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Flashcards in ATQ 2020 Deck (50)
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1

Having been given a suitable heading to fly after take-off to avoid CB’s, you commence the take-off. At the call of “thrust set” you hear ‘Monitor Radar Display” and notice W/S AHEAD in amber on the PFD. Do you:

a) The Captain should call “continue”, PF must select TOGA.
b) W/S AHEAD is only generated below 100 knots, so the Captain should call “stop”.
c) It’s the Captain’s decision to stop or continue, TOGA is an option to consider.
d) None of the above.

 



Having been given a suitable heading to fly after take-off to avoid CB’s, you commence the take-off. At the call of “thrust set” you hear ‘Monitor Radar Display” and notice W/S AHEAD in amber on the PFD. Do you: a) The Captain should call “continue”, PF must select TOGA. b) W/S AHEAD is only generated below 100 knots, so the Captain should call “stop”. c) It’s the Captain’s decision to stop or continue, TOGA is an option to consider. d) None of the above. Reference: FCTM > PRO > NOR > SUP > Adverse Weather > Windshear > Operational Recommendations > Take-off



 

2

You are flying an A320 NEO. Having checked the PRELIM you notice the GWCG is 32.5% and you are above MLW by 3.0T. Assuming no change on the Final Figures message, in which condition would OEB57 apply?

a) You continue to destination and in the descent preparation you see the GWCG is 33% and you estimate landing below MLW.
b) If you make an immediate return after take-off and will land above MLW.
c) If you make an immediate return after take-off and will land above MLW, however you can use speedbrake below 240kts if GWCG is checked in the FMGC and is still below 35%.
d) None of the above.

You are flying an A320 NEO. Having checked the PRELIM you notice the GWCG is 32.5% and you are above MLW by 3.0T. Assuming no change on the Final Figures message, in which condition would OEB57 apply?

a) You continue to destination and in the descent preparation you see the GWCG is 33% and you estimate landing below MLW.
b) If you make an immediate return after take-off and will land above MLW.
c) If you make an immediate return after take-off and will land above MLW, however you can use speedbrake below 240kts if GWCG is checked in the FMGC and is still below 35%.
d) None of the above.

Reference: QRH > OEB 57

3

ATC have vectored you for an ILS and have advised no speed control. In anticipation of a slower deceleration (lightweight and expected tailwind) you have chosen 5 DME to make the final configuration and deceleration from 160 knots. However, the aircraft is slower to decelerate than you anticipated and at the 1000’ RAD ALT call, PM calls “speed”.

a) A “speed” call is ok as it’s due to the wind and you’ve followed the book advice;
b) The “speed” call is incorrect, the call “unstable, go-around” must be made;
c) Due to the tailwind if the speed is close to target and reducing the “speed” call is acceptable.
d) None of the above.

ATC have vectored you for an ILS and have advised no speed control. In anticipation of a slower deceleration (lightweight and expected tailwind) you have chosen 5 DME to make the final configuration and deceleration from 160 knots. However, the aircraft is slower to decelerate than you anticipated and at the 1000’ RAD ALT call, PM calls “speed”.

a) A “speed” call is ok as it’s due to the wind and you’ve followed the book advice;
b) The “speed” call is incorrect, the call “unstable, go-around” must be made;
c) Due to the tailwind if the speed is close to target and reducing the “speed” call is acceptable.
d) None of the above.

Reference: OM A > 8.13.6.b

4

You are en-route to EDDH, where you are expecting an RNP approach to runway 23. Before you start briefing, you check the FMGC approach coding from the FDP. The FMGC has an inbound course track of 227 degrees, and a coded FPA of -3.2 degrees. You consider how to fly the approach, and conclude that:

a) FINAL APP is recommended to an MDA of 370ft, as the approach is an RNP approach and the coding is within acceptable tolerances.
b) NAV/FPA modes are recommended to an MDA of 480ft, due to the incorrect coding of the vertical path.
c) You cannot fly the approach, unless visual, due to the incorrect coding of the lateral and vertical paths.
d) None of the above.

You are en-route to EDDH, where you are expecting an RNP approach to runway 23. Before you start briefing, you check the FMGC approach coding from the FDP. The FMGC has an inbound course track of 227 degrees, and a coded FPA of -3.2 degrees. You consider how to fly the approach, and conclude that:

a) FINAL APP is recommended to an MDA of 370ft, as the approach is an RNP approach and the coding is within acceptable tolerances.
b) NAV/FPA modes are recommended to an MDA of 480ft, due to the incorrect coding of the vertical path.
c) You cannot fly the approach, unless visual, due to the incorrect coding of the lateral and vertical paths.
d) None of the above.

