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Eagle Control - 2 > CAM 95-1 > Flashcards

CAM 95-1 Flashcards

0
Q

Who controls the restricted area

A

Eagle radio

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1
Q

Who manages the restricted airspace?

A

Range officer
ACOFS
G3

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2
Q

What is mandatory for all flights operating within the reservation

A

Flight following with eagle radio

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3
Q

Is Eagle radio required to monitor continuously for updated range information

A

Yes

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4
Q

Aircraft operating in the north and south maintenance test flight areas are required to do what

A

Contact campbell approach

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5
Q

What is the procedures for aviators to flight follow with their respective units

A

If the unit established an SOP THAT ESTABLISHES positive flight following procedures which include

opening and closing of flight plans
Clearly defined routes of flight
Initiate appropriate action on overdue or missing aircraft
Transfer active flight plans to an appropriate agency prior to ceasing ops

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6
Q

What does Eagle radio provide for fort campbell

A

Flight following services for all flights conducted within the restricted area r3702 A B C

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7
Q

What is the phone number for ore recorded ATIS messages

A

798-6537

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8
Q

What are the ATIS

A

VHF 141.35

UHF - 365.05

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9
Q

What frequencies are for flight following and advisory services

A
  1. 9

285. 7

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10
Q

What frequencies are for eagle preflight

A

FM 65.20 - HOP

265.5 - EOD

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11
Q

What is eagle radios function

A

Provide VFR flight following service for all flights conducted within the restricted airspace of r3701 and 3702, which includes flights in the reservation

Disseminate range data m selected LCL NOTAMS, and any other pertinent info to aircrews as changes occurs

Disseminate real time updates of range data, selected LCL NOTAMS, flight safety information to aircrews as changes occur

Comply with procedures outlined in the missing aircraft sectio of cam reg 385-3

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12
Q

Eagle radio does not provide what type of service

A

Radar traffic advisories outside r3702

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13
Q

Who should aircraft contact for radar traffic advisories

A

Campbell approach control exiting 3702

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14
Q

What is the benefit and purpose of preflight coordination

A

Simplify flight following procedures and relieves flight following frequency congestion by transmitting essential flight info to eagle radio prior to takeoff.

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15
Q

What information is operations required to give eagle reference flight plans

A

Call sign
Type and # of aircraft
Tail number of each aircraft
Estimated time of departure. If flying an off post route and then entering the reservation…state the estimated time and location for entering the reservation
Initial destination/sector on the reservation
Clearly defined route of flight to initial destination on the reservation
Unit assignment
No of POB
Aided / unaided

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16
Q

She is is automatic preflight coordination accomplished

A

When pilots file local flight plans with campbell or Sabre operations

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17
Q

When are pilots required to contact eagle preflight on the FM PRIOR TO departure

A

Pilots operating from field sites without telephone facilities

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18
Q

When can eagle preflight cancel flight plans

A

Unless updated with campbell or SABRE operations, flight plans not activated within two hours of proposed departure time can be cancelled

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19
Q

Who must contact eagle preflight and what is the exception

A

All flights entering or overflying the reservation must contact eagle preflight onFM PRIOR to takeoff

Exception - flights originating and remaining in joint, brigand or blackout sectors and not flight following with eagle radio

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20
Q

What are the preflight briefing requirements

A

Ensure aircrew has current RIS
assign a transponder code
Verify route of flight and initial destination on the reservation or that aircraft will overfly but not land on the reservation
Advise of traffic/safety considerations along the route of flight and the number of flights in the destination sector if the sector is for open use

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21
Q

What information is eagle preflight required to coordinate

A

Flight plan changes to include number of aircraft in flight and tail numbers, call signs, number of POB

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22
Q

What frequency is flight following required to be on

A

VHF radio

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23
Q

What is required to operate and be able to fly in the restricted area

A

Am operational VHF radio

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24
Q

What happens if a VHF radio failure occurs

A

Contact eagle radio on UHF and depart the restricted area unless approved by eagle radio on case by case basis

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25
Q

What happens if both UHF AND VHF radio failure occurs

A

Contact eagle radio on FM

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26
Q

What are pilots required to issue to eagle radio to request flight following services

A

Call sign

Position

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27
Q

What happens after pilots initial flight following request with eagle radio

A

Eagle radio acknowledges the call and transmits the following

Any known or anticipated traffic or other condition that may affect the flight

Update RIS

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28
Q

When are positions reports by pilots required

A

Designation is reached
Destination is changed
30 minutes elapsed since last contact unless pilots stares indefinite ground time,min such cases, pilots must contact eagle radio when airborne again
When requested by eagle radio

