else is important (Self Centered)
Strong Admiration for self
What Personality Disorder has the following:
Preoccupied with delusions
Suspicion leading to aggression
Unfounded belief that others want to cause them harm
What Personality disorder is describes as "Taking aggressive actions in and indirect manner, argumentative"?
What Personality Disorder has the following:
Ungluing of "reason" or emotion
Avoids social interaction
What Defense Mechanism is described as "Refusal to perceive unpleasant realities"?
What population most often uses the defense mechanism of denial?
What Defense Mechanism is "Act of assigning a feeling or belief to another person, group or outside world"?
What is an example of Projection (Defense Mechanism)?
What Defense Mechanism is described as "Attributing one's own unacceptable desires and impulses to someone else"?
What Defense Mechanism is described as "Depressed, unacceptable behavior expressed in an exaggerated form or an opposite behavior"?
In what population is the Defense Mechanism of Reaction Formation often seen?
Former cigarette smoker
What Defense Mechanism is "a response to stress in which an individual reverts to a less developmentally mature stage"?
What Defense Mechanism is "unconscious exclusion of painful impulses, desires, or fears from the conscious mind"?
What is the definition of Transference (Defense Mechanism)?
Redirecting ones feelings (aggression or affection) from one person to another
What Defense Mechanism is "Channeling unacceptable impulses or energy into socially acceptable activates"?
What population uses the defense mechanism of Sublimation?
What are the seven symptoms of an Anxiety Disorder?
Increased Heart Rate
Shortness of Breathe
Feeling of Impending Doom
What kind of disorder last 15-30 minutes and nothing brings it on?
What is a reoccurring intrusive thought or image that seems senseless or unpleasant?
What is a Compulsion?
Activity, designed to reduce anxiety that a person feels compelled to repeat with no conscious desire to do so
What is the term for someone who "inflexible, uncontrollably entangled with details and highly repetitive actions"?
What is Obsession and what is a Compulsion?
When does Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder usually start?
Early adolescence (maybe in childhood)
What is the term for an irrational or unrealistic fear?
What is the word for fear of public spaces?
What is the definition for Acrophobia?
Fear of Heights
If someone has Astrophobia what do they fear?
Thunder and Lightning
What is the term if someone has a fear of Stars and Celestial space?
What is the following definition "Psychological conflict that takes on a physical form and no organic evidence exists to explain the symptoms"?
What condition has multiple chronic complaints but no physically illness is present?
What are three other things to know about a patient with Somatization Disorder?
More concerned with discomfort than disease
Seeks treatment & changes life as a result of symptoms
Symptoms are vague and exaggerated
What is the name of the condition that is an exaggerated pre-occupation with bodily function and fear that one is suffering from a serious disease?
*All over Google*
What is another word for the Somatoform Disorder of Conversion Hysteria?
What is Conversion Hysteria?
Loss or change of a physical function caused by a psychological conflict
When is Conversation Hysteria often seen?
What are the five most common disabilities seen with Conversion Hysteria?
What are two conditions that fall into the category of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
What is the definition of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Pervasive belief that a body part is misshapen or malformed
What two things may a patient with Body Dysmorphic Disorder avoid?
What condition has the following definition "Severe fluctuation of mood or personality"?
What condition is associated with delirium tremens and folate deficiency?
What are five things a patient with Anorexia Nervosa may have/do?
Severe restriction of calories
Fear of being fat/ body image distortion
Unreasonable fear of gaining weight
What is another term for Bipolar Affective Disorder?
What will the behavior a patient with Bipolar Affective Disorder alternate between?
When does the condition of Manic Depressive first occur?
Between childhood and the age of 50
What is the average length of both a manic and depressive phase is the condition of Bipolar Affective Disorder?
Manic: Three months
Depressive: Six-Nine Months
What condition will have a preoccupation with food, binge eat and then purge and a body image distortion?
What is the name of the condition that is associated with muscle inhibition?
