Canine and Feline Flashcards
(1011 cards)
1
Q
What is the diagnosis if a skin lesion fluoresces under woods lamp but has a negative skin scrape
A
Ringworm - microsporum canis fungus ( only 50% of positive cases will fluoresc)
2
Q
What is the best treatment for ringworm
A
Combo topical and oral therapy - antifungal shampoo with miconazole and oral like itraconarole or fluconazole
3
Q
Will doxycycline treat ringworm
A
No dummy - doxycycline is an antibiotic and will not treat fungal infections
4
Q
What are you suspicious of if you see an elevated heart Off the sternal wall on thoracic rads
A
Pneumothorax
5
Q
What would a globoid heart be suggestive of on rads
A
Pericardial effusion
6
Q
A delicit in what nerve would lead to a loss of motor function in the muscles of mastication
A
Cranial nerve 5
7
Q
Deficits in what canid nerves could lead to strabismus
A
Cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor nerve), 4 (trochlear) or 6 (abducent nerve)
8
Q
What can cause nystagmus
A
CNS disease or cranial nerve 8 deficits
9
Q
What would you expect to see with deficits in cranial nerve 7 (facial nerve)
A
Exposure keratitis because facial nerve 7 controls lacrimation
10
Q
Define exposure keratitis
A
Damage to the. Correa due to dryness
11
Q
How do cats and dogs became infected with cutebra larvae (as they do not bite or feed)
A
EnvironmentaL exposure - larvae attach through fur and enter body during grooming or through an open wound
12
Q
Where do cutebrea larvae usually localize to and when do you see infections mostly
A
Localize to the skin of the neck, head and trunk (but don’t usually go through the skin), sec mostly in late summer and fall
13
Q
Hypochloremia in a yang anorexia animal is most suggestive of
A
Upper GI obstruction
14
Q
What is the screening test for hyperthyroidism in cats
A
Total T4
15
Q
What would help you differentiate between metastatic neoplasia and systemic fungal disease on radiographs
A
With systemic fungal disease there would be evidence of hilar lymphadenopathy
16
Q
Which poisonous plant can lead to acute death
A
Milkweed
17
Q
Atrial fibrillation sounds like
A
Shoes in a dryer
18
Q
Anti pruitic meds are considered -, trey provide relief but don’t
A
Bandaids - provide relief but don’t cure the underlying cause of the pruitis
19
Q
What are the 4 main antipruitic drugs used in dermatology
A
Apoquel (octlacitinib) , cytopoint ( lokivetmab), cyclosporine (atopic a) and prednisone (steroid)
20
Q
_ Is the key mediator of pruritis
A
IL 31 - a cytokine that causes release of proinflammatory cytokines by activating the jak/stat pathway
21
Q
Give a brief brief summary of the jak/stat pathway
A
IL 31 activates a jak receptor I which activates stat which travels to the cell nucleus to cause release of proinfommatory cytokines and itch
22
Q
What is the main difference between apoquel and cytopoint in terms of their MOA
A
Both activate the jak/stat path that cause pruritis but cytopoint acts higher in the path than apoquel; apoquel is a jak inhibitor (blocks itch by not letting jak bind), cytopoint binds IL 3I so it can’t activate the jak/stat path
23
Q
How does prednisone act as an antiprurituc
A
Inhibit inflammation and up regulates anti inflammatory mediators
24
Q
Depending on the dose I prednisone can be - or -
A
Anti inflammatory or immunosuppressive
25
How does cyclosporine act as an antiprurituc
Blocks IL 2 which blocks proliferation of T cells to reduce inflammation and the allergic response - it is a calcineurin inhibitor
26
Of the 4 categories of antipruritic meds, now are each given to the patient
Oral - apoquel , prednisone, cyclosporin
Subcutaneous - cytopoint injection every 4-8 weeks
27
Of the 4 antiprurituc meds , what is the onset of action
Prednisone, cytopoint and apoquel usually act within 24 hours, cyclosporine takes 4 weeks in dogs, 2-3 weeks in cats
28
Compare the costs of antiprurituc meds
Cyclosporine most expensive, prednisone cheapest
29
What are side effects of apoquel
Increase susceptibility to demodex /infections, can exacerbate neoplasia, GI effects like v/d
30
Who should you not give apoquel to
Dogs less than one year - con increase risk of demodex and severe infections like pneumonia
31
What are side effects cytopoint
None - maybe GI effects but not proven
32
What are side effects of cyclosporine
GI upset, increased hair growth, papillomas, gingival hyperplasia - all stop after stopping the meds
33
What is often a side effect of immunosuppressive drugs butw is not seen with cyclosporine
Myelo suppression
34
In what patients should you be cautious about using cyclosporine as an antiprovisio
Diabetics - con decrease function of pancreatic B cells and can influence dosing of insulin (but does not cause clinical diabetes in a healthy p
35
What is cytochrome p450
Family of isoenzymes located in the liver responsible for metabolizing many drugs
36
What happens if a patient is given both cyclosporine and a medication that inhibits p450 like ketocanazole
It can help lower the dose of cyclosporine (saves money because it is so expensive) because cyclosporine is a substitute of cytochrome P450
37
What is p glycoprotein
Found at blood brain barrier to pump drugs at of the cell
38
What can you not give with cyclosporine
Ivermectin due to issue with p glycoproteins and drug accumulation in the brain resulting
39
What are side effects of prednisone
Many! Pu/pd , polyphagia, behavior changes, GI ulceration, hepatopathy diabetes, hyperlipidemia , delayed wound healing, cutaneous atrophy, comedomes, secondary infections
40
What is a tarsorrhaphy? When word you use it
Surgery to partially sew the eyelids as together to narrow eye opening - word use to keep the eye in place it ocular muscles are torn and to prevent ulceration due to proptosis
41
What is your top differential in a cat with a swelling on its nose and dark lesions in the Cornea
CRyptococcus - encapsulated yeast
42
How can cats became infected with cryptococcus
Associated with exposure to pigeon droppings or eucalyptus trees - spores inhaled from the environment
43
What is the causative agent of rose grower's disease in cats and how are they infected
Sporothrix (a fungus) - introduced in body from a thorn Or through an open wound or from contaminated soil
44
What parasite can be transmitted to cats though ingestion of raw meat
Toxoplasmosis
45
What is the diagnostic test for boxer cardiomyopathy (arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy)
24 hour halter ECG monitor
46
What is boxer cardiomyopathy
Fibrofatty infiltrate in the right ventricle that causes electrical conduction problems and VPCs (ventricular premature complexes)
47
Why should you not house chickens and turkeys together
Prevent transmission of histamonous meleagridis to turkey's - fatal in turkeys but not so much to chickens
48
What is a top differential if you see mucoid ocular discharge
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
49
What is the best way to prevent Oak toxicity in calves
Spread hay everywhere so they fill up and don't eat the Oak leaves
50
Can you use prednisone and NSAIDs together
No - risk of Gi ulcers and renal failure (no steroids and NSAIDs ever)
51
Can you use apoquel in cats
Not recommended - not labeled and no established safe or effective doses
52
Can you use cytopoint in cats
No - the antibody is caninized (a monoclonal antibody made to work specifically in dogs)
53
Can you use prednisone for pruritis in cats
No - use prednisolone (prednisone has decreased hepatic conversion and decreased GI absorption)
54
What are possible congenital components seen with canine brachycephalic syndrome
Elongated soft palate , stenotic nares, hypoplastic trachea
55
What breeds of cat are typically affected by brachy cephalic syndrome causing things like elongated soft palates or stenotic nares
Himalayans and Persians
56
What is a hypoplastic trachea and in what breed is it commonly seen
Narrowing of the trachea and seen mostly in English bulldogs
57
What are 4 complications of canine brachycephalic syndrome and why do they occur
Due to increased airway resistance - everted laryngeal saccules, laryngeal edema, laryngeal collapse, edematous/pharyngeal folds
58
What are clinical signs of canine brachycephalic syndrome
Exercise intolerance , respiratory distress, gagging and dysphagia, open mouth Stertor breathing, collapse I cyanosis, aspiration pneumonia
59
What is the risk of resection of an elongated soft palate
Over resection can predispose to aspiration pneumonia
60
How do you treat stenotic nares
Wedge resection of nasal fold
61
What is the treatment for hypo plastic trachea
No effective treatment
62
What is important to remember when diagnosing laryngeal collapse
Make sure it is not laryngeal paralysis
63
How do you treat laryngeal collapse (which occurs with very advanced brachycophalic syndrome)
Permanent tracheostomy
64
How do you treat everted laryngeal saccules
Grab at base with long pair of thermostats or Alis tissue forceps/ remove with traction
65
What are 2 causes of feline hyper thyroidism
Adenomatous hyperplasia of thyroid glands or functional thyroid carcinoma
66
What are key clinical signs / physical exam findings of feline hyperthyroidism
Weight loss,polyphagia, vomiting , hyperactivity - thyroid slip or nodule, tachycardia, heart murmur or gallop
67
How do you diagnose feline hyperthyroidism
Serum T4 + clinical signs and history
68
What are the 3 main treatment options for feline hyper thyroidism
Oral methimazole, surgical thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine
69
What are the 2 thyroid hormones produced by the thyroid glands and what do they do
T3 and T4 - increase metabolic rate , oxygen consumption, heart rate, erythropoiesis and catecholomine response, also have catabolic effects on muscle and adipose tissue (explaining the weight loss)
70
What is your top differential if you have a cat losing weight but that has an increased appetite
Hyperthyroidism
71
What are common diagnostic findings of feline hyperthyroidism
Increased liver enzymes (alt, alp, AST) , erythrocytosis (increased RBC ), hypertension
72
When treating feline hyperthyroidism what should you monitor
Renal function, rend insufficiency is a common comorbidity
73
What are possible side effects of oral methimazole
Facial excoriations - thrombocytopenia, anemia, hepatopathy
74
What are possible side effects of oral methimazole for treatment of feline hyperthyroidism
Facial excoriations (ulcerations or erosions), repatopathy, anemia, thrombocytopenia
75
What are possible surgical complications caused by thyroidectomy to treat hyperthyroidism
Iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism / hypocalcemia , hypothyroidism, Horners syndrome, laryngeal paralysis and voice change
76
What are signs indicating Horners syndrome in dogs and why do they occur
Due to interruption of sympathetic innovation to the eye - causes facial anhidrosis (decreased sweating) , ptosis (drooping eyelid) , sinking of the eyeball into the face, anisocoria (diff size pupils)
77
What bloodwork change would you see if the parathyroids were removed
Hypocalcemia - parathyroids produce PTH which increases calcium normally
78
Describe radioactive iodine as a treatment for hyperthyroidism
Single dose, requires hospitalization for days to weeks
79
What is dilated cardiomyopathy and who is most prone
Primary myocardial disease causing cardiac enlargement and impaired systolic function - large breed dogs most prone, especially Dobermans
80
What is meant by impaired systolic function
Inability to contract well during beats
81
What are clinical signs of DCM and describe their progression
Fainting, lethargy, exercise intolerance - many dogs asymptomatic until they suddenly show signs of heart failure (rapid progression over days)
82
What are clinical sigma of heart failure
Respiratory Ar Tess if left sided, ascites if right sided
83
What breed most commonly sees familial arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathyand what is it
Boxers - arrythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy causing VPCs and sometimes sudden cardiac death
84
How do you diagnose DCM
Echocardiography - shows poor contractility and decreased shortening fraction
85
Define shortening fraction
Ratio of change in diameter of the right/left ventricle between contracted and relaxed state
86
What is the most common clinical sign of boxer cardiomyopathy -arvc
Syncope
87
How do you diagnose boxer cardiomyopathy / arvc
24 hour holter monitor to assess severity and response to treatment to monitor VPCs that could be missed with one ECG
88
What are the 3 levels to a boxer with ARVC
Asymptomatic dog with VPCs, symptomatic dogs with syncope, and dogs with systolic dysfunction and heart failure
89
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s) is a deficiency in both - and - and needs supplementation of -
Glucocorticoids and mineral corticoids - so should supplementboth of these when treating primary adrenal corticoid insufficiency; should also supplement sodium chloride
90
What are the 2 most common types of tapeworm
Tania taeniformus and diplydium caninum
91
What is the only medication that will treat both types of tapeworm infection (dogs)
Praziquantel (droncit)
92
Pyrantel treats - and - infections, but not -
Pyrantel treats hookworms and roundworms but not tapeworms
93
For what infections would you use fenbebdazole /panacur to treat ? What will it not treat
Tania (tapeworms), hookworms, roundworms and whip worms - will not treat diplydium tapeworm infections
94
What do tapeworms look like
Small, flat, white. Like grains of rice
95
Drontal plus , approved for cats , contains - and - and is effective in treating
Praziquantal and pyrantel - treats tapeworms, roundworms and hookworms
96
Profender, approved for use in cats, contains _ and - and is effective in treating
Praziquantel and emodepside - treats tapeworms , roundworms and hookworms (like drontal plus)
97
What is Revolution used for in cats
Used to treat and prevent hookworm, roundworm , heatworm, fleas and ear mites
98
What is frontline used for in cats
Treats and prevents fleas and ticks
99
What should you recommend for a cat found to have a diplydium tapeworm infection
Flea control because diplydium tapeworm, transmitted through fleas
100
How is Tania tapeworm infections transmitted
Eating infected prey
101
What is the most common site for thromboembolic disease
Pulmonary thromboembolism
102
Will cushings disease (hyperadrenocarticism) or Addison’s disease increase the risk of thromboembolism by causing a hypercoagulable state
Cushings - hyperadrenocorticism
103
What is wobbler syndrome
Disease mostly of large breed dogs - cervical spondylomyelopathy, disease of the cervical spine causing spinal cord or nerve root compression , neck pain and neuro signs
104
IMHA has been associated with an increased risk of
Thromboembolism
105
How can IVDD be managed
Surgical decompression or non surgical with strict cage rest for at least 8 weeks - could use steroids, analgesics or muscle relaxants in addition
106
What parasite cases visceral and for ocular larval migrans in people
Toxocara roundworms
107
What is the name for hookworms and what do they look like
Ancyclostoma caninum - thin walls !