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29
Q

position reports can be made in relation to what

A 
Reporting points
Check points
Natural or man made terrain features
Training sectors
Training areas
Grid coordinates
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30
Q

Lost, overdue or missing aircraft procedures are described in what resource

A

CAM 385-3

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31
Q

What conditions can eagle radio terminate flight following

A

Upon pilot request
When contact has not been reestablished with eagle radio within 2 hours of pilot reporting
Frequency change to campbell or sabre tower
Reporting arrival at destination with indefinite ground time

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32
Q

What is required to do after termination of flight following and the pilot reestablishes flight following with eagle radio

A

A new flight strip will be initiated and a different transponder code
Aircrew must also update RIS information

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33
Q

What are the reservation choke points

A 
RPC
RPV
RPB
RPH
CPO
Ross Branch Valley along Blue corridor between LZ SEA and LZ SAU
LZ SAU and the multiple avenues of approach into the LZ
CPC
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34
Q

Potentially hazardous areas where multiple aircraft may converge from different directions

A

Choke point

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35
Q

What will assist aviators in being aware of the presence and intentions of other aircraft

A

Mandatory flight following with eagle radio

Use of air to air communications

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36
Q

What are the procedures for aircraft operating near PARADROP operations

A

Avoid active drop zone boundaries as depicted in the CAAF map by 1 nm

Aviators desiring to land on a DZ SCHEDULED to be ACTive must be receive clearance through eagle radio at least 20 minutes prior to drop time and must be shutdown with rotor blades secured at least 10’minutes prior to drop time

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37
Q

What is required for aircraft to operator or land at an active range

A

Positive radio contact with unit operating the range

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38
Q

Aircraft are required to contact the appropriate range tower by what means

A

On tactical command net
Range control FM 72.25
alternate 48.50

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39
Q

What distance are Non participating aircraft are required to remain clear of all active firing points and what is the exception

A

1 kilometer

Except when flying along established corridors

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40
Q

What are not part of the established corridor system and what is e responsibility when using these routes near active ranges

A

CRT
DRT

Pilot responsibility to maintain separation from active artillery firing points. “Rules for the road” will be followed when flying these routes

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41
Q

Define the danger area In echo

A

An area immediately in front of the gun extending forty five degrees either side of the gun target line to a range of 350 degrees

Aircrews must not violate danger area echo when approaching occupied artillery and mortar firing points

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42
Q

What is the lateral separation between unaided night traffic at 1300’ MSL and active artillery and mortar firing points and why

A

1.3 km

Because weapon trajectory precludes safe clearance at closer distances

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43
Q

Aircrews flying off established corridors must avoid active artillery or mortar flying points and observations posts by what distance

A

1 km

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44
Q

RCMAT

A

Radio controlled miniature aerial target

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45
Q

What are RCMAT

A

Remotely controlled 1/6th scale MIG 27 flogger d models that are used to support a variety of training events to include convoy attacks, combined arms live fire exercises and chemical attacks.

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46
Q

What is the RCMAT operations criteria

A

Operate on reservation from surface to 400’ AGL with the following characteristics and capabilities

Speed range from 52-87 KIAS
flight time is usually 10-15 minutes per sortie

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47
Q

Who provides procedural separation between RCMAT and rotary Wong traffic and what must be published

A

Eagle radio

NOTAM

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48
Q

How many sectors has the reservation been subdivided into

A

10 airspace training sectors

A-E, E1, F-G, G-1 and H

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49
Q

What do training sectors include?

A

Overlying airspace from surface to 900’ MSL

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50
Q

How are procedural separation and deconfliction of aircraft enhanced.

A

By scheduling specific training sectors for specific units during specific time periods and by limiting the Number of aircraft training in open use sectors

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51
Q

Who must units scheduling airspace training sectors coordinated their airspace management plans with

A

Eagle radio at 5 duty days before scheduled airspace becomes effective

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52
Q

Regardless of sector usage classification, whose responsibility is it to maintain separation and how should the exercise it

A

Pilots

Combination of constant vigilance, air to air FM communication and continuous monitoring of eagle radio

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53
Q

Who will provide flight following service and airspace management / FCC SERVICES for scheduled training sectors when

A

Eagles radio

If desired by the controlling unit commander

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54
Q

What sectors are aircraft authorized to operate in or transition through

A

Open sectors or sectors scheduled by their unit

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55
Q

Whee are aircraft not authorized to train in or transition through

A

Sectors scheduled for blackout use by other units

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56
Q

Sector scheduled by an aviation unit or ground unit and may only be used by participating aviation units