Reference 1: FCOM > PRO > NOR > SOP > Approach > Guidance Management > Final App

Reference 2: FCOM > PRO > NOR > SOP > Approach > Guidance Management > FPA

5

On stand 512 at LHR you are preparing for a flight to CPH. Your colleague is on his/her walk around when you get a Master Warning SMOKE FWD CARGO SMOKE. The forward cargo door is open. What is the correct way to deal with this?

a) Follow ECAM which asks you to discharge the cargo extinguishing agent.
b) Complete the Smoke/Fire/Fumes checklist before carrying out the ECAM procedure.
c) Follow ECAM. Do not initiate an agent discharge and request the ground crew to investigate and eliminate the smoke source.
d) None of the above.

On stand 512 at LHR you are preparing for a flight to CPH. Your colleague is on his/her walk around when you get a Master Warning SMOKE FWD CARGO SMOKE. The forward cargo door is open. What is the correct way to deal with this?

a) Follow ECAM which asks you to discharge the cargo extinguishing agent.
b) Complete the Smoke/Fire/Fumes checklist before carrying out the ECAM procedure.
c) Follow ECAM. Do not initiate an agent discharge and request the ground crew to investigate and eliminate the smoke source.
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCOM > PRO > ABN > Smoke > FWD Cargo Smoke

6

You are taking off at RTOW from an airfield with a published Emergency Turn Procedure (ETP). Which of the following statements is correct regarding the actions required should an EGPWS caution or warning be triggered during the manoeuvre?

a) Crews must continue to fly the published ETP accurately and utilise maximum climb performance whilst observing a minimum speed of V2.
b) Crews must continue to fly the published ETP accurately & increase pitch to the maximum available whilst avoiding a stall.
c) Crews must fly the fleet specific EGPWS procedure.
d) None of the above.

You are taking off at RTOW from an airfield with a published Emergency Turn Procedure (ETP). Which of the following statements is correct regarding the actions required should an EGPWS caution or warning be triggered during the manoeuvre?

a) Crews must continue to fly the published ETP accurately and utilise maximum climb performance whilst observing a minimum speed of V2.
b) Crews must continue to fly the published ETP accurately & increase pitch to the maximum available whilst avoiding a stall.
c) Crews must fly the fleet specific EGPWS procedure.
d) None of the above.

Reference: OM A > 8.10.11

7

In G-TTNF, what is the Captain’s maximum crosswind limit (gust included) for takeoff and landing if the runway is Wet?

a) T/O = 35kts, LDG = 35kts
b) T/O = 35kts, LDG = 38kts
c) T/O = 38kts, LDG = 38kts
d) None of the above.

In G-TTNF, what is the Captain’s maximum crosswind limit (gust included) for takeoff and landing if the runway is Wet?

a) T/O = 35kts, LDG = 35kts
b) T/O = 35kts, LDG = 38kts
c) T/O = 38kts, LDG = 38kts
d) None of the above.

Reference 1: FCOM > LIM > ENG > Crosswind Operation on the Ground

Reference 2: QRH > PER > LDG Perf Asessement > RCAM

8

You are in the cruise preparing for an approach into LCA. The surface wind is 040/15 and are told to expect the VOR-S-04 via RIMEX. You brief the potential for deselecting the GPS due to GPS jamming in the area which is mentioned in the AIS. If you ended up deselecting the GPS during the descent, how should you fly this approach assuming IMC conditions?

a) Using FINAL APP as long as you check that the coding in the FMGC is within limits.
b) Using NAV/FPA as long as you check that the coding in the FMGC is within limits.
c) Using TRK/FPA.
d) None of the above.

You are in the cruise preparing for an approach into LCA. The surface wind is 040/15 and are told to expect the VOR-S-04 via RIMEX. You brief the potential for deselecting the GPS due to GPS jamming in the area which is mentioned in the AIS. If you ended up deselecting the GPS during the descent, how should you fly this approach assuming IMC conditions?

a) Using FINAL APP as long as you check that the coding in the FMGC is within limits.
b) Using NAV/FPA as long as you check that the coding in the FMGC is within limits.
c) Using TRK/FPA.
d) None of the above.

