CDCs Flashcards
(128 cards)
0
Q
Which mode of the Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) family of bombs uses the MK-83 and BLU-110 as a warhead?
A
GBU-32
1
Q
How many fluid temperature modes are available on the polyalphaolefin (PAO) / air cooling cart?
A
2
2
Q
What TO outlines the Air Force standard for munitions color-coding?
A
TO 11A-1-53
3
Q
Where is the cool-air hatch on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand?
A
Top of the unit
4
Q
During a concurrent servicing operation a concurrent servicing supervisor is not required when
A
Fueling is not being performed
5
Q
Which warhead can be used for the GBU/EGBU-28?
A
BLU-113 A/B
6
Q
What is the designation for the practice version of the B83 Nuclear Bomb?
A
BDU-46E
7
Q
Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) is always configured with the wind corrected munition dispenser (WCMD) tail kit?
A
CBU-107
8
Q
What bomb loading adapter is used in loading internal and external stores on the B-52?
A
F310707-500 bomb loading adapter
9
Q
What ammunition feed system is used to supply the GAU-2?
A
Linked
10
Q
Which panel of the A/M 32A-86 generator set as the circuit breaker to shut off current flow in case f an overload?
A
External AC
11
Q
What mechanism within the LAU-131s tube restrains the rockets against normal flying loads?
A
Detents
12
Q
What aircraft-generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to begin its launch cycle?
A
Release consent
13
Q
What precaution must be taken prior to attempting to loosen fittings, or remove tubes or hoses when using the self generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)?
A
You must vent the pressure from that part of the system through the appropriate valve
14
Q
Which columns are capable of holding CBUs on the smart bomb rack assembly (SBRA)?
A
One, three, and four
15
Q
What is the only gas operated missile launcher?
A
LAU-106
16
Q
What provides electrical power and interconnection cable to the nose and tail fuzes of a bomb?
A
Initiators
17
Q
How many main rail assemblies can be installed on the deck of the MHU-110/M trailer?
A
6
18
Q
What is the weight of the GBU-24?
A
2000 lbs
19
Q
In a fault isolation system using built-in test (BIT) checks, the results of the test should narrow a fault down to a
A
Subsystem or system
20
Q
What accessory do you normally see attached to a MHU-141 trailer with a mixed load of missiles?
A
M-9 Adapter
21
Q
The sealing wire may be removed from the M904 mechanical nose fuze only after
A
The arming wire is inserted
22
Q
Which version of the AGM-65 is laser guided?
A
AGM-65/E
23
Q
The FMU-152/B fuze
A
Provides in-flight cockpit selection
24
What rail missile launcher carries the AGM-114
Modified M299
25
What component of the 105mm gun is composed of the sleigh, recuperator assemblies?
Recoil mechanism
26
Due to the expansion properties of fuel, an Unmodified A-M32A-95 fuel tank should not be filled more than approximately
1/2 full
27
What component of a cluster rack actuated the B-11 bomb shackle to release munitions?
A-6 release unit
28
What bomb racks are used by the BRU-57 Smart Rack to carry stores weighing up to 1000 lbs?
BRU-46
29
To complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to the
Face of the bolt
30
What is the ammunition capacity of the 20mm linkless ammunition loading system (LALS)?
2100 rounds
31
What additional piece of AGE is required during operation of the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/ air cooling cart?
None, it is a self contained system
32
The functions of the digital system are initiated by the
Operator
33
The Time-to-Arm (TA) and time-to-burst (TB) settings on the B-83 are behind the
Access door on the aft assembly
34
Which form has an entry identifying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?
AFTO Form 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document
35
How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser?
Eight
36
What device ensures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power is loss or a component fails or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks?
Counterbalance valve
37
Bombs can be expected to detonate within how long after being enveloped in flames?
Two to four minutes
38
Before operating bomb bay door systems for checkout, you must make sure
All personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of operation
39
How is the LAU-131 rocket pod safed?
Electrically with a shorting pin
40
How much does the BLU-113A/B penetrator bomb weigh?
4500 lbs
41
How are the guidance canards of the AIM-9L/M missiles controlled?
