Azure AZ-900 Practice Test #1 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

What is a key broad theme applicable across many cloud benefits like scalability, high availability, reliability, and predictability?

a) Centralized control
b) Manual resource allocation
c) Automation plus instantly available resources
d) Limited flexibility

A

c) Automation plus instantly available resources

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2
Q

What does high availability in the cloud primarily mean?

a) Low cost
b) Systems are always available, even automatically
c) Easy management
d) High performance

A

b) Systems are always available, even automatically

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3
Q

Scalability in the cloud refers to what types of scaling and resource provision?

a) Only scaling up manually
b) Scaling out (horizontal) or scaling up (vertical), while automatically providing resources
c) Reducing resource usage
d) Fixed resource allocation

A

b) Scaling out (horizontal) or scaling up (vertical), while automatically providing resources

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4
Q

Reliability in the cloud, as described, concerns the ability to tolerate what?

a) High costs
b) Failures or even total disasters
c) Security breaches
d) Slow performance

A

b) Failures or even total disasters

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5
Q

Predictability in the cloud involves knowing what aspects of your application?

a) Only future costs
b) Only current performance
c) Always knowing expected minimum performance and cost (now and future)
d) Only security vulnerabilities

A

c) Always knowing expected minimum performance and cost (now and future)

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6
Q

Which cloud service type is most easily thought of as managed infrastructure and is almost always synonymous with virtual machines (VMs)?

a) SaaS
b) PaaS
c) IaaS
d) Serverless

A

c) IaaS

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7
Q

Compared to other cloud service models, which one offers the most amount of control and flexibility, but also the most customer responsibility?

a) Software as a Service (SaaS)
b) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
c) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
d) Serverless

A

c) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS

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8
Q

Which cloud service type is defined as a fully managed cloud solution where the vendor handles the underlying infrastructure, freeing the customer to focus on application development?

a) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
b) Software as a Service (SaaS)
c) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
d) Managed Infrastructure Service

A

c) Platform as a Service (PaaS)

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9
Q

Serverless computing is described as an extreme version of which cloud service type?

a) IaaS
b) PaaS
c) SaaS
d) Hybrid Cloud

A

b) PaaS

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10
Q

Which cloud service type is defined as ready-to-go cloud-based software, typically productivity applications, accessed over the internet with hosting and scaling handled?

a) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
b) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
c) Software as a Service (SaaS)
d) Serverless

A

c) Software as a Service (SaaS)

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11
Q

What is the definition of cloud computing?

a) Storing data off-site
b) Renting physical servers
c) The on-demand delivery of compute services over the internet
d) Building a private data center

A

c) The on-demand delivery of compute services over the internet

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12
Q

In the shared responsibility model, what is the customer always responsible for?

a) Physical host, physical network, physical data center access
b) Information and data, device security, and accounts and identities c) Operating system updates
d) Physical security

A

b) Information and data, device security, and accounts and identities

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13
Q

In the shared responsibility model, what is the cloud provider always responsible for?

a) Customer data
b) Device security
c) Accounts and identities
d) All the physical assets like physical host, physical network, and the physical data center access

A

d) All the physical assets like physical host, physical network, and the physical data center access

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14
Q

Which cloud model is described as a cloud for one customer, similar to an on-premises data center, not available to the general public?

a) Public cloud
b) Hybrid cloud
c) Private cloud
d) Community cloud

A

c) Private cloud

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15
Q

What is the key difference between Capital Expenditures (CapEx) and Operational Expenditures (OpEx)?

a) CapEx is pay-as-you-go, OpEx is upfront
b) OpEx is a pay-as-you-go structure versus the large upfront investments of CapEx
c) CapEx is operational cost, OpEx is capital investment
d) Both involve forecasting long-term needs

A

b) OpEx is a pay-as-you-go structure versus the large upfront investments of CapEx

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16
Q

What is the unique identifier for any digital object, user, computer, or application in Azure?

A. Authorization
B. Subscription
C. Authentication
D. Identity

A

D. Identity

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17
Q

Which Azure service is identified as providing identity, authentication, and authorization in Azure?

A. Entra ID (formerly Azure AD)
B. Azure Resource Manager
C. Azure PowerShell
D. Azure CLI

A

A. Entra ID (formerly Azure AD)

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18
Q

According to the Zero Trust principle, trust should be based on identity regardless of what?

A. User role
B. Resource sensitivity
C. Location
D. Time of day

A

C. Location

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19
Q

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) provides layered security by requiring at least two components from which general categories?

A. Using a strong password only.
B. Requiring at least two verification factors from different categories (something you know, something you have, or something you are).
C. Relying solely on biometric scanning.
D. Verifying identity based only on network location.

A

B. Requiring at least two verification factors from different categories (something you know, something you have, or something you are).

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20
Q

According to the sources, what is a primary advantage of Passwordless authentication methods?

A. It increases convenience while maintaining security.
B. It eliminates the need for multi-factor authentication.
C. It requires only something you know, like a PIN.
D. It makes identity verification less secure.

