Cells and Microscopy Flashcards

1
Q

What functional adaptations does a sperm cell have?

A
  1. Acrosome at the front of the head which stores enzymes required to break down the cell membrane oof the egg cell
  2. Haploid nucleus to fuse with the egg cell
  3. long tail to efficiently swim to the egg
  4. lots of mitochondria to supply the energy needed to swim to the egg.
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2
Q

What functional adaptations does an egg cell have?

A
  1. extra nutrients in the cytoplasm to feed the embryo
  2. haploid nucleus to fuse with the sperm cell
  3. cell membrane which changes after fertilization
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3
Q

What is the main function of the sperm cell?

A

Transport male DNA to the female DNA in the egg.

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4
Q

What is the main function of the egg cell?

A

Carry female DNA and nourish the developing embryos in the early stages.

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5
Q

What does Haploid mean?

A

Half the number of chromosomes in the normal cell

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6
Q

What is the main function of a ciliated epithelial cell?

A

Move substances - the cilia beat to move the substances in one direction, along the surface of the tissue

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7
Q

What is the main function of epithelial cells?

A

line the surfaces of organs

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8
Q

How to prepare a microscope slide (light microscope)

A
  1. place a drop of water on slide
  2. place specimen into water drop
  3. Add a drop of iodine to stain for sub-cellular structures
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9
Q

How to observe an image through a light microscope

A
  1. Clip the slide into place
  2. Select the lowest magnification lens
  3. Use the course adjustment knob to move the stage just below the objective lens
  4. look down the eye piece and use the course adjustment to move the image into focus
  5. Adjust focus with fine adjustment knob
  6. change magnification lens if required and refocus.
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10
Q

Drawing the cell from a microscope image

A
  • Always use a sharp pencil with clear, unbroken lines.
  • Drawings should not include color or shade.
  • Subcellular structures should be drawn in proportion
  • Include a title of what is being drawn
  • Label the features using straight, uncrossed lines
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11
Q

If you know the power of your lenses, how do you calculate magnification?

A

Total magnification = eyepiece lens magnification x objective lens magnification

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12
Q

If you don’t know the power of your lenses, how do you calculate magnification?

A

magnification = image size / real size

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13
Q

What color is iodine in the presence of starch?

A

blue-black

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14
Q

What color is iodine without ht presence of starch?

A

orangey-brown

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15
Q

Equation for rate of reaction:

A

Rate (s-1) = 1000/time

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16
Q

What does a carbohydrase do?

A

Convert carbohydrates into simple sugars

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17
Q

Equation for change of reaction over time:

A

Rate = change/time

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18
Q

Give an example of a carbohydrase

A

Amylase

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19
Q

What does Amylase do?

A

Breaks down starch into maltose

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20
Q

What do protease enzymes do?

A

Protease enzymes catalyse the conversion of proteins into amino acids

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21
Q

What do lipases do?

A

Catalyse the conversation of lipids not glycerol and fatty acids

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22
Q

What does glycogen synthase do?

A

Joins together chains of glucose to make glycogen

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23
Q

How do you test for reducing sugars?

A

Benedicts test

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24
Q

What color changes would you observe using the Benedicts test?

A

Blue-is –> green –> yellow –> red

The higher the concentration of reducing sugar the further the color change goes (red = high)

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25
Q

How do you test for starch?

A

Iodine

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26
Q

How do you test for proteins?

A

biuret test

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27
Q

How does the biuret test work?

A
Add a few drops of copper(II) sulfate to an alkane solution (potassium hydroxide). 
The copper(II) sulfate solution is a bright blue
If the food sample contains protein the solution will change from blue to pink or purple. If no protein is present, the solution will stay bright  blue.
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28
Q

How do you test for lipids?

A

The emulsion test

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29
Q

How do you perform the emulsion test?

A

Add a food sample to 2cm^3 ethanol
Shake the tube for about 1 minute
pour the solution into another tube containing distilled water
If any lipids are present they will precipitate out of solution and appear like a milky emulsion.

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30
Q

What is calorimetry?

A

The test used to quantify the energy stored in food

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31
Q

How do you perform a calorimetry test?

A
  • Add the food on to the end of a skewer.
  • Add water to a boiling test tube held in place by a clamp
  • Set fire to the food and hold it underneath the tube
  • Repeatedly set fire to the food until it won’t catch light any more
  • measure the increase in temperature of the water in the tube
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32
Q

Formula for working out calorimetry test

A
  • energy in food (j) = mass of water (g) x temp change of water (^C) x 4.2.
  • energy per gram of food (J/g) = energy in food (J)/mass of food (g)
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33
Q

What is the specific heat capacity of water?