Reference 1: FCOM > PRO > NOR > SOP > Approach > Guidance Management > Final App

Reference 2: FCOM > PRO > NOR > SOP > Approach > Guidance Management > FPA

9

Arriving into LHR from FRA, you are quietly congratulating yourself on getting stand 513 AND the guidance is on! However, as you pull halfway onto the stand, the guidance fails. Someone in a high vis jacket presses some buttons and the guidance reappears. What should you do?

a) If the guidance is showing correctly you should continue to park on the stand.
b) The guidance could be unreliable. Stop, inform ATC and await marshalling assistance (you may need to contact company to arrange this).
c) You can continue to park as long as you have made a visual inspection that the stand is clear.
d) None of the above.

Arriving into LHR from FRA, you are quietly congratulating yourself on getting stand 513 AND the guidance is on! However, as you pull halfway onto the stand, the guidance fails. Someone in a high vis jacket presses some buttons and the guidance reappears. What should you do?

a) If the guidance is showing correctly you should continue to park on the stand.
b) The guidance could be unreliable. Stop, inform ATC and await marshalling assistance (you may need to contact company to arrange this).
c) You can continue to park as long as you have made a visual inspection that the stand is clear.
d) None of the above.

Reference: OM B > 2.20.2.a

10

If Windshear is reported / suspected and in case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 knots can we add any increment to the approach speed?

a) Yes, up to VLS + 15 knots
b) Yes, up to Vapp + 15 knots
c) Yes, up to Vapp + 10 knots
d) None of the above.

If Windshear is reported / suspected and in case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 knots can we add any increment to the approach speed?

a) Yes, up to VLS + 15 knots
b) Yes, up to Vapp + 15 knots
c) Yes, up to Vapp + 10 knots
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCTM > PRO > NOR > SUP > Adverse Wx > Windshear > Op Rec > Approach

11

Having demonstrated your green credentials by initially planning for a CONF 3 + REV IDLE + Autobrake LOW landing you discover the IFLD is not acceptable. In what order should you look to change these settings in your planning in order to minimise fuel costs and brake oxidation?

a) REV MAX first, then Autobrake MED, then FLAPS FULL
b) FLAPS FULL first, then Autobrake MED, then REV MAX
c) FLAPS FULL first, then REV MAX, then Autobrake MED
d) None of the above.

Having demonstrated your green credentials by initially planning for a CONF 3 + REV IDLE + Autobrake LOW landing you discover the IFLD is not acceptable. In what order should you look to change these settings in your planning in order to minimise fuel costs and brake oxidation?

a) REV MAX first, then Autobrake MED, then FLAPS FULL
b) FLAPS FULL first, then Autobrake MED, then REV MAX
c) FLAPS FULL first, then REV MAX, then Autobrake MED
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCTM > PRO > NOR > SUP > Green Ops > Descent Prep

12

In the cruise flying back from BEY, your fellow pilot announces they are 'going for a leg stretch'. While they are out of the flight deck, you notice that a fuel imbalance has developed so you pull out the Fuel Imbalance QRH checklist. What should you do next?

a) You should perform the actions to balance the fuel, annotating the estimated time of completion of balancing on your CIRRUS, and brief your colleague on their return.
b) You should perform the actions on the checklist up to and including opening the fuel cross feed so both tanks are available to feed both engines.
c) You must wait until your colleague returns before making any selections on the fuel panel, as both pilots must be involved.
d) None of the above.

In the cruise flying back from BEY, your fellow pilot announces they are 'going for a leg stretch'. While they are out of the flight deck, you notice that a fuel imbalance has developed so you pull out the Fuel Imbalance QRH checklist. What should you do next?

a) You should perform the actions to balance the fuel, annotating the estimated time of completion of balancing on your CIRRUS, and brief your colleague on their return.
b) You should perform the actions on the checklist up to and including opening the fuel cross feed so both tanks are available to feed both engines.
c) You must wait until your colleague returns before making any selections on the fuel panel, as both pilots must be involved.
d) None of the above.

Reference: OMA > 8.3.4

13

On push back you require a manual engine start. How will you apply the Supplementary Procedure?

a) The procedure should be applied without revision and in accordance with the READ & DO principle.
b) As it is an engine start procedure, it is recommended to read the entire procedure first, then apply in accordance with READ & DO principle.
c) The procedure should be wholly actioned by the PF.
d) None of the above.

