CARDIO HW 1a Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in CARDIO HW 1a Deck (30):
1

A “run” of ventricular tachycardia occurs if at least ____ PVCs occur in a row.
Choose one answer.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

B

2

A classic sign of atrial flutter is:
Choose one answer.
A. a constant 2:1 conduction ratio.
B. the presence of sawtooth F waves.
C. a ventricular rate less than 100 beats/min.
D. an irregular but consistent R-R interval.

B

3

A decreased cardiac output secondary to a heart rate greater than 150 beats/min is caused by:
Choose one answer.
A. myocardial stretching due to increased preload.
B. decreases in stroke volume and ventricular filling.
C. increased automaticity of the cardiac pacemaker.
D. ectopic pacemaker sites in the atria or ventricles.

B

4

A delta wave is identified on a cardiac rhythm strip as a:
Choose one answer.
A. apparent P wave that occurs at the end of the QRS complex.
B. acute widening of the QRS complex immediately after the R wave.
C. rapid upslope to the R wave immediately after the end of the P wave.
D. delay between the end of the P wave and the beginning of the R wave.

C

5

A demand pacemaker:
Choose one answer.
A. generates pacing impulses only when it senses that the heart's natural pacemaker has fallen below a preset rate.
B. sends out single electrical impulses when the patient's inherent pacemaker rate exceeds 150 beats/min.
C. is easily identified on a cardiac rhythm strip by noting the presence of pacer spikes before all of the QRS complexes.
D. attaches to the atria and the ventricles and only generates an impulse if it senses that the patient is in ventricular fibrillation.

A

6

A loud S3 heart sound, when heard in older adults, often signifies:
Choose one answer.
A. emphysema.
B. valve rupture.
C. heart failure.
D. pulmonary hypertension.

C

7

A major complication associated with atrial fibrillation is:
Choose one answer.
A. clot formation in the fibrillating atria.
B. a significant reduction in atrial filling.
C. pulmonary congestion and hypoxemia.
D. a profound increase in the atrial kick.

A

8

A normal QT interval lasts:
Choose one answer.
A. 0.15 to 0.25 seconds.
B. 0.30 to 0.40 seconds.
C. 0.36 to 0.44 seconds.
D. 0.38 to 0.48 seconds.

C

9

A pathologic Q wave:
Choose one answer.
A. generally indicates that an acute myocardial infarction has occurred within the past hour.
B. is deeper than one quarter of the height of the R wave and indicates injury.
C. is wider than 0.04 seconds and indicates that a myocardial infarction occurred in the past.
D. can only be substantiated by viewing at least two previous 12-lead ECGs.

C

10

A patient experiencing an acute coronary syndrome should receive morphine sulfate in an initial dose of:
Choose one answer.
A. 0.5 mg/kg.
B. 1 to 2 mg.
C. 2 to 4 mg.
D. 5 to 10 mg.

C

11

A patient with a medical condition that requires antiplatelet therapy would MOST likely be taking:
Choose one answer.
A. Coreg.
B. Altace.
C. Zocor.
D. Plavix.

D

12

A patient with an elevated cholesterol level would MOST likely take:
Choose one answer.
A. Inderal.
B. Altacor.
C. Isordil.
D. Diovan.

B

13

A patient with orthopnea:
Choose one answer.
A. experiences dyspnea during periods of exertion.
B. prefers a semisitting position to facilitate breathing.
C. experiences worsened dyspnea while lying down.
D. sleeps in a recliner due to severe right heart failure.

C

14

A physiologic effect of sympathetic nervous stimulation includes:
Choose one answer.
A. dilation of the bronchioles.
B. decreased conduction velocity.
C. a negative dromotropic effect.
D. dilation of the blood vessels.

A

15

A prolonged PR interval:
Choose one answer.
A. is greater than 120 milliseconds.
B. indicates that the AV node was bypassed.
C. indicates an abnormal delay at the AV node.
D. is a sign of rapid atrial depolarization.