A

4.2

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34
Q

What does specific heat capacity mean?

A

The number of joules required to raise the temp of 1g of water by 1^C

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35
Q

1cm^3 is the same as how many grams?

A

1g

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36
Q

What is diffusion?

A

The spreading of particles from an area of high concentration to low concentration

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37
Q

Is diffusion passive or active transport?

A

Passive

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38
Q

How permeable are cell membranes?

A

Partially permeable

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39
Q

What is osmosis?

A

The net movement of water molecules across a partially permeable membrane from a region of high water concentration to low water concentration

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40
Q

Name two types of passive transport

A

Osmosis and diffusion

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41
Q

What is active transport?

A

When particles are moved up a concentration gradient using energy

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42
Q

Give an example of active transport

A

Digestive system:
Active transport allows nutrients to be taken into the blood from the gut, despite the fact that the concentration gradient is the wrong way.

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43
Q

What is a dependent variable?

A

The variable being tested

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44
Q

The independent variable

A

The variable that is changed or controlled

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45
Q

Equation for finding the % change

A

(Final mass - initial mass)
/ initial mass
X 100

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46
Q

What does isotonic mean?

A

When the concentration of fluids between an osmotic membrane is the same

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47
Q

What does diploid mean?

A

Two copies of chromosomes per cell

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48
Q

What are chromosomes?

A

Long lengths of DNA

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49
Q

What is mitosis?

A

When a cell reproduces itself by splitting in two to form two genetically identical offspring.

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50
Q

What is cytokinesis?

A

The division of the cytoplasm

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51
Q

What happens during interphase?

A

The cell grows and increases the number of sub cellular structures such as ribosomes, mitochondria etc.
DNA is duplicated so that there is one copy of each chromosome for each cell.

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52
Q

Each arm of a chromosome is called…

A

a Chromatid

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53
Q

Four stages of mitosis:

in order

A
  1. prophase
  2. metaphase
  3. anaphase
  4. telophase
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54
Q

What is the process of the cytoplasm dividing?

A

Cytokinesis

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55
Q

What happens in prophase?

A

The chromosomes condense, getting shorter and fatter.

The membrane around the nucleus breaks down and the chromosomes lie free in the cytoplasm.

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56
Q

What happens in Metaphase?

A

The chromosomes line up at the centre of the cell

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57
Q

What happens in Anaphase?

A

Spindle fibres pull the chromosomes apart.

The two chromatids are pull towards opposite ends of the cell.

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58
Q

What happens in telophase?

A

Membranes form around each of the sets of chromosomes. These become the nuclei of the two new cells - the nucleus has divided.

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59
Q

Uses for mitosis:

A
  1. For multicellular organisms to grow
  2. To replace cells that have been damaged
  3. By some organisms to reproduce by asexual reproduction
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60
Q

Which two processes do cells use to grow and develop?

A
  1. Cell division

2. Differentiation

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61
Q

What is cell differentiation?

A

The process by which a cell changes to become specialized for its job.

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62
Q

Why is differentiation necessary?

A

It allows multicellular organisms to work more efficiently because different cell types can carry out different functions

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63
Q

Plant cells have an additional property they use to grow, what is it?

A

Cell elongation.

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64
Q

All growth in animals happens by which process?

A

Cell division

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65
Q

Which process do plant cells use to grow?

A

Cell division and cell elongation

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66
Q

Describe growth in plants

A

In plants, growth in height is mostly due to cell elongation.
Cell division happens at the tips of the roots and shoots, in areas called meristems.
Plants and trees use differentiation to to develop new branches with leaves, or roots.

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67
Q

What is a tumor?

A

A mass of abnormal cells

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68
Q

What is a stem cell?

A

An undifferentiated cell

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69
Q

Where would you find a stem cell in an adult human?

A

Bone marrow

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70
Q

Give an example of a disease which might be treated with a bone marrow transplant

A

sickle cell anaemia

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71
Q

What are the considerations for using stem cells in medicine? (4)

A
  1. tumor development - stem cells divide quickly, if this can’t be controlled cancer could form
  2. Disease transmission - viruses live inside cells and this could be transmitted from donor to recipient
  3. Rejection - If the transplanted cells aren’t grown using the patient’s own stem cells, the patient’s body may recognize them as foreign and trigger the immune system to fight and kill them. Drugs are available to suppress the immune response but this then makes the patient susceptible to other diseases
  4. Ethics of using stem cells - Because they are cells from fertilized embryos, campaigners think that stem cells are unethical since each one is a potential human life.
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72
Q

In plants, where do you find undifferentiated diving cells?