A

Blackout use (IR lights only)

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57
Q

Sectors scheduled by an aviation unit or ground unit and may only be used by participating units and units authorized to enter the sectors by the controlling unit commander

A

Brigade use

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58
Q

Sector scheduled for use by the U.S. Air Force as well as the Army aircraft and may only be used by participating aviation units and units authorized to enter the sector by the controlling unit commander

A

Joint use

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59
Q

Sector available to multiple users without priority

A

Open use

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60
Q

What must be issued for blackout use and who is responsible for the airspace management

A

NOTAM

controlling unit commander

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61
Q

Who is responsible for the airspace management for brigade use

A

Controlling unit commander

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62
Q

Brigade use may be exercised through FCC OR FM communications net if the following applies

A

For more than two sectors or if white corridor separates the sectors, a FCC IS REQUIRED

For two or less sectors not separated by white corridor , units may use an FM COMMUNICATION net

Brigade S3 will initiate local NOTAM, which will include the S3 point of contact and phone number

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63
Q

What must be issued and who is responsible for joint use of a sector

A

NOTAM

Established FCC or eagle radio

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64
Q

who is responsible for joint use of a sector

A

Eagle radio

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65
Q

What are the training sector altitudes

A

Aircraft operating in sectors will operate at or below 900’ MSL

Day and NVD aircraft overfly sectors at 1,100 MSL

Unaided night traffic may overfly sectors at 1300’ MSL

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66
Q

What is the maximum aircraft density for brigade use, blackout use and joint use

A

There is no specified maximum density

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67
Q

In open sectors, what are the maximum density for the following sectors
A B C G H

A

8 flights

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68
Q

In open sectors, what are the maximum density for the following sectors
D E F

A

Limited to 5 flights

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69
Q

In open sectors, what are the maximum density for the following sectors
G1

A

3 flights

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70
Q

A single aircraft operating independently or a formation operating under the control of a designated flight leader or AMC

A

A flight

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71
Q

What happens if the open sectors are filled to the maximum density authorized

A

Eagle radio will deny entrance

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72
Q

What is the criteria for refueling and laager sites

A

Will not be established within 500 meters of any portion of white corridor or within 1000 meters of any portion of green, gold, blue and red corridors within campbell class d airspace

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73
Q

Single aircraft may not operate on the reservation without what

A

Operational VHF AND FM radios unless approved by eagle radio on a case by case basis

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74
Q

What shall a formation flight do in order to operate in the reservation reference communications

A

Task a specific aircraft to monitor eagle radio VHF and appropriate FM frequencies at all times

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75
Q

Aircraft operating in brigade o joint use sectors will monitor and communicate on what

A

Frequencies designated by the controlling unit

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76
Q

Aircraft transitioning through open sectors must do what

A

Call sector entry on the appropriate FM discrete frequency and monitor the frequency until departing the sector

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77
Q

Aircraft overflying sectors are not required to do what

A

Call or monitor sector FM DISCRETE. Frequencies

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78
Q

Eagle radio will notify all aircraft of what regarding training area prior to entry

A

Occupation data to include SAAFRs and ROZs

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79
Q

What is the minimum occupation data

A 
Firing point identifier 
The ROZ type ( a 1000 meters or b 500 meters radius
An 8 digit grid
Azimuth of fire in degrees magnetic
The ROZ frequency
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80
Q

Who will determine ROZ frequency

A

Ground unit

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81
Q

Ground and air units will communicate on what type of ROZ FREQ

A

single channel/plaintext

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82
Q

What are the discrete sector frequencies for A B C

A

51.35

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83
Q

What are the discrete sector frequencies for D E F

A

52.85

84
Q

What are the discrete sector frequencies for G G1 H

A

61.50

85
Q

What are the cam reg rules for crossing or joining white corridor

A

Will be crossed or joined at terrain flight altitude

Aircrews contact eagle radio for traffic advisories and visually clear white corridor prior to crossing or joining white corridor

Aircraft on white corridor have right away

White corridor may not be crossed between CPO and RPH

86
Q

What are the training sector restrictions

A

E1 is a permanent NO FLY AREA for all division aircraft

Unaided night training has priority in open section during the first hour after sunset and the last hour prior to sunrise

NVD training has priority during all other hours

Simultaneous operations with NVD and unaided aircraft are prohibited in open sectors

Simultaneous ops with lit and unlit aircraft are authorized only in sectors scheduled for blackout use

