By the Numbers Flashcards

(119 cards)

1
Q

Gross weight with fuel and two souls

A

12,800 lbs

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2
Q

One engine thrust, Mil/Max

A

2200/3300

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3
Q

Fuel flow for one engine, MAX at rest and Mach 1

A

7300, 11,400 lb/hr

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4
Q

Pushing start arms the ignition circuit for

A

30 seconds

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5
Q

One engine normal oil capacity and air expansion space

A

4qt, 1 qt

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6
Q

Gravity flow guaranteed to ____ altitude

A

6,000

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7
Q

Fuel cutoff switches operated by ___ and cut off fuel in ____

A

DC, 1 second

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8
Q

Fuel low level light comes on after ____ sec below ____ amount

A

7.5, 250 lbs

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9
Q

Gearbox shift occurs at ____ range

A

65-75%

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10
Q

Voltage of battery is ___ V and DC rectifiers is ____ V

A

24, 28

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11
Q

AC system provides ___/___ V

A

115/200

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12
Q

AC generators cut-in between

A

43-48%

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13
Q

Min battery voltage of ___ is required to close battery relay

A

18

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14
Q

Left engine provides ____ psi for ____ system

A

3200, utility

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15
Q

Right engine provides ____ psi for ____ system

A

3200, flight control

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16
Q

Hyd low pressure light comes on at ____ psi, and goes back out at ____ psi

A

1500, 1800

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17
Q

Rudder limited to ____ deg each side when nosegear out 3/4 or less

A

6 deg

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18
Q

Landing gear extension/retraction takes approximately ___ sec

A

6 sec

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19
Q

Gear horn and warning light come on when gear not down and locked and ____ kts or less, altitude ____ or below, and both throttles below ____