What is a Transvestite?
What kind of therapy is associating an action with unpleasant consequences?
What is the name of the test to measure the severity of Depression?
Beck Test/ Beck Depression Questionnaire
21 multiple choice test, of self-report inventory
What is Classical Conditioning?
Two events that occur close together in time and become fused in a person's mind (i.e. Pavlov's Dog)
What condition has a definition of "Satisfying reinforcement strengthens a behavior"?
What is an example of Operant Conditioning?
What is the definition of Negative Reinforcement?
Taking away the adverse stimulus in response to a person's action increases that action
What is an example of Negative Reinforcement?
Purchasing a candy bar for a screaming child at the check out
What is the name of the Therapy that is defined as "Form of desensitization for the treatment of phobias and related disorders in which a patient is repeatedly exposed to emotionally distressing stimuli of high intensity"?
What is the name of the test that is used to screen for Dementia, 30 point questionnaire to screen for cognitive impairment?
Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
What is the name of the Therapy defined as "Behavior modification technique in which one is taught to imitate the desired behavior of another"?
(Saying please and Thank you)
What is the name of the test that is a psychological test using inkblot images?
What is one method of testing the IQ of a person?
What test initiated the modern field of intelligence testing?
Stanford Binet Test
What person used "collective unconscious of man" and "Psychoanalysis"?
What person goes with Operant Conditioning?
Who is linked to Classical Conditioning?
Who came up with the Hierarchy of human needs?
What are the Hierarchy of Human Needs (5 things)?
Who is linked to Development of free association and dream analysis as a route to the unconscious mind?
Who developed the Psychosexual stage of development; oral to anal to phallic or genital?
What are the three levels of one's self and what are they paired with?
Id: Basic Instinct
Ego: Reality and Control
Superego: Guilt and Consciousness
What is the category that Tylenol is in?
What can long use of Acetaminophens lead to?
Liver Damage (Hepatotoxic)
What is an absorbent that treats poisoning and overdoses?
What is the name of the Antiviral for Herpes?
What is used to treat chronic gout?
What drug has the odor of garlic?
What is the term for sleeping pills?
What can Barbiturates produce?
What is the name of Muscle Relaxant?
What two conditions are Beta Blockers used for?
What are two signs/symptoms of a person with Carbon Monoxide poisoning?
Blue Mucous Membrane
Cherry Red Lips
What use to be found often in Fire Extinguishers?
What two organs is Chloroform toxic to?
What is the name of the drug to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders?
What type/class does the drug Cholinesterase Inhibitor fall into?
What is the classification of Cocaine?
What drug can be used as a local anesthetic?
What drug is used to treat acute symptomatic gout?
Where can Cyanide be found?
What is the best substance to remove lead from blood chelation therapy?
Ethylene Diaminete Traacetic Acid (EDTA)
What is the name of a substance that will make a person vomit?
What is used to treat Anaphylactic Shock?
Epinephrine (Epi Pen)
How is the contents of the stomach removed?
What drug can be used to treat psychotic disorders?
What classification of drug includes mushroom and nutmeg?
What are two things that happen with Lead Poisoning?
Produces Basophilic Stippling of Red Blood Cells (RBC)
Affects the Central Nervous System (CNS); Radial Nerve Palsy
What is the name of the drug that is used to treat Bi-Polar disorder and causes tremors?
What drug is used in people who have Coronary Artery Disease?
What drug is used to treat Depression?
What drug is classified as an Antipsychotic?
What is the clinical name given to Aspirin?
Who do you not give Aspirin to?
Children with a viral infection
What is the active ingredient in the drug Seconal?
What is the name of the drug that will induce vomiting?
Syrup of Ipecac
What will predispose elderly people to fall?
What classification of drug is Tricyclic?
What drug can cause hypertension?
What are two things the drug Tyramine can be found in?
What is the name of the drug that is an anticoagulant?