On push back you require a manual engine start. How will you apply the Supplementary Procedure?

a) The procedure should be applied without revision and in accordance with the READ & DO principle.
b) As it is an engine start procedure, it is recommended to read the entire procedure first, then apply in accordance with READ & DO principle.
c) The procedure should be wholly actioned by the PF.
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCTM > Airbus Operational Philosophy > Task Sharing & Communication > General

14

The destination airfield QNH may be preset on the FCU prior to TOD but if doing so, both crew must check that STD is displayed on both PFDs afterwards. Separately, what must be done prior to TOD during descent preparation?

a) The destination QNH must be set on the STBY ALT/ISIS.
b) The destination QNH does not need to be set on the stby alt/ISIS but it is preferable.
c) Neither back-setting destination QNH on PFDs nor setting it on the stby alt/ISIS is required by SOP.
d) None of the above.

The destination airfield QNH may be preset on the FCU prior to TOD but if doing so, both crew must check that STD is displayed on both PFDs afterwards. Separately, what must be done prior to TOD during descent preparation?

a) The destination QNH must be set on the STBY ALT/ISIS.
b) The destination QNH does not need to be set on the stby alt/ISIS but it is preferable.
c) Neither back-setting destination QNH on PFDs nor setting it on the stby alt/ISIS is required by SOP.
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCOM > PRO > NOR > SOP > General Information > Altimeter Setting Procedures

15

Once the nature of an emergency situation has been established, how should the Commander summon the SCCM to the flight deck to receive a NITS brief?

a) Switch on the seatbelt sign and use the PA to make the announcement “WILL THE SENIOR CABIN CREW MEMBER REPORT TO THE FLIGHT DECK IMMEDIATELY.”
b) Use the PA to make the announcement “WILL THE SENIOR CABIN CREW MEMBER REPORT TO THE FLIGHT DECK.”
c) Use the PA to make the announcement “ATTENTION CREW! AT STATIONS!”
d) None of the above.

Once the nature of an emergency situation has been established, how should the Commander summon the SCCM to the flight deck to receive a NITS brief?

a) Switch on the seatbelt sign and use the PA to make the announcement “WILL THE SENIOR CABIN CREW MEMBER REPORT TO THE FLIGHT DECK IMMEDIATELY.”
b) Use the PA to make the announcement “WILL THE SENIOR CABIN CREW MEMBER REPORT TO THE FLIGHT DECK.”
c) Use the PA to make the announcement “ATTENTION CREW! AT STATIONS!”
d) None of the above.

Reference: OMB > 3.2.2

16

During cockpit preparation you and your colleague are busy entering critical data when you’re distracted by the SCCM leading into a separate conversation. To best avoid data entry error, how would you appropriately complete the critical data entry process?

a) Finish entering the data from where you left off when you’ve finished the conversation with the SCCM.
b) Restart the critical data entry process again, distraction-free, being considered and deliberate.
c) Ask your colleague to finish entering the data while you monitor them during your conversation.
d) None of the above.

During cockpit preparation you and your colleague are busy entering critical data when you’re distracted by the SCCM leading into a separate conversation. To best avoid data entry error, how would you appropriately complete the critical data entry process?

a) Finish entering the data from where you left off when you’ve finished the conversation with the SCCM.
b) Restart the critical data entry process again, distraction-free, being considered and deliberate.
c) Ask your colleague to finish entering the data while you monitor them during your conversation.
d) None of the above.

Reference: All Fleet Notices > OSN 419 > Pg 2 > Points 2 & 3

17

On the taxi out to runway 27L at LHR you and your colleague suspect tire damage. After consulting ATC, who provide an inspection, you diagnose a deflation of the tire on wheel number 4 with no damage. After consultation with MAINTROL you decide to return to stand, how should you proceed?

a) Maximum taxi speed is 7kts, up to 30 degrees of NWS may be used during turns.
b) Maximum taxi speed is 3kts, up to 15 degrees of NWS may be used during turns.
c) Maximum taxi speed is 7kts during turns and up to 30 degrees of NWS may be used.
d) None of the above.

