Assocaited Clinical Science (ACS) Part II (Irene Gold) Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Assocaited Clinical Science (ACS) Part II (Irene Gold) Deck (588):
1

What is the name of the condition seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the ventral surface of the penis?

Hypospadias (Boots)

2

What is the name of the condition that is seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the dorsal side of the penis?

Epispadias (Goggles)

3

What is the condition of Phimosis?

Foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis

4

What condition is described as "Foreskin becomes trapped behind/under the glans penis"?

Paraphimosis ("Turtle Neck")

5

What is the description of a Hydrocele?

Fluid accumulation around testes
Non Tender
Transillumnate
Can palpate above the mass

6

What two male conditions of the male genital area are Not Transillumnate?

Scrotal Hernia
Tumor (Seminoma)

7

In what condition can you not palpate above the mass in a male genital disorder?

Scrotal Hernia

8

What male genital disorder will there be high levels of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) and a Painless nodule?

Tumor (Seminoma)

9

What is the name of the male genital disorder described as a "Bag of Worms"?

Varicocele

10

What is often a cause of Varicocele?

Portal Hypertension

11

What is the name of the male genital condition that is described as "Common, Cutaneous firm, yellow crust"?

Epidermoid Cyst

12

What male genital disorder has "Reddened testes that are tender and has posterior superior scrotal swelling"?

Epididymitis

13

What two male genital disorders are Tranillunimate?

Hydrocele
Epididymitis

14

What is the name of the male genital disorder that occurs from a blunt trauma and is a surgical emergency?

Testicular Torsion

15

What male genital disorder is seen in adolescents and is classified as painful and swollen?

Testicular Torsion

16

What are the two characteristics of Cryptorchism?

Undescended testicle
Increased risk of Testicular cancer

17

What is the term used to describe and erection lasting longer than four hours?

Priapism

18

What are three things that can cause Priapism?

Erectile Dysfunction Drugs
Central Nervous System (CNS) trauma
Increased intracranial pressure

19

What is the term for an "Inflamed Penis gland"?

Balanitis

20

What is the male genital disorder of Peyronie's?

Crooked erection ("up, up and away")

21

What is a term that is associated with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Salpingitisis

22

What part of the reproduction system is most effected by Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Fallopian Tubes

23

What is the main cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

Gonorrhea

24

What are four other causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease besides Gonorrhea?

Chlamydia
Candidiasis Yeast
Trichomoniasis
Infections=Prior STD

25

What kind of stain is Gonorrhea?

Gram-Negative Diplococcus

26

How is the Gonorrhea organism grown in a lab?

Chocolate Agar Plate

27

What is the most common symptom of Gonorrhea?

Dysuria (Painful Urination)

28

What is the most common sign of Gonorrhea?

Green Mucopurulent discharge

29

What is the most common joint effected in Gonorrhea?

Knee

30

In Gonorrhea the MC site of Sequelae in each of the following populations:
Men
Women
Newborns

Men: Testicles➡️Sterility

Women: Salpingitisis

Newborns: Blindness

31

Chlamydia is the causative agent for what two disorders/conditions?

Reiter's
Ophthalmia Neonatorum

32

What condition does Chlamydia cause in females?

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

33

What condition is seen in males with Chlamydia?

Nothing, Asymptomatic

34

What is the most common cause of infertility in the United States?

Chlamydia

35

Which Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD), is more common Chlamydia or Gonorrhea?

Gonorrhea

36

What is the organism associated with Syphilis?

Spirochete (Treponema Pallidum)

37

STD transmitted through the placenta?

Syphilis

38

What is a treatment for Syphilis?

Penicillin

39

What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is associated with Hutchinson's Triad?

Syphilis

40

What is Hutchinson's Triad?

Interstitial Keratitis
Notched Permanent Incisors (peg)
CN VIII Deafness

STD-Syphilis

41

What Diagnostic Test are done for a patient with Syphilis?

Darkfield Microscopy

42

What Labs are ordered in the condition of Syphilis?

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
FTA/ABS
TPI

43

What are characteristics of the First Stage of Syphilis?

Hard painless Singular Chancre

44

How long does the First Stage of Syphilis last?

Up to 8 weeks

45

What are the three characteristics of Stage Two of Syphilis?

Maculopapular Rash
Condylomata Lata (Flat Warts)
Alopecia

46

How long does the Second Stage of Syphilis last?

8 weeks to 2 years

47

What Stage of Syphilis is the most "Transmission"?

Stage Two

48

What are the three symptoms associated with Stage Three Syphilis?

Tabes Dorsalis (Posterior)
Gummas
Vascular Damage (Aortic Aneurysm or Aortic Valve Insufficiency)

49

In what Stage of Syphilis is there no transmission of the disease?

Stage Three

50

What is the time frame for Stage Three of Syphilis?

Over 25 years; without treatment

51

What kind of organism causes Trichimoniasis?

Parasite

52

What kind of Discharge is seen in Trichimoniasis?

Greenish Yellow
Frothy
Foul Smelling

53

What is another name for Candidiasis?

Moniliasis

54

What organism causes Candidiasis?

Yeast/Fungus

55

STD with White Cottage Cheese Discharge seen in the mouth of the vagina?

Candidiasis

56

What is Candidiasis of the mouth called?

Thrush

57

What two conditions are associated with Candidiasis?

Diabetes
Antibiotic Usage (Probiotics)

58

What two populations will often bee seen with Thrush?

Immunocomprimised Infants
AIDS Patients

59

What organism causes Lymphogranuloma Venereum?

Chlamydia

60

What are two signs/symptoms of Lymphogranuloma Venereum?

Affects the lymph nodes of the groin
Produces Rectal Strictures

61

What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?

Bacterium

62

What is the incubation time for the bacterium organism of the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?

8-80 days

63

How does the condition of Granuloma Inguinale present?

Red Beefy Lesions
Nodular, lead to Ulcerations

64

Where is the condition of Granuloma Inguinale seen at?

Anogenital to Perineal Area

65

What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Genital Herpes?

Virus (HSV-2)

66

What is the appearance of Genital Herpes?

Vesicular clusters

67

What two things makes Genital Herpes reoccur?

Decreased immunity
Stress

68

What is another name for Genital Warts?

Condylomata Accuminata

69

What is the organism that causes Genital Warts?

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

70

What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is linked to Cervical Caner?

Genital Warts

71

What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has a Papilloma?

Genital Warts

72

What are four characteristics of a Papilloma?

Painful
Soft
Flesh Colored
Cauliflower Erosions

73

What organism is linked to the Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) of Chancroid?

Hemophilus Ducreyi

74

What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has "Papules that become soft and painful"?

Chancroid

75

What test is performed on a patient with Chancroid?

Frei Test

76

What kind of organism is the HIV Virus?

Retrovirus

77

What is the condition of AIDS often associated with?

Opportunistic Infections

78

What is one contraindication of a person with AIDS?

Breast Feeding

79

What are two high risk populations of contacting AIDS?