A

Meristems

This found in the regions of the plants which are used fro growing… i.e. the tips of the roots and shoots.

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73
Q

What are sensory receptors?

A

A group of cells that detect stimuli and initiate responses to them. Different receptors detect different stimuli.

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74
Q

Examples of sensory receptors

A
  • in the eye to detect light

- in the skin to detect touch, tissue damage to temperature change

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75
Q

Where is all the sensory information sent?

A

the Central Nervous System (CNS)

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76
Q

What is the purpose of the CNS?

A

Where information from the sensory receptors is sent and where reflexes and action are are coordinated

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77
Q

What comprises the CNS?

A

in vertebrates, the Brain and spine

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78
Q

Three types of neurons?

A
  1. sensory
  2. motor
  3. Relay
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79
Q

What is an effector?

A

Instructions are sent from the CNS, along the neurons and to the effectors. Effectors are muscles or glands which respond to the information to bring about a response, e.g. movement or release of hormone.

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80
Q

What does a Sensory neuron do?

A

Carry information as electrical impulses from the sensory receptor to the CNS

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81
Q

What does a motor neuron do?

A

Carries electrical impulses from the CNS to the effector

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82
Q

What does a Relay neuron do?

A

Carries electrical impulses from the sensory neurons to the motor neurons.
They are found in the CNS.

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83
Q

From stimulus to effector, what is the order in which each type of neuron is used?

A
  1. Sensory (Sensory to relay in CNS)
  2. Relay (found in CNS, receives info from sensory neurons and relays it back to motor neurons)
  3. motor neurons (receives info from relay neurons in the CNS and carries it to the effectors)
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84
Q

What functional specific structure does a neuronal cell have?

A

dendrites and deuterons carry nerve impulses towards the cell body
axons carry nerve impulses away from the cell body
Some axons are surrounded by myelin sheath

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85
Q

What is myelin sheath?

A

A fatty layer that acts as an electrical insulator, speeding up the electrical impulse
Can be found surrounding some axons

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86
Q

Structure of a sensory neuron

A

One long dendron that carries nerve impulses from the receptor cells and to the cell body, which is located in the middle of the neuron.
One short axon carries nerve impulses from the cell body to the CNS

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87
Q

Structure of a motor neuron

A

Many short dendrites which carry nerve impulses from the CNS to the cell body
One long axon carries nerve impulses from the cell body to effector cells

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88
Q

Structure of a relay neuron

A

Many short dendrites which carry nerve impulses from sensory neurons to the cell body
One axon which carries nerve impulses from the cell body to morrow neurons.

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89
Q

What is the connection between two neurons called?

A

Synapse

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90
Q

What is a synapse?

A

the connection between two neurons

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91
Q

How is the nerve signal transmitted between two neurons?

A

Via neurotransmitters

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92
Q

How do neurotransmitters move across the synapse?

A

diffusion

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93
Q

What is a reflex?

A

Fast automatic responses which bypass the conscious brain when a quick response is essential.

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94
Q

What is the passage of information in a reflex called?

A

Reflex arc

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95
Q

The Reflex arc stages are:

A
  1. stimulus detects by receptors and impluses are sent along a sensory neuron a relay neuron in the CNS
  2. The impulse sent down the sensory neuron towards the relay neuron and neurotransmitters are released at the synapse. The impulse is then sent along the relay neuron.
  3. When the impulse reaches the synapse between the relay neuron and the motor neuron, neurotransmitters are released towards the motor neuron. this cause impulses to be sent down the motor neuron.
  4. impulses ent down the motor neuron to effector (usually a muscle)
  5. if the effector is a muscle, it will respond to the impulse by contracting. Or if it’s a gland, it’ll secrete a hormone.
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96
Q

Regions of the brain

A
  1. cerebrum (divides into two halves)
  2. Cerebellum
  3. medulla oblongata
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97
Q

What does the cerebrum do?

A

The large part of the brain
split into two hemispheres - left and right.
The right side controls muscles no the left side of the body and vice versa.
Involved in control f movement, intelligence, memory, language and vision.

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98
Q

Where do you find the cerebellum and what does do?

A

Found at the back of the brain

Responsible for muscle coordination and balance.