On the taxi out to runway 27L at LHR you and your colleague suspect tire damage. After consulting ATC, who provide an inspection, you diagnose a deflation of the tire on wheel number 4 with no damage. After consultation with MAINTROL you decide to return to stand, how should you proceed?

a) Maximum taxi speed is 7kts, up to 30 degrees of NWS may be used during turns.
b) Maximum taxi speed is 3kts, up to 15 degrees of NWS may be used during turns.
c) Maximum taxi speed is 7kts during turns and up to 30 degrees of NWS may be used.
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCOM > LIM > Landing Gear > Taxi with Deflated or Damaged Tires

18

You are rostered to Bilbao for the first time in 14 months. How do you revalidate your qualification for this airfield?

a) None as you have been there many times
b) Written brief only
c) Audio visual presentation and written brief
d) None of the above.

You are rostered to Bilbao for the first time in 14 months. How do you revalidate your qualification for this airfield?

a) None as you have been there many times
b) Written brief only
c) Audio visual presentation and written brief
d) None of the above.

Reference: OMC > 5.3 & 6.2

19

You are flying an ILS approach to ARN/01R and correctly set the go-around altitude to 1500ft after establishing on the glideslope. As you descend through 2000ft in flap 2, ATC instruct you to perform an immediate go-around. Without hesitation you select TOGA and announce “go-around, flaps”. Which of the following is true regarding the AP/FD modes you can expect?

a) OP CLB will engage automatically as you are above AA.
b) SRS is the active vertical mode, but will revert to OP CLB if a speed is selected.
c) SRS will remain the active vertical mode. OP CLB will not engage unless the FCU altitude is higher than the aircraft’s present altitude.
d) None of the above.

You are flying an ILS approach to ARN/01R and correctly set the go-around altitude to 1500ft after establishing on the glideslope. As you descend through 2000ft in flap 2, ATC instruct you to perform an immediate go-around. Without hesitation you select TOGA and announce “go-around, flaps”. Which of the following is true regarding the AP/FD modes you can expect?

a) OP CLB will engage automatically as you are above AA.
b) SRS is the active vertical mode, but will revert to OP CLB if a speed is selected.
c) SRS will remain the active vertical mode. OP CLB will not engage unless the FCU altitude is higher than the aircraft’s present altitude.
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCOM > 22.30.70.30 > Engagement Conditions

20

EGMC has a AIS entry stating that a reduced PCN of 31/F/B/W/T applies to R/Ws 05/23 TFN. What maximum landing weight would apply to an A319?

a) 60.5T
b) 59.5T
c) 57.5T
d) None of the above.

EGMC has a AIS entry stating that a reduced PCN of 31/F/B/W/T applies to R/Ws 05/23 TFN. What maximum landing weight would apply to an A319?

a) 60.5T
b) 59.5T
c) 57.5T
d) None of the above.

Reference: Perf 2.6.2

21

If both LNAV and VNAV minima are available for an RNP APCH, flight crew should:

a) use fleet-specific procedures and fly to the lower minima.
b) use fleet-specific procedures and fly to VNAV minima.
c) use fleet-specific procedures and fly to LNAV minima.
d) None of the above.

If both LNAV and VNAV minima are available for an RNP APCH, flight crew should:

a) use fleet-specific procedures and fly to the lower minima.
b) use fleet-specific procedures and fly to VNAV minima.
c) use fleet-specific procedures and fly to LNAV minima.
d) None of the above.

Reference: OM A > 8.23.4.H

22

You are flying G-EUYS to Chania. Being a weekend and as it is shared with the military, on the ground they fill you up with JP-5 rather than the normal JET A1. You realise it is not your day when just after getting to top of climb (FL 340) you have a double generator failure and fall into EEC. Remembering to action the Gravity Fuel Feeding QRH at the appropriate moment you calculate the maximum flight level as:

a) FL340
b) FL300
c) FL100
d) None of the above.

You are flying G-EUYS to Chania. Being a weekend and as it is shared with the military, on the ground they fill you up with JP-5 rather than the normal JET A1. You realise it is not your day when just after getting to top of climb (FL 340) you have a double generator failure and fall into EEC. Remembering to action the Gravity Fuel Feeding QRH at the appropriate moment you calculate the maximum flight level as:

a) FL340
b) FL300
c) FL100
d) None of the above.