Homosexual Males
IV Drug users

80

What two Labs are ordered for AIDS patients?

1-ELISA; Screening test (RNA)
2-Western Blot; Most accurate (Proteins)

81

What are three associated conditions in AIDS patients?

Pneumocystis Carinii (Fungal Lung) (Most Common)
Giardia Lamblia (Diarrhea)
Kaposi's Sarcoma

82

What is the organism in the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?

Virus

83

What two populations will you see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?

Children
Adults-transmitted via sex

84

What is the only Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) that can be transmitted by a fomite?

Molluscum Contagiosum

(Fomite-Bath Towel etc.)

85

What are two common locations to see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?

Mucosa of the Mouth
Eyelids

86

What are the characteristics of the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?

Dome shaped
Flesh Colored or Gray umbilicated papule that becomes *pearly white* with a cancerous core

87

What is the size, description and an example of a Macule?

Size: Less the 0.5 cm
Description: Flat
Example: Freckle

88

What is the size and description of a Papule?

Size: Less that 0.5 cm
Description: Raised

89

What two conditions are associated with a Papule?

Measles
Syphilis (Solid)

90

What is the size and description of a Vesicle?

Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Serous Fluid filled

91

What two conditions are associated with a Vesicle?

Herpes
Chicken Pox

92

What is the size and description of a Pustule?

Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Pus Filled

93

What condition is associated a Pustule?

Staph (Bacterial)

94

What causes the Staph infection in conjuncture with the Pustule?

Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)

95

What population has several Furuncles, usually seen at the base of the hair line?

African Americans

96

What is the size and description of a Nodule?

Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Hard, Raised

*Grown up Papule*

97

What is the size and description of a Bulla?

Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Fluid filled

*Grown up Vesicle*

98

What condition is associated with a Bulla?

Phemphigus

99

What is the name of a "Precancerous lesion seen on the mucus membrane that is associated with the use of tobacco products"?

Leukoplakia

100

What two conditions are "white" in the mouth which one can be scrapped off?

Thrush (Can be scrapped off)
Leukoplakia

101

What is the location of Acne Rosacea? (3 areas)

Face
Noes
Cheeks

102

What three things exacerbate Acne Rosacea?

Sunlight
Caffeine
Alcohol

103

What population is the condition of Acne Vulgaris seen in?

Adolescents

104

What gland is infected in the condition of Acne Vulgaris?

Sebaceous Glands

105

How are the Sebaceous Glands of Acne Vulgaris characterized?

Comedones (Blackheads= open, Whiteheads=closed)
Pus filled cyst

106

What is the name of the most common benign sun induced lesion?

Actinic Lentigo

107

What are two types of spots seen in the condition of Actinic Lentigo?

Sun Spots
Liver Spots

108

What are the two most common places to see Actinic Lentigo?

Face
Back of Hands

*Areas that get high amounts of sun exposure*

109

What condition is described as "Pitted Erythematous lesion/ulcer of the mouth"?

Aphthous Stomatitis

110

What are two other terms associated with Aphthous Stomatitis?

Cancer Sore
Yellowish Ulcer

111

What is a "Carload of Furuncles"? Has the same findings as a Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)

Carbuncle

112

What condition is an "Accumulation of sebum within in a pore"?

Comedone (Acne Vulgaris)

113

How is the condition of a Epidermal Cyst (Wen) described?

Non-tender cyst that is filled with sebum

114

What is the organism that is linked tot eh condition of Erysipelas?

Beta Hemolytic STREP

115

What condition has a "Red Fiery, advancing lesion on the skin"?

Erysipelas

116

What are two signs/symptoms a patient with Erysipelas will have?

Fever
Elevated ASO Titer

117

What condition is; A skin reaction usually associated with strep and characterized by bilateral, red, tender nodules?

Erythema Nodosum

118

What is the term for "Any surface injury to the skin"?

Excoriation

119

How do you diagnosis Fungal/Mycotic Infections?

Wood's Lamp

120

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Corpus?

Body

121

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Pedis?

Athlete's Foot

122

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Ungunum?

Nails

123

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Capitus?

Scalp

124

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Cruris?

Jock Itch

125

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Barbae?

Beard

126

What kind of infection causes Tinea Versicolor?

Fungal Infection

127

What is Tinea Versicolor?

Multiple Hypo pigmented
Asymptomatic Lesions
Varying in color from white to brown

128

Where is one place you can acquire the condition of Tinea Versicolor?

Tanning Beds

129

What is the name of the condition that is described as "Staph infected hair follicle that presents as a Painful nodule"?

Furuncle

130

What condition is characterized by small vesicles located on the mouth or the genital region?

Herpes Simplex
HSV 1- Cold Sores (Mouth Region)
HSV 2- Genital Herpes (Genital Area)

131

When can the Herpes Simplex be reactivated?

During delivery

132

What test is done in a patient that has the Herpes Simplex?

Tzank Test

133

What is another term for Herpes Zoster?

Shingles

134

Where is Herpes Zoster most often found? (2 Locations)

Thoracic Dermatome
Cranial Nerve V; area

135

In what population is Herpes Zoster exacerbated in?

Immuno-compromised patients

136

What are two characteristics of Herpes Zoster?

Will not cross midline (Thoracic Outbreak)
Will have pain before outbreak on the skin

137

Where is Herpes Zoster found?

Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)

138

What is another name for Icthyosis?

Fish Skin

139

What condition is an "Increase keratinization producing a Non-inflammatory skin lesion"?

Icthyosis

140

What is the most common organism to cause Impetigo?

Strep

141

What is the sign of Impetigo?

Crusty (Yellow Honey) lesions

142

What two locations are common places to see Impetigo?

Corners of the mouth
Hands

143

What skin condition is very contagious and often seen in children?

Impetigo

144

What condition is seen in the folds of the skin, that has reddened areas caused by trapped moisture, friction and warmth retained?

Intertrigo

145

What is the name of the condition that is "Dense, sharply elevated, progressive enlarging/excessive scar with collagenous hyperplasia"

Keloid

146

What three populations have a high level of Keloids?

African-Americans
Latinos
Asians

147

What condition has a "Rough thick skin due to constant scratching"(Chronic Dermatitis)?

Lichenificaiton

148

What is the name of the condition that is an inflammatory pruritic (itching) disease?

Lichen Planus

149

What are the three characteristics of Lichen Planus?

Papules with:
Shiny
Fine inconspicuous SCALES
Whitish lines or puncta

150

What condition has a "Discrete coin shaped, ring/annular lesion that coalesces to form patches with ooze and then crust overs"

Nummular Eczema

151

What condition is "Tender Bacterial (Maybe Fungal) hand/foot infection where the nail bed meets the skin at the side"?

Paronychia

152

What causes the condition of Pediculosis?

Lice

153

What are the three locations of the condition of Pediculosis?

Pubic Area- Pubis
Body- Corporis
Head-Capitus

154

What is the most common population to have the condition of Pemphigus Vulgaris?