87
Q

What type of map are units required to maintain

A

Ft Campbell special 1:50,000 marked with corridors/ routes and northwest arrival procedure

88
Q

How are corridors and routes able to sustain an expeditious, safe orderly flow of traffic

A

Two way air traffic - east west corridors

One way air traffic - blue, gold, green, red, white, alt white, and red corridors

Rules of the road air traffic - Charlie and delta route

North west arrival procedures

89
Q

What is the airspeed for all corridors and routes

A

Will not exceed 100 KIAS

90
Q

What are the restrictions for the reservation

A

No rapid or abrupt altitude changes

Formation flights within the corridors will not exceed corridor width

Aircraft must exercise caution not to intrude into impact areas

Any modifications to the published route structure that requires an altitude change above 1300 MSL WILL BE coordinated with eagle for approval

91
Q

For traffic from the reservation transitioning to sectors DEFG OR H
VFR, SVFR,CVFR traffic arriving to campbell army airfield or transition to GRT

A

Blue corridor

92
Q

When placed in effect by a local NOTAM, uses the same procedures for blue corridor with dimensional restrictions to accommodate aerial gunnery at r41 55 and Veghel dz ops

A

Modified blue corridor

93
Q

When placed in effect by a LCL NOTAM, uses the same procedures for blue corridor with additional dimensional restriction to accommodate training area 44 artillery firing point

A

Alternate blue corridor

94
Q

For traffic departing SABRE or shoc training area VFR SVFR CVFR for cantonment area helipads, helicopter landing areas, tactical landing sites, or campbell army airfield

A

Gold corridor

95
Q

For traffic departing HOP or blue corridor VFR, SVFR, CVFR for cantonment area helipads, helicopter landing areas, tactical landing sites, SHOC training area or SABRE

A

Green corridor

96
Q

Traffic proceeding VFR SVFR CVFR to SABRE army heliport from the reservation or from areas south of the reservation

A

Red corridor

97
Q

For traffic departing SABRE, SHOC, green corridor VFR, SVFR, CVFR for the reservation or transitional route adjacent to TSA B C D G G1 H,

A

White corridor

98
Q

When placed in effect by NOTAM, uses the same procedures for white corridor with additional dimensional restrictions, to accommodate aerial gunnery at r28 for other than hellfire missiles

A

Modified white route

99
Q

When placed in effect by LCL NOTAM , changes the geographical routing used by white corridor and adds dimensional restrictions to accommodate hellfire missile gunnery conducted at r28

A

Alt white corridor

100
Q

When placed in effect by LCL NOTAM, changes the geographical routing used by white corridor and adds dimensional restrictions, to accommodate TUAS launch and recovery at IMD r74

A

Hybrid white corridor

101
Q

For aircraft proceeding VFR to Campbell from the northwest portion of the reservation for landing

A

Northwest arrival

102
Q

When is it mandatory to use northwest arrival

A

Unaided night NVD aircraft departing the reservation between the 60 and 64 east west grid lines enroute to Campbell

103
Q

When is use of the northwest arrival recommended

A

Day traffic

104
Q

What are the restrictions for the northwest arrival

A

Not authorized for SVFR CVFR IN EFFECT

Not authorized for ac sling loading hazardous material

105
Q

What are the special procedures for the northwest arrival

A

Pilot Inform eagle radio of frequency change to CAMPBELL approach for the northwest arrival

Pilot continues to squawk assigned code

If unable to establish communication with Campbell approach , fly directly to RPH contact tower and proceed inbound on the west corridor

Pilots Prior to crossing 44 north south grid line, provide campbell approach with call sign, no in flight, northwest arrival, and proceed inbound on the west corridor

106
Q

What a is the critic for the northwest arrival

A

Begins by departing the brt between 60 and 64
Climb to 1300 MSL
Heading 090
Maximum airspeed 100 KIAS
Campbell approach will vector aircraft for a visual or instrument approach

107
Q

Used to transition to an airfield without proceeding all the way around the reservation

A

Charlie and delta route

108
Q

What are the dimensions of BRT

A

200 meters wide either side of the centerline passing CPH

height unless WX conditions require lower altitudes
A day/NVD - terrain flight altitude no higher than 900 MSL and no lower than 50 feet AHO
B NIGHT 1300 MSL

transitioning from corridor to sectors will remain corridor altitude u tile clear before descending

Transitions to a corridor from a training sector will be at corridor altitude before entering the corridor

109
Q

What are the dimensional restrictions of BRT

A

CPH and beyond

DAY 900 MSL

NVD 900 MSL

Avoid overflight of built up areas near check point church, Veghel and junction

110
Q

What is the purpose of a flight plan

A

the flight plan is to track flights and dispatch search and rescue (SAR) if necessary.