A

A. It increases convenience while maintaining security.

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21
Q

What represents your organization as a dedicated instance of Entra ID in Azure?

A. A subscription
B. A resource group
C. A tenant
D. An ARM template

A

C. A tenant

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22
Q

What is the maximum number of tenants a user can be a member or guest of?

A. 100
B. 250
C. 500
D. Unlimited

A

C. 500

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23
Q

Which Azure service acts as the method by which resources are deployed and managed, serving as a bridge between the user and Azure resources?

A. Azure portal
B. Azure Resource Manager (ARM)
C. Azure PowerShell
D. Azure CLI

A

B. Azure Resource Manager (ARM)

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24
Q

Which tool provides a convenient, web-based, visual interface for deploying, configuring, monitoring, and auditing resources in Azure?

A. Azure CLI
B. Azure PowerShell
C. Azure Cloud Shell
D. Azure portal

A

D. Azure portal

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25
Which management tool is described as using a Unix-style command language, being platform agnostic, and available in Azure Cloud Shell or installable locally? A. Azure PowerShell B. Azure portal C. Azure Resource Manager D. Azure CLI
D. Azure CLI
26
Azure ARM templates are identified as a key tool for provisioning resources and are primarily used for what purpose? A. Managing user identities. B. Auditing security logs. C. Monitoring resource performance. D. Defining infrastructure configuration.
D. Defining infrastructure configuration.
27
Which principle of Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) emphasizes giving users only the permissions necessary for their job for each specific point in time? A. Role segregation B. Least privilege C. Defense in depth D. Automatic authentication
B. Least privilege
28
Which managed service provides legacy Active Directory features inside of Azure and integrates with Entra ID, being especially helpful for migrating older applications? A. Azure AD Connect B. Azure Active Directory Domain Services (AAD DS) C. Azure DNS D. Azure VPN Gateway
B. Azure Active Directory Domain Services (AAD DS)
29
What is a key benefit of accessing Azure Cloud Shell mentioned in the sources? A. It only supports a graphical interface. B. It requires manual authentication every time. C. It has Azure PowerShell and Azure CLI built right in. D. It can only be accessed from a local machine.
C. It has Azure PowerShell and Azure CLI built right in.
30
Conditional Access rules are essentially what type of conditional logic statements? A. If/then statements B. Do/while loops C. Switch cases D. For loops
A. If/then statements
31
When choosing a region to deploy resources on Azure, which of the following is NOT listed as a key factor to consider? A) Available Features B) Location C) Price D) The number of resource groups in your subscription.
D) The number of resource groups in your subscription.
32
What is the primary purpose of Availability Zones within an Azure Region? A) To provide a globally unique name for storage accounts. B) To act as the billing boundary for multiple subscriptions. C) To provide fault isolation by using multiple independent datacenters. D) To connect virtual networks across different regions.
C) To provide fault isolation by using multiple independent datacenters.
33
Which layer in the Azure resource organization hierarchy acts as the billing boundary? A) Management Groups B) Resource Groups C) Resources D) Subscriptions
D) Subscriptions
34
When comparing Azure compute options, which type generally offers more customization and control but requires managing more responsibilities? A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) like Virtual Machines. B) Platform as a Service (PaaS) like Azure App Service. C) Serverless compute like Azure Functions. D) Container services like Azure Container Instances.
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) like Virtual Machines.
35
Availability Sets provide high availability for which type of Virtual Machines? A) Groups of identical VMs managed centrally. B) Unique or non-identical VMs within a single zone. C) VMs deployed across multiple regions. D) VMs that automatically scale based on load.
B) Unique or non-identical VMs within a single zone.
36
Which Azure Platform as a Service (PaaS) compute option is described as being ideal for short-life, event-driven applications triggered by external events? A) Azure App Service B) Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) C) Azure Container Instances (ACI) D) Azure Functions
D) Azure Functions
37
What acts as the privacy and isolation boundary for Virtual Machines (VMs) in Azure, and is required when creating a VM? A) Availability Zone B) Resource Group C) Virtual Network D) Management Group
C) Virtual Network
38
Which of the following statements is true about Azure Network Peering? A) It uses an encrypted tunnel over the public internet. B) It is generally slower and more expensive than a VPN connection. C) Connections are not encrypted, but stay on Microsoft's private backbone. D) It is limited to connecting virtual networks within the same subscription.
C) Connections are not encrypted, but stay on Microsoft's private backbone.
39
Which type of IP address assigned to a VM is released when the VM is stopped and deallocated, resulting in a new address upon restart? A) Dynamic IP address B) Static IP address C) Private IP address D) Public endpoint
A) Dynamic IP address
40
Compared to a VPN connection, which of the following is a characteristic of ExpressRoute? A) It is less expensive and less permanent. B) It traverses the public internet using an encrypted tunnel. C) It is faster, more private, and substantially more expensive. D) It is primarily used for connecting individual devices to Azure.
C) It is faster, more private, and substantially more expensive.
41
Why is an Azure Storage account required to have a globally unique name across all of Azure? A) It acts as the billing boundary for the account. B) It has a public-facing endpoint associated with everything inside it. C) It is the management layer for creating storage services. D) It holds different types of data in different formats.
B) It has a public-facing endpoint associated with everything inside it.
42
Which Azure Blob Storage tier is described as being offline data that is not instantly available and requires a rehydration request to access? A) Hot B) Cool C) Cold D) Archive
D) Archive
43
When attaching a managed disk to an Azure Virtual Machine (VM), what regional requirement must be met? A) The disk must be in a different region than the VM for redundancy. B) The disk and the VM must be in the same region. C) The disk must be in a region paired with the VM's region. D) There are no regional restrictions for managed disks and VMs.
B) The disk and the VM must be in the same region.
44
Which storage redundancy option includes an additional three copies of data in a secondary or paired region, where the primary region uses LRS? A) ZRS (Zone-Redundant Storage) B) GRS (Geo-Redundant Storage) C) LRS (Locally Redundant Storage) D) GZRS (Geo-Zone-Redundant Storage)
B) GRS (Geo-Redundant Storage)
45
Premium performance options like Premium Block Blobs and Premium File Shares are limited to which redundancy options? A) LRS and ZRS B) GRS and GZRS C) LRS and GRS D) ZRS and GZRS
A) LRS and ZRS
46
What is a key concept for managing multiple Azure subscriptions effectively? a) Management Groups b) Resource Groups c) Azure Policies d) Virtual Networks
a) Management Groups
47
Which Azure service is highlighted as a primary component for enforcing and implementing governance and compliance? a) Azure Advisor b) Azure Policy c) Azure Monitor d) Microsoft Defender for Cloud
b) Azure Policy
48
Which type of Azure Resource Lock is recommended for resources where changes could be disruptive, such as a production database? a) Read-Only b) Delete c) Edit d) Archive
a) Read-Only
49
Unmonitored cloud expenses can lead to what significant outcome? a) Improved performance b) Significant unplanned costs c) Reduced security risks d) Faster deployment times
b) Significant unplanned costs
50
Which Azure tool is described as a "personal cloud consultant" offering guidance on best practices, cost optimization suggestions, and reliability concerns? a) Azure Advisor b) Azure Monitor c) Azure Cost Management and Billing d) Azure Automation
a) Azure Advisor
51
Resources within a specific scope inherit governance settings applied at what level? a) Only the immediate parent level b) The lowest possible level c) Any level above them within the scope d) The subscription level only
c) Any level above them within the scope
52
Which Azure service provides a personalized health dashboard with real-time and historical data on the health of Azure services and offers proactive incident and maintenance notifications? a) Azure Monitor b) Log Analytics c) Application Insights d) Azure Service Health
d) Azure Service Health
53
Azure Automation is described as being designed for optimizing which aspect in the cloud, including automated patching, reporting, and security response? a) Network performance b) Cost management c) Security management d) Governance
d) Governance
54
What calculator is used to estimate the cost of Azure resources and services, giving the ability to forecast by calculating estimates? a) Azure TCO Calculator b) Azure Pricing Calculator c) Azure Budget Calculator d) Azure Savings Calculator
b) Azure Pricing Calculator
55
Microsoft Purview is described as a comprehensive solution for what purpose, extending across Azure, other cloud environments, and on-premises data sources? a) Resource monitoring and alerting b) Automated workflow management c) Threat detection and prevention d) Data governance
d) Data governance
56
Tags are discussed as a best practice that helps with cost management by allowing integration with which specific Azure tools mentioned? a) Azure Service Health and Azure Arc b) Azure Policy and Azure Cost Management c) Azure Advisor and Microsoft Purview d) Azure Automation and Log Analytics
b) Azure Policy and Azure Cost Management
57
Application Insights specifically collects telemetry data related to applications, such as page views, user sessions, and what other type of metrics? a) Network latency metrics b) Security vulnerability metrics c) Performance metrics d) Infrastructure utilization metrics
c) Performance metrics
58
What is a primary definition of an Azure subscription? a) A tool for estimating the total cost of ownership b) A service for monitoring application performance c) An agreement with Microsoft enabling access to cloud services, also a boundary for resource usage, access, and billing d) A framework for enforcing organizational policies
c) An agreement with Microsoft enabling access to cloud services, also a boundary for resource usage, access, and billing
59
Which Azure service is used for extending Azure management to multi-cloud, on-premises, hybrid, and Edge environments to provide unified management? a) Azure Monitor b) Azure Policy c) Azure Automation d) Azure Arc
d) Azure Arc
60
What are reported as relevant types of reports for governance purposes? a) Financial statements and customer feedback b) Application performance metrics and user activity logs c) Security incident reports and network traffic analysis d) Compliance status, resource utilization, and audit logs
d) Compliance status, resource utilization, and audit logs