Males of Jewish Decent

155

What is condition that is potentially life threatening condition of bulla (blisters) on the skin"?

Pemphigus Vulgaris

(Causes dehydration)

156

What condition has an oval/round lesion called a "Herald Patch"?

Pityriasis Rosea

157

What is the cause of the condition of Pityriasis Rosea?

Virus

158

What condition has silver scales on the extensor surface of the knees and elbows?

Psoriasis

159

What is a transmittable infection caused by mites?

Scabies

160

What are two characteristics signs of Scabies?

Grouped vesicles
Superficial linea furrows in the groin (Burrow under the skin)

161

What condition is like dandruff and similar to "Cradle Cap" in newborns?

Seborheic Dermatitis

162

What causes the condition of Urticaria?

Hive called a Wheal due to an Allergy (Penicillin or Food)

163

What is the name of the auto immune condition that has an absence of melanocytes (Depigmentation) after development?

Vitiligo

164

Where is the condition of Vitiligo most commonly seen?

Hands
Feet
Face

165

What condition has a complete depigmentation (Lack of Melanin) of the entire body observed from birth?

Albinism

166

Where are two symptoms of Albinism?

Pink Iris
Poor Visual Acuity

167

What is the organism that causes Yeast Infections?

Candia Albicans

168

What is the most common skin cancer?

Basal Cell

169

What Is the Least Invasive Skin Cancer?

Basal Cell

170

What are four characteristics of Basal Cell

Waxy
Indurated
Rat Bite Appearance (Small area)
Doesn't Heal

171

What is the name of the cancer that is a malignant tumor of epithelial cells?

Squamous Cell

172

What areas usually get Squamous Cell Cancer?

Sun exposed area

173

What are three terms to describe Squamous Cell?

Irregular
Flaky
Rough area

174

What is the least common type of skin cancer?

Melanoma

175

What is the most invasive type of skin cancer?

Melanoma

176

What skin cancer will be multicolored and be mole like that follows the "ABC's" of cancer?

Melanoma

177

What is the term for "Premalignant condition of the skin caused by exposure to the sun"?

Actinic Keratosis

178

Who is a person who "acts out conflict with out remorse or guilt and struggles to follow rules"?

Psycho/Sociopath

179

What category is a Psycho/Sociopath fall under?

Antisocial

180

What personality disorder is described as "thoughts or behaviors that are automatic responses to anxiety or stress"?

Compulsive

181

What personality disorder is "Attention seeking, aggressive, seductive person who is unable to be deeply involved emotionally"?

Hysterical

182

What is another term for Hysterical in the Personality Disorders?

Histrionic

183

What is the definition of Narcissism?

Attention seeking
No one else is important (Self Centered)
Strong Admiration for self
Exhibitionist

184

What Personality Disorder has the following:
Preoccupied with delusions
Sensitive
Defensive
Suspicion leading to aggression
Unfounded belief that others want to cause them harm

Paranoid

185

What Personality disorder is describes as "Taking aggressive actions in and indirect manner, argumentative"?

Passive Aggressive

186

What Personality Disorder has the following:
Ungluing of "reason" or emotion
Introverted
Withdrawn
Emotional cold
Distant
Avoids social interaction
Delusions
Hallucinations

Schizoid

187

What Defense Mechanism is described as "Refusal to perceive unpleasant realities"?

Denial

188

What population most often uses the defense mechanism of denial?

Alcoholics

189

What Defense Mechanism is "Act of assigning a feeling or belief to another person, group or outside world"?

Projection

190

What is an example of Projection (Defense Mechanism)?

Cheating Spouse

191

What Defense Mechanism is described as "Attributing one's own unacceptable desires and impulses to someone else"?

Rationalization

192

What Defense Mechanism is described as "Depressed, unacceptable behavior expressed in an exaggerated form or an opposite behavior"?

Reaction Formation

193

In what population is the Defense Mechanism of Reaction Formation often seen?

Former cigarette smoker

194

What Defense Mechanism is "a response to stress in which an individual reverts to a less developmentally mature stage"?

Regression

195

What Defense Mechanism is "unconscious exclusion of painful impulses, desires, or fears from the conscious mind"?

Repression

196

What is the definition of Transference (Defense Mechanism)?

Redirecting ones feelings (aggression or affection) from one person to another

197

What Defense Mechanism is "Channeling unacceptable impulses or energy into socially acceptable activates"?

Sublimation

198

What population uses the defense mechanism of Sublimation?

Alcoholics Anonymous

199

What are the seven symptoms of an Anxiety Disorder?

Heart Palpitations
Increased Heart Rate
Shortness of Breathe
Sweating
Tingling
Dizziness
Feeling of Impending Doom

200

What kind of disorder last 15-30 minutes and nothing brings it on?

Panic Disorder

201

What is a reoccurring intrusive thought or image that seems senseless or unpleasant?

Obsession

202

What is a Compulsion?

Activity, designed to reduce anxiety that a person feels compelled to repeat with no conscious desire to do so

203

What is the term for someone who "inflexible, uncontrollably entangled with details and highly repetitive actions"?

Perfectionist

204

What is Obsession and what is a Compulsion?

Obsession: Thought

Compulsion: Action

205

When does Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder usually start?

Early adolescence (maybe in childhood)

206

What is the term for an irrational or unrealistic fear?

Phobia

207

What is the word for fear of public spaces?

Agoraphobia

208

What is the definition for Acrophobia?

Fear of Heights

209

If someone has Astrophobia what do they fear?

Thunder and Lightning

210

What is the term if someone has a fear of Stars and Celestial space?

Astraphobia

211

What is the following definition "Psychological conflict that takes on a physical form and no organic evidence exists to explain the symptoms"?

Somatoform Disorder

212

What condition has multiple chronic complaints but no physically illness is present?

Somatization Disorder

213

What are three other things to know about a patient with Somatization Disorder?

More concerned with discomfort than disease
Seeks treatment & changes life as a result of symptoms
Symptoms are vague and exaggerated

214

What is the name of the condition that is an exaggerated pre-occupation with bodily function and fear that one is suffering from a serious disease?

Hypochondriasis

*All over Google*

215

What is another word for the Somatoform Disorder of Conversion Hysteria?

Conversion Reaction

216

What is Conversion Hysteria?

Loss or change of a physical function caused by a psychological conflict

217

When is Conversation Hysteria often seen?

After trauma

218

What are the five most common disabilities seen with Conversion Hysteria?

Paralysis
Blindness
Mutism
Deafness
Seizures

219

What are two conditions that fall into the category of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

Anorexia
Bulimia

220

What is the definition of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

Pervasive belief that a body part is misshapen or malformed

221

What two things may a patient with Body Dysmorphic Disorder avoid?

Mirrors
Social Contact

222

What condition has the following definition "Severe fluctuation of mood or personality"?

Affective Disorder

223

What condition is associated with delirium tremens and folate deficiency?

Alcoholism

224

What are five things a patient with Anorexia Nervosa may have/do?