What is the name of the condition that is "Chronic respiratory disease caused by inhalation of various minerals or metallic particles"?
What condition can Asbestosis exposure lead to?
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Iron Dust?
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Coal Dust? (Black Lung)
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Cotton Dust?
Who is often effected with the condition of Byssinosis?
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Sand/Stone Dust or glass?
What two population will have the condition of Silicosis?
Rock Corey Workers
What hormone is measured in pregnant women?
What does Alpha Fetoprotein test help determine?
In what two conditions will there be a change is Alpha Fetoprotein?
Open neural tube defects- Increased levels
Down's Syndrome- Deceased levels
What is the term for absence of Menses?
When are two times Amenorrhea is commonly seen?
What are three things that are evaluated when doing Amniocentesis?
Heath of the fetus
What two minerals is breast milk deficient in?
What is the term for the first breast milk?
1-3 days after delivery
High in Antibodies
When is Dilation of the Cervix seen?
1st stage of labor
What is the term for painful menses?
What are two possible causes of Dysmenorrhea?
Increased prostaglandin (Hormonal)
Pathological (Endometriosis, Fibroids)
What is the definition of Dystocia?
Abnormal, Painful, Prolonged Labor
What is the term for Thinning of the Cervix?
How is the term Engagement defined (during pregnancy)?
Decent of the fetal skull to the levels of the ischial spines
What is the term if a women has "Excessive nausea and vomiting during pregnancy"?
What is the most common surgical procedure for the diagnosis and treatment of Endometriosis?
What term is defined as "Baby drops into the pelvis two weeks before delivery and produces lower abdominal pain"?
What is Linea Nigra?
A dark streak down the midline of the abdomen seen during pregnancy
What is the term for "Vaginal discharge after delivery and throughout the puerperium"?
What are the colors of Lochia?
What is the term for the first menstrual cycle?
What is it called if there is pain in the abdomen at ovulation?
What is the definition of Multiparous?
More than one delivery to a Viable infant
What is the term given to a women if she has never given birth to a viable infant?
What is the term for "First pregnancy with a viable infant"?
What is the most common complication of child birth?
Post Partum Infection
What is Post Partum Infection most commonly seen?
What is the term defined as "Period of time after the delivery of the placenta to the complete involution of the organs"?
What is the name of an infection that happens during Puerperium?
What is the term for "First movement of fetal life felt by the mother"?
How is the term "Stations" defined (Pregnancy)?
Fetal position (cm) in relation to the spines of the Ischium
What are two signs of Pregnancy?
Presence of fetal heartbeat (Best)
Menses is three weeks late
What is Chadwick's Sign?
Bluish discoloration of the vagina
What is it called when "the tip of the cervix softens"?
What is Hegar's Sign?
Softening of the isthmus of the uterus
How is Piskacek's Sign defined?
Enlargement of the uterus near the uterine tube over the site of implantation
What is the most common reason for a post partum hemorrhage?
What is the name associated with "Early uterine contractions (Oxytocin) without cervical changes"?
Braxton Hick's Contractions
What movement will cause a decrease in Braxton Hick's Contractions?
What is the most common malignancy of the female genital tract?
What is the term that has "brown hyperpigmentation of the face/mask of pregnancy"?
What is the term for a "Malignancy of the placenta due to abnormal epithelium" (No Pregnancy)?
What is the condition of "Herniation of the urinary bladder into the vagina' (Anterior Wall)?
What is the definition of Eclampsia?
Toxemia of Pregnancy caused by Hypertension, leading to convulsions
Where is the most common place for an Ectopic Pregnancy at?
What are the three symptoms of an Ectopic Pregnancy?
Light Vaginal Bleeding
Lower abdominal pain
Cramping on one side of the pelvis
What is Endometriosis?
Abnormal endometrial tissue outside of the uterus
What kind of pain is seen in Endometriosis?
What can Endometriosis cause?
What is the most common type of post partum infection?
Staph or Strep
What is it called if there is inflammation of the endometrium?