Electrically
42
The fragmentation bomb is made of
Spirally wound spring steel
43
What section of the AIM-120 missile has the arm/fire device (AFD)?
Propulsion section
44
What is the weight of the MK-65 Quickstrike mine?
2000 lbs
45
What type of projectile has a hollow body?
Target Practice (TP)
46
How much air pressure is produced by the MC-2A?
15 cfm at 200 psi
47
How is the mechanical ran assembly (MRA) primarily controlled/operated?
The lift trucks remote control unit
48
The function of the transfer unit on the link less system is the remove rounds from the
Conveyor elements and feed them into the gun
49
How many different operational modes are available on the portable control unit (PCU) that controls the MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M trailers?
15
50
What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU-110/M trailer?
15,000
51
The GFU-7/E 30 mm ammunition loader is used to load ammunition into what gun?
GAU-2/A
52
GFU-7/E can load 30 mm rounds into the GAU-8/A at a rate of
300 rounds per minute
53
What is the lifting height when the adapter assembly is inverted in the MHU-83-series lift truck?
107.5 in
54
What MHU-196/M trailer component supports the lift arms under transport conditions?
Retractable travel locks
55
On which aircraft is the A/M 32C-10 air conditioner used?
F-15, F-16, F-117, B-1, B-2, and B-52
56
What accessory is used with the MJ-40 lift truck to load bombs in the B-1B/B-2 weapons bay(s)?
Ram assembly
57
Which aircraft requires Armament System personnel to use the self generating nitrogen servicing cart?
F-22 only
58
What is the maximum nuclear munitions load capacity of an MHU-226/M trailer
8,000 lbs
59
What is the lift capacity of the MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M trailers?
40,000 pounds
60
Which lift truck supports the use of the mechanical ran assembly (MRA)?
HUU-83 D/E or MJ-40
61
What is the maximum static load the B-1 maintenance stand can sustain?
500 lbs
62
What power output of the portable floodlight sets is used for powering common electrically powered hand tools?
115-120 VAC
63
What device ensures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power loss or a component fails or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks?
Counterbalance valve
64
How many chaff dispensers may be loaded on the B-1B when carried in conjunction with flares?
4
65
The component that protects the pins of the umbilical connector on the AGM-65 until just before loading is called the
Shielding cap
66
What are six classifications of High Explosive bombs?
General purpose, Blast, Penetration, Fragmentation, Shaped Charge, Precision guided
67
What power output of the portable floodlight sets is used for powering common electrically powered hand tools?
115-120 VAC
68
What is the correct description of the BLU-108/B submunition?
Anti-tank, armor piercing (EFP)
69
The multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled
Electrically
70
If the tape switches on the split-deck maintenance platform detect an obstruction during operation, they stop the units
Forward drive, platform extension, and lowering capabilities
71
What is the only pneudraulically operated missile launcher?
LAU-142
72
What aircraft loading missions are supported by the MJ-40?
B-1, B-2
73
What device ensures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power is lost or a component fails or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks?
Counterbalance valve
74
How are the guidance canards of the AIM-9 L/M missiles controlled?
Electrically
75
What is the only rail launcher that automatically engages the missile umbilical during loading?
Modified M299
76
What ammunition fees system is used to supply the M2A1 40mm gun?
Clip
77
Aluminums formation of a tightly adhering oxide film
Provides increased resistance under mild corrosive conditions
78
Which type of rockets are used for target making or incendiary effects?
White phosphorous
79
How many munitions can be loaded onto the MIL-STD-1760 enhanced conventional bomb module (SECBM)?
10
80
Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout the entire aircraft electrical system?
Aircraft power panels
81
What MHU-196/M trailer component supports the lift arms under transport conditions?
Retractable travel locks
82
Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) contains kinetic energy penetrators (KEP) arranged into packs of varying sizes?
CBU-107
83
What is the primary reason for making sure aircraft fittings are clean before attaching hydraulic servicing hoses?
Dirty fittings can introduce contaminants to the hydraulic systems causing damage to valves and lines
84
What component of the M61A1 breech bolt locks in the firing position?
Locking block
85
What bomb component serves to boost the explosive train between the fuze and the bomb?