Severe restriction of calories
Fear of being fat/ body image distortion
Amenorrhea
Excessive exercise
Unreasonable fear of gaining weight

225

What is another term for Bipolar Affective Disorder?

Manic Depressive

226

What will the behavior a patient with Bipolar Affective Disorder alternate between?

Manic (Highs)
Melancholia (Lows)

227

When does the condition of Manic Depressive first occur?

Between childhood and the age of 50

228

What is the average length of both a manic and depressive phase is the condition of Bipolar Affective Disorder?

Manic: Three months

Depressive: Six-Nine Months

229

What condition will have a preoccupation with food, binge eat and then purge and a body image distortion?

Bulimia Nervosa

230

What is the name of the condition that is associated with muscle inhibition?

Catatonia

231

What is a Transvestite?

Cross Dresser

232

What kind of therapy is associating an action with unpleasant consequences?

Aversion Therapy

233

What is the name of the test to measure the severity of Depression?

Beck Test/ Beck Depression Questionnaire

21 multiple choice test, of self-report inventory

234

What is Classical Conditioning?

Two events that occur close together in time and become fused in a person's mind (i.e. Pavlov's Dog)

235

What condition has a definition of "Satisfying reinforcement strengthens a behavior"?

Operant Conditioning

236

What is an example of Operant Conditioning?

Time Out

237

What is the definition of Negative Reinforcement?

Taking away the adverse stimulus in response to a person's action increases that action

238

What is an example of Negative Reinforcement?

Purchasing a candy bar for a screaming child at the check out

239

What is the name of the Therapy that is defined as "Form of desensitization for the treatment of phobias and related disorders in which a patient is repeatedly exposed to emotionally distressing stimuli of high intensity"?

Flooding Therapy

240

What is the name of the test that is used to screen for Dementia, 30 point questionnaire to screen for cognitive impairment?

Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
AKA
Folstein Test

241

What is the name of the Therapy defined as "Behavior modification technique in which one is taught to imitate the desired behavior of another"?

Modeling

(Saying please and Thank you)

242

What is the name of the test that is a psychological test using inkblot images?

Rorschach Test

243

What is one method of testing the IQ of a person?

Wechsler Scale

244

What test initiated the modern field of intelligence testing?

Stanford Binet Test

245

What person used "collective unconscious of man" and "Psychoanalysis"?

Jung

246

What person goes with Operant Conditioning?

Skinner

247

Who is linked to Classical Conditioning?

Pavlov

248

Who came up with the Hierarchy of human needs?

Maslow

249

What are the Hierarchy of Human Needs (5 things)?

Physiology
Safety
Love
Self Esteem/Respect
Self Actualization

250

Who is linked to Development of free association and dream analysis as a route to the unconscious mind?

Freud

251

Who developed the Psychosexual stage of development; oral to anal to phallic or genital?

Freud

252

What are the three levels of one's self and what are they paired with?

Id: Basic Instinct
Ego: Reality and Control
Superego: Guilt and Consciousness

253

What is the category that Tylenol is in?

Acetaminophen

254

What can long use of Acetaminophens lead to?

Liver Damage (Hepatotoxic)

255

What is an absorbent that treats poisoning and overdoses?

Activated Charcoal

256

What is the name of the Antiviral for Herpes?

Acyclovir

257

What is used to treat chronic gout?

Allopurinol

258

What drug has the odor of garlic?

Arsenic

259

What is the term for sleeping pills?

Barbiturates

260

What can Barbiturates produce?

Respiratory Depression

261

What is the name of Muscle Relaxant?

Benzodiazepines

262

What two conditions are Beta Blockers used for?

Hypertension
Arrhythmias

263

What are two signs/symptoms of a person with Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

Blue Mucous Membrane
Cherry Red Lips

264

What use to be found often in Fire Extinguishers?

Carbon Tetrachloride

265

What two organs is Chloroform toxic to?

Kidney
Liver

266

What is the name of the drug to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders?

Chlorpromazine

267

What type/class does the drug Cholinesterase Inhibitor fall into?

Organophosphate

268

What is the classification of Cocaine?

Narcotic

269

What drug can be used as a local anesthetic?

Lidocaine

270

What drug is used to treat acute symptomatic gout?

Colchicine

271

Where can Cyanide be found?

Peach Pits
Bitter Almonds

272

What is the best substance to remove lead from blood chelation therapy?

Ethylene Diaminete Traacetic Acid (EDTA)

273

What is the name of a substance that will make a person vomit?

Emetic

274

What is used to treat Anaphylactic Shock?

Epinephrine (Epi Pen)

275

How is the contents of the stomach removed?

Gastric Lavage

276

What drug can be used to treat psychotic disorders?

Haldol

277

What classification of drug includes mushroom and nutmeg?

Hallucinogenic Drugs

278

What are two things that happen with Lead Poisoning?

Produces Basophilic Stippling of Red Blood Cells (RBC)

Affects the Central Nervous System (CNS); Radial Nerve Palsy

279

What is the name of the drug that is used to treat Bi-Polar disorder and causes tremors?

Lithium

280

What drug is used in people who have Coronary Artery Disease?

Nitroglycerine

281

What drug is used to treat Depression?

Prozac

282

What drug is classified as an Antipsychotic?

Reserpine

283

What is the clinical name given to Aspirin?

Salicylates

284

Who do you not give Aspirin to?

Children with a viral infection

285

What is the active ingredient in the drug Seconal?

Secobarbital

286

What is the name of the drug that will induce vomiting?

Syrup of Ipecac

287

What will predispose elderly people to fall?

Tranquilizers

288

What classification of drug is Tricyclic?

Anti-Depressant

289

What drug can cause hypertension?

Tyramine

290

What are two things the drug Tyramine can be found in?

Wine
Cheese

291

What is the name of the drug that is an anticoagulant?

Warfarin/Coumadin

292

What is the name of the condition that is "Chronic respiratory disease caused by inhalation of various minerals or metallic particles"?

Pneumoconiosis

293

What condition can Asbestosis exposure lead to?

Mesothelioma

294

What is the name of the condition that is caused by Iron Dust?

Siderosis

295

What is the name of the condition that is caused by Coal Dust? (Black Lung)

Anthracosis

296

What is the name of the condition that is caused by Cotton Dust?

Byssinosis

297

Who is often effected with the condition of Byssinosis?

Textile Workers

298

What is the name of the condition that is caused by Sand/Stone Dust or glass?

Silicosis

299

What two population will have the condition of Silicosis?

Pottery Workers
Rock Corey Workers

300

What hormone is measured in pregnant women?

Alpha Fetoprotein

301

What does Alpha Fetoprotein test help determine?

Developmental Abnormalities

302

In what two conditions will there be a change is Alpha Fetoprotein?

Open neural tube defects- Increased levels

Down's Syndrome- Deceased levels

303

What is the term for absence of Menses?

Amenorrhea

304

When are two times Amenorrhea is commonly seen?

Post Menopause
Anorexia

305

What are three things that are evaluated when doing Amniocentesis?