Reference: QRH > ABN > FUEL > Gravity Fuel Feeding

23

You are in the cruise in G-EUUP when you notice the ADV caption pop up and the CAB PR system page replaces the normal cruise page on the lower SD. What do you do?

a) Say “It’s a leaky old plane and not unexpected so ok to clear?”
b) It’s a warning that the plane is about to depressurise so perform an immediate precautionary emergency descent to FL 100 / MEA.
c) Ask for the QRH and action the appropriate Advisory actions.
d) None of the above.

You are in the cruise in G-EUUP when you notice the ADV caption pop up and the CAB PR system page replaces the normal cruise page on the lower SD. What do you do?

a) Say “It’s a leaky old plane and not unexpected so ok to clear?”
b) It’s a warning that the plane is about to depressurise so perform an immediate precautionary emergency descent to FL 100 / MEA.
c) Ask for the QRH and action the appropriate Advisory actions.
d) None of the above.

Reference: QRH > ABN > [ADV] ECAM ADVISORY > CAB PR

24

Once cleared to descend below MSA, the PF states “clearance below MSA”. What is an appropriate response by the PM?

a) State the relevant MSA figure, confirm QNH and ensure that position in relation to terrain is as expected
b) State the relevant MSA figure and add e.g. “under radar” if under radar control
c) State the relevant MSA figure and provide justification to descend below the relevant MSA (e.g. on a published ILS approach)
d) None of the above.

Once cleared to descend below MSA, the PF states “clearance below MSA”. What is an appropriate response by the PM?

a) State the relevant MSA figure, confirm QNH and ensure that position in relation to terrain is as expected
b) State the relevant MSA figure and add e.g. “under radar” if under radar control
c) State the relevant MSA figure and provide justification to descend below the relevant MSA (e.g. on a published ILS approach)
d) None of the above.

Reference: OMA > 8.10.10.b

25

After suffering an engine fire at MTOW on departure you elect for an immediate return and complete the Overweight Landing QRH procedure. The following applies to PACK 1+2……OFF or supplied by APU:

a) The APU can be used to supply both packs in all cases and is preferred over turning them OFF.
b) If the ENG 1 FIRE pb-sw is pushed, the APU bleed must not be used and therefore you are required to switch OFF both PACKS.
c) If the ENG 2 FIRE pb-sw is pushed, the APU bleed may be used, provided the X BLEED rotary selector is set at OPEN.
d) None of the above.

After suffering an engine fire at MTOW on departure you elect for an immediate return and complete the Overweight Landing QRH procedure. The following applies to PACK 1+2……OFF or supplied by APU:

a) The APU can be used to supply both packs in all cases and is preferred over turning them OFF.
b) If the ENG 1 FIRE pb-sw is pushed, the APU bleed must not be used and therefore you are required to switch OFF both PACKS.
c) If the ENG 2 FIRE pb-sw is pushed, the APU bleed may be used, provided the X BLEED rotary selector is set at OPEN.
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCOM > PRO > ABN > ENG 1(2) SHUTDOWN - Note (At the bottom)

26

The EMER CANC pb on the ECAM Control panel...

a) …should only be used to cancel spurious Master Cautions. Pushing it will cancel any present caution (single chime, MASTER CAUTION lights, ECAM message) for the rest of the flight.
b) …should only be used to cancel spurious Master Warnings. Pushing it will cancel any present warnings (aural warnings, MASTER WARNING lights, ECAM message) for the rest of the flight.
c) …should be used to suppress any nuisance warnings or cautions. Pushing it will cancel any present warnings and cautions (aural warnings, MASTER WARNING/CAUTION lights, ECAM message) for the rest of the flight.
d) None of the above.

The EMER CANC pb on the ECAM Control panel...

a) …should only be used to cancel spurious Master Cautions. Pushing it will cancel any present caution (single chime, MASTER CAUTION lights, ECAM message) for the rest of the flight.
b) …should only be used to cancel spurious Master Warnings. Pushing it will cancel any present warnings (aural warnings, MASTER WARNING lights, ECAM message) for the rest of the flight.
c) …should be used to suppress any nuisance warnings or cautions. Pushing it will cancel any present warnings and cautions (aural warnings, MASTER WARNING/CAUTION lights, ECAM message) for the rest of the flight.
d) None of the above.