What condition is described as "Palpable nodules in the breast after ovulation but regress after menses"?
Fibrocystic Breast Disease
What population have a higher likelihood to have Fibrocystic Breast Disease?
Overweight Diabetic Women
What is it called if there is a "Begin mass of trophoblastic tissue which develops at the placenta"?
If a Hydatidifrom Mole become malignant what is it called?
What hormone will be extremely elevated if a Hydatidifrom Mole is present?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
What condition has "Numerous cyst along the outer edge of the ovary caused by a hormonal imbalance"?
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
What are three possible indications that a women has Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCSO)?
High testosterone levels
Not able to get pregnant
What condition has the following signs; Toxemia of pregnancy with Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria (HEP)?
What is the name of the condition that has "Herniation of the rectum into the vagina", "Collapsed Pouch", along the Posterior wall of the vagina?
What happen in the First (1st) stage of Pregnancy?
From first meaningful contraction to full dilation (10 cm) of the cervix
What is the longest stage of Pregnancy?
What is a term for the "Release of the mucous plug during the first stage of labor"?
What happens in the Second (2nd) stage of Pregnancy?
From full dilation of the cervix to the delivery of the baby
In what stage of pregnancy does the women have hot/cold flashes and the urge to push?
In what stage of pregnancy is the placenta delivered?
What stage of pregnancy is most dangerous to the mother?
Mother could bleed out, time between when the baby is delivered and the placenta comes out
What happens in the Fourth stage of Pregnancy?
Time from delivery to placenta to several hours when the tone of the uterus is established and the contractions of the uterus expel any remaining contents
What is the term for a "Low lying placenta with partial obstruction of the internal os"?
What is the definition of Placenta Abruptio?
Detaches from the site
Spontaneous abortion/Premature Separation
What is the name of the condition if the "Placenta does not separate after delivery"?
What is another term for Placenta Accreta?
What is required if a women has a Placenta Accreta?
What is it called when the "Umbilical cord is attached to the margin of the placenta"?
(Rarely occurs, no affect to the function of the placenta)
Where is a Pap Smear taken from?
Tip of the cervix and surround structures
What is considered a "Normal" Pap Smear?
What does a Classification II Pap Smear indicate?
Atypical or benign (Possible infection/inflammation/STD)
What Classification of Pap Smear is "Pre cancerous/Dysplasia"?
What is a Classification IV Pap Smear indicate?
In Situ/ Non-invasive carcinoma
What Classification of Pap Smear indicated "Malignancy/Invasive"?
When should an infant get it first teeth?
At what age can you introduce the "first food" to a child?
When should a baby start to crawl?
At what age should a baby be able to "Walk with Assistance"?
A child should be able to "Walk unassisted" by what age?
What should a child be able to do by 18 months?
Talk 10-15 words
When does the Umbilical Cord usually fall off?
When does the Posterior Fontanelle close?
When does the Anterior Fontanelle close?
2 years (This is the larger of the two fontanelles)
What does a Depressed Fontanelle indicated?
What does and Bulging Fontanelle indicate?
Intracranial Pressure, possible excessive crying
What two time is the APGAR score taken?
Immediately after birth and 5 minuets after birth
What are the five components of the APGAR Score?
Heart Rate (Pulse)
Muscle Tone (Grimace)
What is NOT included in the APGAR Score?
What is the term for "fuzzy hair on the baby's skin"?
What is Meconium?
First discharge for the intestines of a newborn
(Green Paste, dead Red Blood Cells (RBC))
What is the following description "Bluish, ill defined areas of the skin in the buttock/scrotal region"?
What are the two indications that a child is born premature?
Born between 26-37 weeks gestation
Weighs less than 2500 grams
What is the term for "White cheesy substance on the baby's skin at birth"?
What syndrome is a mild form of Autism?
What three foods can cause Botulism in newborns?
What is the condition of Caput Succedeum?