Heath of the fetus
Chromosomes
Lung maturity

306

What two minerals is breast milk deficient in?

Vitamin D
Iron

307

What is the term for the first breast milk?

Colostrum

1-3 days after delivery
High in Antibodies

308

When is Dilation of the Cervix seen?

1st stage of labor

309

What is the term for painful menses?

Dysmenorrhea

310

What are two possible causes of Dysmenorrhea?

Increased prostaglandin (Hormonal)
Pathological (Endometriosis, Fibroids)

311

What is the definition of Dystocia?

Abnormal, Painful, Prolonged Labor

312

What is the term for Thinning of the Cervix?

Effacement

313

How is the term Engagement defined (during pregnancy)?

Decent of the fetal skull to the levels of the ischial spines

314

What is the term if a women has "Excessive nausea and vomiting during pregnancy"?

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

315

What is the most common surgical procedure for the diagnosis and treatment of Endometriosis?

Laparoscopy

316

What term is defined as "Baby drops into the pelvis two weeks before delivery and produces lower abdominal pain"?

Lightening

317

What is Linea Nigra?

A dark streak down the midline of the abdomen seen during pregnancy

318

What is the term for "Vaginal discharge after delivery and throughout the puerperium"?

Lochia

319

What are the colors of Lochia?

1st- Red
2nd- Yellow
3rd- White

320

What is the term for the first menstrual cycle?

Menarche

321

What is it called if there is pain in the abdomen at ovulation?

Mittelschmerz

322

What is the definition of Multiparous?

More than one delivery to a Viable infant

323

What is the term given to a women if she has never given birth to a viable infant?

Nulliparous

324

What is the term for "First pregnancy with a viable infant"?

Primpara

325

What is the most common complication of child birth?

Post Partum Infection

326

What is Post Partum Infection most commonly seen?

C-Section deliveries

327

What is the term defined as "Period of time after the delivery of the placenta to the complete involution of the organs"?

Puerperium

328

What is the name of an infection that happens during Puerperium?

Puerperal Sepsis

329

What is the term for "First movement of fetal life felt by the mother"?

Quickening

330

How is the term "Stations" defined (Pregnancy)?

Fetal position (cm) in relation to the spines of the Ischium

331

What are two signs of Pregnancy?

Presence of fetal heartbeat (Best)
Menses is three weeks late

332

What is Chadwick's Sign?

Bluish discoloration of the vagina

333

What is it called when "the tip of the cervix softens"?

Goodell's Sign

334

What is Hegar's Sign?

Softening of the isthmus of the uterus

335

How is Piskacek's Sign defined?

Enlargement of the uterus near the uterine tube over the site of implantation

336

What is the most common reason for a post partum hemorrhage?

Atonic Uterus

337

What is the name associated with "Early uterine contractions (Oxytocin) without cervical changes"?

Braxton Hick's Contractions

338

What movement will cause a decrease in Braxton Hick's Contractions?

Sitting Down

339

What is the most common malignancy of the female genital tract?

Cervix

340

What is the term that has "brown hyperpigmentation of the face/mask of pregnancy"?

Chloasma
AKA
Melasma

341

What is the term for a "Malignancy of the placenta due to abnormal epithelium" (No Pregnancy)?

Choriocarcinoma

342

What is the condition of "Herniation of the urinary bladder into the vagina' (Anterior Wall)?

Cystocele

343

What is the definition of Eclampsia?

Toxemia of Pregnancy caused by Hypertension, leading to convulsions

344

Where is the most common place for an Ectopic Pregnancy at?

Fallopian Tube

345

What are the three symptoms of an Ectopic Pregnancy?

Light Vaginal Bleeding
Lower abdominal pain
Cramping on one side of the pelvis

346

What is Endometriosis?

Abnormal endometrial tissue outside of the uterus

347

What kind of pain is seen in Endometriosis?

Abdominal/Back Pain
Painful Sex

348

What can Endometriosis cause?

Infertility

349

What is the most common type of post partum infection?

Staph or Strep

350

What is it called if there is inflammation of the endometrium?

Endometritis

351

What condition is described as "Palpable nodules in the breast after ovulation but regress after menses"?

Fibrocystic Breast Disease

352

What population have a higher likelihood to have Fibrocystic Breast Disease?

Overweight Diabetic Women

353

What is it called if there is a "Begin mass of trophoblastic tissue which develops at the placenta"?

Hydatidifrom Mole

354

If a Hydatidifrom Mole become malignant what is it called?

Choriocarcinoma

355

What hormone will be extremely elevated if a Hydatidifrom Mole is present?

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

356

What condition has "Numerous cyst along the outer edge of the ovary caused by a hormonal imbalance"?

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

357

What are three possible indications that a women has Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCSO)?

High testosterone levels
Obese
Not able to get pregnant

358

What condition has the following signs; Toxemia of pregnancy with Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria (HEP)?

Pre-Eclampsia

359

What is the name of the condition that has "Herniation of the rectum into the vagina", "Collapsed Pouch", along the Posterior wall of the vagina?

Rectocele

360

What happen in the First (1st) stage of Pregnancy?

Dilation
From first meaningful contraction to full dilation (10 cm) of the cervix

361

What is the longest stage of Pregnancy?

First Stage

362

What is a term for the "Release of the mucous plug during the first stage of labor"?

Bloody Show

363

What happens in the Second (2nd) stage of Pregnancy?

Expulsion
From full dilation of the cervix to the delivery of the baby

364

In what stage of pregnancy does the women have hot/cold flashes and the urge to push?

Second Stage

365

In what stage of pregnancy is the placenta delivered?

Third Stage

366

What stage of pregnancy is most dangerous to the mother?

Third Stage
Mother could bleed out, time between when the baby is delivered and the placenta comes out

367

What happens in the Fourth stage of Pregnancy?

Stabilization
Time from delivery to placenta to several hours when the tone of the uterus is established and the contractions of the uterus expel any remaining contents

368

What is the term for a "Low lying placenta with partial obstruction of the internal os"?

Placenta Previa

369

What is the definition of Placenta Abruptio?

Normally Placed
Detaches from the site
Spontaneous abortion/Premature Separation

370

What is the name of the condition if the "Placenta does not separate after delivery"?

Placenta Accreta

371

What is another term for Placenta Accreta?

Atonic Placenta

372

What is required if a women has a Placenta Accreta?

Hysterectomy

373

What is it called when the "Umbilical cord is attached to the margin of the placenta"?

Battledore Placenta

(Rarely occurs, no affect to the function of the placenta)

374

Where is a Pap Smear taken from?

Tip of the cervix and surround structures

375

What is considered a "Normal" Pap Smear?

Classification I

376

What does a Classification II Pap Smear indicate?

Atypical or benign (Possible infection/inflammation/STD)

377

What Classification of Pap Smear is "Pre cancerous/Dysplasia"?

Classification III

378

What is a Classification IV Pap Smear indicate?

In Situ/ Non-invasive carcinoma

379

What Classification of Pap Smear indicated "Malignancy/Invasive"?