108
Describe hookworm infections in dogs
Penetrate skin of young puppies, migrate to the lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed, then mature in the small intestine where they suck blood and cause bleeding ulcers and then anemia
109
Hookworms ave zoonotic and can cause _ in people
Cutaneous larva migrans
110
What is amlodipine and what is it used for in cats
Calcium channel blocker that treats hypertension
111
What would be a benefit of using telmisartan to treat hypertension in cats due to CKD over amlodipire
Telmisartan is an angiotensin 2 blocker that treats both hypertension and benazepril
112
How can you treat anemia caused by CKD in cats
Erythropoeitin
113
Air bronchograms indicate -, hbu might they occur
Uniform lung consolidation and an alveolar pattern - can occur due to inflammatory diseases, severe edema, lung lobe torsions, hemorrhage or neoplasms
114
What is the treatment of choice for Rocky Mountain spotted fever and when do you start it
Doxycycline - start immediately even without definitive diagnosis because dog can decline quickly
115
What does a single antibody liter for RMSF indicate
Antibodies from exposure - does not indicate active infection
116
What is considered the diagnostic test of choice for RMSF became there is no in house test
Paired antibody liters with a 4 fold increase and clinical signs
117
What tick transmits RMSF
Dermacentors
118
What is the difference in bone tumors between dogs and cats
Cats less likely to metastasize than dogs
119
How do you treat heartworm infection in cats
Control underling information with corticosteroids like predrisolone and then can use heartgard to show kill the adult worms (to fast will cause a blockage) - can also use bronchodilators and antiemetics to treat signs
120
What is the most common complication of heart worm in cats
Embolism to the lung and sudden death associated with respiratory failure
121
What is the drug name for interceptor
Milbemycin
122
Why would you not use milbemycin/interceptor to treat heartworm infection in cats
It doesn't kill adults well and kills microfilaria too fast which increases the risk of anaphylaxis
123
What bacteria is associated with heart worm infection (dirofilaria inmitis)
Wolbacheia - symbiotic with the microfilaria
124
What drug is often added to help in cases of low serum albumin
Aspirin - helps decrease the risk of thrombi
125
What causes EPI in cats - exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Chronic pancreatitis
126
What causes EPI in dogs
Pancreatic acinar atrophy
127
Describe a type I hyper sensitivity reaction
Immediate reaction when reexposure of antigen leads to an allergic reaction - B cells make ige
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Describe a type I hyper sensitivity reaction
Immediate reaction when reexposure of antigen leads to an allergic reaction - B cells make ige
129
Describe a type I hyper sensitivity reaction
Immediate reaction when reexposure of antigen leads to an allergic reaction - B cells make ige
130
Describe a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
Cytotoxic type- When an antigen binds with an antibody on cell and then body recognizes it as foreign, macrophages present the antigen then Igm and igg antibodies are produced, leads to cell lysis
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Describe a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
Immune complex hype - more antigen than antibodies so they form large immune complexes in circulation (hard to clear)
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Describe a type 4 hypersensitivity
Delayed type - takes days to occur, cell mediated (other 3 types are antibody mediated), activates T cells that destroy Antigen containing cells
133
Glaucoma is usually due to
Increased intraocular pressure and decreased outflow of aqueous
134
How does increased vitamin D affect calcium and phosphorous
Increases both by increasing absorption from git and bone
135
How does increased PTA affect Salam and phosphorous
Increases calcium but leaves phosphorus normal or low
136
What is the method of choice for diagnosing rabies
Direct Flourescent antibody test
137
What is the most common malignant oral tumor in dogs and which breed is over represented
Malignant melanoma (pigmented masses) - Chow chows often get this
138
Describe prognosis of amputating an osteosarcoma of a long bone
90% develop pulmonary metastasis within a year even with amputation
139
Lateral deviation of the rectum along with swelling of perineal region in intact adult dogs often indicates
Perineal hernia
140
What is cisapride and what can it be used for
Serotonin agonist that enhances acetucholine release to increase GI motility, accelerate stomach emptying and increase peristalsis - can be used in cases of constipation with no identified cause
141
Could you use metoclapromide instead of cisapride to treat constipation
Technically yes but it is les effect and does not stimulate colonic motility
142
What is famotidine used for
Minimize acid in the stomach
143
Where are coagulation factors made
Liver
144
What is indicated with G CTLI value less man 2,5 and clinical signs like weight loss, diarrhea and increased appetite
EPI - exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
145
How do you treat EPI in dogs
Pancreatic enzyme replacement for life - because the pancreas is destroyed and will not came back
146
How do you treat EPI in dogs
Pancreatic enzyme replacement for life - because the pancreas is destroyed and will not came back
147
What is the treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis in cats
Clindamycin
148
What should you do fora dog that has ingested bleach
Dilute with milk or water and give GI protectants
149
What kind of insulin would you use to treat DKA
Regular insulin because it is short acting
150
What kind of insulin would you use to treat DKA
Regular insulin because it is short acting
151
Can you treat feline asthma with atropine
Absolutely not - atropine thickens mucus secretions and blocks airways
152
What can collapsing trachea often be secondary to if not primary
Heart failure Or chronic bronchitis (or other cardiopulmonary disorders)
153
What are common clinical signs of collapsing trachea
Honking cough incited by palpation, exercise intolerance, dyspnea or cyanosis
154
When are you most likely to see cases of collapsing trachea
Small bread, usually older (7years) , obese patients
155
Why does collapsing trachea happen
Result of weak or redundant dorsal tracheal membrane cussing the cartilaginous tracheal rings to become hypoplastic or fibrodystrophic
156
With collapsing trachea, when will it collapse on inspiration? Expiration?
Inspiration if involving the extrathoracic trachea/ neck, expiration if intratoracic
157
How do you diagnose collapsing trachea
Palpate to incite coughing spasms thinking cough, rads, endoscopy
158
What other primary conditions should you look for if diagnosings collapsing trachea
Stenotic hares, elongated soft palate , everted laryngeal saccules, laryngeal paralysis, concurrent cardiac disease
159
How can you treat tracheal collapse if bronchial collapse is present and a surgery is not a great option
Weight loss , anxiolytics, bronchodilators
160
What are anxiolytics
Treat anxiety /stress
161
What are surgical options for treating tracheal collapse
Dorsal tracheal membrane plication, intratracheal steering or external support around trachea
162
What are complications seen with inhatreheal stenting to treat tracheal collapse
Stent fracture, collapse before or after the stent, can induce serve mucous and granulation tissue
163
What are clinical signs of idiopathic epilepsy
Generated tonic clonic seizures without interictal usually 1-5 years old
164
What are clinical signs of idiopathic epilepsy
Generated tonic clonic seizures without interictal usually 1-5 years old
165
What are key clinical signs that makes rabies a top differential
Behavior change and vocalization - aggressiveness, excitability , hiding or wild animals becoming less fearful of humans
166
What are key clinical signs that makes rabies a top differential
Behavior change and vocalization - aggressiveness, excitability , hiding or wild animals becoming less fearful of humans
167
Where do most human cases of rabies come from
Bats - wildlife are primary reservoirs for disease
168
Where do most human cases of rabies come from
Bats - wildlife are primary reservoirs for disease
169
What other clinical signs might yo see with rabies (besides behavior changes and localization) and when do you see them
Can be asymptomatic for 1-2 months, then show acute and progressive signs - lameness, dum or various forms when animal is in terminal stages
170
Describe the furious form of rabies
Animal becomes anxious and aggressive, progresses to seizures or paralysis
171
Describe the furious form of rabies
Animal becomes anxious and aggressive, progresses to seizures or paralysis
172
Describe the dumb form of rabies
Hypersalivation and difficulty swallowing
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Rabies is a - disease
Reportable
174
What is the diagnostic test of choice for rabies
Direct fluorescent antibody testing on the brain
175
How is the direct fluorescent antibody test performed when testing for rabies
Detects viral antigen in 2 locations of brain - brainstem and cerebellum
176
What is the protocol if an unvaccinated pet-is exposed to rabies
Either euthanize and test or quarantine for 4 months (dog and cat) or 6 months if a ferret, vaccinate for rabies at time of quarantine entry
177
What is the protocol if a vaccinated pet is exposed to rabies - pet including dog, cat or ferret
Booster rabies vaccine immediately then have pet be observed by owner for 45 days - this also applies to pet who are overdue but have proof the pet previously had a USDA licensed rabies vaccine
178
What is the protocol if an unvaccinated human is exposed to rabies
Treat with post exposure prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and give rabies vaccine on day of exposure then on days 3,7 and 14
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What is the protocol if an unvaccinated human is exposed to rabies
Treat with post exposure prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin and give rabies vaccine on day of exposure then on days 3,7 and 14
180
What is the protocol if a vaccinated human or those with adequate antibody titers is exposed to rabies
Vaccinate at days 0 and day 3
181
What is the protocol if a healthy animal (regardless of rabies vaccine stats) bites a human
Quarantine for 10 days, do not vaccinate, if symptoms develop that are suggestive of rabies euthanize and test - report to local health department and state vet
182
What is the protocol if a healthy animal (regardless of rabies vaccine stats) bites a human
Quarantine for 10 days, do not vaccinate, if symptoms develop that are suggestive of rabies euthanize and test - report to local health department and state vet
183
What is the protocol if a stray or unwanted pet bites a human
Euthanize and submit for testing
184
What are the 4 major allergic skin conditions affecting dogs and cats
Flea allergy dermatitis (fad), atopic dermatitis /environmental allergies, food allergy or contact allergy
185
What is hay fever or atopy
Atopic dermatitis - environmental allergies
186
What is the main sign of allergic skin disease
Pruritis
187
When are you most likely to see food allergies in dogs
Younger dogs - less than 1year old
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When are you most likely to see food allergies in dogs
Younger dogs - less than 1year old
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When do clinical signs usua lly develop with atopy
1-3 years old
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Compare the seasonality between cases of story and food allergies
Atopy- seasonally, food allergy -year round
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What is the only way to diagnose atop
Ruling out other disease
192
Which breeds are predisposed to atopy atopic dermitis/ environmental allergies)
West Highland white terrier and English Bulldogs
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Describe the onset of signs of flea allergy dermatitis - is it seasonal
Rapid inset usually in warm months but doesn't have to be seasonal
194
Is atop always seasonal
Can be year round if due to dust mites but can be seasonal if due to grass pollen - usually a gradual onset in the summer
195
Describe the onset of signs with food allergies
Gradual but can be rapid - non seasonal
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What are common lesions of all allergic diseases
Excoriations, alopecia, erythema, hyperpigmentation, lichenification
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Define lichenification
Thickening / hardening of the skin
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Define erythema
Redness of the skin
199
Describe the lesions commonly seen with flea allergy dermatitis
Caudal half of body (lumbosacral region), tail base, perineum, thighs, umbilicus, pruritic - does not affect ears usually
200
Describe the lesions commonly seen with atopy/ atopic dermatitis /hay fever
Face, paws, distal extremities, ears, ventrum, pruritis
201
What lesions do you commonly see with food allergies
Same as atopy (face, ears, extremities, paws ventrum) - may be purities
202
What lesions do you usually see with contact allergies
Hairless spots that contact the environment - abdomen , muzzle , ventrum of paws , should see primary lesions like vesicles and erythematous papules
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What ave 2 reaction patterns that cats can present with with any of the 4 allergic skin diseases
Military dermatitis and eosinophilic granuloma complex
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What ave 2 reaction patterns that cats can present with with any of the 4 allergic skin diseases
Military dermatitis and eosinophilic granuloma complex
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Describe miliary dermatitis
Diffuse crusted papules
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What is an indolent ulcer
Ulcerative symmetrical lesion on the upper lip
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Where are eosinophilia granulomas usually found
Mouth or body
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What are eosinophilic plaques
Linear plaques on caudal thighs
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How do flea allergy dermatitis lesions present in cats
Caudal dorsal summerical alopecia, face or neck
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What lesions can you see with allergic skin disease in cats not often seen in dogs
Indolent ulcers, eusinuphilic grandmas eosinophilic plaques
211
How do you diagnose fad
Distribution of clinical signs, finding fleas or flea dirt or 2-3 month treatment trial
212
Why is environmental allergy testing primarily done
To make a vaccine not to diagnose atopy
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Why is environmental allergy testing primarily done
To make a vaccine not to diagnose atopy
214
How do you diagnose food allergies
Diet trial with hydrolyzed protein or novel protein diet
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How do you diagnose contact allergies
Patch test / intradermal testing
216
How do you diagnose contact allergies
Patch test / intradermal testing
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What type of hypersensitivity is contact allergies? Atopy?
Contact - type 4
Atop - type I
218
What infectious diseases should you rule out when trying to diagnose pruritis
Surcoptes, dermatophytosis, demodex
219
Describe the breathing pattern seen with asthma
Normal inspiration, marked abdominal push on expiration due to collapse of the lover airways
220
How do you treat demodecosis? How do you diagnose it?