111
Q

flights that extend beyond the local flying area defined in Chapter 10 or within the local flying area which is planned to terminate other than the place of origin.

A

VFR cross country flights

112
Q

flights conducted under VFR conditions, wholly within the local flying area defined in Chapter 10 and are terminated at the place of origin.

A

VFR local flights

113
Q

Which flight plans can be filed with unit operations

A

Only VFR-Local flight plans

114
Q

What are conditions for VFR local FLIGHT PLANS

A

1) The flight will originate and return to the point of origin without landing. For the purpose of this paragraph landing is defined as being accompanied by an engine(s) shutdown.
(2) Total mission time including ground time may not exceed 8 hours.
(3) Missions outside 30 NM of CAAF require a DD 175 and will:
(a) Be filed through Campbell or Sabre Operations.
(b) Reflect a route of flight and sufficient details to facilitate search and rescue operations.
(c) All intermediate stops will be identified by airfield identifiers, city names or Latitude / Longitude
coordinates.
(d) Stopover times at intermediate stops will be explained in the remarks section.
(e) Specify refueling locations or explain circumstances whenever total flying time exceeds available fuel on
board.
(f) A route card or overlay will suffice for 3(b).
(g) Include a phone number that will be monitored for the entire duration of the flight in the remarks s

115
Q

primary method of emergency evacuation of seriously injured personnel. If the accident or incident involves Life, Limb, or Eyesight, an air evacuation is appropriate. .

A

Air ambulance

116
Q

Who is strongly encouraged to utilize Air Ambulance aircraft when urgent circumstances exist and surface evacuation systems would result in lengthy delays

A

All personnel

117
Q

Must be evacuated immediately to save life, limb, or eyesight.

A

Urgent

118
Q

Must be evacuated as soon as possible, not to exceed four hours, or medical condition will deteriorate to category urgent.

A

Priority

119
Q

Must be evacuated, but condition is not expected to deteriorate significantly within 24 hours.

A

Routine

120
Q

What are the frequencies and phone number for range control

A

169.9 49.90 38.90 70.25

121
Q

Request for MEDEVAC will contain the following minimum info

A

(1) Patient location (as accurate as possible and in Lat. & Long, if available).
(2) Number of personnel who require transport.
(3) Type injuries.

122
Q

What is campbell class d airspace

A

Airspace extending upward from the surface to and including 3,100 feet MSL within a 5.5 nautical mile radius of Campbell Army Airfield; within a 3 nautical mile radius of Outlaw Field; and within a 3 nautical mile radius of Sabre Army Heliport, excluding active restricted areas as depicted on the St Louis VFR Sectional Aeronautical Chart.

123
Q

variation of SVFR permitting multiple and simultaneous helicopter operations (single ship or formations) in Campbell Class D airspace with weather conditions below VFR minimums. An ATC clearance must be obtained prior to operating within the Campbell Class D airspace IAW DOT 7110.65, Chapter 7. Pilots are responsible for aircraft separation.

A

Copter VFR

124
Q

permits aircraft to operate in Class D airspace with weather conditions below VFR minimums. An ATC clearance must be obtained prior to operating within the Campbell Class D airspace below VFR minimums. Campbell Approach provides aircraft separation.

A

SVFR

125
Q

What are campbell CVFR minimums

A

Campbell Class D airspace are 500-foot ceilings and one-mile visibility (500-1).

126
Q

What is class g airspace

A

Below 1200’ AGL

127
Q

What are the weather minimums for the reservation

A

Day 500 1/2mi
Night 500/1
NVD 500/1

128
Q

What are the weather minimums for class g airspace

A

Day 500 / 1/2
Night 1000/3
NVD 1000/3

129
Q

What are the procedures when operating around or overflying a wildlife refuge or recreation area

A

a. Because these areas are highly sensitive to noise, make extraordinary efforts to avoid over flights. Individuals may be held personally liable if an over flight disturbs the habitat or harms an endangered species.

130
Q

What are the minimums altitudes over wildlife refuge or recreation area

A

minimum over flight altitude is 2,000 feet AGL.

131
Q

Aircraft transitioning eastward/westward on Mabry Road shall do what

A

Hold short of Charlie route

132
Q

Describe the green route corridor (not the dimensions)

A

At the intersection of Blue Corridor (Angels Road) and Mabry Road proceed along Mabry Road to the intersection of Charlie Route (Palmyra Road). May enter training sector G at pilot’s discretion.