Baby's head has an unusual shape due to swelling of the scalp, considered benign
What condition in a child is similar to that of Seborrheic Dermatitis in an adult?
What is the term for Bedwetting?
How is Erythroblastosis Fetalis caused?
Hemolytic Anemia in the fetus/neonate
Trans-placental transmission of maternal antibodies to fetal Red Blood Cells (RBC)
What is usually a result from an incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood groups, often Rh0 (D) antigens?
What color will the child be that has Erythroblastosis Fetalis be?
Jaundice, place under a blue light
What condition in a child will cause the following findings:
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
What is the name of the condition if a child has a protein malnutrition?
What is the classic sign of Kwashiorkor?
Ascites, distended abdomen
What is the most common cancer of children and Down's Syndrome individuals?
What is the term for General Malnutrition?
What is the term described as "Prickly Heat"?
Miliaria from sweat glands
What can lead to fetal suffocation?
Prolapsed Umbilical Cord
What vitamin prevents hemorrhaging in newborns?
What condition can lead to mental retardation and seizures in children?
What enzyme is nonfunctional in the genetic disorder of Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
What are four communicable diseases associated with a virus?
Measles (Rubella and Rubeola)
What is another name for Rubella? (Measles)
How long does German Measles last?
Last a short time
What two symptoms are seen with Rubella?
When is German Measles the most dangerous?
1st trimester of fetal life, may lead to birth defects
What type of Measles has a "Prodromal stage"?
What are two symptoms of Rubeola? (Measles)
Koplic Spots, on buccal mucosa
How long does Rubeola last?
What two things will Rubeola be present with?
What is the most common serious complication of Rubeola?
What is the lesion type of Chicken Pox?
What is the name of the disease that is "Mild in children and adult and located in the parotid gland"?
What condition can be produced after an person has Mumps?
Orchitis (Inflammation of the testicles)
What condition is seen in children and is characterized by a "resonant barking cough (Seal Like)?
In the condition of Croup what may have a membrane?
What are four communicable diseases associated with Bacteria?
Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
What is another name for Pertussis?
What is the causative organism of Pertussis?
What age group is Pertussis most dangerous to?
Infants under the age of one
What causes death in patients with Whooping Cough?
Bronchopneumonia (Death by Anoxia)
What is the organism that causes Diphtheria?
How does Diphtheria present?
Grey pseudo membrane o the throat
What test is done on a patient with Diphtheria?
What causes Scarlet Fever?
Group A Strep Pyogenes
What are two findings in the condition of Scarlet Fever?
Peeling (Desquamation) of the superficial layer
What test will be positive in a Patient with Scarlet Fever?
At what age will you see the condition of Roseola Infantum?
Less than 2 years of age
In the condition of Roseola Infantum what is the pattern of the rash?
Starts on the trunk and works out to the extremities
When will the rash appear in the condition of Roseola Infantum?
After the fever breaks
How is the Rooting Reflex stimulated?
Stroke the corner of the mouth; the infant's mouth will open and turn to the side that was touched
What is the most primitive reflex originating from the brain stem?
What reflex is elicited by placing a finger or nipple in the mouth of a newborn?
What does the Sucking Reflex stimulate?
Release of Oxytocin
What is the Tonic Neck Reflex?
Doctor rotates the head of a supine child and the ipsilateral arm and leg extend while the contralateral arm and leg flex
What is a positive Moro(Startle) Reflex?
Arms and legs flare out to the sides in response to a loud sound and then are brought back into the body
What reflex has Sensory Integrations?
Moro (Startle) Reflex
What is the name of the reflex that an "Infant should attempt to raise head and arch the back when placed in a prone position"?
What is a positive Perez Reflex?
While running a finger down the spine of a prone infant the whole body will extend
What is the name of the reflex described:
"While running a finger down the ipsilateral paraspinal muscles the baby will contract to that side"?
What is the most common geriatric neuromuscular complaint?
Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)
What is the name of the condition that is normal in the older population and is described as "a greyish opaque ring around the cornea"?
What is the name of the condition seen in the geriatric population that has loss of elasticity of the lens OR hardening of the lens (cannot focus on up close objects)?
What is the definition of the condition Presbycussis?
Inability to hear high frequencies
What is the most common Endocrine Malfunction in the elderly?
What is the most common anemia is everyone?
Iron Deficient Anemia
What is the name of bed sore that requires protein for healing?
What is the area most often seen with a Decubitus Ulcer?
Over the Sacrum
What is the most common fractured bone in the elderly?
What is the most common visual problem in the elderly leading to blindness?
What is the term used if there is discriminatory treatment towards the elderly?
What is the most common type of dementia among older people?
What are three things that are impaired in a patient that has Alzheimer's Disease?
What is the only diagnosis for Alzheimer's Disease?
How is the condition of Glaucoma tested?
What condition has an increase in intraocular pressure?
What test is best used to measure the following:
Oxygen uptake transport
Positron Emission Test (PET)
What syndrome is seen in alcoholics with a B1 (Thiamin) deficiency?
What is the term for an "abnormal passage between two organs"
"an organ and the exterior of the body"?
What is the term for "small tear in the mucosa that lines the anus"?
What is the definition of an Abscess?
Collection of pus that accumulated in a tissue
What is the term linked to the following definition:
"Transfer of a patient to another doctor without the patient's consent"?
What is the definition of Assault?
Threat of violence to another person
What is it called if you adjust without consent?
What is the following definition "A dispute that is resolved by an unbiased third party and has no appeal process"?
In what court system are malpractices cases against a chiropractor tried?
What are the five components that make up a contract?
Two or more competent parties
What term is associated with the following definition: "Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harm's a persons reputation"?
Defamation of Character
What three things must and employer pay for their employees?
FICA (Federal Insurance)
What is Expressed Consent?
Patient has the procedure explained to them, understands and agrees to it
What is the Good Samaritan Law?
Good faith rendering of care at an emergency, isn't liable for civil damages
What is the following definition: "Patient is unable to communicate their consent, but life saving interventions are needed"?
What is Informed Consent?
Providing the patient with feasible alternatives and informing them of the dangers of treatment
**May be verbal**
What term is associated with the following definition: "False statement submitted in Writing that harms another"?
What is the following definition: "A professional negligence by acts or omission by a health care provide in which care provided Deviate from the accepted standards of practice in the medical community and cause injury or death the patient"
What is Negligence?
Failure to conform to the standard of care expected and imposed by law
What is the following definition: "Where the burden of proof lies in a court of law"?
What is the term for "Employer is responsible for the actions of employees"?
What is "A false Verbal statement of another person"?
What is the following definition: "Formal diagnostic and treatment process a doctor will follow for a patient with a certain set of symptoms or a specific illness.
The standard will follow guidelines and protocols that Experts would agree with as most appropriate, so called "Best Practice"?
Standards of Care
What is "The Length of time you have to sue for an injury"?
Statutes of Limitation (2 years)
What is the following definition: "Standard of care is the basis on which negligence and fault and determined in medical malpractice lawsuits.
It refers to the level of care, skill and knowledge that is expected of all physicians in a particular field, in and particular region, acting in similar circumstances"?
What is Third Party Consent?
Patient is mentally incapable of understanding the procedure and/or the ramification of consent or refused, so consent is given or withheld on their behalf by a legal designate
What is the following definition: "Body of law which allows an injured person to obtain compensation from the person who caused the injury"?
What is Vicarious Liability?
Responsibility is imposed upon one person for failure of another in the case of special relationships (parent/child or employer/employee)
What is the Pulse Rate for an Adult (12 years and older)?
60-100 Beats per minute
What is the Blood Pressure for an Adult (12 years and older)?
Systolic: 90-140 mm Hg
Diastolic: 60-90 mm Hg
What is the Respiration for an Adult (12 years and older)?