Ivermectin - diagnose with a skin scrape
221
When can you discontinue treatment of demodicosis
After 2 negative skin scrapes one month apart and no clinical signs present
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When can you discontinue treatment of demodicosis
After 2 negative skin scrapes one month apart and no clinical signs present
223
Dysfunction of what often causes pacing
Forebrain
224
What are common signs of vestibular disease/ dysfunction
Circling toward the side of the lesion , ataxia, weakness, head tilt
225
What are common signs of vestibular disease/ dysfunction
Circling toward the side of the lesion , ataxia, weakness, head tilt
226
Circling indicates a lesion where
Forebrain or vestibular lesions (both peripheral and central)
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Circling indicates a lesion where
Forebrain or vestibular lesions (both peripheral and central)
228
What are common signs of cerebellar lesions
Ataxia, head hilt, hypermetria, intention tremors
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How can cats became infected with cytauxzoon Felis
Protozoal organism transmitted through ticks
230
What are clinical signs of cytauxzoon Felis
Non specific signs like anorexia, lethargy, dyspnea, icterus , pyrexia
231
What is high on your differential list in a cat with a significant fever (pyrexia)
Cytauxzoon Felix
232
What is the pathogenesis of cytauxzoon felis
Invades reticuloendothelial cells of the lungs, spleen, liver, lymph nodes (might see cranial organomegaly
233
What are clinical signs you'd see with idiopathic trigeminal neuritis ? What other cranial nerves are affected
Peracute onset of dropped jaw and inability to close the mouth in dogs , while dog is otherwise bar and can swallow if food placed on back of tongue- no other nerve deficits areseen
234
What is the treatment of idiopathic trigeminal neuritis and prognosis
Supportive care, fluids, hand feeding of soft food - should regain function in 1-2 weeks (Normal in 4 weeks)
235
That other differentials should you consider with suspected cases of idiopathic trigeminal neuritis
Mendibular fracture, rabies, neoplasia of mandibular nerve, masticatory muscle myositis
236
What clinical signs do you expect to see with idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
Inability to blink lack of menaceand papebral, drooping lip and ear , drooling from one side of the mouth, dry eye - normal facial sensation
237
How to you treat idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
Tear supplementation long term immunosuppressive doses of glucocorticoids
238
How to you treat idiopathic facial nerve paralysis
Tear supplementation long term immunosuppressive doses of glucocorticoids
239
What other differentials should you consider if idiopathic facial nerve paralysis is suspected
Otitis media, neoplasia of facial nerve, brainstem disease
240
What other differentials should you consider if idiopathic facial nerve paralysis is suspected
Otitis media, neoplasia of facial nerve, brainstem disease
241
What is the pathogenesis of cytauxzoon felis in cats
Invades reticuloendothelial cells of lungs, spleen, liver, lymph modes casing cranial organoregaly _ affects bone marrow causing pancytopenias like thrombocultoperia which can lead to DIC causing spontaneous bleeding
242
What might you see with a post renal urinary tract obstruction
Inability to urinate, hyperkalemia, severe azotemia, metabolic acidosis
243
What might you see with a post renal urinary tract obstruction
Inability to urinate, hyperkalemia, severe azotemia, metabolic acidosis
244
What is often used to treat urinary incontinence and why
Phenyl propranolamine - it is sympathominetic so increases sphincter tone
245
What type of stones are often seen with Porto systemic shunts
Urate stones
246
Which urinary stones can you not see on radiographs
Urate and cysteine stones - I can't C U
247
What could you use to treat a suspected insulinoma in cats
CRI of glucagon which would cause gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis - increasing glucose to combat the increased insulin
248
What clinical signs could you see with acetaminophen toxicity in cats
Hepatic necrosis, methemoglobinuria (brown urine), methonoglobinemia, anemia, hypoxemia death
249
What is N acetal cysteine
Potent antioxdant used to protect liver from toxin like acetaminophen in cats
250
What clinical signs might you see with portosystemic shunts (common in toy breed dogs)
Poor doers, underweight, wandering, microcytic anemia , intermittent signs of hepatic encephalopathy
251
What is the gold standard for treating feline hyperthyroidism and why
Radioactive iodine because it is curative (others are not)
252
Which breeds are commonly affected by color dilution aloepecia
Fawn Doberman pinchers, Yorkies
253
What is the diagnosis test of choice for KCS (keratoconjunctivitis sicca -dry eye )
Schirmer tear test
254
What are the 4 components of nephrotic syndrome
Proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, hyperchloresrolemia, ascites/edema
255
How do you "treat" hyperkalemia
Give calcium gluconate to antagonize myocardiotoxicity from hyperkalemia not an actual treatment just temporary
256
Ventral alopecia is a cutaneous marker of what
Paraneoplastic syndrome of pancreatic carcinoma
257
What causes feline mammary hyperplasia (fibroadenomatous hyperplasia)
Functional ovary producing progesterone
258
What causes feline mammary hyperplasia (fibroadenomatous hyperplasia)
Functional ovary producing progesterone
259
How do you treat feline mammary hyperplasia
OHE unless ulcerated gland then a mastectomy - so we remove the progesterone cauusing the benign hyperplasia
260
Can you prevent hemangiosarcomas
Can prevent cutaneous hemangiosarcoma by limiting sun exposure in thin coat pale dogs
261
Can you prevent hemangiosarcomas
Can prevent cutaneous hemangiosarcoma by limiting sun exposure in thin coat pale dogs but can't prevent visceral hemangiosáramos
262
What is the most common type of rodenticide used in north America
Anticoagulant rodenticides - warfarin, brodifacoum, bromdialone, diaphacinone
263
What is the most common type of rodenticide used in north America
Anticoagulant rodenticides - warfarin, brodifacoum, bromdialone, diaphacinone
264
Why is anticoagulant rodenticide so toxic / how does it work
Inhibits vitamin KI epoxide reductase and prevents activation of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors (2,7, 9, 10)
265
What are the vitamin K dependent coagulation factors
2, 7, 9, 10
266
What clinical signs might you see with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Hemorrhage into body cavities (abdomen, pleural space, lungs, etc) , signs of hemorrhagic shock (pale mm, prolonged CRT, tachycardia, weak pulses), abdominal distention, respiratory distress if pulmonary hemorrhage
267
When do clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity occur and how long can they last
3-7 days post ingestion but can persist for 4-6 weeks
268
When do clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity occur and how long can they last
3-7 days post ingestion but can persist for 4-6 weeks
269
How do you diagnose anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Markedly prolonged pt, prolonged PTT
270
Which will you see prolonged first with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity - pt or ptt and why
Pt - takes 36 -72 hours to deplete because factor 7 has the shortest halflife of all the K dependent long factors (2,7,9,10)
271
How long does it take to see a prolonged PTT with anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Longer - 3 to 5 days
272
What treatment do you do if an owner is sure their dog ingested anticoagulant rodenticide in the last couple of hours
Induce genesis with activated charcoal with sorbitol if within the last 8-12 hours, then treat with vitamin k for 4 weeks (after checking pt at 36-72 hours) , then recheck pt 2 days after treating with vitamin k
273
What do you do if a dog possibly ingested anticoagulant rodenticide
Do a pt test first, then induce emesis with activated charcoal only if pt is normal , treat with vitamin K for y weeks then recheck pt 48-72 hours once finished
274
What blood product would you use to transfuse a dog showing hemorrhage secondary to coagulopothy like due to anticoagulant rodenticide, how much and why
Plasma then maybe RBC if needed - plasma for immediate hemostasis because vitamin K takes 24 hours to have an effect - usually give 10 - 15 - ml/ kg based on repeated pt valves
275
How do you treat hemorrhage due to anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
Plasma transfusion, thoracocentesis if into pleural space, oxygen support if dyspnea, isotonic crystalloids for volume support 1 vitamin K for 4 weeks (oral or subq), recheck pt after finishing
276
Is vitamin K used as a first response treatment for anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
No - takes 24 hours to have an effect
277
Which dogs would you and would you not perform urohydropropulsion on
Thin female good due to short urethra - would not do in males due to long wet and os penis that could get stones stuck
278
Why is bromethalin rodenticide toxic
Inhibit atp production in neurons leading to inability to maintain osmotic gradient, cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure
279
What clinical signs will you see with bronethalin toxicity
High dose - Tremors, seizures, hyperexcitability, hyperthermia within 12 hours
Low dose - days or weeks post ingestion hill see ascending paralysis in hindlimbs
280
How do you treat bromethalin toxicity
GI decontamination if acute (emesis, activated chocoal, gastric lavage), once clinical signs occur then do symptomatic care
281
How can you treat increased intracranial pressure
Mannitol or furosemide to reduce cerebral edema, incline 30° to promote venas return
282
Is bromethalin rodenticide an anticoagulant
No - neurotoxic
283
Is bromethalin rodenticide an anticoagulant
No - neurotoxic
284
How is cholecalciferol rodenticide toxic
Converts 10 vitamin D which causes increased absorption of calcium and mobilization from bones leading to severe hyper calcenia and hypherphosphatemia and organ injury
285
What clinical signs would you expect to see with cholecalciferol rodenticide and when will you see then
Pu/pd, GI upset, acute renal failure, cardiac arrhythmias
286
What findings would help you diagnose cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity
Hyperphosphatemia, hypercalcemia , azotemia
287
How do you treat cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity
Erresis or activated charcoal if acute ingestion, diuretic like furosemide if hypercalcemic (or biphosphanates, corticosteroids) , support acute renal failure if azotemia
288
Why are biphosphonates used to treat hypercalcemia
The inhibit osteoclasts responsible for bore break down (decreasing calcium)
289
What is the most common type of urinary stores in dogs and cats
Struvite and calcium oxalate
290
Can you medically dissolute any stones
Most types yes - except for calcium oxalate stones
291
What kind of diet would you use to treat cystine and urate stones
Alkalanizing
292
What type of diet would use to treat struvite stores
Acidifying diet
293
What type of diet would use to treat struvite stores
Acidifying diet
294
Which urinary stones are radiolucent and may not be seen on rads
Cystine and urate (also the ones needing an alkaline diet)
295
Reducing protein in the diet can help manage which urinary stones
Cystine, urate, canine struvite, calcium oxalate
296
What are some general ways to manage urinary stones
Increase urine volume to dilute urine (high moisture food), reduce crystal forming substrates , increase urine solubility by affecting pH
297
What are struvite stones made of
Magnesium, ammonium, phosphate
298
Why do struvite stones in dogs usually occur
Induced by UTIs by urease positive microbes
299
Why do struvite stones in dogs usually occur
Induced by UTIs by urease positive microbes
300
How do you treat struvite stones (or manage)
Feed a low magnesium diet, reduced protein diet to reduce urine urea concentration and a low phosphorous diet - also treat with antimicrobials because these are usually caused by UTIs
301
Which urinary stores are the most unlikely to dissolve and bully require surgery, hydropulsion or lithotripsy
Calcium oxalate
302
Which urinary stores are the most unlikely to dissolve and bully require surgery, hydropulsion or lithotripsy
Calcium oxalate
303
Which breeds are predisposed to calcium oxalate urinary stores
Schnauzer, York, mini poodles
304
Which breeds are predisposed to calcium oxalate urinary stores
Schnauzer, York, mini poodles
305
How do you manage calcium oxalate crystals
Avoid excess protein, calcium, sodium and provide adequate phosphorous to prevent vitamin D activation
306
How do you manage calcium oxalate crystals
Avoid excess protein, calcium, sodium and provide adequate phosphorous to prevent vitamin D activation
307
Calcium oxalate stones are most likely to occur in _ urine
Acidic urine
308
Which breeds ave predisposed to cystine urinary stores
Bulldogs, basset hounds, chihuahuas, Yorkies
309
How can you manage cysteine stones
Reduce protein, restrict sodium, wine alkalanizing diet , 2 mpg 2to bind to stones to make more soluble
310
What urinary stores are Dalmatians predisposed to
Urate stones
311
What urinary stores are Dalmatians predisposed to
Urate stones
312
How can you manage urate stones
Reduced protein, wine alkanalizing diet , allopurinol to decrease uric acid
313
How can you manage urate stones
Reduced protein, wine alkanalizing diet , allopurinol to decrease uric acid
314
What is important to remember when giving allopurinol to treat urate stones
Have to give with a reduced protein diet or will cause xanthine stones to form
315
What is something you can you give for known ingestion of ethylene glycol past time for emesis
Ethanol Or 4 -methylpyrazole - prevent alcohol dehydrogenase from converting ethylene glycol to toxic metabolites
316
Should you give ethanol to a dog who is experiencing oliguric renal failure due to ethylene glycol toxicity
No - once in renal failure it is too late to bind the toxic metabolites
317
What clinical signs would you expect with cerebellar disease and why
Intention tremors, hypermetria, hypometria ,ataxia - because the cerebellum is responsible for coordination and regulation of range, rate and strength of movement, balance and posture
318
Which anesthetic should not be used in dogs with a history of seizures
Ketamine
319
Which anesthetic should not be used in dogs with a history of seizures
Ketamine
320
What would you use CRyptococcus fungal infections in a cat
Fluconazole or itraconazole - anti fungal
321
How can you identify CRyptococcus fungus on a FNA
Encapsulated and large
322
What drug is used to treat toxoplasma
Clindamycin
323
What is fenbendazole used to treat
Hookworms , Roundworms and Giardia
324
What is chlorambucil used for
Chemotherapy agent often used to treat lymphoma
325
Stimulation of which receptor leads to smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation in the airways
Beta 2 adrenergic receptors
326
Stimulation of which receptor leads to smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation in the airways
Beta 2 adrenergic receptors
327
Where are beta 1 receptors important
The heart
328
Where are beta 1 receptors important
The heart
329
Why would methocarbomal be used in treatment of pyrethrin toxicity
Methokarbomal is a muscle relaxant so can help stop the muscle tremors
330
Why would methocarbomal be used in treatment of pyrethrin toxicity
Methokarbomal is a muscle relaxant so can help stop the muscle tremors
331
Would you expect pruritis or crusting with eosinophilic granulomas
No
332
What do you most commonly see as a side effect of acepromazine
Hypotension
333
What do you most commonly see as a side effect of acepromazine
Hypotension
334
How are tapeworms transmitted to cats
Through flea allergy dermatitis
335
When are you likely to see peripheral eosinophilia
Allergies or parasite infections
336
At what pao2 does cyanosis occur
Less than 50
337
Can progressive retinal atrophy be caused by chronic anterior uveitis - why or why not
No - PRA is heritable and due to photoreceptors in the retina that are abnormal and cause early onset blindness
338
What is the inner most layer of the cornea
Corneal endothelium
339
What makes up 90% of corneal thickness
Corneal stroma most collagen
340
Descemets membrane is the -
Basement membrane of the cornea
341
Descemets membrane is the -
Basement membrane of the cornea
342
What is the most superficial layer of the cornea
Corneal epithelium
343
What is an uncomplicated corneal ulcer and what is the prognosis
Superficial erosion in the corneal epithelium, heals within 7 days everytime
344
How does a fluorescent stain ship identify a correct ulcer
The shin will only bind to the hydrophilic stroma, not the hydrophobic epithelium - an ulcer would damage the epithelium casing the stain to bind to the stroma underneath
345
What eyelid abnormalities could cause a corneal ulcer
Ectopic cilia, distichia or entropion
346
How would you go about treating a corneal ulcer
Broad spectrum antibiotic, identical underlying cause, use atropine to decrease ciliary body movement
347
What do you do if a superficial ulcer does not heal within 5 -7 days
Change diagnosis, not the treatment
348
Define complicated corneal ulcers
Involve correct stroma or deeper, persist over a week, are infected or malacic (melting)
349
If fluorescein stain an help diagnose both complicated and uncomplicated ulcer, how can you differentiate on histopath
A complicated ulcer with perchate into the stoma (uncomplicated will not)
350
Why does an uncomplicated corneal ulcer become complicated
Failure to treat, secondary infection or malacia, secondary ulcer becomes indolent (chronic and non healing)
351
What is the general treatment for a complicated ulcer
