Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pance Prep > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

(50 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Tx for stable bradycardia

A

observe and monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

tx for unstable bradycardia

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

only 2 shockable rhythms

A

v. fib

pulseless V. tach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

tx for wide QRS tachycardia

A

amiodarone
lidocaine
procainamide (WPW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tx for narrow complex QRS tachycardia

A

adensosine

CCB/BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tx for symptomatic motiz I

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

tx for mobitz 2

A

atropine

temporary pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

tx for 3rd dregree heart block

A

permanent pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tx for atrial flutter

A

vagal
BB
CCB
definitive = ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

rate control meds for a fib

A

BB
CCB
digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

rhythm control for atrial fib

A

defib
ablation
Meds = amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tx for paroxysmal supravent tachy (narrow vs wide)

A 
Narrow = vagals, adenosine
Wide = amio, procainamide (WPW)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

WAP definition

A

HR <100

>3 P wave morphologies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MAT definition

A

HR >100

>3 P wave morphologies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

WPW has a ___ wave which is an accessory pathway call the ______

A

delta

bundle of kent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lown-ganong-levine syndrome is a (short/long) PR interval with ___ QRS complex

A

short

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

AV junctional dysrhythmias have P waves that are __ or ___

A

inverted or not seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

brugada syndrome has sT elevations in V1-V3 that have a (downslope/upslope) pattern

A

downsloping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IV nitro and morphine are contraindicated in what 2 MIs

A

Inferior and Right sided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

systolic HF has a __ gallop, diastolic has a ___ gallop

A

S3

S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MC cause of acute pericarditis

TX?

Study These Flashcards
A

viral (enteroviruses –> coxsackie, echovirus)

NSAIDs

22
Q

a pericardial knock should make you think of what?

Study These Flashcards
A

contrictive pericarditis (sudden cessation of ventircular filling)

23
Q

MC cause of myocarditis (what medication?)

Study These Flashcards
A

viral (enterovirus –> coxsackie, echovirus)

also: clozapine

24
Q

how do you dx myocariditis?

Tx?

Study These Flashcards
A

bx

supportive (systolic HF meds), maybe IVIG

25
MC cause of restrictive cadriomyopathy
amyloidosis
26
___ causes rheumatic fever
GABHS
27
what is the major criteria for rheumatic fever
``` J - joint (migratory polyarthritis) O - Oh my heart (carditis) N - Nodules E - erythema marginatum S - sydenhams criteria ```
28
tx for rheumatic HF
aspirin (maybe corticosteroids) Pen G Erythromycin is PCN allergic
29
increased venous return (increases/decreases) all murmurs Decreased venous return (increases/decreases) all murmurs
increase decrease
30
maneuvers to increase venous retun
squat, leg raise, lay down
31
maneuvers to decrease venous retun
valsalva, stand
32
inspiration increases (Left/right) murmurs
right
33
expiration decreases (left/right murmurs)
left
34
what murmurs increase with handgrip? | decrease?
``` increase = AR, MR decrease = AS, MVP, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ```
35
what anti-HTN meds are best with gout pts
``` CCB losartan (doesnt cause hyperuricemia) ```
36
1st line meds for HTN emergency if the EOD is primarily neuro
nicardipine | labetalol
37
1st line meds for HTN emergency if the EOD is primarily cardio
BB | Nitro
38
what valve and organism is MC involved in infective endocarditis
mitral | strep viridan
39
what valve and organism is MC involves in IVD users
trisupid | stap aureus
40
acute bacterial endocarditis is typically caused by ___ organism Tx?
Staph aureus naficillin + gentamicin
41
subacute bacterial endocarditis is MC caused by what organism? Tx?
strep viridans PCN/ampicillin + gentamicin
42
prosthetic valves with endocarditis are caused by what organism? Tx?
staph aureus Vancomycin + Gent + rifampin
43
what meds are used for endocarditis prophylaxis? | PEN allerigic?
amoxicillin | clindamycin
44
what is cilostazol used for?
intermittent caudication in peripheral arterial dz
45
best initial test for AAA is ___. If it is a thoracic aneurysm use ___. ___ is gold standard
U/S CT angiography
46
suspect ___ if pt is a smoker and has superficial migratory thrombophlebitis + distal extremity ischemia + raynauds phenomenon Tx?
thromboangiitis obliterans stop smoking CCB for raynauds
47
how long to tc a pt with DVT if.. 1. 1st event and cause is reversible or time-limited 2. 1st idiopathic event 3. pregnancy or malignancy related
1. at least 3 mo 2. minimum 3 months 3. lifelong
48
MOA = potentiates antithrombin III
heparin
49
heparin antidote
protamine sulfate
50
meds for postural hypotension
fludrocortisone | midodrine

Pance Prep (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions