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Flashcards in Barron's Questions Deck (125):
1

The electron transport chain (ETC) is located in the
a. cytoplasm
b. cristae of mitochondria
c. outer compartment of the mitochondria
d. inner matrix of the mitochondria
e. Golgi body

b. cristae of mitochondria

2

The immediate result of the electron transport chain is:
a. water is produced
b. ATP is produced
c. lactic acid produced
d. glucose is broken down into 2 pyruvic acid molecules
e. a proton gradient is created.

e. a proton gradient is created.

3

the role of oxygen in aerobic respiration is:
a. to transport CO2
b. to act as the final proton and electron acceptor in the ETC
c. to transport electrons in glycolysis
d. to provide electrons for the ETC
e. most important in the Krebs cycle.

b. to act as the final proton and electron acceptor in the ETC

4

What's true about the citric acid or Krebs cycle?
a. it produces the most energy of all the processes
b. it produces energy by chemiosmosis
c. its production of energy is explained by the laws of diffusion.
d. the raw material is pyruvic acid
e. it releases carbon dioxide

e. it releases carbon dioxide.

5

which probably evolved first?
a. the krebs cycle
b. chemiosmosis
c. glycolysis
d. the ETC
e. the citric acid cycle

c. glycolysis

6

All of the following are correct about ATP synthetase EXCEPT:
a. it's located in the cristae
b. it spins like a turbine
c. it attaches a phosphate to ADP
d. it's an important part of glycolysis
e. its function depends on a proton gradient.

d. it's an important part of glycolysis

7

During strenuous exercise, skeletal muscles use up ____ and produce large amount of ____, which causes pain and fatigue in the muscle.

During strenuous exercise, skeletal muscles use up OXYGEN and produce large amount of LACTIC ACID, which causes pain and fatigue in the muscle.

8

Where does the oxygen that plants give off come from?

it comes from the light DEPENDENT reactions during photosynthesis

9

All of the following statements about photolysis are correct EXCEPT:
a. it occurs during the light independent reaction
b. it releases oxygen
c. it provides hydrogen for carbon fixation
d. it supplies electrons to chlorophyll a
e. it's the process of splitting apart molecules of water.

a. it occurs during the light independent reaction

10

Which of the following is NOT a photosynthetic pigment?
a. chlorophyll a
b. chlorophyll b
c. carotenoid
d. bromothymol blue
e. phycobilins

d. bromothymol blue

11

Carotenoids absorb all colors of light EXCEPT
a. green
b. blue
c. yellow
d. red
e. violet

c. yellow

12

The initial role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis is to
a. synthesize sugar
b. absorb light energy
c. fix carbon dioxide
d. synthesize carbon
e. convert ADP to ATP

b. absorb light energy

13

If two pink Japanese cherry blossoms are crossed (RW), what is the chance that an offspring will be pink?
a. 0
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
e. 100

c. 50

14

Which is true about blood type?
a. type A is dominant over type B
b. Type B is dominant over type A
c. Type O is dominant over types A and B
d. Type AB is dominant over both A and B
e. Types A and B are dominant over type O

e. Types A and B are dominant over type O

15

A man with hemophilia marries a woman who has normal hemoglobin and is not a carrier. which of the following is true?
a. none of their children will have the disease nor will they be carriers.
b. all the boys will have the disease
c. all the girls will have the disease.
d. all the boys will be carriers
e. all the girls will be carriers

e. all the girls will be carriers

16

What're the characteristics of hemophilia and colorblindness?

they're X-linked RECESSIVE.

17

Which disease:
results from a mutation of chromosomes?

Down syndrome

18

Which disease:
is characterized by a buildup of fluid in the lungs?

cystic fibrosis

19

Which disease:
if no dietary change is instituted at birth, mental retardation will result

phenylketonuria

20

Which disease:
autosomal dominant disease of the nervous system that results in death

Huntington's disease

21

Which disease:
is a sex-linked recessive disorder

hemophilia, and color blindness

22

Which disease:
has onset beginning usually in the middle age

huntington's disease

23

A man with Klinefelter's syndrome has 47 chromosomes and has three sex chromosomes, XXY. this abnormality came about as a result of...
a. crossing over
b. deletion of a chromosome
c. addition of a chromosome
d. nondisjunction
e. mutation in a gene.

d. nondisjunction

24

a testcross is done to
a. determine if crossover has occurred
b. prevent sex linked traits from being passed on
c. determine if a person has Huntington's disease
d. prevent crossover from occurring
e. determine if an organism exhibiting the dominant phenotype is carrying a recessive allele for that trait.

e. determine if an organism exhibiting the dominant phenotype is carrying a recessive allele for that trait.

25

a farmer planted 1,000 seeds of corn. the offspring were 544 tall with yellow seeds, 188 tall with green seeds, 183 short with yellow seeds, and 64 short with green seeds. what were the genotypes of the parents?

TtYy x TtYy

26

The genotype ratio from a monohybrid cross is?

1:2:1
- 1 homozygous dominant
- 2 hybrid
- 1 homozygous recessive.

27

if guanine makes up 28 percent of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism, then thymine would make up ____ percent of the nucleotides.

22%

28

DNA can be cut into small pieces with ___.

restriction enzymes

29

If the sequence of a strand of DNA is AAATAACCGGGGATC, then the sequence on the corresponding mRNA sequence would be:

UUUAUUGGCCCCUAG

30

all of the following are correct about RNA processing EXCEPT:
a. it's a rare occurrence and results in mutations
b. introns aer removed
c. it occurs after transcription
d. the initial transcript is longer than the final transcript
e. it occurs in the nucleus

a. it's a rare occurrence and results in mutations

31

Identify the process
synthesis of RNA

transcription

32

Identify the process
Requires RNA polymerase

transcription

33

Identify the process
Synthesis of DNA

Replication

34

Identify the process
removal of introns, noncoding regions of DNA

RNA processing

35

Identify the process
involves a polypeptide chain forming

translation

36

Identify the process
occurs during the interphase of the cell cycle

replication

37

Identify the process
requires DNA polymerase

replication

38

What could cure cystic fibrosis?
a. gel electrophoresis
b. restriction enzymes
c. polymerase chain reaction
d. recombinant DNA
e. RNA processing

d. recombinant DNA

39

97 percent of the human genome
a. does not code for protein
b. codes for about 30,000 genes
c. codes for about 3 billion genes
d. is located in the mitochondria
e. has been cut up by restriction enzymes

a. does not code for protein

40

All of the following are true of homologous structures EXCEPT:
a. they demonstrate common ancestry
b. an example is the wing of the bat and a person's arm
c. an example is the wing of the bat and the wing of a fly
d. they are not the same thing as analogous structures
e. an example is the whale's lateral fin and a person's arm

c. an example is the wing of the bat and the wing of a fly

41

Identify the scientist(s):
inheritance of acquired traits

Lamarck

42

Identify the scientist(s):
use and disuse

Lamarck

43

Identify the scientist(s):
theory of punctuated equilibrium

Stephen J. Gould and Niles Eldridge

44

Identify the scientist(s):
populations tend to overpopulate

Charles Darwin

45

Identify the scientist(s):
hypothesized that under conditions that existed in early Earth, organic molecules could form

Oparin and Haldane

46

Identify the scientist(s):
survival of the fittest

Charles Darwin

47

The age of the Earth according to scientific evidence is closest to:
a. 4,000 years old
b. 600 years old
c. 6,000 years old
d. 4 million years old
e. 4 billion years old

e. 4 billion years old

48

Pangaea is a
a. transition fossil
b. molecule that's commonly analyzed and used to show which organisms are related
c. species of bacteria resistant to all antibiotics
d. single supercontinent that existed 250 million years ago

d. single supercontinent that existed 250 million years ago

49

Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution?
a. wildebeests separated from each other by a newly formed river are now separate species
b. whales and fish have a streamlined appearance because they evolved in the same environment
c. insects and flowers they pollinate have evolved together over millions of years
d. polydactyly, having extra fingers, is common to the Amish of Pennsylvania
e. change occurs in the gene pool due to chance.

a. wildebeests separated from each other by a newly formed river are now separate species

50

Name the type of isolation or selection:
Darwin discovered 14 species of finches on the Galapagos islands that all evolved from one original species of finch

adaptive radiation

51

Name the type of isolation or selection:
having extra sets of chromosomes in every cell

polyploidy

52

Name the type of isolation or selection:
the peppered moths are an example

directional selection

53

Name the type of isolation or selection:
two population of one species evolved into two separate species after being separated for millions of years by a canyon

geographic isolation

54

Name the type of isolation or selection:
a very small dog and a very large dog cannot mate because of the enormous size difference of the two animals

reproductie isolation

55

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

contains the most diverse EUKARYOTIC organisms

e. protista

56

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

Heterotrophs whose cell walls consist of chitin

b. fungi

57

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

Included in the domain bacteria

a. prokaryotes

58

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

heterotrophs that reproduce sexually with a dominant diploid stage

d. animals

59

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

All are autotrophic eukaryotes

c. plants

60

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

The archaea domain includes these

a. prokaryotes

61

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

The heterotrophic part of any lichen

b. fungi

62

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

Includes amoebas, paramecia, and euglenas

e. protista

63

Refer to the terms below:
a. prokaryotes
b. fungi
c. plants
d. animals
e. protista

eukaryotic cells that play a vital role in recycling nutrients in an ecosystem

b. fungi

64

Choose between monocot or dicot
vascular bundles scattered throughout the stem

monocot

65

Choose between monocot or dicot
parallel veins in leaves

monocot

66

Choose between monocot or dicot
seed splits in two

dicot

67

Choose between monocot or dicot
taproots

dicot

68

Choose between monocot or dicot
daisies, carrots ,and roses are examples

dicot

69

Choose between monocot or dicot
grasses such as lawn grass, wheat, rice, and corn are examples

monocot

70

All of the following are modifications for a dry environment EXCEPT
a. stomatal crypts
b. sporopollenin
c. seeds
d. flowers
e. pollen

d. flowers

71

angiosperms are
a. monocots
b. seedless plants
c. plants with no vascular tissue
d. flowering plants
e. plants that reproduce only asexually

d. flowering plants

72

All of the following pairs are matched correctly except:
a. gymnosperm- cone bearing
b. ferns-seedless
c. flowering plants-reproduce by spores
d. bryophytes-moss
e. dicot-peanut

c. flowering plants-reproduce by spores

73

Choose one of the following:
hydra
grasshopper
earthworm

has no circulatory system

hydra

74

Choose one of the following:
hydra
grasshopper
earthworm

nervous system consists of a nerve net

hydra

75

Choose one of the following:
hydra
grasshopper
earthworm

uses its digestive tract to release nitrogenous wastes

grasshopper

76

Choose one of the following:
hydra
grasshopper
earthworm

uses nephridia to remove nitrogenous wastes

earthworm

77

Choose one of the following:
hydra
grasshopper
earthworm

this animal has a transport system but lacks capillaries

grasshopper

78

Choose one of the following:
hydra
grasshopper
earthworm

every cell in this animal is directly in contact with its environment

hydra

79

Choose one of the following:
hydra
grasshopper
earthworm

sessile

hydra

80

all of the following are correct about animal systems EXCEPT:
a. the hydra has a two way digestive system
b. earthworms are hermaphrodites
c. grasshoppers use their digestive tract to remove nitrogenous waste
d. the nitrogenous waste from the earthworm is uric acid
e. the grasshopper has chitinous plates in the gizzard that act like teeth.

d. the nitrogenous waste from the earthworm is uric acid

81

Ligamenets connect ____ to _____

bone to bone

82

Tendons connect ___ to _____

muscle to bone

83

Choose one of the following:
uric acid
urea
ammonia

most toxic

ammonia

84

Choose one of the following:
uric acid
urea
ammonia

humans and earthworms excrete this

urea

85

Choose one of the following:
uric acid
urea
ammonia

excreted by the digestive tracts of insects and birds

uric acid

86

Choose one of the following:
uric acid
urea
ammonia

excreted by the malphigian tubules

uric acid

87

Choose one of the following:
uric acid
urea
ammonia

excreted by nephridia

urea

88

Development of an embryo without fertilization is called:
1. budding
2. parthenogenesis
3. regeneration
4. gastrulation
5. organogenesis

2. parthenogenesis

89

Refer to the list below of primary germ layers:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm

gives rise to the lining of the digestive tract

b. endoderm

90

Refer to the list below of primary germ layers:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm

gives rise to the brain and eye

a. ectoderm

91

Refer to the list below of primary germ layers:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm

gives rise to the blood

c. mesoderm

92

Refer to the list below of primary germ layers:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm

gives rise to the bone

c. mesoderm

93

Refer to the list below of primary germ layers:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm

gives rise to the viscera

b. endoderm

94

Refer to the list below of parts the male reproductive system:
a. prostate gland
b. vas deferens
c. testes

secretes semen directly into the urethra

a. prostate gland

95

Refer to the list below of parts the male reproductive system:
a. prostate gland
b. vas deferens
c. testes

duct that carries sperm during ejaculation

b. vas deferens

96

Refer to the list below of parts the male reproductive system:
a. prostate gland
b. vas deferens
c. testes

male gonads

c. testes

97

Refer to the list below of parts the male reproductive system:
a. prostate gland
b. vas deferens
c. testes

site of meiosis

c. testes

98

Choose from the list below of parts of the female reproductive system:
a. uterus
b. cervix
c. endometrium
d. fallopian tube
e. ovary

where fertilization normally occurs

d. fallopian tube

99

Choose from the list below of parts of the female reproductive system:
a. uterus
b. cervix
c. endometrium
d. fallopian tube
e. ovary

where meiosis occurs

e. ovary

100

Choose from the list below of parts of the female reproductive system:
a. uterus
b. cervix
c. endometrium
d. fallopian tube
e. ovary

lining of the uterus

c. endometrium

101

Choose from the list below of parts of the female reproductive system:
a. uterus
b. cervix
c. endometrium
d. fallopian tube
e. ovary

mouth of the uterus through which the baby passes

b. cervix

102

Refer to the terms below about the menstrual cycle:
a. luteal phase
b. menstruation
c. ovulation
d. follicular phase

FSH stimulates the ovaries

d. follicular phase

103

Refer to the terms below about the menstrual cycle:
a. luteal phase
b. menstruation
c. ovulation
d. follicular phase

follicle secretes estrogen and progesterone

a. luteal phase

104

Refer to the terms below about the menstrual cycle:
a. luteal phase
b. menstruation
c. ovulation
d. follicular phase

secondary oocyte ruptures out of the ovaries

c. ovulation

105

the end of cleavage is marked by the formation of:
a. three embryonic layers
b. the archenteron
c. the blastula
d. the zygote
e. the secondary oocyte

c. the blastula

106

Gastrulation is marked by the formation of the
a. gastrula
b. secondary oocyte
c. three embryonic layers
d. blastocoel
e. zygote

c. three embryonic layers

107

Which hormone is released by the anterior pituitary and directly causes ovulation:
a. luteinizing hormone
b. progesterone
c. gonadotropic-releasing hormone
d. follicle stimulating hormone
e. estrogen

a. luteinizing hormone

108

Which hormone causes the lining of the uterus to thicken in preparation for implantation of the embryo?
a. luteinizing hormone
b. progesterone
c. gonadotropic-releasing hormone
d. follicle stimulating hormone
e. androgen

b. progesterone

109

What're the stages of the menstrual cycle?
stages (not in order): luteal phase, ovulation, follicular phase, menstruation

1. follicular phase
2. ovulation
3. luteal phase
4. menstruation

110

Refer to the terms below that refer to the chick embryo.
a. chorion
b. yolk sac
c. amnion
d. allantois

analogous to the placenta; where nitrogenous waste accumulates

d. allantois

111

Refer to the terms below that refer to the chick embryo.
a. chorion
b. yolk sac
c. amnion
d. allantois

encloses the embryo in protective fluid

c. amnion

112

All of the following are part of the first line of defense of the immune system EXCEPT:
a. leukocytes
b. skin
c. stomach acid
d. cilia
e. mucus

a. leukocytes

113

All of the following are true of the second line of defense EXCEPT
a. increased production of histamine
b. sneezing, redness
c. inflammatory response
d. stomach acid
e. phagocytes

d. stomach acid

114

All of the following are correct about the immune system EXCEPT:
a. the first line of defense is nonspecific
b. the second line of defense is nonspecific
c. release of histamine is responsible for the inflammatory response
d. macrophages engulf huge numbers of microbes
e. T lymphocytes release antibodies

e. T lymphocytes release antibodies

115

Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphatic system?
a. tonsils
b. spleen
c. liver
d. adenoids
e. lymph nodes

c. liver

116

Which of the following is true about histamine?
a. it's part of the body's first line of defense
b. it kills germs by dissolving them
c. it's a toxin released by microbes or germs
d. it causes sneezing and a runny nose in an attempt to rid the body of germs
e. it's part of the body's specific immune response

d. it causes sneezing and a runny nose in an attempt to rid the body of germs

117

Refer to the terms below:
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. macrophages
d. antibodies
e. histamine

produce antibodies

b. B lymphocytes

118

Refer to the terms below:
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. macrophages
d. antibodies
e. histamine

fight pathogens by hand to hand combat

a. T lymphocytes

119

Refer to the terms below:
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. macrophages
d. antibodies
e. histamine

neutralize specific antigens

d. antibodies

120

Refer to the terms below:
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. macrophages
d. antibodies
e. histamine

use pseudopods to engulf large numbers of germs

c. macrophages

121

Refer to the terms below:
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. macrophages
d. antibodies
e. histamine

attacks and kills infected body cells

a. T lymphocytes

122

Certain danger in a blood transfusion comes when the
a. recipient has antigens to the donor blood
b. recipient has antibodies to the donor blood
c. donor has antibodies to the recipient's blood

b. recipient has antibodies to the donor blood

123

All of the following are autoimmune disease EXCEPT:
a. arthritis
b. lupus
c. sclerosis
d. AIDS
e. juvenile diabetes

d. AIDS

124

reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in
a. macrophages
b. t lymphocytes
c. b lymphocytes
d. HIV virus
e. antibodies

d. HIV virus

125

What causes vasodilation

histamine