Topical antibiotic, cycloplegia (atropine), and anti inflammatory orally
352
Would you treat a melting ulcer with topical anti inflammatories
Absolutely not, not even non steroidals) - can make melting worse Progression complicated
353
What can happen if a complicated ulcer progresses
A descmetocele or corneal perforation
354
What is a descemetocelle
Defect occupying 99% of corneal thickness so only descents membrane remains
355
What is the prognosis of complicated corneal ulcers
Fair - can take several weeks to heal , may affect long term vision
356
Differentiate between complicated corneal ulcers and indolent corneal ulcers
Indolent ulcers are technically complicated because they last longer than 7 days but indolent ulcers don't have stromal loss and are not infected
357
What are other names for indolent ulcers
SCCED - spontaneous chronic corneal epithelium defects or boxer ulcers
358
Define characteristics of indolent ulcers
Chronic, non healing, superficial , non adherent epithelial edges - often corneal edema due to lack of an intact corneal epithelium
359
Why do indolent ulcers occur
Spontaneous or due to microtrauma - both cause failure of epithelium to attach to underlying stroma
360
How is the fluorescein stain going to look with an indolent ulcer
Stain permeates under the epithelial lip giving ita hazy/ halo effect
361
How do you treat an indolent ulcer
Anesthetize eye and debride the abnormal epithelium (otherwise will inhibit further healing) , Corneal debridement with a cotton swab, tren disrupt the abnormal basement membrane (grid keratomy, diamond but , etc)
362
What is the prognosis of an indolent ulcer
85% healed with a grid keratomy
363
Why does aqueous flare happen with anterior uveitis
Blood aqueous barrier breakdown causing release of protein into the anterior chamber from iridal and ciliary vessels (hyper permeable state)
364
What are causes of anterior uveitis in Cats
Mostly idiopathic, maybe secondary to a cataract or intra ocular tumor (diffuse iris melanoma) I infectious causes or lymphoma
365
What are the possible infectious causes of anterior uveitis in cats
4 fs - felv, FIV, FIP, fungal (crypto), toxoplasma Gondii, bartonella hensael
366
How do you treat anterior uveitis
Topical steroid , topical mydriatic (atropine) , oral steroid if ruled out infectious disease
367
What are possible sequelae to anterior Uveitis
Secondary glaucoma, synechiae, cataract, retinal detachment, blindness
368
Describe feline herpes
Alphaherpes virus, ubiquitous in cats I infected cats become persistent carriers (latent infection with intermittent periods of virus shedding)
369
How is herpes virus transmitted between cats
Oronasal or conjunctival route
370
What can cause recurrence of feline herpesvirus
Stress or immune suppression by topical or oral steroids, chemotherapy or age
371
What can cause recurrence of feline herpesvirus
Stress or immune suppression by topical or oral steroids, chemotherapy or age
372
What are clinical signs of feline herpesvirus in young cats
Nasal discharge,sneezing, mucous to seromucoid ocular discharge, conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, symblepharon
373
Define chemises
Swelling of tissues around eyelids and the conjunctiva
374
Define chemises
Swelling of tissues around eyelids and the conjunctiva
375
Define symblepharon
Where bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva form an abnormal adhesion to each other
376
What does it mean that feline herpesvirus is epitheliotrophic
Likes epithelium, causes ulceration of epithelial surfaces which can cause it to adhere to each other
377
What is pathognomonic for feline herpesvirus
Dendritic ulcers on the cornea
378
What is a dendritic ulcer
An ulcer on the Cornea a that branches along lines, caused by virus like feline herpesvirus
379
What clinical signs might you see in adult as with a recrudesced herpes infection
Conjunctival hyperemia, chemosis, corneal ulceration, mucoid discharge, chronic interstitial keratitis
380
How can you diagnose feline herpesvirus
Virus isolation with cell culture , IFA , PCR or detect antibodies with an ELISA
381
How do yw treat feline herpesvirus infection
Antiviral (topical or oral) - famciclovir, idoxoridine, topical antibiotics to prevent secondary bacterial infection I l-lysine nutritionally to prevent viral replication
382
Antivirals are bacteria -
Bacteriostatic
383
What are common sequelae to feline herpes virus
Symblepharon, chronic keratitis , corneal sequestrium, eosinophilic keratitis , KCS rarely
384
What are common sequelae to feline herpes virus
Symblepharon, chronic keratitis , corneal sequestrium, eosinophilic keratitis , KCS rarely
385
Define corneal sequestrum
Piece of Cornea that has broken off and died then turned a dark brown
386
Define corneal sequestrum
Piece of Cornea that has broken off and died then turned a dark brown
387
55% of cats with a corneal sequestrae have an active
Feline herpes viral infection
388
55% of cats with a corneal sequestrae have an active
Feline herpes viral infection
389
Define keratitis
Inflammation of the cornea
390
Define eosinophilia keratitis
White 10thage cheese like lesion form in Cornea and conjunctiva
391
76% of cats with eosinophilic keratitis have an active
Herpesvirus infection
392
Nasal aspergillosis is commonly seen in
Dolichocephalic breeds like German shepherd dogs
393
What would you expect to see on thoracic rads in a dog infected with heartworm
Right ventricular hypertrophy
394
How should you treat a Round worm infection in a kitten like toxoCara Cato
Treat with pyrantel every 2-3 weeks until 3-4 months old
395
How should you treat a Round worm infection in a kitten like toxoCara Cato
Treat with pyrantel every 2-3 weeks until 3-4 months old
396
How can a kitten became infected with toxocara Cati
Transmammary through mom, or grooming through egg ingestion
397
Should you squeeze a cuterebra lesion (botfly lesion)
No because rupturing the larvae can cause anaphylaxis
398
What is recommended for treatment for KCS
Topical cyclosporine
399
What are timolol and methazolimide used to treat
Glaucoma
400
How long is gestation in a pregnant dog
63 days
401
Would you use woods lamp to diagnose ringworm in cats
No that test is specific for dogs - for cats use a Mackenzie brush and DTM culture
402
When can you diagnose canine pregnancy on rads
43 days ossification happens at 42-45 days
403
How do you treat a puppy experiencing an anaphylactic reaction due to vaccines
IV epinephrine
404
How can you differentiate between mammary gland hyperplasia and mammary cancer
Mammary cancer would not be as symmetrical and would not affect symmetrical gland, at the same time most likely
405
How can you differentiate between mammary gland hyperplasia and mastitis
Mastitis would be painful, inflamed and cat would be systemically ill, mammary gland hyperplasia would have enlarged glands and nonpainful on palpation
406
Vulvar swelling and edema occur with rising - levels in presorts
Estrogen levels
407
Will a female dog show receptivity or a lack of receptivity during estrus
Receptivity
408
Vaginal bleeding can be found during which phase of estrous
Proestrus
409
What is the causative agent of feline infectious peritonitis
Variant of feline enteric coronavirus
410
Should you breed a dog with a history of luxating patella's
No-heritable disease
411
Hyperparathyroidism causes a - in phosphorous
Decrease in phosphorous
412
What can acidifying diets like those to prevent struvite crystals lead to
Increased calcium oxalate urolithiasis
413
What can cause feminization of a male cryptorchid dog
Sertoli cell tumor in the testes secreting estrogen
414
What can cause an eosinophilic granuloma complex
Allergic reaction to saliva of fleas, mites, mosquitos, etc
415
What can cause an eosinophilic granuloma complex
Allergic reaction to saliva of fleas, mites, mosquitos, etc
416
Describe an eosinophilic granuloma complex
Swollen non healing lesion - raised, well defined, yellow pink
417
Why might a kitten test positive for FIV and what should you do
Can have circulating maternal antibodies - recheck at 6 months to confirm
418
What is important to remind owners of when treating their cat with doxycycline
Follow the oral tablet with water orally to prevent esophagitis /esophageal strictures and can give with a meal to keep stomach from getting upset
419
What should you not give doxycycline with
Calcium containing foods like dairy - interferes with drug absorption
420
Can you crush doxycycline and mix with water
No- it increases contact wit esophagus and could cause esophagitis
421
Can you crush doxycycline and mix with water
No- it increases contact wit esophagus and could cause esophagitis
422
What can cause an alveolar pattern in cats
Finia/cells in the alveoli or collapse of alveoli (atelectasis)
423
What can cause an alveolar pattern in cats
Finia/cells in the alveoli or collapse of alveoli (atelectasis)
424
Describe an alveolar pattern
Radiographic fluid / soft tissue opacity, air bronchograms
425
What are common etiologies for an alveolar pattern in a cat
Bronchopneumonia, edema (cardiogenic or non), atelectasis, hemorrhage, mass (granulomatous or neoplastic like a histolytic sarcoma) ,or torsion
426
What are common etiologies for an alveolar pattern in a cat
Bronchopneumonia, edema (cardiogenic or non), atelectasis, hemorrhage, mass (granulomatous or neoplastic like a histolytic sarcoma) ,or torsion
427
What often causes a red brown discoloration of the claw, pruritis of the claws and other symptoms of allergies
Malessezia infection
428
What percent of mammary tumors are malignant
90%
429
What percent of mammary tumors are malignant
90%
430
What is the causative agent of canine brucellosis
Brucellosis canis
431
What causes the bloody vaginal discharge seen during canine prestrus
Engorged uterine endometrium - blood passes through cervix into vagina
432
Why would you see vulvar swelling and Edema during prestrus
Due to rising estrogen
433
Why would you see vulvar swelling and Edema during prestrus
Due to rising estrogen
434
About how long does canine prestrus last
2-20 days (usually 9)
435
What clinical signs would you see with canine prestrus
Vulvar swelling and edema, bloody discharge, non receptive to males
436
What clinical signs would you see with canine prestrus
Vulvar swelling and edema, bloody discharge, non receptive to males
437
What starts estrus after Proestrus in the dog and what are the hormones doing
Lh surge - progesterone is rising , estrogen is decreasing
438
What starts estrus after Proestrus in the dog and what are the hormones doing
Lh surge - progesterone is rising , estrogen is decreasing
439
How long does estrus last in a dog , is she receptive or not
9 days (3-21 days) - is receptive
440
How long does estrus last in a dog , is she receptive or not
9 days (3-21 days) - is receptive
441
What will you see on cytology/vaginoscopy of a dog in estrus
790% cornfield vaginal cells, few RBC, wrinkling of vaginal mucosa pale to white
442
What will you see on cytology/vaginoscopy of a dog in estrus
790% cornfield vaginal cells, few RBC, wrinkling of vaginal mucosa pale to white
443
What acid base disorder would you expect in an upper GI obstruction
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (elevated tco2)
444
What acid base disorder would you expect in an upper GI obstruction
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis (elevated tco2)
445
What is the most common electrolyte finding in a dog with Addison’s disease
Hyperkalemia
446
What is the most common electrolyte finding in a dog with Addison’s disease
Hyperkalemia
447
What type of fluid would you expect to see with pleural effusion caused by FIP
Hay /straw color with high protein and moderate cell counts
448
Differentiate between an exudate and find from FIP causing pleural effusion
Both are hay/straw colored but exudate would have a higher cell count and lower protein, FIP would have a higher protein and moderate cell count
449
What lesions are you likely to see in a cat affected with cryptococcus neoformans
Nasal mucopurulent discharge, proliferation on nose causing a Roman nose, maybe ocular (aqueous flare) and CNS signs too
450
What lesions are you likely to see in a cat affected with cryptococcus neoformans
Nasal mucopurulent discharge, proliferation on nose causing a Roman nose, maybe ocular (aqueous flare) and CNS signs too
451
What lesions are you likely to see in a cat affected with cryptococcus neoformans
Nasal mucopurulent discharge, proliferation on nose causing a Roman nose, maybe ocular (aqueous flare) and CNS signs too
452
What is important to note about nail bed tumors diagnosed as melanomas
Often malignant - amputate digit after checking for local and systemic metastasis
453
What is important to note about nail bed tumors diagnosed as melanomas
Often malignant - amputate digit after checking for local and systemic metastasis
454
If yw suspect an and gland tumor , which lymph nodes which you check for metastasis
Sublumbar lymph nodes
455
If yw suspect an and gland tumor , which lymph nodes which you check for metastasis
Sublumbar lymph nodes
456
Should you remove prolapsed glands of the 3rd eyelid
No- predisposes to inatrogenic KCS
457
Should you remove prolapsed glands of the 3rd eyelid
No- predisposes to inatrogenic KCS
458
What emergency treatment can be given to a cat experiencing hyperkalemia induced bradycardia and cardiovascular collapse
IV calcium gluconate
459
What are normal arterial blood gas ranges for the following - ph, pco2, hco3, iCal , po2
PH - 7.3 -7.5
PO2 - variable
PCO2 - 40 mmhg
HCO3-24to 30
Icaa - 1.4-1.8
460
What are normal arterial blood gas ranges for the following - ph, pco2, hco3, iCal , po2
PH - 7.3 -7.5
PO2 - variable
PCO2 - 40 mmhg
HCO3-24to 30
Icaa - 1.4-1.8
461
What is most likely the causative agent of intracytoplasmic cocci found on cytology from the skin
Staph pseudointermedius
462
What is most likely the causative agent of intracytoplasmic cocci found on cytology from the skin
Staph pseudointermedius
463
Nutritional hyper parathyroidism results in what affect in calcium
High phosphorus leads to decreased calcium
464
What affect does ethylene glycol toxicosis have on calcium
Decreases Calcium
465
Which parasite is carried by fleas
Diplydium caninum - tapeworm
466
Which parasite is carried by fleas
Diplydium caninum - tapeworm
467
What acid base disturbance do you expect with a gastric outflow obstruction
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
468
Describe puppy strangles - what is the cause and what clinical signs might you see
Juvenile cellulitis - Caused by some underlying immune dysfunction, causes stile granulomas and pustules , swollen face, submandibular lymphadenopathy
469
Describe puppy strangles - what is the cause and what clinical signs might you see
Juvenile cellulitis - Caused by some underlying immune dysfunction, causes stile granulomas and pustules , swollen face, submandibular lymphadenopathy
470
How do you normally treat puppy strangles
Immunisuppressive dose of glucocorticoids
471
What electrolyte abnormalihei might you see in a dog with Addison
Low sodium, high potassium and elevated bun
472
What electrolyte abnormalihei might you see in a dog with Addison
Low sodium, high potassium and elevated bun
473
What is isosthenuria
Low urine specific gravity
474
What are common sequela to taurine deficiency in cats
Feline central retinal degeneration and cardiomyopathy
475
Which breeds are predisposed to forming urate stones and why
Dalmatians - metabolic defect so they are unable to convert uric acid to allantoin
Yorkies - predisposed to portosystemic shunts
476
What is the most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiencies in dogs vs cats
Dogs - pancreatic acinar atrophy
Cats- chronic pancreatitis
477
What is the most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiencies in dogs vs cats
Dogs - pancreatic acinar atrophy
Cats- chronic pancreatitis
478
What do cats often have concurrently with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and why
Diabetes mellitus because EPI usually is due to chronic pancreatitis meaning the endocrine cells are affected
479
What is a key clinical finding that leads you to suspect canine parvovirus
Leukopenia (low wbc)
480
What is a key clinical finding that leads you to suspect canine parvovirus
Leukopenia (low wbc)
481
What is one way to differentiate between metastasis due to osteosarcoma versus fungal nodules due to blastomycosis
Blasto would cause a Hilar lymphadenopathy
482
What is one way to differentiate between metastasis due to osteosarcoma versus fungal nodules due to blastomycosis
Blasto would cause a Hilar lymphadenopathy
483
How does tularemia affect cats
Depression, fever, anorexia, general lymphadenopathy, oral ulceration
484
Acromegaly causes secondary - and comes from -
Secondary diabetes mellitus, caused by too much growth hormone from the pituitary
485
Acromegaly causes secondary - and comes from -
Secondary diabetes mellitus, caused by too much growth hormone from the pituitary
486
Would you see ringworm lesions on the nasal planum of dogs
No - dermatophytes casing ringworm live in hair follicles
487
What are causes of hypercalcemia in dogs
Lymphoma, anal sac adenonocarcinoma, chronic renal failure, primary hyper parathyroidism
488
What can occur in cats with a taurine deficiency
Feline central retinal degeneration and/or cardiomyopathy
489
What can occur in cats with a taurine deficiency
Feline central retinal degeneration and/or cardiomyopathy
490
What toxicity are you worried about in a cat who licked Off topical flea treatment
Pyremin / pyrethroid toxicity
491
What toxicity are you worried about in a cat who licked Off topical flea treatment
Pyremin / pyrethroid toxicity
492
Microsporum canis causes
Ringworm
493
Microsporum canis causes
Ringworm
494
Dalmatians one predisposed to which type of stones
Urate caused by uric acid
495
Dalmatians one predisposed to which type of stones