133
Q

What are the special procedures for alternate blue route

A

(1) Proceed along Blue Corridor to CP Band (DF 290 590) then climb to 1300 feet MSL (minimum 500 feet AGL) and proceed direct to CP Brothers (DF 282 600). From CP Brothers, fly North along the 28 Easting until re- entering Blue Corridor at CP Veghel.
(2) Aircraft with sling loads notify Eagle Radio at CP Summer to allow time to place Training Area 44 Artillery Firing Points in a COLD status.
(3) Alternate Blue Corridor will only be utilized when Training Area 44 Artillery Firing Points are in a HOT status.

134
Q

What are gold corridor dimensions

A

Corridor dimensions:
(1) Width: 200 meters either side of the centerline.
(2) Height.
(a) Day: 1,300 feet MSL
(b) Night: 1,300 feet MSL.
(c) NVD: 1,300 feet MSL

135
Q

What are the special procedures for gold corridor

A

Procedures:
(1) When Sabre Tower is closed contact Campbell ARAC on 134.35 or 237.6 prior to departing the traffic
pattern.
(2) To Cantonment Area Helipads, Helicopter Landing Areas, Tactical Landing Sites near the Green Corridor,
fly past and visually clear landing site and Green Corridor; execute a descending left turn to approach the landing site with the flow of outbound traffic on Green Corridor.
(3) From Cantonment Area Helipads, Helicopter Landing Areas, Tactical Landing Sites, contact Campbell Tower for airfield information prior to departure; join Gold Corridor by the most direct route

136
Q

Who is the controlling agency for gold corridor

A

Campbell tower

137
Q

What are the dimensions for green corridor

A

Corridor dimensions:
(1) Width: 200 meters on the left side of the road.
(2) Altitude.
(a) Day: 900 feet MSL.
(b) Night: 1,300 feet MSL.
(c) NVD: 900 feet MSL.

138
Q

What are the special procedures for green route

A

Special Procedures:
(1) Arrivals to Sabre Army Heliport will cross RP Loach at 1000 feet MSL and remain at altitude until entering
the pattern. Subsequent traffic pattern flight (closed traffic) will be flown at the appropriate traffic pattern altitude.

139
Q

Who is the controlling agency for green corridor

A

Controlling Agency:
(1) Campbell Tower: Beginning point to RP Loach.
(a) When operating on a CVFR Clearance, Beginning point to RP Hellcat.
(b) Campbell Tower will hold aircraft until IFR/SVFR traffic at Sabre Army Heliport or Outlaw Field is no
longer a factor.
(2) Eagle Radio: RP Loach to White Corridor or areas on the reservation.
(3) Sabre Tower: RP Loach to SHOC Training Area or Sabre Army Airfield.

140
Q

What are the reporting points for green corridor

A

Loach (DF 569 527), Mabry House (DF 544 531), and Hellcat (DF 505 500).

141
Q

What are the check points for green corridor

A

Bridge (DF 574 492) and Ghost (DF 529 504)

142
Q

Describe the green corridor

A

Green Corridor begins at the intersection of Campbell Army Airfield runway 23 extended centerline and Angels Road. Eastward along Angels Road to the intersection of Angels Road and Market Garden Road, then southward along Market Garden Road to RP Loach. Green Corridor continues:

At RP Loach request the “Mabry Transition” to [destination], proceed westward along Mabry Road to Mabry House to the intersection of Charlie Route (Palmyra Road). May enter training sector H or Bastogne DZ at pilot’s discretion.

143
Q

Describe green corridor to white corridor

A

(1) To White Corridor: From RP Loach, westward along Mabry Road to RP Mabry House, then a left turn (remaining west of the 54 north-south grid-line) to approximately 195 degrees direct to CP Ghost.

144
Q

Describe green route to white corridor CVFR

A

From RP Loach westward along Mabry Road to the junction with On-The-Line- Road (DF 522 531), then direct to RP Hellcat.

145
Q

What shall aircraft do while operating on green corridor

A

shall hold short of Charlie Route (Palmyra Road). Aircraft will call prior to crossing or joining Charlie Route. Altitude will be: no higher than 900 feet MSL Day/NVD but not less than 50 feet AHO. Night Unaided will be 1,300 feet MSL.**

146
Q

Describe green route to training sector Alfa

A

To Training Sector Alpha: Proceed to CP Ghost (RP Hellcat if CVFR) before entering Training Sector Alpha.

147
Q

Describe green corridor to SHOC training area

A

To SHOC Training Area: From RP Loach westward along Mabry Road to RP Mabry House, then direct to SHOC Training Area.