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99
Q

Where do you find the medulla oblongata and what does it do?

A

Found at the base of the brain, at the top of the spinal chord
It control unconscious activities like breathing and your heart rate

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100
Q

Types of scanners used for imaging the brain

A
  1. CT

2. PET

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101
Q

How does a CT scanner work and what will it show?

A

Uses X-rays to produce and image of the brain

Can show the main structures of the brain, but doesn’t show their functions

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102
Q

How does a PET scan work and what is it good at identifying?

A

A radioactive chemical (called a “tracer”) is injected into the patient. The radioactive chemical moves round the body and collects in different places, including the brain. More active cells take up more tracer than less active cells. The patient then lies in the PET scanner and an image can be created based on which cells are active and which aren’t.
PET scanners can create very detailed images to investigate the function and structure of the brain.
Usually used to identify which areas of the brain are active or inactive when investigating disorders that change the brains activity.

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103
Q

Why is it difficult to treat nervous system?

A
  • It’s hard to repair damage too the nervous system - these cells don’t repair themselves and scientists haven’t work out how to do it outside of the body either.
  • It’s difficult to access the nervous system, and some regions is impossible to reach without causes permanent damage.
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104
Q

Structure of the eye:

A
  1. Cornea
  2. Lens
  3. Pupil
  4. Irs
  5. Retina
  6. Ciliary muscles and suspensory ligaments
  7. Optic Nerve
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105
Q

What is the cornea and what does it do?

A
  • The transparent outer layer found at the front of the eye

- Refracts light

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106
Q

What does the lens do and where do you find it?

A
  • Refracts light, focussing it onto the retina

- Found behind the pupil

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107
Q

What does the pupil do?

A

hole at the centre of the eye that light enters through.

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108
Q

What is the iris and what does it do?

A

Contains muscles that allow it to control the diameter of the pupil and therefore how much light enters the eye

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109
Q

What is the retina and what does it do?

A

the layer at the back of the eye that contains two types of light receptor cells - rods and cones.
Rods are sensitive to light intensity and cones are sensitive to color.

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110
Q

What do the Ciliary muscles and suspensory ligaments doo?

A

control the shape of the lens

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111
Q

What does the optic nerve do?

A

The information from light is converted into electrical impulses by the rods and cones on the retina. The optic nerve carries impulse from these receptors to the brain. It’s a sensory neuron.

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112
Q

When referring to the eye, what is meant by accommodation?

A

When the eye focuses light on the retina by changing the shape of the elastic lens.
This is reflex used when observing the near or far.

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113
Q

What is the process of focussing on the near object?

A
  1. ciliary muscles contract
  2. lens becomes more rounded
    This increases the amount by which it refracts light.
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114
Q

What is the process of focussing on the distant object?

A
  1. Ciliary muscles relax, this allows the suspensory ligaments to contract
  2. the lens is pulled into to a less rounded, thinner shape
    Less refraction of light
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115
Q

What happens to the eye when an individual is long-sighted?

A

The lens is the wrong shape and doesn’t refract light enough, or the eyeball is too short.
This can be remedies with convex glasses

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116
Q

What happens to the eye when an individual is short-sighted?

A

The lens is the wrong shape and refracts the light too much or the eye ball is too long.
Images of the object are brought into focus in front of the retina
This can be remedied using concave glasses or contact lenses

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117
Q

Whats the most comment type of color-blindness?

A

Red-green

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118
Q

What causes color blindness?

A

When the color cones in the retina are not working properly

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119
Q

What is a cataract?

A

A cloudy patch on the lens which stops light from being able yo enter the eye normally

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120
Q

What is the implication of a cataract for the individual?

A

blurred vision, less vivid color detection and difficulty seeing in bright light
It can be treated surgically by replacing the faulty lens with an artificial one.

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121
Q

What is sexual reproduction?

A

Where genetic information from two organisms is combined to produce offspring which are genetically different to either parent.
-involves gamates

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122
Q

What are gametes?

A
  • Reproductive cells, i..e. sperm cells or egg cells.

- Haploid

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123
Q

In flowering plants which is the male and females gametes?

A

male gametes are the pollen, while female is the ovules

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124
Q

What is a zygote

A

the combined male and female gametes

-e.g. the fertilized egg.

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125
Q

What is meiosis?