Urate caused by uric acid
496
Urate stones are visible - but not -
Visible on ultrasound but not radiographs
497
Urate stones are visible - but not -
Visible on ultrasound but not radiographs
498
What are 3 classic liver lesions caused by PA toxicity
Megalocytosis, biliary duct hyperplasia, fibrosis
499
What are 3 classic liver lesions caused by PA toxicity
Megalocytosis, biliary duct hyperplasia, fibrosis
500
Can a cat with felv safely live him a felv negative cat
No - can shed virus for months through saliva, feces, etc
501
Can a cat with felv safely live him a felv negative cat
No - can shed virus for months through saliva, feces, etc
502
Why would a cat with chronic renal failure be on diazepam ( a benzodiazepine)
Appetite stimulant
503
Why would a cat with chronic renal failure be on diazepam ( a benzodiazepine)
Appetite stimulant
504
In dogs, struvite stones are almost always associated with
Infection
505
In dogs, struvite stones are almost always associated with
Infection
506
What infectious agents usually cause struvite storne formation
Urease producing bacteria - Staph, proteus, klebsiella, E. coli
507
What infectious agents usually cause struvite storne formation
Urease producing bacteria - Staph, proteus, klebsiella, E. coli
508
Toxocara Cati is what kind of parasite
Roundworm / ascarid
509
You find a demodex mite on a skin scrape of a dog- where did it come from
Normal flora of the skin
510
Why do pyometras happen mostly during Diestrus
Progesterone is the leading hormone which promotes endometrial growth, suppresses myometrial activity and inhibits leukocyte response
511
How do you treat fibrocartiloginous embolisms (fce)
Usually go away on their own with supportive and nursing care - poor prognosis if no deep pain
512
How do you treat fibrocartiloginous embolisms (fce)
Usually go away on their own with supportive and nursing care - poor prognosis if no deep pain
513
A Doberman has an elevated BMBT - what is your first thought
Von willebrand disease preventing clotting - giving desmopressin increases release of these factors
514
A Doberman has an elevated BMBT - what is your first thought
Von willebrand disease preventing clotting - giving desmopressin increases release of these factors
515
What drug should be avoided in patients with mast cell tumors and why
Morphine because it causes release of histamine
516
What drug should be avoided in patients with mast cell tumors and why
Morphine because it causes release of histamine
517
What are 4 differentials for an intact female with bloody and malodorous discharge
Pyometra, UTI, vaginitis, compromised pregnancy
518
What are 4 differentials for an intact female with bloody and malodorous discharge
Pyometra, UTI, vaginitis, compromised pregnancy
519
What clinical signs would you see with cerebellar lesions in cats
Cerebellum controls motor function - ataxia, dysmetria, vestibular signs
520
What is the causative agent of oral papillomatosis in dogs and how is it transmitted
Canine papillomavirus - direct contact or virus found in environment
521
What is the causative agent of oral papillomatosis in dogs and how is it transmitted
Canine papillomavirus - direct contact or virus found in environment
522
Pacing occurs most often with - lesions
Forebrain
523
What signs would lead you to suspect a cerebellar lesion
Ataxia, head tilt, hypermetria intention tremors
524
What signs would lead you to suspect a cerebellar lesion
Ataxia, head tilt, hypermetria intention tremors
525
What is the origin and insertion of the cranial cruciate ligament
Origin - medial surface of lateral femoral condyle
Insertion - craniomedial surface of tibial plateau beneath the intermeniscal ligament
526
What is the origin and insertion of the cranial cruciate ligament
Origin - medial surface of lateral femoral condyle
Insertion - craniomedial surface of tibial plateau beneath the intermeniscal ligament
527
What is the purpose of the cranial cruciate ligament
Prevent cranial drawer, excessive hyperextension, and excessive internal rotation
528
What does a positive cranial drawer mean
Can slide the distal femur over the proximal tibia (should not be able to do this is the ccl is intact)
529
What is a tibial thrust
Indicates a ccl tear - minic weight bearing, front of tibia can be pushed forward in relation to the femur
530
What is the typical presentation of a dog with a ccl tear
Acute or chronic lameness that does not improve with rest, maybe mild improvement with NSAID therapy
531
What is medial buttress and what does it indicate
Accumulation of fibrous tissue the body deposits to try and stabilize the knee - indicates chronicity of a CCL tear
532
Where is medial buttress usually palpated
Medial side of the proximal tibia
533
What on an orthopedic exam would indicate a CCL tear
Positive sit test, cranial dower, tibial thrust , pain on extension of the leg, medial buttress , joint effusion, menial click if concurrent damage muscle atrophy if chronic
534
What on an orthopedic exam would indicate a CCL tear
Positive sit test, cranial dower, tibial thrust , pain on extension of the leg, medial buttress , joint effusion, menial click if concurrent damage muscle atrophy if chronic
535
What on radiographs would indicate CCL tear
OSteophyte's on femoral trochlear ridge , tibial plateau, and patella - possibly joint effusion
536
Describe the extracapsular repair for a CCL tear
Heavy suture placed around the fabella, through a hole in the tibia, running in the same orientation as the CCL except outside of the joint
537
Describe the extracapsular repair for a CCL tear
Heavy suture placed around the fabella, through a hole in the tibia, running in the same orientation as the CCL except outside of the joint
538
When do you usually do extrecapsular repair for a CCL tear
Dogs less than 20 kg
539
Will a TPLO repair a ccl tear - what does this mean if not
No - the tibial trust will be gone but the cranial drawer will always be there
540
Will a TPLO repair a ccl tear - what does this mean if not
No - the tibial trust will be gone but the cranial drawer will always be there
541
Describe a tplo (tibial plateau leveling osteotomy) - what is the goal
Osteotomy performed at proximal tibia , tibial plateau is rotated and stabilized with a bone plate - places more lond on the caudal cruciate ligament , eliminating tibial thrust
542
How long should cage rest be for a small dog with accl tear or a dog where surgery is not an option
8-12 weeks
543
How long should cage rest be for a small dog with accl tear or a dog where surgery is not an option
8-12 weeks
544
Where are small breed dogs most likely to have a fracture and why
Distal ulna and radius - poor blood supply to those areas so not recommended to cast
545
What can you use to treat nasal aspergillosis
Clomitrazole - can do an infusion treatment under general anesthesia
546
What are 3 parts of feline eosinophilia granuloma complex
Eosinophilic ulcers, eosinophilic plaques, collagenulytic (eosinophilic )granulomas
547
What are 3 parts of feline eosinophilia granuloma complex
Eosinophilic ulcers, eosinophilic plaques, collagenulytic (eosinophilic )granulomas
548
What is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis
Chlamydophila felis
549
What is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis
Chlamydophila felis
550
What on histopath indicates fip
Pyogranulomatous inflammation
551
What parasite can be transmitted transplacentally to puppies
Toxoplasma canis
552
What parasite can be transmitted transplacentally to puppies
Toxoplasma canis
553
What parasite can be transmitted transplacentally to puppies
Toxoplasma canis
554
What is the most common cause of cushings disease in dogs
Pituitary gland causing increased ACTH - pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism
555
What is the most common cause of cushings disease in dogs
Pituitary gland causing increased ACTH - pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism
556
What special neoplasia is on your differential list in a dog with hypoglycemia
Hepatocellular carcinoma
557
What special neoplasia is on your differential list in a dog with hypoglycemia
Hepatocellular carcinoma
558
What do you expect to see with xylitol toxicity
Rapid dose dependent release of insulin causing profound hypoglycemia
559
What organ systems are affected with xylitol ingestion
Pancreas mostly, then secondary hepatic effects 48-72 hours later
560
What organ systems are affected with xylitol ingestion
Pancreas mostly, then secondary hepatic effects 48-72 hours later
561
How does canine parvovirus cause disease
Transmitted through infected feces or fomites , which then replicates in gut crypt epithelium cursing epithelial necrosis and hemorrhagic diarrhea
562
How does canine parvovirus cause disease
Transmitted through infected feces or fomites , which then replicates in gut crypt epithelium cursing epithelial necrosis and hemorrhagic diarrhea
563
How does canine parvovirus cause disease
Transmitted through infected feces or fomites , which then replicates in gut crypt epithelium cursing epithelial necrosis and hemorrhagic diarrhea
564
What is the treatment for heart worm in dogs
Immiticide/ melarsomine
565
What is the treatment for heart worm in dogs
Immiticide/ melarsomine
566
What disease is commonly seen in Maine coone cats
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
567
What disease is commonly seen in Maine coone cats
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
568
A Maine coon cat presents with hind limb paresis/ paralysis - what is a top differential
HCM- specifically fate ( feline aortic thromboembolim)
569
A Maine coon cat presents with hind limb paresis/ paralysis - what is a top differential
HCM- specifically fate ( feline aortic thromboembolim)
570
A 4 month old German shepherd presents for forelimb lameness - what is a top differential
Ununited anconeal process
571
What breeds commonly are affected by a ununited anconeal process
German shepherds - other large breeds like labs, bloodhounds, Bassett hounds
572
How do you treat an ununited anconeal process
Excision of anconeal process
573
How do you treat an ununited anconeal process
Excision of anconeal process
574
When should the physis close in young dogs
4-5 months of age
575
Describe what an OCD lesion is
When bore fails to replace a section of hyaline cartilage, leading to a thick section of cartilage forming and when nutrients can't reach the end, the cells necrose and detach from the bone, causing an ocd flap
576
Describe what an OCD lesion is
When bore fails to replace a section of hyaline cartilage, leading to a thick section of cartilage forming and when nutrients can't reach the end, the cells necrose and detach from the bone, causing an ocd flap
577
What breeds are predisposed to OCD of the humeral condyle
German shepherds - golden, labs, Rottweiler
578
What should you do if you and OCD of the humeral condyle in the left limb of a german shepherd
Check the right limb - bilateral 50% of the time
579
What should you do if you and OCD of the humeral condyle in the left limb of a german shepherd
Check the right limb - bilateral 50% of the time
580
What can you see on rads with OCD of the surreal condole
Visible fattening, subchondal bone defect, surrounding sclerosis, osteophytes
581
Why do osteophytes form
Cartilage breaks down, causing friction between two bones leading to outgrowths of new bone formation
582
Why do osteophytes form
Cartilage breaks down, causing friction between two bones leading to outgrowths of new bone formation
583
What is sclerosis
Subchondral trabecular spongey bone thickening using an increased bone density
584
What breeds are commonly affected by medial fragmented coronoid process
Labs, golden, rotties
585
What breeds are commonly affected by medial fragmented coronoid process
Labs, golden, rotties
586
What are general clinical signs seen with elbow displasia and when do you see them
Forelimb knees, pain on extension and flexion of the elbow bilaterally usually - see at 4 to 7 months old
587
Describe elbow incongruity
Poor alignment of the joint surfaces of the elbow Dre to either abnormal shape of the ulnar trochee notch or a difference in heights between radius and ulna
588
Describe elbow incongruity
Poor alignment of the joint surfaces of the elbow Dre to either abnormal shape of the ulnar trochee notch or a difference in heights between radius and ulna
589
Where do you usually find transitional cell carcinomas
Trigone of the bladder
590
How can you treat transitional cell carcinoma (generally)
NSAIDs, combination chemotherapy, antibiotics for secondary infections
591
How can you treat transitional cell carcinoma (generally)
NSAIDs, combination chemotherapy, antibiotics for secondary infections
592
What is an easy way to tell between atop (atopic dermatitis) and foodallergy causing pruritis
Atopy often seasonal, food allergy obviously not
593
Describe hip dysplasia
Instability of one or both hip joints leading to degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis and subluxation of the hip
594
Which breeds are predisposed to hip dysplasia
German shepherd, golden, labs
595
Which breeds are predisposed to hip dysplasia
German shepherd, golden, labs
596
What are key clinical signs indicating hip displasia and when do you usually see them
Bunny hopping gait , pain when extending hips, positive ortolani test, palpable crepitus over the hips - Bally see at 3 to8 8 months of age
597
What are key clinical signs indicating hip displasia and when do you usually see them
Bunny hopping gait , pain when extending hips, positive ortolani test, palpable crepitus over the hips - Bally see at 3 to8 8 months of age
598
Describe a positive ortalani test - what is it used for
Flexing the hip and knee 90° (under sedation!)I then addicting the leg to hear a distinct clink indicating the pop of the femoral head into the acetabulum - if positive, indicates hip dysplasia
599
Describe a positive ortalani test - what is it used for
Flexing the hip and knee 90° (under sedation!)I then addicting the leg to hear a distinct clink indicating the pop of the femoral head into the acetabulum - if positive, indicates hip dysplasia
600
Why are clinical signs of hip dysplasia considered bimodal
80% of dogs will improve with conservative management but signs will return inter in life due to disease progression and degenerative changes
601
What radiographic signs indicate hip dysplasia
Morgan line, less man 50% coverage of femoral head, sclerosis of femoral neck, joint laxity
602
Differentiate between OFA hip and Penn hip
Need to be at least 2 yrs old for OFA, only have to be 16 weeks for Penn hip
603
What does Penn hip use to measure risk of hip dysplasia
Distraction index to indicate joint laxity
604
What are conservative treatments for hip dysplasia
NSAIDs, weight management, chondroprotective agent, conservative exercise
605
What are conservative treatments for hip dysplasia
NSAIDs, weight management, chondroprotective agent, conservative exercise
606
What can increase the incidence of hip dysplasia
Over nutrition during growth
607
How do fungi typically cause disease
Spores in soil are inhaled, ingested or enter through a wound, then converts itself to the yeast form where it spreads through circulatory or lymphatic system, causing respiratory signs and signs specific to affected organ system
608
Where are cases of histoplasmosis capsulatum common - how are animals infected
Midwest / Mississippi valley - soil spores distributed by bird and bat feces, inhaled then converted to yeast that replicates in lungs then hematogenously spreads in body
609
Differentiate between histoplasmosis in dogs versus cats
In dogs, histo causes more GI signs like hemorrhagic diarrhea , in cats it is more respiratory
610
What are common general clinical signs of histoplasmosis in both dogs and cats
Cough, difficulty breathing, increased RR, nodular skin lesions joint swelling, weight loss, anorexia
611
What can you not do to diagnose histoplasmosis and why
No fungal culture because of the risk of aerosilizatipn to lab workers
612
What could you see on radiographs of histoplasmosis
Diffuse nodular intestinal pattern , Hilar lymphadenopathy , pleural effusion
613
How can you diagnose histoplasmosis
Antigen testing of serum, CSF, urine - support with rads and bloodwork
614
How can you diagnose histoplasmosis
Antigen testing of serum, CSF, urine - support with rads and bloodwork
615
What can you use to treat histoplasmosis - what do you need to monitor for during treatment
Itraconazole - monitor for elections in hepatic enzymes
616
What can you use to treat histoplasmosis - what do you need to monitor for during treatment
Itraconazole - monitor for elections in hepatic enzymes
617
Where are you likely to see cases of blastomycosis - how are the spores spread
East of Mississippi, Ohio river valley - think hunting dogs inhaling spores in soil spread through pigeon and bat feces
618
Where are you likely to see cases of blastomycosis - how are the spores spread
East of Mississippi, Ohio river valley - think hunting dogs inhaling spores in soil spread through pigeon and bat feces
619
What clinical signs do you see with blastomycosis and why
Cough, increased respiratory rate and effort (stays in lungs longer then other fungi), enlarged lymph nodes Iameness, bloody urine, glaucoma, proliferative lesions, draining tracts
620
How can you diagnose blastomycosis
Chest rads showing snowstorm pneumonia, impression smear showing thick walled budding yeast / winky antigen pcr
621
Where are you most likely to see cases of CRyptococcus and in what species
Pacific Northwest, cats are more susceptible (dogs affected more severely)
622
Where are you most likely to see cases of CRyptococcus and in what species
Pacific Northwest, cats are more susceptible (dogs affected more severely)
623
CRyptococcus spores are spread through
Pigeon feces in soil
624
CRyptococcus spores are spread through
Pigeon feces in soil
625
What clinical signs are caused by CRyptococcus in cats