Classification V

380

When should an infant get it first teeth?

6-8 months

381

At what age can you introduce the "first food" to a child?

6 months

382

When should a baby start to crawl?

9 months

383

At what age should a baby be able to "Walk with Assistance"?

10-14 months

384

A child should be able to "Walk unassisted" by what age?

12-18 months

385

What should a child be able to do by 18 months?

Talk 10-15 words

386

When does the Umbilical Cord usually fall off?

7-10 days

387

When does the Posterior Fontanelle close?

3 months

388

When does the Anterior Fontanelle close?

2 years (This is the larger of the two fontanelles)

389

What does a Depressed Fontanelle indicated?

Dehydration

390

What does and Bulging Fontanelle indicate?

Intracranial Pressure, possible excessive crying

391

What two time is the APGAR score taken?

Immediately after birth and 5 minuets after birth

392

What are the five components of the APGAR Score?

Heart Rate (Pulse)
Respiration Rate
Color (Appearance)
Muscle Tone (Grimace)
Reflex Activity

393

What is NOT included in the APGAR Score?

Birth Weight

394

What is the term for "fuzzy hair on the baby's skin"?

Lanugo

395

What is Meconium?

First discharge for the intestines of a newborn
(Green Paste, dead Red Blood Cells (RBC))

396

What is the following description "Bluish, ill defined areas of the skin in the buttock/scrotal region"?

Mongolian Spots

397

What are the two indications that a child is born premature?

Born between 26-37 weeks gestation
Weighs less than 2500 grams

398

What is the term for "White cheesy substance on the baby's skin at birth"?

Vernix Caseosa

399

What syndrome is a mild form of Autism?

Asperger's Syndrome

400

What three foods can cause Botulism in newborns?

Honey
Corn Syrup
Molasses

401

What is the condition of Caput Succedeum?

Baby's head has an unusual shape due to swelling of the scalp, considered benign

402

What condition in a child is similar to that of Seborrheic Dermatitis in an adult?

Cradle Cap

403

What is the term for Bedwetting?

Enuresis

404

How is Erythroblastosis Fetalis caused?

Hemolytic Anemia in the fetus/neonate

Trans-placental transmission of maternal antibodies to fetal Red Blood Cells (RBC)

405

What is usually a result from an incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood groups, often Rh0 (D) antigens?

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

406

What color will the child be that has Erythroblastosis Fetalis be?

Jaundice, place under a blue light

407

What condition in a child will cause the following findings:
Delayed Growth
Microcephaly
Mental Retardation

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

408

What is the name of the condition if a child has a protein malnutrition?

Kwashiorkor

409

What is the classic sign of Kwashiorkor?

Ascites, distended abdomen

410

What is the most common cancer of children and Down's Syndrome individuals?

Leukemia

411

What is the term for General Malnutrition?

Marasmus

412

What is the term described as "Prickly Heat"?

Miliaria from sweat glands

413

What can lead to fetal suffocation?

Prolapsed Umbilical Cord

414

What vitamin prevents hemorrhaging in newborns?

Vitamin K

415

What condition can lead to mental retardation and seizures in children?

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

416

What enzyme is nonfunctional in the genetic disorder of Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

Phenylalanine

417

What are four communicable diseases associated with a virus?

Measles (Rubella and Rubeola)
Chicken Pox
Mumps
Croup

418

What is another name for Rubella? (Measles)

German Measles

419

How long does German Measles last?

3 days
Last a short time

420

What two symptoms are seen with Rubella?

Maculopapular Rash
Mild Fever

421

When is German Measles the most dangerous?

1st trimester of fetal life, may lead to birth defects

422

What type of Measles has a "Prodromal stage"?

Rubeola

423

What are two symptoms of Rubeola? (Measles)

Runny Nose
Koplic Spots, on buccal mucosa

424

How long does Rubeola last?

2 weeks

425

What two things will Rubeola be present with?

Maculopapular Rash
High Fever

426

What is the most common serious complication of Rubeola?

Bronchopneumonia

427

What is the lesion type of Chicken Pox?

Vesicular Rash

428

What is the name of the disease that is "Mild in children and adult and located in the parotid gland"?

Mumps

429

What condition can be produced after an person has Mumps?

Orchitis (Inflammation of the testicles)

430

What condition is seen in children and is characterized by a "resonant barking cough (Seal Like)?

Croup

431

In the condition of Croup what may have a membrane?

Laryngeal spasm

432

What are four communicable diseases associated with Bacteria?

Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
Diphtheria
Scarlet Fever
Roseola Infantum

433

What is another name for Pertussis?

Whooping Cough

434

What is the causative organism of Pertussis?

Bordetella Pertussis

435

What age group is Pertussis most dangerous to?

Infants under the age of one

436

What causes death in patients with Whooping Cough?

Bronchopneumonia (Death by Anoxia)

437

What is the organism that causes Diphtheria?

Corybacterium Diphtheria

438

How does Diphtheria present?

Grey pseudo membrane o the throat

439

What test is done on a patient with Diphtheria?

Schick Test

440

What causes Scarlet Fever?

Group A Strep Pyogenes

441

What are two findings in the condition of Scarlet Fever?

Strawberry Tongue
Peeling (Desquamation) of the superficial layer

442

What test will be positive in a Patient with Scarlet Fever?

ASO Titer

443

At what age will you see the condition of Roseola Infantum?

Less than 2 years of age

444

In the condition of Roseola Infantum what is the pattern of the rash?

Starts on the trunk and works out to the extremities

445

When will the rash appear in the condition of Roseola Infantum?

After the fever breaks

446

How is the Rooting Reflex stimulated?

Stroke the corner of the mouth; the infant's mouth will open and turn to the side that was touched

447

What is the most primitive reflex originating from the brain stem?

Rooting Reflex

448

What reflex is elicited by placing a finger or nipple in the mouth of a newborn?

Sucking Reflex

449

What does the Sucking Reflex stimulate?

Release of Oxytocin

450

What is the Tonic Neck Reflex?

Doctor rotates the head of a supine child and the ipsilateral arm and leg extend while the contralateral arm and leg flex

451

What is a positive Moro(Startle) Reflex?

Arms and legs flare out to the sides in response to a loud sound and then are brought back into the body

452

What reflex has Sensory Integrations?

Moro (Startle) Reflex

453

What is the name of the reflex that an "Infant should attempt to raise head and arch the back when placed in a prone position"?

Landau Reflex

454

What is a positive Perez Reflex?

While running a finger down the spine of a prone infant the whole body will extend

455

What is the name of the reflex described:
"While running a finger down the ipsilateral paraspinal muscles the baby will contract to that side"?

Gallant Reflex

456

What is the most common geriatric neuromuscular complaint?

Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)

457

What is the name of the condition that is normal in the older population and is described as "a greyish opaque ring around the cornea"?

Arcus Senilis

458

What is the name of the condition seen in the geriatric population that has loss of elasticity of the lens OR hardening of the lens (cannot focus on up close objects)?