12-20 breaths per minute
What is the Pulse Rate for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
80-100 Beats per minute
What is the Blood Pressure for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
Systolic: 80-100 mm Hg
What is the Respirations for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
15-30 breaths per minute
What is the Pulse Rate for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
100-140 Beats per minute
What is the Blood Pressure for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
Systolic: 70-95 mm Hg
What is the Respirations for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
25-50 breaths per minute
What is the Pulse Rate for a Newborn?
120-160 Beats per minute
What is the Blood Pressure for a Newborn?
Systolic: Greater than 60 mm Hg
What is the Respirations for a Newborn?
40-60 breaths per minute
What are the three steps for Conscious Choking in an Adult or Child?
1. Encourage Coughing
2. If they cannot cough, 5 blows between the shoulder blades
3. Give 5 Abdominal Thrust
What are the four steps for Conscious Choking in an Infant?
1. Place infant face down along the forearm
2. Give 5 back blows
3. Turn infant face up
4. Give 4 chest thrust (Below the nipple line, compress 5 times about 1.5 inches)
What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Adult or Child?
1. Rise and tilt the head to prepare for ventilations
2. 30 compressions (About two inches in depth) Compress at a rate of 100 compressions per minute
What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Infant?
1. Fix Head
2. 30 Compressions (about 1.5 inches in depth)
What are the three things to know about the Finger Sweep Technique?
Used to Clear and Airway Obstruction
ONLY perform on an unconscious patient
ONLY perform when you can see foreign object in patient's mouth
What must you do before you start any rescue efforts on a patient (i.e. CPR)?
Check for responsiveness
How do you check the circulation of a patient?
Place to fingers on the carotid artery and apply slight pressure for a few seconds
If no pulse is present what is your next step?
Perform chest compressions
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Adult?
12 (1 Ventilation about every 5 seconds)
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Child?
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Infant?
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Newborn?
30-60 (1 Ventilation about every 1-2 seconds)
How is CPR performed on an Adult:
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)
Compression Depth: At least 2 inches
Breaths: Until chest clearly rises (1 second/ventilation)
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
Cycles; Two Rescuers:30:2
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
How is CPR performed on a Child:
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)
Compression Depth: At least 2 inches
**Breaths: 1 second per ventilation**
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
**Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2**
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
How is CPR performed on an Infant:
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
**Hand Position: Two or three fingers on the center of the chest (Just below the nipple line)**
**Compression Depth: About 1.5 inches**
**Breaths: 1 second per Second**
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
**Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2**
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
When are three times you stop CPR?
Another responder takes over
You are too exhausted to continue
The scene becomes unsafe
What are two risk factors of performing CPR?
If someone Ingested a poison what may you have them take and why?
Why: Prevent moving to Small intestine; where most absorption takes place
In what four conditions should you not induce vomiting in a patient?
Having a Seizure
Last Trimester of Pregnancy
Ingested corrosive substance or Gasoline
What do all patients that inhaled a poison need?
Oxygen As soon as possible
What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Plant?
Rinse with water for at least 20 minuets
What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Dry Chemical?
Brush it off with a gloved hand
Flush for 20 minuets with tap water
What is the care if a poison has come in contact with a patient's eyes?
Irrigate from the noes (Medial to Lateral) side
What type of shock is "result of the heart being unable to supply adequate blood circulation to the vital organs"?
What are two causes of Cardiogenic Shock?
What is the care for a Patient with Cardiogenic Shock?
Patient Supine with their feet higher than their head
What type of shock is caused by an abnormal decrease in blood volume?
What are three causes of Hypovolemic Shock?
Limb chopped off
Abdominal Aortic Aneurism (AAA)
What kind of shock is caused by trauma to the spinal cord or brain?
What type of Shock is "where the blood vessel walls abnormally constrict and dilate, preventing relay messages and cause blood to pool in the lowest part of the body"?