Roman nose, cutaneous lesions, sneezing, hemorrhagic nasal discharge, neuro and ocular changes
626
How do you diagnose Cryptococcus in cats
Cytology - see round, thick capsule purple yeast
627
How do you diagnose Cryptococcus in cats
Cytology - see round, thick capsule purple yeast
628
How do you treat CRyptococcus in cats - what do you need to monitor
Amphotericin B , can combo with fuconazole - monitor renal values with amphotericin and hepatic values with any Azole drug
629
What are two major differences with coccidiomycosis compared to the other 3 common fungal infections
Coccidioses immitis is zoonotic and travels through the lymphatic system in the body (not hematogenous spread)
630
What clinical signs can you see with coccidiomycosis
Seizures, lameness and bone pain, cough, uveitis / blindness, lymphadenopathy
631
How can you diagnose coccidiomycosis
Impression smear showing spherules full of endospores, support with rads
632
How can you diagnose coccidiomycosis
Impression smear showing spherules full of endospores, support with rads
633
What can you not use to diagnose coccidiomycosis
Culture because it is zoonotic- need a special lab
634
What can you not use to diagnose coccidiomycosis
Culture because it is zoonotic- need a special lab
635
How can you treat valley fever
Keta conazole , itraconazole or amphoteritin B
636
What is often the cause of hypertrophic osteopathy
Pulmonary neoplasia
637
What is often the cause of hypertrophic osteopathy
Pulmonary neoplasia
638
What is alopeciax and how can it be treated
Arrest in hair follicle growth, can treat with melatonin
639
What is alopeciax and how can it be treated
Arrest in hair follicle growth, can treat with melatonin
640
What is the most likely cause of aortic saddle thrombi in cats
Cardiac disease like HCM, DCM and restricted cardiomyopathy
641
What is the most likely cause of aortic saddle thrombi in cats
Cardiac disease like HCM, DCM and restricted cardiomyopathy
642
What clinical signs lead you to suspect an aortic saddle thrombus
Sudden hind end paralysis, painful vocalization and on palpation of hind limbs, no palpable femoral pulses, cardiac murmur
643
What clinical signs lead you to suspect an aortic saddle thrombus
Sudden hind end paralysis, painful vocalization and on palpation of hind limbs, no palpable femoral pulses, cardiac murmur
644
What is a good antibiotic choice in a cat with skin infections or abscessess
Clavamox - penicillin plus Beta lactomase inhibitor
645
What is a good antibiotic choice in a cat with skin infections or abscessess
Clavamox - penicillin plus Beta lactomase inhibitor
646
Hyperactivity, ravenous appetite, high blood pressure, heart murmur and weight loss in a at lead you to suspect
Hyperthyroidism
647
Hyperactivity, ravenous appetite, high blood pressure, heart murmur and weight loss in a at lead you to suspect
Hyperthyroidism
648
Which dog breeds are predisposed to dystocias and why
Brachycephalics - babies have big heads, moms have flatter pelvic inlets
649
Which dog breeds are predisposed to dystocias and why
Brachycephalics - babies have big heads, moms have flatter pelvic inlets
650
What clinical signs do you expect to see with cushings disease / hyperadrenocorticism
Pu/pd, panting, polyphagia, pendulous belly, pyoderma, thin skin
651
What clinical signs do you expect to see with cushings disease / hyperadrenocorticism
Pu/pd, panting, polyphagia, pendulous belly, pyoderma, thin skin
652
What are 3 causes of cushings disease
ACTH secreting pituitary tumors , cortisol secreting adrenal tumors, inorganic steroid administration
653
What are 3 causes of cushings disease
ACTH secreting pituitary tumors , cortisol secreting adrenal tumors, inorganic steroid administration
654
What are glucocorticoids used for
Antiinflammatories
655
Give examples of glucocorticoids
Prednisone, Dexmethasone , hydrocortisone
656
Give examples of glucocorticoids
Prednisone, Dexmethasone , hydrocortisone
657
How can you diagnose feline asthma
Bal cytology showing increased eosinophils
658
How can you diagnose feline asthma
Bal cytology showing increased eosinophils
659
How do you generally treat feline asthma
Bronchodilators, steroids and environmental modification
660
What causes visceral larval migrans in humans, how is it transmitted
Toxocara canis - female oral transmission usually
661
What causes visceral larval migrans in humans, how is it transmitted
Toxocara canis - female oral transmission usually
662
What is Von willebrands disease and what breeds are predisposed
Deficient Von willebrands factor leading to poor primary hemostasis (will not form a platelet plug well), casing clinical signs like epistaxis - common in Dobermans
663
What is Von willebrands disease and what breeds are predisposed
Deficient Von willebrands factor leading to poor primary hemostasis (will not form a platelet plug well), casing clinical signs like epistaxis - common in Dobermans
664
What are key indicators of Addison disease in a dog
Bradycardia with cardiovascular collapse, severe dehudation with a low USG (less than 1.03) , recent stressful event , a sodium no potassium ratio less than 27
665
What is the diagonostic test of choice for Addison’s
ACTH stim test
666
What mostly commonly causes Addison’s
Usually idiopathic adrenocortical atrophy leading to inadequate production of glucocorticoids and mineral carticoias
667
What mostly commonly causes Addison’s
Usually idiopathic adrenocortical atrophy leading to inadequate production of glucocorticoids and mineral carticoias
668
Why do we care about a deficiency in mineral corticoids
Leads to the inability to retain sodium or excrete potassium and hydrogen leading hypotonic dehydration, hyperkalenia and metabolic acidosis
669
Why do we care about a deficiency in mineral corticoids
Leads to the inability to retain sodium or excrete potassium and hydrogen leading hypotonic dehydration, hyperkalenia and metabolic acidosis
670
Why do we care about a deficiency in glucocorticoids
Necessary for many organs for homeostasis and glucose regulation
671
Why do we care about a deficiency in glucocorticoids
Necessary for many organs for homeostasis and glucose regulation
672
Addison disease leads to decreased secretion of -
Cortisol and aldosterone
673
What will the ECG of a dog with Addison’s disease look like
Similar to hyperkalemia presentation - all t waves , diminished to absent p waves, prolonged PR interval, wide QRS complex
674
What will the ECG of a dog with Addison’s disease look like
Similar to hyperkalemia presentation - all t waves , diminished to absent p waves, prolonged PR interval, wide QRS complex
675
What GI signs In you see in a dog with Addison
GI blood loss and decreased albumin due to a PLE and increased bun because of GI bleeding
676
Why does bun increase where there is GI bleeding
Blood is digested dan to proteins, which will through the liver and we cycle, becoming bun - so a high BWV en mean digestion of blood somewhere
677
What can an acute presentation of Addison’ disease look like
Hypovolemic shock, weakness, vomiting (bloody or not)
678
What results on an ACTH stim test will lead you to confirm suspected Addison disease
A post stimulation cortisol value less than 2 (in a normal patient - it should be >10)
679
How do you treat acute presentations of Addison’s
Rapidly restore blood volume with fluids (normal saline) to treat hypovolemia and hyper kalemia - can also give calcium gluconate to protect against cardiac abnormalities caused by hyperkalemia, IV glucocorticoids like Dexamethasone, then maintenance therapy of corticosteroids and mineralcorticoids
680
How do you treat acute presentations of Addison’s
Rapidly restore blood volume with fluids (normal saline) to treat hypovolemia and hyper kalemia - can also give calcium gluconate to protect against cardiac abnormalities caused by hyperkalemia, IV glucocorticoids like Dexamethasone, then maintenance therapy of corticosteroids and mineralcorticoids
681
How do you treat chronic Addison’s disease
Lifelong maintenance with corticosteroids (prednisone) and lifelong mineralcorticoid supplementation
682
How do you treat chronic Addison’s disease
Lifelong maintenance with corticosteroids (prednisone) and lifelong mineralcorticoid supplementation
683
What are common clinical signs you might see in a healthy diabetic cat
PU/PD, polyphagia, recurrent infections, plantigrade stance due to diabetic neuropathy
684
Why do diabetic cats often present with a plantigrade stance
Diabetic neuropathy - high blood glucose eventually damages the small vessels supplying nutrients to the nerves
685
What clinical signs are commonly seen with a healthy diabetic dog
Pu/pd, polyphagia, recurrent infections, cataracts
686
What are clinical signs of severe DKA
Anorexia, weakness, vomiting, severe metabolic acidosis , blood glucose over 500 - usually history of being a healthy diabetic
687
What ave common bloodwork abnormalities seen with diabetes
Hyperglycemia over 300, glucosuria or ketonuria, metabolic acidosis, elected liver enzymes and cholesterol
688
What is the purpose of measuring fructosamine
Reflects a patients glycemic status over several weeks
689
What is the somogyi effect
Overdose of insulin leading to a too low level of blood glucose
690
What are some oral hypoglycemic options and what is their purpose
Glucotrol or glipizide - goal is to decrease insulin requirements or insulin resistance
691
What are some oral hypoglycemic options and what is their purpose
Glucotrol or glipizide - goal is to decrease insulin requirements or insulin resistance
692
What type of diets are recommended for diabetic dogs? Cats?
Dogs- High fiber, moderately fat restricted diets
Cats - high protein, low carbohydrate diets
693
How can you treat severe diabetic ketoacidosis
Aggressive IV fluids with potassium and phosphate supplementation, regular insulin with intermittent boluses or CRI, bicarb therapy if metabolic acidosis is severe
694
What is the most common hen in dogs + cats
Ctenocephalides felis felis
695
What is the most common hen in dogs + cats
Ctenocephalides felis felis
696
What can be transmitted by ctenocephalides felis felis
Bartonella henselse, diplydium caninum, yersinia pestis
697
What dermatologic conditions can occur with infestation of fleas
Skin disease with pruritis or allergic reaction (flea allergy dermatitis)
698
What type of hypersensitivities occur with fad - flea allergy dermatitis
Type I, type 4, basophil
699
What clinical signs can you see with flea allergy dermatitis
Intense pruritis, erythema, alopecia, pustules, crusts, moist dermatitis, hyperpigmentation, lichenification
700
Where are fad lesions likely in a dog
Caudal dorsal - base of tail, ventral abdomen, lateral rear legs
701
Where are fad lesions likely in a dog
Caudal dorsal - base of tail, ventral abdomen, lateral rear legs
702
Where are fad lesions likely in a cat
Neck and face - symmetrical trunk alopecia
703
Where are fad lesions likely in a cat
Neck and face - symmetrical trunk alopecia
704
What are common causes of military dermatitis and eosinophilic granuloma complex in cats
Fad
705
What are common causes of military dermatitis and eosinophilic granuloma complex in cats
Fad
706
How can you diagnose fad
Clinical signs, response to treatment, intradermal testing (only if positive) - serology unreliable
707
How do you treat flea allergy dermatitis
Glucocorticoids short term, antihistamines ineffective, Apoquel or cytooint might help with pruritus
708
How do you treat flea allergy dermatitis
Glucocorticoids short term, antihistamines ineffective, Apoquel or cytooint might help with pruritus
709
How long does it normally take to eliminate all fleas and why
2-3 months because they are in the pupa stage for 1-2 months and pupa are highly resistant to environmental treatment
710
What are different categories of flea control
Adulticides, repellants, insect growth regulators
711
What are different categories of flea control
Adulticides, repellants, insect growth regulators
712
What flea adulticide and repellant is toxic to cats
Permethrin
713
Is FIP contagious - why or why not
No - FIP is caused by a mutation of feline enteric coronavirus only in some cats, even though most cats have been exposed
714
Is FIP contagious - why or why not
No - FIP is caused by a mutation of feline enteric coronavirus only in some cats, even though most cats have been exposed
715
What is Hansen type I disc disease - what happens
IVDD - intervetabl disc disease; degeneration of the fibrocartilaginous disc leads to dehydration and decreased shock absorbing capacity , can also calcify making it easier to see on rads
716
What is Hansen type I disc disease - what happens
IVDD - intervetabl disc disease; degeneration of the fibrocartilaginous disc leads to dehydration and decreased shock absorbing capacity , can also calcify making it easier to see on rads
717
What are chrondrodystrophic breeds
Disproportionately short and curved limbs - basset hounds, daschunds , shih this
718
What are common clinical signs you'll see with UMN lesions and why
Hyperreflexia, spasticity, weakness, clonus (involuntary muscle contractions) - upper motor neuron lesions will decrease or eliminate inhibitory effect on the lower motor neuron, leading to exaggerated spinal reflexes
719
What are common clinical signs you'll see with UMN lesions and why
Hyperreflexia, spasticity, weakness, clonus (involuntary muscle contractions) - upper motor neuron lesions will decrease or eliminate inhibitory effect on the lower motor neuron, leading to exaggerated spinal reflexes
720
What clinical signs will you see with lower motor neuron lesions
Weakness, muscle washing, fasiculations , proprioceptive abnormalities, flaccid paralysis - LMN lesions cause partial or complete denervation of affected muscles
721
What clinical signs will you see with lower motor neuron lesions
Weakness, muscle washing, fasiculations , proprioceptive abnormalities, flaccid paralysis - LMN lesions cause partial or complete denervation of affected muscles
722
What is the risk of using azathiopine in cats
They don't have the enzyme to metabolize it so side effects are increased - only use if you have to
723
What is gynecomastia
Mammary gland development in male dogs
724
What is gynecomastia
Mammary gland development in male dogs
725
Cryptorchid dogs are predisposed to - leading to an excess of -
Testicular tumors like Sertoli cell tumors or seminomas, often causing an excess of estrogen
726
What can excess estrogen clinically look like in a male dog
Bone marrow suppression (anemia, leukopenia), symmetrical trucal alopecia, palpable abdominal mass, epistaxis, Melena, gynecomastia
727
What is pemphigus
Autoimmune skin disease where the body' immune system attacks the connections between own skin cells
728
What is pemphigus
Autoimmune skin disease where the body' immune system attacks the connections between own skin cells
729
What is pumphigus vulgaris
Most serve form where immune system stacks the deepest part of the skin cells, leading to vesicle formation (fluid filled blisters) and painful ulcerative lesions
730
Where do you normally see pemphigus vulgaris lesions
Mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa, but can be all over the body
731
What auto antibody is associated with pemphigus vulgaris
IGG auto antibody disrupting kertinocytes
732
What auto antibody is associated with pemphigus vulgaris
IGG auto antibody disrupting kertinocytes
733
What is the treatment and prognosis of pemphigus vulgaris
Immunosuppressive with corticosteroids (prednisone, azathioprine) - long term treatment needed and side effects rough so euthanasia often done
734
What is the treatment and prognosis of pemphigus vulgaris
Immunosuppressive with corticosteroids (prednisone, azathioprine) - long term treatment needed and side effects rough so euthanasia often done
735
What are Classic signs of canine juvenile cellulitis or puppy strangles
Generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, acute pustular lesions around muzzle, pinnae and eyes, cellulitis
736
What are Classic signs of canine juvenile cellulitis or puppy strangles
Generalized lymphadenopathy, fever, acute pustular lesions around muzzle, pinnae and eyes, cellulitis
737
How do you treat puppy strangles usually
Thought immune mediated so treat with glucocorticoids usually - can give antibiotics for secondary bacterial prodermas
738
What disease has classic findings of hyponatremia and hyper kalemia
Addison’s
739
What makes pythium difficult to treat
Most antifungals target fungal cell wall synthesis, but pythium fungi have different cell wall structure
740
How long after whelping can you see vaginal hemorrhage
12-15 weeks while uterus subinvolution happens
741
How long after whelping can you see vaginal hemorrhage
12-15 weeks while uterus subinvolution happens
742
Lily plant toxicosis cases acute -
Renal failure
743
What an excess calcium in a large, fast growing breed predispose to
Osteochondrosis and retained cartilage cores
744
What an excess calcium in a large, fast growing breed predispose to
Osteochondrosis and retained cartilage cores
745
What an excess calcium in a large, fast growing breed predispose to
Osteochondrosis and retained cartilage cores
746
Pyogranolomatous vasculitis is the Classic lesion for
Feline infections peritonitis
747
Pyogranolomatous vasculitis is the Classic lesion for
Feline infections peritonitis
748
An eosinophilia without a stress leukogram, hypercalcomics and pre renal azotenia all on make you suspect -
Addison disease
749
An eosinophilia without a stress leukogram, hypercalcomics and pre renal azotenia all on make you suspect -
Addison disease
750
An eosinophilia without a stress leukogram, hypercalcomics and pre renal azotenia all on make you suspect -
Addison disease
751
An eosinophilia without a stress leukogram, hypercalcomics and pre renal azotenia all on make you suspect -
Addison disease
752
What type of parasite is ancyclostoma caninum
Dog hookworm - zoonotic!