Presbyopia

459

What is the definition of the condition Presbycussis?

Inability to hear high frequencies

460

What is the most common Endocrine Malfunction in the elderly?

Diabetes Mellitus

461

What is the most common anemia is everyone?

Iron Deficient Anemia

462

What is the name of bed sore that requires protein for healing?

Decubitus Ulcer

463

What is the area most often seen with a Decubitus Ulcer?

Over the Sacrum

464

What is the most common fractured bone in the elderly?

Hip Fracture

465

What is the most common visual problem in the elderly leading to blindness?

Macular Degeneration

466

What is the term used if there is discriminatory treatment towards the elderly?

Ageism

467

What is the most common type of dementia among older people?

Alzheimer's Disease

468

What are three things that are impaired in a patient that has Alzheimer's Disease?

Thought
Memory
Language

469

What is the only diagnosis for Alzheimer's Disease?

Autopsy

470

How is the condition of Glaucoma tested?

Tonometer

471

What condition has an increase in intraocular pressure?

Glaucoma

472

What test is best used to measure the following:
Blood Volume
Oxygen uptake transport
Metabolism

Positron Emission Test (PET)

473

What syndrome is seen in alcoholics with a B1 (Thiamin) deficiency?

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

474

What is the term for an "abnormal passage between two organs"

OR

"an organ and the exterior of the body"?

Fistula

475

What is the term for "small tear in the mucosa that lines the anus"?

Fissure

476

What is the definition of an Abscess?

Collection of pus that accumulated in a tissue

477

What is the term linked to the following definition:
"Transfer of a patient to another doctor without the patient's consent"?

Abandonment

478

What is the definition of Assault?

Threat of violence to another person

479

What is it called if you adjust without consent?

Battery

480

What is the following definition "A dispute that is resolved by an unbiased third party and has no appeal process"?

Binding Arbitration

481

In what court system are malpractices cases against a chiropractor tried?

Civil Court

482

What are the five components that make up a contract?

Acceptance
Consideration
Two or more competent parties
Legal Object
Consent

483

What term is associated with the following definition: "Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harm's a persons reputation"?

Defamation of Character

484

What three things must and employer pay for their employees?

Worker's Compensation
FICA (Federal Insurance)
Social Security

485

What is Expressed Consent?

Patient has the procedure explained to them, understands and agrees to it

486

What is the Good Samaritan Law?

Good faith rendering of care at an emergency, isn't liable for civil damages

487

What is the following definition: "Patient is unable to communicate their consent, but life saving interventions are needed"?

Implied Consent

488

What is Informed Consent?

Providing the patient with feasible alternatives and informing them of the dangers of treatment

**May be verbal**

489

What term is associated with the following definition: "False statement submitted in Writing that harms another"?

Libel

490

What is the following definition: "A professional negligence by acts or omission by a health care provide in which care provided Deviate from the accepted standards of practice in the medical community and cause injury or death the patient"

Malpractice

491

What is Negligence?

Failure to conform to the standard of care expected and imposed by law

492

What is the following definition: "Where the burden of proof lies in a court of law"?

Plaintiff

493

What is the term for "Employer is responsible for the actions of employees"?

Respondent Superior

494

What is "A false Verbal statement of another person"?

Slander

495

What is the following definition: "Formal diagnostic and treatment process a doctor will follow for a patient with a certain set of symptoms or a specific illness.

The standard will follow guidelines and protocols that Experts would agree with as most appropriate, so called "Best Practice"?

Standards of Care

496

What is "The Length of time you have to sue for an injury"?

Statutes of Limitation (2 years)

497

What is the following definition: "Standard of care is the basis on which negligence and fault and determined in medical malpractice lawsuits.

It refers to the level of care, skill and knowledge that is expected of all physicians in a particular field, in and particular region, acting in similar circumstances"?

Substandard Care

498

What is Third Party Consent?

Patient is mentally incapable of understanding the procedure and/or the ramification of consent or refused, so consent is given or withheld on their behalf by a legal designate

499

What is the following definition: "Body of law which allows an injured person to obtain compensation from the person who caused the injury"?

Tort

500

What is Vicarious Liability?

Responsibility is imposed upon one person for failure of another in the case of special relationships (parent/child or employer/employee)

501

What is the Pulse Rate for an Adult (12 years and older)?

60-100 Beats per minute

502

What is the Blood Pressure for an Adult (12 years and older)?

Systolic: 90-140 mm Hg
Diastolic: 60-90 mm Hg

503

What is the Respiration for an Adult (12 years and older)?

12-20 breaths per minute

504

What is the Pulse Rate for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?

80-100 Beats per minute

505

What is the Blood Pressure for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?

Systolic: 80-100 mm Hg

506

What is the Respirations for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?

15-30 breaths per minute

507

What is the Pulse Rate for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?

100-140 Beats per minute

508

What is the Blood Pressure for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?

Systolic: 70-95 mm Hg

509

What is the Respirations for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?

25-50 breaths per minute

510

What is the Pulse Rate for a Newborn?

120-160 Beats per minute

511

What is the Blood Pressure for a Newborn?

Systolic: Greater than 60 mm Hg

512

What is the Respirations for a Newborn?

40-60 breaths per minute

513

What are the three steps for Conscious Choking in an Adult or Child?

1. Encourage Coughing
2. If they cannot cough, 5 blows between the shoulder blades
3. Give 5 Abdominal Thrust

514

What are the four steps for Conscious Choking in an Infant?

1. Place infant face down along the forearm
2. Give 5 back blows
3. Turn infant face up
4. Give 4 chest thrust (Below the nipple line, compress 5 times about 1.5 inches)

515

What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Adult or Child?

1. Rise and tilt the head to prepare for ventilations
2. 30 compressions (About two inches in depth) Compress at a rate of 100 compressions per minute

516

What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Infant?

1. Fix Head
2. 30 Compressions (about 1.5 inches in depth)

517

What are the three things to know about the Finger Sweep Technique?

Used to Clear and Airway Obstruction
ONLY perform on an unconscious patient
ONLY perform when you can see foreign object in patient's mouth

518

What must you do before you start any rescue efforts on a patient (i.e. CPR)?

Check for responsiveness

519

How do you check the circulation of a patient?

Place to fingers on the carotid artery and apply slight pressure for a few seconds

520

If no pulse is present what is your next step?

Perform chest compressions

521

What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Adult?

12 (1 Ventilation about every 5 seconds)

522

What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Child?

About 20

523

What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Infant?

About 20

524

What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Newborn?

30-60 (1 Ventilation about every 1-2 seconds)

525

How is CPR performed on an Adult:

Hand Position
Compression Depth
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
Rate

Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)

Compression Depth: At least 2 inches

Breaths: Until chest clearly rises (1 second/ventilation)

Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2

Cycles; Two Rescuers:30:2

Rate: 100 compressions per minute

526

How is CPR performed on a Child:

Hand Position
Compression Depth
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
Rate

Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)

Compression Depth: At least 2 inches

**Breaths: 1 second per ventilation**

Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2

**Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2**

Rate: 100 compressions per minute

527

How is CPR performed on an Infant:

Hand Position
Compression Depth
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
Rate

**Hand Position: Two or three fingers on the center of the chest (Just below the nipple line)**

**Compression Depth: About 1.5 inches**

**Breaths: 1 second per Second**

Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2

**Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2**

Rate: 100 compressions per minute

528

When are three times you stop CPR?