Reference: FCOM > DSC > 31.30 > ECAM Control Panel > Point 7

27

When balancing fuel it should only be performed by reference to the appropriate FCOM/QRH procedure.

a) Additionally if both engines are to be fed from one wing tank (twin-engined aircraft only) the estimated time of completion of balancing must be recorded on CIRRUS plan, or by suitable use of FMS waypoints and systems display.
b) Additionally if both engines are to be fed from one wing tank (twin-engined aircraft only) no other checklists or procedures may be carried out until fuel balancing is completed.
c) Additionally if both engines are to be fed from one wing tank (twin-engined aircraft only) the approach may not be commenced until the fuel balancing is completed.
d) None of the above.

When balancing fuel it should only be performed by reference to the appropriate FCOM/QRH procedure.

a) Additionally if both engines are to be fed from one wing tank (twin-engined aircraft only) the estimated time of completion of balancing must be recorded on CIRRUS plan, or by suitable use of FMS waypoints and systems display.
b) Additionally if both engines are to be fed from one wing tank (twin-engined aircraft only) no other checklists or procedures may be carried out until fuel balancing is completed.
c) Additionally if both engines are to be fed from one wing tank (twin-engined aircraft only) the approach may not be commenced until the fuel balancing is completed.
d) None of the above.

Reference: OMA > 8.3.4

28

You are in G-EUUM and planning to fly the Special CAT III ILS at LOWS due to poor visibility. In the event of a Go Around, when can you accelerate?

a) When level at 6000ft, the AA, even if the turn is incomplete.
b) When pointing towards the SI NDB with turn complete, irrespective of altitude.
c) When level at 6000ft and pointing towards the SI NDB.
d) None of the above.

You are in G-EUUM and planning to fly the Special CAT III ILS at LOWS due to poor visibility. In the event of a Go Around, when can you accelerate?

a) When level at 6000ft, the AA, even if the turn is incomplete.
b) When pointing towards the SI NDB with turn complete, irrespective of altitude.
c) When level at 6000ft and pointing towards the SI NDB.
d) None of the above.

Reference 1: OM C > RIM > LOWS > ILS 15 CAT 1 with Turn Radii and SPECIAL ILS 15 (CAT II/III) > Preparation > Point 5

Reference 2: OM C > RIM > LOWS > ILS 15 CAT 1 with Turn Radii and SPECIAL ILS 15 (CAT II/III) > Go Around > Point 3

29

You are planning to land at Billund on the easterly runway with a cloud base of 1000ft AAL. The ATIS informs you that the localiser is unserviceable. You plan for the Non-Precision Approach. You then experience an FCU fault. Which of the following statements is true?

a) For an approach using FINAL APP Guidance, both FCU channels are recommended but not required. Therefore, the approach may be continued.
b) The approach can be continued but only to a revised minima of 720ft.
c) The approach cannot be executed unless the FCU is successfully reset
d) None of the above.

You are planning to land at Billund on the easterly runway with a cloud base of 1000ft AAL. The ATIS informs you that the localiser is unserviceable. You plan for the Non-Precision Approach. You then experience an FCU fault. Which of the following statements is true?

a) For an approach using FINAL APP Guidance, both FCU channels are recommended but not required. Therefore, the approach may be continued.
b) The approach can be continued but only to a revised minima of 720ft.
c) The approach cannot be executed unless the FCU is successfully reset
d) None of the above.

Reference 1: FCOM > PRO > Special Operations > 51 PBN > RNP APCH / RNAC GNSS > Required RNP Approach Equipment

Reference Note: FCOM > PRO > NOR > SOP > Approach > Aircraft guidance Management > Approach using FINAL APP

Note: The two references explain the difference between equipment recommended and required for a Non-Precision approach.

30

On Departure from CWL you get an engine fire indication. Which statement is correct regarding your subsequent communication with ATC.

a) For all aircraft types, any fire shall be considered as a full emergency, and a MAYDAY call will be made.
b) For all aircraft types, any fire may require emergency assistance, and a PAN or MAYDAY call should be made.
c) Any engine problem or non-normal condition which precludes the application of go-around power, a MAYDAY call will be made.
d) None of the above.

On Departure from CWL you get an engine fire indication. Which statement is correct regarding your subsequent communication with ATC.

a) For all aircraft types, any fire shall be considered as a full emergency, and a MAYDAY call will be made.
b) For all aircraft types, any fire may require emergency assistance, and a PAN or MAYDAY call should be made.
c) Any engine problem or non-normal condition which precludes the application of go-around power, a MAYDAY call will be made.
d) None of the above.

Reference: OMA > 8.28.10.c