753
What is the treatment for nasal aspergillosis in dogs
Topical antifungal like clotrimazole - 80% cure rate with one application
754
What is the treatment for nasal aspergillosis in dogs
Topical antifungal like clotrimazole - 80% cure rate with one application
755
When using topical clotrimazole, what do you need to make sure of
Risk of CNS toxicity if the is erosion of the cribi form plate
756
When using topical clotrimazole, what do you need to make sure of
Risk of CNS toxicity if the is erosion of the cribi form plate
757
What is often the cause of skin fragility syndrome in cats
Poorly regulated diabetes mellitus due to cushings disease most likely
758
A patient with a mass on the pancreas that is hypoglycemic likely has a
Insulinoma
759
A patient with a mass on the pancreas that is hypoglycemic likely has a
Insulinoma
760
What is contraindicated when treating fungal infections
Glucocorticoids - can cause hotter immune suppression, making the infection worse
761
What is the general treatment for uncomplicated ear infections
Antifungal, antibiotic, anti inflammatory
762
What is the general treatment for uncomplicated ear infections
Antifungal, antibiotic, anti inflammatory
763
What is the general treatment for uncomplicated ear infections
Antifungal, antibiotic, anti inflammatory
764
What injuries are cats predisposed to when they jump off of things
Hyper extension of carpal injuries because they try to and on their feet
765
What injuries are cats predisposed to when they jump off of things
Hyper extension of carpal injuries because they try to and on their feet
766
You suspect what in a cat with miliary dermatitis
Flea allergy dermatitis
767
You suspect what in a cat with miliary dermatitis
Flea allergy dermatitis
768
What is the most common skin tumor in dogs
Sebaceous gland tumors
769
What is the most common skin tumor in dogs
Sebaceous gland tumors
770
Where do you normally find sebaceous gland tumors - what do they look like
Trunk, eyelids and limbs - small wart or cauliflower like lesions
771
Where do you normally find sebaceous gland tumors - what do they look like
Trunk, eyelids and limbs - small wart or cauliflower like lesions
772
What commonly causes fibrosarcomas in cats
Post vaccine reaction
773
What commonly causes fibrosarcomas in cats
Post vaccine reaction
774
What happens when a neonate puppy is exposed to parvovirus in the uterus
Part virus localizes to the myocardium causing myocarditis and cardiac sudden death in puppies less than 3 months
775
What happens when a neonate puppy is exposed to parvovirus in the uterus
Part virus localizes to the myocardium causing myocarditis and cardiac sudden death in puppies less than 3 months
776
A 3 week old puppy dies suddenly with no previously observed clinical signs, what is your top differential
Canine parvovirus
777
What is a common complication of surgical arytenoid lateralization (tie back) - used for treatment of laryngeal pablysis
Aspiration pneumonia because the airway is chronically open
778
What is a common complication of surgical arytenoid lateralization (tie back) - used for treatment of laryngeal pablysis
Aspiration pneumonia because the airway is chronically open
779
Describe clinical signs of laryngeal paralysis in a medium to large breed dog
Acute respiratory distress, change in bark, loud stridor , panting
780
What is the most common route of transmission of toxocara canis
Transplacentally
781
What is the most common route of transmission of toxocara canis
Transplacentally
782
What respiratory disease looks like feline Alice virus without the oral ulcerations
Chlamydophilia felis
783
Anal sac adenocarcinoma is the second most common cause of-
Hypercalcemia of malignancy
784
Anal sac adenocarcinoma is the second most common cause of-
Hypercalcemia of malignancy
785
What is your top differential for a dog with an anal sac mass and hypercalcemia
Anal sac adenococinoma
786
What is your top differential for a dog with an anal sac mass and hypercalcemia
Anal sac adenococinoma
787
What clinical sign do you see with cats infected with panleukopenia virus
Vomiting and diarrhea
788
What clinical sign do you see with cats infected with panleukopenia virus
Vomiting and diarrhea
789
What cells and where does feline panleekopenia virus usually attack
Rapidly dividing cells - in bone marrow and git usually
790
What would be contraindicated in a case of treating demodicosis
Steroids like prednisone because of the immune suppression
791
What would be contraindicated in a case of treating demodicosis
Steroids like prednisone because of the immune suppression
792
Is ringworm itchy
In dogs no, in people yes
793
Is ringworm itchy
In dogs no, in people yes
794
Cocci in the cytoplasm of neutrophils from skin sample most likely indicates
Staphylococcus pseudointermedius
795
Cocci in the cytoplasm of neutrophils from skin sample most likely indicates
Staphylococcus pseudointermedius
796
How can you differentiate between degenerate joint disease and degenerative myelopathy
Reflexes should not be affected by degenerative joint disease
797
What common toxin in dogs causes insulin release and therefore hypoglycemia
Xylitol toxicity
798
What common toxin in dogs causes insulin release and therefore hypoglycemia
Xylitol toxicity
799
What organ should he monitored with xylitol toxicity
Liver - risk of hepatopathy if ingestion is severe
800
What organ should he monitored with xylitol toxicity
Liver - risk of hepatopathy if ingestion is severe
801
What should you test for in a cat who has hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Test for hyperthyroidism - often a cause
802
Why would you test a Dobermans buccal mucosal bleeding time
Dobermans are predisposed to Von willebrands disease (missing an essential clotting factor
803
Why would you test a Dobermans buccal mucosal bleeding time
Dobermans are predisposed to Von willebrands disease (missing an essential clotting factor
804
What are Persian cats predisposed to
Feline idiopathic cystitis
805
What are Persian cats predisposed to
Feline idiopathic cystitis
806
What are Persian cats predisposed to
Feline idiopathic cystitis
807
Large breeds like Newfies are predisposed to this cardiac condition while breeds like chihuahuas one predisposed to
Newfies - subaortic stenosis
Chihuahuas - pulmonic stenosis
808
Dogs on raw diets are predisposed to what
Salmonella or listeria infections
809
Describe the typical liver shunts developed by yang toy breed dogs
Single Extrahepatic portosystemic shunts
810
Describe the typical liver shunts developed by yang toy breed dogs
Single Extrahepatic portosystemic shunts
811
What type of congenital liver shunts are large breed dogs predisposed to
Intra hepatic shunts
812
What type of congenital liver shunts are large breed dogs predisposed to
Intra hepatic shunts
813
Acquired liver shunts in older dogs one almost always
Extrahepatic
814
What are clinical signs of cervical spondylopathy (cervical vertebral malformation)
Ataxia and paresis of all 4 limbs, imper motor neuron signs in all 4 limbs (hyperreflexive spinal reflexes, delayed cp in all 4 limbs
815
What is the cause of myasthenia gravis
Antibody mediated destruction of acetylcholine receptors
816
What is panosteitis and when are you likely to see it
Seen in young rapidly growing large breed dogs - paint information of the periosteum which is the inside layer of the bone
817
How do you normally treat panosteitis in young large breed dogs
Limit activity and anti inflammatories - self limiting disease that almost always resolves so treatment is mostly supportive care
818
What type of urinary crystals usually form in liver shunt patients and why
Ammonium birurate crystals due to increased ammonia in blood and urine
819
What type of urinary crystals usually form in liver shunt patients and why
Ammonium birurate crystals due to increased ammonia in blood and urine
820
Lymphocytic thyroiditis is the cause of
Primary hypothyroidism in dogs
821
Lymphocytic thyroiditis is the cause of
Primary hypothyroidism in dogs
822
What are far top differentials for Suppurative non septic inflammatory joint fluid
Polyarthritis (immune mediated or rickettsial caused)
823
How does acute uveitis affect IOP
Decreases it below normal
824
How does chronic uveitis affect IOP
Leads to glaucoma and high IOP
825
How does chronic uveitis affect IOP
Leads to glaucoma and high IOP
826
What type of parasites can cause aremin and dermatitis of footpads
Hookworms
827
What type of parasites can cause aremin and dermatitis of footpads
Hookworms
828
Why do most vets use phenylpropanalamine for urinary incontinence
Its a weak alpha agonist that works on muscles of the urethra to increase sphincter tone
829
Why do most vets use phenylpropanalamine for urinary incontinence
Its a weak alpha agonist that works on muscles of the urethra to increase sphincter tone
830
What does “cis plat splats cats” mean
Cisplatin (chemotherapy drug) causes fetal pulmonary edema in cats
831
How can you differentiate between mammary gland hyperplasia and mammary cancer
Hyperplasia in younger cats and often see more symmetrical swelling , mammary cancer usually in older cats and is les likely to affect all the glands in a cat at the same time
832
How can you differentiate between mammary gland hyperplasia and mammary cancer
Hyperplasia in younger cats and often see more symmetrical swelling , mammary cancer usually in older cats and is les likely to affect all the glands in a cat at the same time
833
What causes DCM in cats
Taurine deficiency
834
What causes DCM in cats
Taurine deficiency
835
What causes DCM in cats
Taurine deficiency
836
Describe transmission of canine distemper virus
Mainly spread through aerosolized secretions, highly contagious and shed for several weeks after infection
837
Describe transmission of canine distemper virus
Mainly spread through aerosolized secretions, highly contagious and shed for several weeks after infection
838
Describe transmission of canine distemper virus
Mainly spread through aerosolized secretions, highly contagious and shed for several weeks after infection
839
What clinical signs would you see that indicate large bowel diarrhea
Urgency to go, tenesmus, mucus, frank blood
840
What clinical signs would you see that indicate large bowel diarrhea
Urgency to go, tenesmus, mucus, frank blood
841
What clinical signs would indicate small bowel diarrhea
Increased frequency, melena, no straining
842
What clinical signs would indicate small bowel diarrhea
Increased frequency, melena, no straining
843
What do you suspect in a dog with ascites with glucose at least 20 mg/dL less than peripheral blood
Sepsis
844
What do you suspect in a dog with ascites with glucose at least 20 mg/dL less than peripheral blood
Sepsis
845
How can you identify paradoxical vestibular disease
If there are vestibular signs and proprioceptive deficits - then the lesion can be localized to the ipsilateral side
846
How can you identify paradoxical vestibular disease
If there are vestibular signs and proprioceptive deficits - then the lesion can be localized to the ipsilateral side
847
A cat presents with both neurologic signs and uveitis - what is your top differential and how can you confirm
Toxoplasma gondii - if Igm is elevated, shows active infection
848
How do you treat toxoplasma Gondii infections in cats
Clindamycin
849
What are 3 treatment options for demodex in dogs
Amitraz/mitaban (only approved), ivermectin, milbemycin
850
A mobile oval flaggeled Protozoa from the rectum of a kitten with persistent water diarrhea leads you to suspect
Tritrichomonas foetus
851
A mobile oval flaggeled Protozoa from the rectum of a kitten with persistent water diarrhea leads you to suspect
Tritrichomonas foetus
852
Feline asthma causes - inspiration and - expiration
Normal inspiration, exporter dyspnea with an abdominal push
853
What can you use to treat black spots /acne in cats
Benzyl peroxide - antiseptic w/ good penetration
854
What can cause a deep pyometra
allergies, immune mediated skin reactions, skin fold anomalies, bacterial or fungal infections
855
What are indications for DIC - disseminated intravascular coagulation
Elevated pt and PTT, elected D dimers from fibrin degradation, low antithrombin, low platelets
856
What is the most common gram negative rod isolate in dog ear infections
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
857
What are clinical signs of erichiosis in dogs
Acute - fever, swollen lymph nodes , spontaneous hemorrhage, respiratory distress which if it progresses In go undetected in the subclinical phase leading to lameness, bone marrow production problems
858
What are clinical signs of erichiosis in dogs
Acute - fever, swollen lymph nodes , spontaneous hemorrhage, respiratory distress which if it progresses In go undetected in the subclinical phase leading to lameness, bone marrow production problems
859
What is the most common cause of erlichiosis in dogs
Erhlicia canis
860
What does fvrcp stand for
Feline viral rhinobacheitis, calcifivirus and pan leukopenia
861
What is a ranula
Swelling under the tongue (sublingual) due to saliva leakage from damage to a salivary gland
862
Is the treatment for hearthorm the same for cats and dogs
No - melarsomine can be toxic and fatal to cats
863
What is the treatment for hepatic lipidosis in cats and why
Esophageal tube feedings - need to stop the cycle of fat metabolism by providing nutrition
864
Why are cat bite abscesses often treated with a drain placement
Usually caused by anaerobes so rain help present abscess from closing back up
865
What almost always follows phthysis bulbi in cats and blindness after trauma to the eye
Feline traumatic sarcoma - very malignant
866
What almost always follows phthysis bulbi in cats and blindness after trauma to the eye
Feline traumatic sarcoma - very malignant
867
Bartonella is spread by - and zoonotic to people through -
Fleas, spread by flea dirt and open wounds
868
What is the causative agent of feline infectious anemia
Mycoplasma felis
869
What does mycoplasma felis cause in cats and how is it transmitted
Regenerative hemolytic anemia, fever, inappetence - spread through direct contact (fighting)
870
What can you give in cases of a low serum albumin to prevent excess blood clotting
Aspirin - also can be used as an NSAID
871
What can you give in cases of a low serum albumin to prevent excess blood clotting
Aspirin - also can be used as an NSAID
872
Feline infections peritonitis is caused by what
Coronavirus
873
Feline infections peritonitis is caused by what
Coronavirus
874
Describe diabetes insipidus compared to diabetes mellitus
Diabetes insipidus - Pu / Pd with enormous volumes of extremely dilute urine (tasteless)
Diabetes millets - issue with pancreas function and abnormal blood sugar leading to sweet urine (glucose in urine)
875
How can you diagnose diabetes insipidus
Water deprivation test
876
What kind of diet is barf
Raw meat and bone diet
877
What kind of diet is barf
Raw meat and bone diet
878
What clinical signs are classic with notoedres Cati - how do you treat
Lichenification of ear tips, face and distal extremities - treat with selamectin
879
Describe the esophagus muscle in cats
Cranial 2/3 is smooth muscle, caudal 1/3 is striated muscle
880
With geriatric vestibular disease - what underlying cause should you look for
Hypothyroidism
881
Who is the definitive host of sarcacystic Cruzi - how do they get infected
Dog-gets infected by eating infected cow muscle
882
What is the prognosis for acute cholangiohepatitis in young cats about 3 years old
50% chance of long term survival 150% of dying in 3 months
883
What histopath results would you expect in a case of acute cholangiohepatitis
Fibrosis , with portal triads, bile duct proliferation, centrolobular accumulation of bile with casts in canicular areas
884
Define cholangio hepatitis
Information of bile ducts, gallbladder, and surrounding liver tissue
885
What is the most important test to run if you have a cat with urinary tract obstruction
Electrolytes to look for hyperkalemia - especially if they are bradycardic because the cardiac abnormalities can cause death
886
Cats shed panleukopenia for
6 weeks
887
What are the 2 most important ways to prevent recurrence of a medially luxating patella
Lateral transposition of tibial tibersity and modification of the trochee groove of the femur
888
What lesion is associated with sudden death in a dog with cushings
Pulmonary thromboembolism
889
The cause of EPI in dogs is - while cats is -
Dogs - pancreatic acinar atrophy
Cats - chronic pancreatitis
890
Describe the pathogenesis of sarcocustis - how can you prevent it