148
Q

Describe green corridor to SABRE

A

To Sabre Army Heliport: From RP Loach, proceed along east side of ASF to CP Bridge (DF 574 492) and enter the traffic pattern, while avoiding the designated no fly area.

) Height unless weather conditions require lower altitudes. (1) Day: 1000 feet MSL
(2) Night: 1000 feet MSL
(3) NVD: 1000 feet MSL

149
Q

Describe the free corridor to TSH

A

To Training Sector H and G or join Charlie Route north bound to CAAF or south bound to White Corridor.

150
Q

What are the dimensions of the red corridor

A

Corridor dimensions:
(1) Width: 200 meters north of the centerline.
(2) Height unless weather conditions require lower altitudes.
(a) Day: 1,300 feet MSL.
(b) Night: 1,300 feet MSL.
(c) NVD: 1,300 feet MSL.
Aircraft transitioning from corridors to training sectors will remain at the corridor altitude until clear before
descending.
(4) Aircraft transitioning to a corridor from a training sector will be at the corridor altitude 2 KM before
entering the corridor.
(5) Dimensional Restrictions: Aircraft must deviate 1 statute mile south of corridor when Suckchon DZ is active
with paradrops.

151
Q

What are the special procedures for red corridor

A

Special Procedures: Exercise caution when U.S. Air Force is using Golden Eagle Assault Strip.

152
Q

Who is the controlling agency for red corridor

A

Controlling Agency:
(1) Eagle Radio: CP Summer to RP Woodlawn.
(2) Sabre Tower: RP Woodlawn to Sabre Army Heliport.

153
Q

What are the reporting point on red corridor

A

Reporting Points: Oakwood (DF 479 436) and Woodlawn (DF 524 439).

154
Q

What are the check points for red corridor

A

Check Points: Summer (DF 338 504) and Tower (DF 404 449).

155
Q

Describe the red corridor

A

Red Corridor begins at CP Summer and proceeds direct to grid DF 338 490, along the reservation boundary to US Highway 79, north of US 79 generally along the reservation boundary to junction with RP Woodlawn.

156
Q

Describe the red corridor to gold corridor

A

Red Corridor to Gold Corridor transition aircraft shall be at 1300 feet MSL prior to entering Sabre Tower’s traffic pattern airspace. Aircraft will proceed from RP Woodlawn (DF 524 439) to the bend in the road at DF 546 466, then follow the power lines until passing the Lake Taal Dam (DF 572 489). Once the aircraft is North of the Dam and clear of the Riding Stables no-fly area, proceed to Gate 10 (DF 592 505) and resume Gold Corridor per paragraph 13-6,e.

157
Q

What are the dimensions if white corridor

A

Corridor dimensions:
(1) Width: Jordan Springs Road and the area south of and within 200 meters of the road. (2) Height unless weather conditions require lower altitudes.
Day/NVD: Terrain flight altitude no higher than 900 feet MSL and no lower than 50 feet AHO. Night: 1,300 feet MSL.
(3) Aircraft transitioning from corridors to training sectors will remain at the corridor altitude until clear before descending.
(4) Aircraft transitioning to a corridor from a training sector will be at the corridor altitude 1 KM before entering the corridor.

158
Q

What are the restrictions to white corridor

A

Dimensional Restrictions:
(1) Corridor ceiling between CP Ghost and RP Hellcat is 1,300 feet MSL (2) Corridor ceiling from RP Hellcat to CP Summer is 900 feet MSL

159
Q

What is the warning for aircraft operating on white corridor

A

WARNING: Unaided night aircraft continuing along Jordan Springs Road after passing RP Hellcat are above and not on White Corridor and are in potentially hazardous airspace because clearance from artillery firing over Jordan Springs Road is assured only for aircraft at or below 900 feet MSL.**

160
Q

Who is the controlling agency for white corridor

A

Controlling Agency: Eagle Radio
(1) Prior to RP Ghost from Green Corridor or SHOC Training Area.
(2) Prior to RP Hellcat from CP Cobra. When CVFR procedures are in effect, report clear to Sabre Tower at RP
Hellcat.

161
Q

What are the reporting points for white corridor

A

Ghost (DF 529 504), and Hellcat (DF 505 500).

162
Q

What are the check points for white corridor

A

Grant (DF 430 503), and Summer (DF 338 504).