Adapter boosters
86
What is the weight of the GBU/EGBU-28?
5,000 lbs
87
What is the maximum load capacity of an MHU-110/M trailer?
15,000 lbs
88
What are the primary kill mechanisms of high-explosive (HE) bombs?
The blast effect and dispersed case fragments
89
How many ADM-160B Miniature Air Launched Decoys (MALDs) may be carried by the heavy stores adapter beam?
8
90
What corrosion catalyst agent does dust, dirt, acid spills, or waster materials provide?
Electrolyte
91
What device controls the engine speed of the MHu-83?
Hand throttle
92
What component of the A-10 ammunition loading system (ALS) interfaces with the aircraft during ammunition loads?
GFU-7E ALA
93
Which panel of the A/M 32A-86 generator set has the circuit breaker to shut off current in case of an overload?
External AC
94
Which aircraft carries the AGM-88 high-speed antiradiation missile (HARM)?
F-16
95
How many hinged deck panels are incorporated in the MHU-141/M munitions handling trailer design?
1
96
The explosive charge of most penetration bomb is what percentage of the total bomb weight?
35 percent
97
Where are the A/M 32C-10 duct hoses stored?
In the rear storage compartment
98
How many main rail assemblies can be installed on the deck of the MHU-110/M trailer?
6
99
The height of burst built into the FMU-113B fuze is how many feet above ground level?
15
100
How many hinged deck panels are incorporated in the MHU-226/M munitions handling trailer design?
3
101
What is the maximum amount of bleed-air pressure that may be applied to the C-10 air conditioner?
45 psi
102
What is the lift capacity of aluminum rollers when installed on the MJ-1?
3,000 lbs
103
What two munitions may be used as the warhead for a GBU-15?
CBU-75 or an MK-84, 2,000 lb bomb
104
How accurate is the GBU-31?
Within 10 meters of the target
105
What is the meaning of the detonator safe?
The detonator must move into line with the striker or firing mechanism
106
When are the M904 and M905 delay elements inserted?
Just before installing the fuse
107
Why must the delay element be inserted prior to fuse installation?
Because the empty delay element cavity acts as an interrupted to the explosive train of the fuse during handling
108
What secured the aft cover to the stabilizer housing of the BSU-49 AIR bomb?
Two spring-loaded latch assemblies
109
Proximity fuses will produce airbursts at heights between?
20 and 125 feet above ground level
110
The height of burst built into the FMU-113/B fuse is about?
15 ft
111
How many detent settings does the timer of the LUU-2/B flare have?
8
112
What type of stores management system may or may not employ the use of a computer?
Hybrid type system
113
What is the purpose of the structure assembly of rail launchers?
Provides and attach point for the rail or track assemblies and houses the various components of the launchers
114
What is produced by a manual input to the bombing system during manual-computed weapons release?
Allows computed release pulses to be distributed to the various selected aircraft bombing system weapons stations
115
What provides for the control and monitoring of nuclear or conventional weapons in the B-1 aircraft?
Management subsystem
116
How many main rail assemblies can be installed in the deck of the MHU-110/M trailer?
6
117
What practice bomb has NO safety device?
BDU-48, 10-lb practice bomb
118
What must be removed from the M904 fuse to allow SECOND TO ARM settings below 6 seconds?
The stop set screw
119
The B83 bomb has two suspension lugs on the
Forward assembly
120
What must you do when changing the arming time settings on the M905 tail fuse?
Depress the timing lock
121
Which of these flares simulates the infrared energy produced by the A-10 aircrafts engines?
M-206
122
What is/are the purpose(s) of the rail or tracks on rail launchers?
Act as an aft support for the missile; they guide the missile at initial launch
123
What is used to safe the firing circuit of the LAU-132 launchers?
A shorting pin
124
In what type of release the proper weapons release time be calculated using previously input data?
Automatic and computed
125
Through what launcher component is voltage supplied to ignite the missile has grain generator?
Launcher power supply
126
During selective jettison, what circuits are normally disabled?
Mechanical fuzing
127
How do you normally begin fault isolation procedures?
By determining the type of problem, either mechanical or electrical, or a combination of two