Carnivore eats cow with cyst in muscle, sporocysts are shed in feces which is ingested by the cow which the invades the muscle - reed to prevent carnivore feces from contaminating cow fields
891
What is the causative agent of FIP - is it contagious, why or why not
Coronavirus - not contagious , transmitted fecal oral and tip has to mutate in young and immunosuppressed cats
892
What is the causative agent of FIP - is it contagious, why or why not
Coronavirus - not contagious , transmitted fecal oral and tip has to mutate in young and immunosuppressed cats
893
What is the prognosis of FIP - how do you diagnose
Poor, considered fatal - diagnose with histopath and biopsy to see progranlomatous and fibrinorecrotic reaction around small veins
894
Differentiate between the dry and wet forms of FIP
Wet form - complement mediated, pleural and peritoneal fluids
Dry form - partial call mediated, granuloma formation affecting organs
895
What makes FIV (feline immunodeficiency virus) a unique virus
FIV is transmitted through bite wound saliva but is not passed through direct contact or by sharing a litter box
896
Describe the pathogenesis of FIV - feline immunodeficiency virus
Virs replicates in lymphoid and salivary tissues, causing a viremia that stays in the host for years causing immunosuppression (cats are 10-15 years old at this point) - leads to failure of immune system and increasing infections
897
Describe the pathogenesis of FIV - feline immunodeficiency virus
Virs replicates in lymphoid and salivary tissues, causing a viremia that stays in the host for years causing immunosuppression (cats are 10-15 years old at this point) - leads to failure of immune system and increasing infections
898
How do you diagnose FIV
Antibody ELISA for FIV because it doesn't produce enough antigens
899
How do you diagnose FIV
Antibody ELISA for FIV because it doesn't produce enough antigens
900
How is felv transmitted
Through saliva - requires prolonged and close contact for transmission
901
How is felv transmitted
Through saliva - requires prolonged and close contact for transmission
902
Describe the disease process of felv
Cats older than 10 years old are infected, leading to inadequate immune system where it persistently sheds and the disease occurs months to years later when stressed
903
What do yo most commonly see with felv in cats
Cats 3 yr and under see mediastinal lymphoma that causes dyspnea and Horners syndrome / secondarily see multicentric disease
904
How do you diagnose felv versus FIV
Antigen ELISA for FeLV and antibody ELISA for FIV
905
What is the causative agent of feline panleukopenia virus
Parvovirus - also called kitten distemper or kitten parvo
906
What is the causative agent of feline panleukopenia virus
Parvovirus - also called kitten distemper or kitten parvo
907
Describe the pathogenesis of feline panleukopenia virus (kitten parvo)
Damages rapidly dividing tissues (in bone marrow or git) causing vomiting, anorexia, etc - will cause cerebellar hypoplasia if infected in utero along with other neurologic signs
908
How do you treat feline calicivirus
Clindamycin
909
What indicates fatal feline calicivirus
Ulcerative and edematous lesions of the skin on the head and limbs on top of the ulcers and stomatitis in the mouth
910
What is the cause of feline viral rhinotracheitis
Feline herpesvirus
911
What lesions are highly suggestive of feline viral rhinotracheitis/ feline herpesvirus
Linear dendritic ulcers, eosinophilic keratitis, corneal sequestrum
912
What makes chlamydophilia felis URI different from herpes or caliciviros
Chlamydophilia felis does not cause oral or cutaneous lesions like calicivirus or herpes
913
How do cats become infected with bartonella
ABCs are infected through fleas and humans get cat scratch fever because cats have flea dirt under their nails
914
How do cats become infected with bartonella
ABCs are infected through fleas and humans get cat scratch fever because cats have flea dirt under their nails
915
You find a cat covered in fleas with mandibular lymphadenopathy and draining tracts under the chin - what is your top differential
Yersinia pestis
916
You find a cat covered in fleas with mandibular lymphadenopathy and draining tracts under the chin - what is your top differential
Yersinia pestis
917
How do you differentiate between cholangiohepatitis and lymphocytic portal hepatitis
Biopsy-
Cholangiolepatitis- neutrophils in portal areas
Lymphocytic portal hepatitis - lymphocytes and plasma cells in portal area but not bile ducts
M
918
Hou do you confirm a pyothorax
A decreased glucose in effusion compared to serum is consistent with infectious etiology
919
When do you not drain fluid in the chest
If its a hemothorax - blood will naturally reabsorb and draining it will cause it to get worse or to be infected
920
A diffuse bronchial pattern with tracks and doughnuts in a cat indicates
Feline asthma
921
What should not be used to treat feline asthma and why
Atropine - thickens mucosal secretions and encourages plugging of airways
922
What is the causative agent of canine distemper
Paramyxovirus
923
What trio of signs do you see with canine distemper virus
GI (diarrhea), neuro (seizures), and respiratory (pneumonia)
924
You have a dog with enamel hypoplasia of the lower canines - what does this indicate to you
The dog had canine distemper virus as a puppy
925
When are you likely to see cases of canine distemper and how is it transmitted
Puppies 3-6 months old - aerosol transmission
926
What is body system is affected with canine parvovirus - how is it transmitted
Git and bone marrow - transmitted fecal orally
927
What virus affects rapidly dividing tissues of youg puppies
Canine parvovirus
928
What virus affects rapidly dividing tissues of youg puppies
Canine parvovirus
929
What is the causative agent of hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
Closhidium difficile
930
What bacterial infection is associated with grass awn migration
Actinomyces
931
What bacterial infection is associated with grass awn migration
Actinomyces
932
Describe collie eye anomaly
Affects 80% of the breed - choroidial hypoptasin with crazy looking vessels, varying degrees of ocular dysfunction (some blind some not)
933
What breed is often affected by extra ocular polymyositis causing bilateral exopthalamos with no pain or swelling
Golden retreviers
934
How do you treat extrocular myositis and why
Prednisone or azothioprine - caused by an auto immune reactionto muscle antigens
935
Who is often affected with sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome
Middle aged obese female spayed dogs with Cushing's disease
936
Describe clinical signs of sards (and why)
Pu/pd 1 polyphagia and increased liver enzymes (because often cushinoid) - acute blindness with neovalularization and taperal hyperreflectivity a month later
937
Describe fundic exam findings of a toy breed dog affected with progressive retinal atrophy/ degeneration
Grey lines on fundus, tapetal hyper reflectivity, retinal vascular attenuation
938
How can you identify iris atrophy
Dog over 10 years old, slow PLR, irregular iris/pupil margins, normal menace and palpebral
939
How can you identify iris atrophy
Dog over 10 years old, slow PLR, irregular iris/pupil margins, normal menace and palpebral
940
What is pannus in German shepherds and how do you treat it
Chronic superficial keratitis - immune mediated condition affecting the cornea, treat with topical steroids and cuccosporire for life
941
What is pannus in German shepherds and how do you treat it
Chronic superficial keratitis - immune mediated condition affecting the cornea, treat with topical steroids and cuccosporire for life
942
Which radiographs are important to take if you suspect tracheal collapse
End inspiratory thorax and end expiratory thorax
943
If you suspect laryngeal paralysis - what should you give on a sedated exam and why
Doxaprom - stimulates respiration (whereas sedation reduces it)
944
You see hyperpigmentation in the axillary and groin region of a dachshund - what is your diagnosis
Acanthuses nigricans - inherited disease
945
You see hyperpigmentation in the axillary and groin region of a dachshund - what is your diagnosis
Acanthuses nigricans - inherited disease
946
Which species are normally affected by color dilution alopecia
Fawn colored Dobermans and Yorkies
947
Describe clinical signs of canine familial dermatomyositis affecting collies and sheep dogs
Atrophy of miles with crusting and erosions of skin - which worsen with heat and sun
948
Describe discoid lupus erythmatosis
Depigmentation and iteration of the nasal planum, alopecia around the muzzle, lips
949
Which species is normally affected by fatal lupuid dermatitis
German shorthaired pointers
950
Atopy (atopic dermatitis) is often seen _
Seasonally, when high pollen is out
951
How do you treat atopic dermatitis
Hyposensitization with intradermal allergen injections to increase tolerance - also cyclosorine, antihistamines and corticosteroids
952
Why are you more likely to see bacterial pyoderma in dogs caused by staph pseudointermedius
Dogs stratum corneum is a less efficient barrier because its lacking ostial plugs in hair follicles allowing bacterial colonization
953
Which dog breeds are most likely to be affected with sebaceous gland tumors - where are you likely to see them
Cockers, beagles, poodles, schnauzers - see wart like lesions on limbs, trunks and eyelids
954
How do you treat megaesophagus caused by myasthenia gravis
Anticholinesterases like pyridogostimire along with metaclopromidec and cisapride to stimulate esophageal peristalsis
955
How do you diagnose a septic abdomen
Compare blood Glucose to peritoneal glucose - peritoneal should be 20 less than blood if septic
956
How do you treat esophagitis and why
Suralfate - proton pump inhibitor that decreases gastric acid and coats to protect the esophagus from ulceration
957
Which breed most often is affected by perineal fistulas - how do you treat
German shepherds - treat with immunisupposive drugs because this is an immune mediated disease
958
When do you usually see perineal adenomas and why
Intact males because it is a testosterone dependent tumor
959
What bloodwork abnormalities can you see with lymphangiectasia
Panhypoproteinemia - this is a PLE casing dilation of lymphatics in the intestines caring leakage into the intestinal lumen
960
How should you treat hip luxation in dogs
Closed reduction - place inan Elmer sling for 7-10 days to prevent weight bearing but aid in abduction und internal rother of affected limb
961
How should you treat hip luxation in dogs
Closed reduction - place inan Elmer sling for 7-10 days to prevent weight bearing but aid in abduction und internal rother of affected limb
962
How can you differentiate between trigeminal nerve neuropathy and masticatory muscle myositis
Trigeminal neuropathy - unilateral muscle atrophy of master and temporalis muscles
Mashiatory muscle myositis - bilateral atrophy, autoimmune disorder
963
How can you differentiate between trigeminal nerve neuropathy and masticatory muscle myositis
Trigeminal neuropathy - unilateral muscle atrophy of master and temporalis muscles
Mashiatory muscle myositis - bilateral atrophy, autoimmune disorder
964
What is the difference between lymphoma and leukemia
Leukemia affects the bone marrow
965
What is the difference between lymphoma and leukemia
Leukemia affects the bone marrow
966
Castration decreases the risk of - not -
Prostatic not prostatic neoplasia
967
Castration decreases the risk of - not -
Prostatic not prostatic neoplasia
968
Night blindness can be caused by a deficit in
Vitamin A - affects the retina
969
What breed is susceptible to copper toxicosis
Bedlington terriers
970
What breed is susceptible to amlyoidiosis
Sharpies
971
What breed is susceptible to amlyoidiosis
Sharpies
972
What is the active thyroid hormone and which thyroid hormone do yo test for to diagnose hyperthyroidism
T3 is active, free T4 to diagnose
973
What is a common complication of feline hyperthyroidism and how do yountreat it
Hypertension - treat with atenolol, especially if animal goes acutely blind
974
What is a common cause of hypothyroidism in dogs and how do you treat it
Immune mediated lymphocytic thyroiditis - treat with sodium levathyroxine
975
How do ketones affect acid base status
Cause a metabolic acidosis - ketones are acidic
976
Describe bloodwork abnormalities seen with diabetic ketoacidosis
Metabolic acidosis, hypokalemia , hyponatremia, hypochloremia, prerenal azotemia
977
How to you treat DKA
Regular insulin - quick acting
978
What should you look for in a diabetic patient with sudden DKA
Underlying cause - cats check for hyperthyroidism, dogs check for cushings
979
Which type of DM are dogs likely to have versus cats
Dogs almost always insulin dependent (type 1) - cats 70% type 1 and 30% non insulin dependent (type 2)
980
Describe central diabetes insipidus and how to treat it
Lack of vasopressin ADH) release by posterior pituitary - treat with DDAVP C(a synthetic adh), see response in 3 days
981
Describe nephrogenic diabetes insipidus - how do you treat it
Lack of response from kidney ADH receptors - treat with hydrochlorothiazide
982
What bloodwork is suggestive of an insulinoma
Normal to high insulin in the face of low blood glucose
983
What are the 2 most common bloodwork findings of hypoadrenocorticism
Hyperkalemia and hypontremia due to deficiency in mineral corticoids
984
Primary hyper parathyroidism causes a hyper - and hypo-
Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia
985
Primary hyper parathyroidism causes a hyper - and hypo-
Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia
986
Is HCM concentric Or eccentric
Concentric hypertrophy - a thilkered left ventricle wall impairs diastolic filling but there is no issue with contractility
987
Which breed of cats are predisposed to HCM - why
Main coons - often associated with hype thyroidism or hypertension due to renal disease
988
What does HCM predispose main coon cats to
Aortic thromboembolisms (saddle thrombi)
989
How do you treat HCM and why
Goal is to increase diastolic function (increasing filling time) by decreasing heart rate - use Beta blockers, calcium Channel inhibitors Or ace inhibitors; also want to prevent saddle thrombus with things like aspirin or heparin
990
Is DCM in dogs comcentric or eccentric
Eccentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle
991
How can you treat dcm
Pimobendan to increase contractility by increasing calcium sensitivity, can also use diuretics or ace inhibitors like enclapril
992
Pulmonic stenosis most often occurs in - dogs while aortic stenosis occurs in - dogs
Pulmonic - small dogs, aortic - large dogs
993
Describe the pathogenesis of pulmonic stenosis
Dilation occurs downstream of stenosis leading to concentric hypertrophy of the right ventricle due to increased pressure
994
Describe the pathogenesis of pulmonic stenosis
Dilation occurs downstream of stenosis leading to concentric hypertrophy of the right ventricle due to increased pressure
995
Where will you hear a murmur indicating pulmonic stenosis
Left heart base
996
Where will you hear a murmur indicating pulmonic stenosis
Left heart base
997
Describe what happens with aortic stenosis - what an occur secondarily
Concentric hypertrophy of the left heart causing post stenotic dilation of the aorta which ultimately causes vehicular arrhythmia - risk of sudden death or infective endocarditis
998
How do you treat aortic stenosis
Prophylactic antibiotics, Beta blockers (atenolol) to reduce myocardial oxygen demand and reduce frequency of arrhythmia
999
What heart pathology do mastiffs get
Pulmonic stenosis (even though that's usually a small dog problem)
1000
What breeds are predisposed to tricuspid valve desplasia
Labs, large males, German shepherds
1001
Where do you hear a murmur indicating mitral valve dysplasia
Left heart apex
1002
What is the most common site of intussuseption
Ileocolic
1003
Dogs with EPI have - cobalamin and - folate
High folate and low cobalamin
1004
Dogs with EPI have - cobalamin and - folate
High folate and low cobalamin
1005
What causes small intestinal bacterial overgrowth in dogs
EPI
1006
A dog with pale voluminous diarrhea and a low TLI indicates
EPI
1007
Inguinal hernia usually occur due to - while umbilical hernia occurs due to
Inguinal -trauma, umbilical - congenital
1008
If you have a cryptorchid dog, what other congenital abnormality should you look for
Umbilical hernia
1009
Do dogs have complete tracheal rings
No - birds do
1010
What side of the neck is the esophagus on in birds
Right side
1011
What side of the neck is the esophagus on in birds
Right side