A

210kts, 10,000, 96%

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20
Q

When accelerating, gear light may not go out until ____

A

240 knots

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21
Q

Landing gear alt release pulled out ____ inches, and requires ____ sec

A

10 in, 15-35 seconds

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22
Q

Rear canopy follows front by ___ after canopy jettisons

A

1 sec

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23
Q

Aneroid delays parachute opening until between

A

15,000 to 11,500

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24
Q

Seat ejection occurs at ____ after canopy jettison

A

0.3

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25
Fuel for left engine is ____ gal serviced/usable and ____ lbs usable
293/286 gal, 1916 lbs
26
Fuel for right engine is ____ gal serviced/usable and ____ lbs usable
305/297 gal, 1990 lbs
27
Total fuel is ____ gal serviced/usable and ____ lbs usable
598/583 gal, 3906 lbs
28
With single-engine and less than ____ in either system, leave both boost pumps on and crossfeed on
250 lbs
29
A minimum of ____ RPM is required to achieve any engine fuel flow
12-14%
30
____% RPM is the heart of the air start envelope at any altitude
18-20%
31
Ignition must occur before fuel flow reaches ____
360 lb/hr
32
After aborted start, wait ____ min before attempting another start
2 min
33
If EGT doesn't rise within ____ sec of fuel flow indication, abort start
12 sec
34
Flaps should be +/- _____ of 60% position
5%
35
Normal rotation speed on initial takeoff is ____
141 KIAS (This is rounded to 145)
36
Normal liftoff speed on initial takeoff is ____
164 KIAS
37
Delay takeoff a min of ____ behind large aircraft and ____ heavy aircraft
2, 4
38
With a crosswind greater than ____, spacing behind large/heavy aircraft can be reduced
5 knots
39
Abort takeoff if either afterburner doesn't light within ____ sec
5
40
Final turn airspeed is ____ plus 1 knot for every 100 lbs of fuel over 1000 lbs
180 KIAS
41
Final approach airspeed is ____ plus 1 knot for every 100 lbs of fuel over 1000 lbs
160 KIAS
42
Touchdown speed is ____ plus 1 knot for every 100 lbs of fuel over 1000 lbs
135 KIAS
43
Minimum hydraulic pressure is ____
1500 psi
44
Each generator is ____ phase
3
45
The O2 light comes on at or below ____ liter, may blink at or below ____
1, 3 liters
46
Below ____, the engine anti ice is always open, regardless of switch position
65%
47
There are ____ rotating beacons, located ____
2, tail and lower fuselage
48
There are ____ position lights, located ____
4, tail, lower fuselage, and each wing
49
Battery energizes the DC bus for ____
15 minutes at 80% power
50
If oil pressure is high during cold weather, should be in limits within ____
6 minutes
51
The radio attenuation switch reduces UHF and VHF volume by ____
66%
52
IDENT sends a pulse with transponder replies for ____ seconds
15
53
Standby ADI provides ____ deg climb, ____ deg dive, ____ deg roll capacity, and provides ____ minutes of useful info within +/- ____ after DC failure
92, 78, 360 deg, 9 min, +/-6 deg
54
Maintain a minimum of ____ RPM to ensure effective anti-ice operation
80%
55
Due to oil supply restriction, zero G flight restricted to ____
10 sec
56
Rudder system failure may push rudder to ____ deg
30
57
Stab aug system failure may push rudder to ____ deg
2
58
Touchdown greater than ____ KCAS should not be attempted
200
59
With asymmetric flaps, maintain ____ kts above final appr/touchdown speed
20
60
Do not touchdown with less than ____ kts with asymmetric flaps
165
61
On SE go-around, climb only as necessary until reaching ____ kts
200
62
When landing with all gear up, touch down ____ kts faster than normal
10
63
Maximum for nosewheel on the runway is
174 knots
64
Estimation for landing roll is ____ ft plus fuel (not including 1000 ft down)
2500
65
Landing roll approximately ____ for no flap landing
Doubled
66
Anti-ice will cause a loss of ____ % thrust in MIL and ____ in MAX
8.5%, 5.5%
67
If flap-slap interconnect fails and flaps are needed for landing, ____% flaps provides adequate control authority and controllable stick forces
30-45%
68
Pressure reg. maintain cabin altitude of ____ +/- ____ from ____ altitude to ____ altitude
8000 +/-2, 8,000 to 23,000
69
Avoid MAX thrust dives when below ____ lb in either tank
650
70
Use ____ knots as a go/no go speed for simple tire failure
100 kts
71
Increase final approach speed and touchdown speed by ____ gust factor
1/2
72
Increase final turn, approach, and touchdown speed by ____ kts for a no flap landing
15 knots
73
How many seconds until full parachute deployment?
3.42 seconds
74
Landing light retraction takes ____ seconds
10 seconds
75
AOA max range is ____. Max endurance/best angle of climb is ____
.18, .3
76
Nozzles should stabilize within ____ sec after rapid throttle movements
10 seconds
77
Max allowable sink rate for landing: ___ fpm normal landing and ____ fpm crab landing (>1700 lbs fuel) and ____, _____ for
340, 200, 590, 395
78
First 4.25" of stick travel provides ____ aileron deflection
50%
79
Next 1.5" of stick travel provides ____ aileron deflection
Full
80
Crossfeed recommended with fuel imbalance of ____ or greater
200 lbs
81
Holding airspeed:
250-265 kts
82
Radar pattern typically burns ____ fuel
325 lbs
83
Turbulent air/thunderstorm penetration speed is ____ kts
280 kts
84
Climb possible at SETOS is ____ fpm
100
85
Climb increased by ___ fpm each kt between SETOS - SETOS+10
8-50
86
Gear retraction may take ____ when retracted between SETOS+10 and 200
1 min
87
If unable to retract gear, best climb at ____ for 60% flaps, ____ at 0% flaps
200 kts, 220 kts
88
Optimum pitch for ejection zoom:
20 deg
89
With loss of canopy, slow to ____ kts, min drag occurs at ____ kts
300, 225
90
If on hydraulic system reads zero, hydraulic system transfer may occur, and flight time could be limited to _____ min
35
91
Controllability check should be accomplished at ____ AGL or higher
6,000 ft
92
Maintain ____ kts above min controllable airspeed in descent/landing approach
20 kts
93
Best glide speed is ____ kts + 1 knot/100 lbs fuel
230
94
Multiply altitude in thousands of feet by ____ for glide distance in NM
1.7
95
Max crosswind, dry runway
30
96
Max crosswind, wet runway
20
97
Max crosswind, icy or standing water
10
98
Max crosswind, dry runway, single ship touch & go
25 kts
99
Max crosswind for solo students (dry/wet)
15/10 kts
100
Minimum runway length for takeoff/landing is ____
8,000 ft
101
No flap landings are not accomplished with ____ lbs or greater of fuel
2500 lbs
102
Low level min and max airseed
300, 420
103
Simulated single engine go-around must be accomplished by ___ (____ full flap)
100 ft, 300 ft AGL
104
Perform all aerobatic maneuvers above ____
8,000 ft AGL
105
Stall and slow flight must be performed between ____
8,000 ft - FL 200
106
Min power setting for stalls and slow flight:
80%
107
Nose high recoveries must be accomplished below ____
FL240
108
Do not perform supersonic flight below ____ unless in an authorized airspace
FL300
109
Solo students will not perform patterns and landings with ____ fuel or more
2500 lbs
110
Normal minimum fuel for solo students is ____
800 lbs
111
Minimum fuel:
600 lbs
112
Emergency fuel:
400 lbs
113
Min taxi interval is ____ staggered, ____ in trail
150 ft, 300 ft
114
Restricted low approach must be initiated by ____ unless otherwise directed
500 ft AGL
115
Chase aircraft in emergency can low approach down to ____
300 ft AGL
116
For practice S/E approach, set "inop" engine at ____ rmp
60%
117
Begin closed pull up with min of ____ kts, and maintain min of ____ kts
240 kts, 200 kts
118
RPM of ____ should be sufficient for taxi
80%
119
Rolling takeoffs may increase takeoff distance ____
150-300 ft