What causes Obstructive Shock?
Obstruction of blood flow
What is an example of Obstructive Shock?
What kind of shock is caused by failure of the lungs to transfer sufficient oxygen into the blood stream?
When does Respiratory Shock occur?
Respiratory Distress (i.e. Asthma)
What is the definition of Septic Shock?
When an infection has spread to the point that bacteria are releasing toxins into the bloodstream
What position should you lay a person in that has been struck by Lightening?
Head slightly lower than the trunk, with legs elevated and supported
What two locations should you find on a person that has been struck by lightening?
Enter and exit sights
How should you remove a visible foreign object (body) from the eye?
*Never touch the eye*
Pull the eyelid down and try and remove with sterile gauze pad
Flush the eye with irrigation
How should you care for a chemical exposure to the eye?
Irrigate the eye with clean water for 20 minuets
What should you do if there is an impaled object in the eye?
Cover Both eyes
Support the object
What is a "Battle Sign"?
Ecchymosis (Bleeding) around the Mastoid
What does a "Battle Sign" indicate?
Possible Basilar Skull Fracture
How are burns graded?
By the depth of the burn
What is the characteristic, layer and example of an 1st Degree Burn?
What is the characteristic and layers of an 2nd Degree Burn?
Layer: Epidermis and Dermis, Not the base of the Dermis
How is a 3rd Degree Burn described?
Charring of the skin
What are six signs/symptoms of a Grade 1 Concussion?
No loss of Consciousness
Nausea (May occur)
How long does a Grade 1 Concussion last?
15-30 Minuets (Approximately)
How long does a Grade 2 Concussion last?
30 minutes to the entire day
*Same signs/symptoms of Grade 1, just stronger*
What are three Signs/Symptoms of a Grade3 Concussion?
Loss of Consciousness
How long does a Grade 3 Concussion last?
Seconds to Minutes
What is the most common condition in the general population that results from trauma and has a fast bleeding rate?
What does an Epidural Hematoma increase?
What is one cause of Epidural Hematoma?
What kind of headache will be seen in a patient that has an Epidural Hematoma?
When is the Glasgow Scale used?
Assess the level of consciousness for any medial or trauma patient
What are the three parameters used on the Glasgow Scale?
What condition is a "brief muscle cramp due to excess heat or exercise"?
What condition has an electrolyte deficiency?
What condition has the following care:
Move the patient out of the hot environment to a cooler area
Remove excess clothing
Cool the patient's body by spraying with cool water, applying cool wet clothes to the body
Hydrate with electrolytes
What are two signs of Heat Shock?
Low Blood Pressure
Rapid, weak pulse
What are the nine signs of Heat Stroke?
Cessation of sweating
High Body Temperature
Rapid weak pulse
Low Blood Pressure
What is the care for a patient having Heat Stroke?
Immerse the patient in cold water up to their neck (Preferred Method)
Douse the patient with towels soaked in ice water over entire body
What condition would you perform the following care:
Remove any wet clothing and dry off patient
Passively warm the patient by wrapping all exposed body surfaces
What are two things you NEVER do to a patient with Hypothermia?
Immerse the patient in warm water
Rub or massage the extremities
If a patient has frostbite how must you handle the area?
Should you attempt to rewarm the frostbitten area?
How do your treat a more serious frostbite case?
Rewarm the body, not the effected area, by gently soaking it in water no warmer than 105 degrees F
What is it called when an Injury produces black and blue spots around the eyes?
What condition is usually a result of a cerebral aneurysm?
What condition is considered a form of a stroke?
What condition is usually the result of a serious head injury and most commonly seen in athletes?
What kind of hematoma is among the most deadly?
Acute Subdural Hematoma
What is the major symptom of a Subdural Hemorrhage?
Slower Bleed (Than Epidural Hemorrhage, veins bleed slower) =Slower onset
What does the term Res Ipsa Loquitur mean?
"The thing speaks for itself"