C

16

A prolonged QT interval indicates that the heart:
Choose one answer.
A. has a shorter-than-normal refractory period, increasing the likelihood of severe bradycardia.
B. is experiencing an extended refractory period, making the ventricles more vulnerable to dysrhythmias.
C. is depolarizing too quickly, which significantly increases the potential for reentry in the AV junction.
D. has a shortened refractory period and may be caused by factors such as hypocalcemia or pericarditis.

B

17

A pure alpha agent:
Choose one answer.
A. causes marked vasoconstriction.
B. has a direct effect on the heart rate.
C. causes moderate bronchoconstriction.
D. decreases the blood pressure by dilating the vessels.

A

18

A wide QRS complex that is preceded by a normal P wave indicates:
Choose one answer.
A. that the rhythm is ventricular in origin.
B. rapid conduction through the ventricles.
C. a delay in conduction at the AV junction.
D. an abnormality in ventricular conduction.

D

19

Aberrant conduction is _____________ conduction.
Choose one answer.
A. rapid
B. abnormal
C. very slow
D. irregular

B

20

Abnormal neurologic signs that accompany hypertensive encephalopathy occur when:
Choose one answer.
A. pressure in the brain causes transient dysfunction of the parietal lobe and cerebral vasodilation.
B. the mean arterial pressure exceeds 100 mm Hg and blood is forced from the brain and into the spinal cord.
C. neurons sustain permanent damage secondary to a single increase in blood pressure above 200/130 mm Hg.
D. pressure causes a breach in the blood-brain barrier and fluid leaks out, causing an increase in intracranial pressure.

D

21

According to the Einthoven triangle, lead II is assessed by placing the:
Choose one answer.
A. negative lead on the left arm and the positive lead on the left leg.
B. positive lead on the left leg and the negative lead on the right arm.
C. positive lead on the left arm and the negative lead on the right arm.
D. negative lead on the right arm and the positive lead on the left leg.

D

22

Acute coronary syndrome is a term used to describe:
Choose one answer.
A. acute chest pressure or discomfort that subsides with rest or nitroglycerin.
B. a clinical condition in which patients experience chest pain during exertion.
C. any group of clinical symptoms consistent with acute myocardial ischemia.
D. a sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance that causes a decrease in cardiac output.

C

23

Administering a drug that possesses a positive chronotropic effect will have a direct effect on:
Choose one answer.
A. stroke volume.
B. blood pressure.
C. cardiac output.
D. the heart rate.

D

24

All of the following medications are angiotensin II receptor blockers, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. Niaspan.
B. Diovan.
C. Avapro.
D. Atacand.

A

25

An electrical impulse is slightly delayed at the AV node so that the:
Choose one answer.
A. bundle of His can depolarize fully.
B. ventricles can contract completely.
C. primary cardiac pacemaker can reset.
D. atria can empty into the ventricles.

D

26

An electrical wave moving in the direction of a positive electrode will:
Choose one answer.
A. cause a positive deflection on the ECG.
B. produce a significant amount of artifact.
C. cause a negative deflection on the ECG.
D. manifest with narrow QRS complexes.

A

27

An increase in peripheral vascular resistance causes:
Choose one answer.
A. an increase in afterload.
B. a decrease in blood pressure.
C. an increase in cardiac output.
D. a decrease in cardiac workload.

A

28

Anatomically contiguous leads view:
Choose one answer.
A. opposite walls of the heart.
B. only the lateral wall of the heart.
C. the same general area of the heart.
D. only the anterior wall of the heart.

C

29

Any electrical impulse that originates in the ventricles will produce:
Choose one answer.
A. wide QRS complexes and a rate between 20 and 40 beats/min.
B. a rapid rhythm with wide QRS complexes and no pulse.
C. low-amplitude QRS complexes and dissociated P waves.
D. bizarre-looking QRS complexes and a rate less than 60 beats/min.

A

30

Approximately 80% of ventricular filling occurs:
Choose one answer.
A. during systole.
B. during diastole.
C. when the semilunar valves are open.
D. when the AV valves close.

B