163
Q

What are Eagles responsibility during shadow TUAS operations

A

Eagle Radio Responsibilities:
(1) Have direct radio communication with the personnel in control of the TUAS 30 minutes prior to departure
until termination of flight.
(2) Assign transponder code to the TUAS and inform the TUAS mission control station personnel if the
transponder is not operational.
(3) Transmit on primary control frequencies when Charlie and Delta routes are closed for TUAS launch and
recovery. Transmit when “Hybrid White Corridor” is in effect during TUAS launch and recovery operations west of Range 74.
(4) Approve the departure or recovery of the Shadow TUAS.
(5) When requested and able, coordinate with Range Branch to update the status of artillery firing points for TUAS units IOT maximize UAS training opportunities when the fixed launch and recovery schedule is not required.
(6) Notify Range Branch if direct radio contact is lost during launch, flight, or recovery.
(7) Notify the TUAS Mission Coordinator if Range Branch has lost radio contact with the TUAS personnel. Eagle Radio will relay Range Branch information until communication is restored with Range Branch.
(8) Eagle Radio shall provide procedural separation for the TUAS and manned aircraft from departure of the TUAS until termination of flight.
(9) Eagle Radio shall request, through Range Branch, a Check Fire status for pertinent Ranges, Firing Points, or other active areas during emergency procedures.

164
Q

What is the primary launch and recovery site for shadow

A

The primary launch and recovery site is Range 71 (TUAS-19) located in Training Area 19 Sector “G” (Figure 16), TUAS operations area runway (RWY) 08/ 26.

165
Q

What is the alternate launch and recovery site for shadow operations

A

The alternate launch and recovery site is Range 74 (Indian Mound) located in Training Area 28 Sector “G-1” (Figure 16), TUAS operations area RWY 10/28.

166
Q

What are RAVEN operation restrictions

A

Raven altitudes are limited to 900 feet MSL unless the NOTAM states a different altitude below 1,200 feet MSL.
requested.

167
Q

What are the six flying areas for raven operations

A

The six flying areas are Cassidy MOUT (Raven ROZ One), Craig Village (Raven ROZ Two), TA19 (Raven ROZ Three), Indian Mound and Range 44 (Raven ROZ Four), Range 28 (Raven ROZ Five), 5th Special Forces Group Complex Range 51 E and 51 D only (Raven ROZ Six).

168
Q

Who is the only location of the six authorized for night time utilization and the altitude restriction does not apply within the lateral and vertical confines of the South Impact Area.

A

Range 44

169
Q

Who will inform Range Control of the maximum flight altitude when use of Range 44 is

A

G3 AVN

170
Q

AASLT

A

Air assault

171
Q

AFFS

A

Army flight following service

172
Q

AHO

A

Above highest obstacle

173
Q

ARAC

A

Army radar approach control

174
Q

CAAF

A

Campbell army Airfield

175
Q

CVFR

A

Copter visual flight rule

176
Q

DZ

A

Drop zone

177
Q

ETD

A

Estimated time of departure

178
Q

ETE

A

Estimated time of en route

179
Q

FAA

A

Federal aviation administration

180
Q

FLIP

A

Flip information publication

181
Q

FRIES

A

Fast rope insertion extraction system

182
Q

IMC

A

Inadvertent meteorological conditions

183
Q

PZ

A

Pickup zone

184
Q

SPIES

A

Special patron insertion extraction system

185
Q

AIC

A

Airspace information system

186
Q

DBRITE

A

Digital bright radar indicator tower equipment

187
Q

EOD

A

Explosive ordnance disposal / demolition

188
Q

FARP

A

Forward area rearming/refueling point

189
Q

MSAW

A

Minimum safe altitude warning

190
Q

ACOFS

A

assistant chief of staff

191
Q

AH-64 CMS

A

Combat mission simulator

192
Q

ALSE

A

Aviation life support equipment

193
Q

AMC

A

Air mission commander

194
Q

AMIS

A

Automated meteorological information system

195
Q

BCT

A

Brigade combat team

196
Q

CH47 FS

A

Flight simulator

197
Q

DPTM

A

Directorate of plans, training and mobilization

198
Q

DONSA

A

Day of no scheduled activity

199
Q

DSN

A

Defense switch network

200
Q

FEB

A

Flight evaluation board

201
Q

FCC

A

Flight coordination center

202
Q

KIAS

A

Knots indicated airspeed

203
Q

LBL

A

Land between the lakes

204
Q

NVD

A

Night vision device

205
Q

RPM

A

Revolution per minute

206
Q

RRP

A

Rapid refueling point

207
Q

SAH

A

SABRE army heliport

208
Q

TALS

A

Tactical automated landing system

Eagle Control - 2 (12 decks)

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