Another responder takes over
You are too exhausted to continue
The scene becomes unsafe

529

What are two risk factors of performing CPR?

Fractured Ribs
Punctured Lung

530

If someone Ingested a poison what may you have them take and why?

Take: Emetic
Why: Prevent moving to Small intestine; where most absorption takes place

531

In what four conditions should you not induce vomiting in a patient?

Unconscious
Having a Seizure
Last Trimester of Pregnancy
Ingested corrosive substance or Gasoline

532

What do all patients that inhaled a poison need?

Oxygen As soon as possible

533

What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Plant?

Rinse with water for at least 20 minuets

534

What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Dry Chemical?

Brush it off with a gloved hand
Flush for 20 minuets with tap water

535

What is the care if a poison has come in contact with a patient's eyes?

Irrigate from the noes (Medial to Lateral) side

536

What type of shock is "result of the heart being unable to supply adequate blood circulation to the vital organs"?

Cardiogenic Shock

537

What are two causes of Cardiogenic Shock?

Trauma
Disease

538

What is the care for a Patient with Cardiogenic Shock?

Patient Supine with their feet higher than their head

539

What type of shock is caused by an abnormal decrease in blood volume?

Hypovolemic Shock

540

What are three causes of Hypovolemic Shock?

Limb chopped off
Spleen Rupture
Abdominal Aortic Aneurism (AAA)

541

What kind of shock is caused by trauma to the spinal cord or brain?

Neurogenic/Vasogenic Shock

542

What type of Shock is "where the blood vessel walls abnormally constrict and dilate, preventing relay messages and cause blood to pool in the lowest part of the body"?

Neurogenic/Vasogenic Shock

543

What causes Obstructive Shock?

Obstruction of blood flow

544

What is an example of Obstructive Shock?

Pulmonary Embolism

545

What kind of shock is caused by failure of the lungs to transfer sufficient oxygen into the blood stream?

Respiratory Shock

546

When does Respiratory Shock occur?

Respiratory Distress (i.e. Asthma)

547

What is the definition of Septic Shock?

When an infection has spread to the point that bacteria are releasing toxins into the bloodstream

548

What position should you lay a person in that has been struck by Lightening?

Head slightly lower than the trunk, with legs elevated and supported

549

What two locations should you find on a person that has been struck by lightening?

Enter and exit sights

550

How should you remove a visible foreign object (body) from the eye?

*Never touch the eye*

Pull the eyelid down and try and remove with sterile gauze pad

Flush the eye with irrigation

551

How should you care for a chemical exposure to the eye?

Irrigate the eye with clean water for 20 minuets

552

What should you do if there is an impaled object in the eye?

Cover Both eyes
Support the object

553

What is a "Battle Sign"?

Ecchymosis (Bleeding) around the Mastoid

554

What does a "Battle Sign" indicate?

Possible Basilar Skull Fracture

555

How are burns graded?

By the depth of the burn

556

What is the characteristic, layer and example of an 1st Degree Burn?

Characteristic: Redness
Layer: Epidermis
Example: Sunburn

557

What is the characteristic and layers of an 2nd Degree Burn?

Characteristic: Blister
Layer: Epidermis and Dermis, Not the base of the Dermis

558

How is a 3rd Degree Burn described?

Charring of the skin

559

What are six signs/symptoms of a Grade 1 Concussion?

No loss of Consciousness
Confusion
Memory Loss
Headache
Dizziness
Nausea (May occur)

560

How long does a Grade 1 Concussion last?

15-30 Minuets (Approximately)

561

How long does a Grade 2 Concussion last?

30 minutes to the entire day

*Same signs/symptoms of Grade 1, just stronger*

562

What are three Signs/Symptoms of a Grade3 Concussion?

Loss of Consciousness
Intense Confusion
Memory Loss

563

How long does a Grade 3 Concussion last?

Seconds to Minutes

564

What is the most common condition in the general population that results from trauma and has a fast bleeding rate?

Epidural Hematoma

565

What does an Epidural Hematoma increase?

Intracranial Pressure

566

What is one cause of Epidural Hematoma?

Hypertension

567

What kind of headache will be seen in a patient that has an Epidural Hematoma?

Quick/Fast onset

568

When is the Glasgow Scale used?

Assess the level of consciousness for any medial or trauma patient

569

What are the three parameters used on the Glasgow Scale?

Eye Opening
Verbal Response
Motor Response

570

What condition is a "brief muscle cramp due to excess heat or exercise"?

Heat Cramps

571

What condition has an electrolyte deficiency?

Heat Cramps

572

What condition has the following care:
Move the patient out of the hot environment to a cooler area

Remove excess clothing

Cool the patient's body by spraying with cool water, applying cool wet clothes to the body

Hydrate with electrolytes

Heat Exhaustion

573

What are two signs of Heat Shock?

Low Blood Pressure
Rapid, weak pulse

574

What are the nine signs of Heat Stroke?

Cessation of sweating
High Body Temperature
Rapid weak pulse
Shallow breathing
Low Blood Pressure
Throbbing Headache
Dizziness
Nausea
Vomiting

575

What is the care for a patient having Heat Stroke?

Immerse the patient in cold water up to their neck (Preferred Method)

Douse the patient with towels soaked in ice water over entire body

576

What condition would you perform the following care:
Remove any wet clothing and dry off patient

Passively warm the patient by wrapping all exposed body surfaces

Hypothermia

577

What are two things you NEVER do to a patient with Hypothermia?

Immerse the patient in warm water

Rub or massage the extremities

578

If a patient has frostbite how must you handle the area?

Very carefully

579

Should you attempt to rewarm the frostbitten area?

NO

580

How do your treat a more serious frostbite case?

Rewarm the body, not the effected area, by gently soaking it in water no warmer than 105 degrees F

581

What is it called when an Injury produces black and blue spots around the eyes?

Raccoon Sign

582

What condition is usually a result of a cerebral aneurysm?

Subarachnoid Hematoma

583

What condition is considered a form of a stroke?

Subarachnoid Hematoma

584

What condition is usually the result of a serious head injury and most commonly seen in athletes?

Subdural Hematoma

585

What kind of hematoma is among the most deadly?

Acute Subdural Hematoma

586

What is the major symptom of a Subdural Hemorrhage?

Slower Bleed (Than Epidural Hemorrhage, veins bleed slower) =Slower onset

587

What does the term Res Ipsa Loquitur mean?

"The thing speaks for itself"

588

What four things must a Malpractice Suit contain?

Duty
Dereliction (Poor result to do negligence)
Damage
Direct Causation