A

A type fo cell division but its different from mitosis because:

  • it doesn’t produce identical cells
  • it produces cells with half the number of chromosomes
  • only takes place in the reproductive organs
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126
Q

Cell division by meiosis:

A
  1. Before the cell starts to divide, it duplicates its genetic information, forming two armed chromosomes - one arm is an exact replica of the other. After replication, the chromosomes arrange themselves into pairs.
  2. In the first division in meiosis, the chromosome pairs line up in the center of the cell.
  3. The pairs are then pulled apart so that each new cell only has one copy
  4. Second division - Chromosomes line up in the centre of the cell and the arms of the chromosomes are pulled apart.
  5. There are four haploid daughter cells - gamete cells.. There is only a single set of chromosomes in each and they are all genetically different from one another.
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127
Q

Advantages of asexual reproduction

A
  1. Can produce lots of offspring quickly

2. Organisms can reproduce whenever conditions are favorable, without having to wait for a mate.

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128
Q

Examples of asexual reproduction:

A

Dandelion plants
Sea Sparkle
Banana plants

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129
Q

Disadvantages of asexual reproduction

A

No genetic variation between offspring so if the environment changes and the conditions become unfavorable, the whole population will die out.

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130
Q

Advantages of sexual reproduction

A

Have a mixture of two sets of chromosomes creating genetic variation
Variation increases the changes of a species surviving changing environments because they have a survival advantage.

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131
Q

Disadvantages of sexual reproduction

A

Organisms need to find a mate to reproduce with, this means that it takes more times and energy.
Fewer offspring will be produced in a life span.

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132
Q

What is DNA

A

A polymer of nucleotides put together in a long chain

-found in the nucleus of eukaryotes

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133
Q

What is a chromosome

A

two strands of DNA twisted together in a double helix

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134
Q

What is a gene?

A

A small section of DNA

-It codes for a particular sequence of amino acids which are added together to make a protein

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135
Q

What is the genome?

A

The whole of an organisms DNA

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136
Q

What makes a nucleotide?

A

Base, sugar backbone and phosphate group

  • The base is always attached to the sugar
  • sugar always attached to the phosphate
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137
Q

What is the sugar-phosphate backbone?

A

Sugar and phosphate group

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138
Q

Which pairs always link together?

A

A –> T
G –> C
-and vice versa
-linked together with weak hydrogen bonds

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139
Q

How would you extract DNA from fruit?

A
  1. Mix fruit with detergent and salt
    - Detergents breaks down the the cell membrane to release DNA
    - Salt makes DNA stick together
  2. filter the mixture t get the insoluble bits out
  3. gently add ice-cold ethanol to the filtered mixture
  4. DNA will precipitate out of solution because it is not soluble in cold alcohol. - should appear as white, sticky mass.
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140
Q

Proteins are

A

polymers of amino acids

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141
Q

What is the base triplet?

A

The three DNA bases that code for an amino acid

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142
Q

What is a triplet code?

A

A code based on base triplets

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143
Q

What does non-coding mean

A

The region doesn’t code for amino acids

They control whether a gene is expressed.

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144
Q

What is a genetic mutation or variant?

A

A random change to a base in the DNA sequence

-This may or may not result in a changed amino acid

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145
Q

What are the two stages of protein synthesis?

A

Transcription (nucleus) and translation (cytoplasm)

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146
Q

What are ribosome?

A

Involved in joining amino acids together during translation

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147
Q

What is transcription?

A

When DNA is copied into single stranded mRNA to be transported from the nucleus to the ribosome in the cytoplasm. - completed by RNA polymerase.

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148
Q

How does transcription work?

A
  1. RNA polymerase binds to the region of non-coding DNA in front of the gene.
  2. The two DNA strands unzip and the RNA polymerase moves along one of the strands of DNA, producing an mRNA molecule that complements the sequence of the gene.Base pairing between the DNA and RNA ensures the mRNA is complementary to the gene.
  3. The mRNA molecular moves out of the nucleus and joins up with a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
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149
Q

How does transcription work?

A
  1. mRNA is bound to the ribosome
  2. The amino acids are brought to the ribosome by another molecule called tRNA
  3. Amino acids are joined in a sequence the directly matches the sequence of the mRNA codons.
  4. When anti-codon of the tRNA matches the codon of the mRNA, the ribosome joins the amino acids in a polypeptide chain. The empty tRNA then moves away again.
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150
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

An organisms characteristics

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151
Q

How do mutations in non-coding regions effect proteins?

A

Chaning of the regulatory regions and how proteins such as RNA polymerase bind. Implications of having too much or too little mRNA, and therefore protein, is produced.

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152
Q

What is an allele?

A

Genes that are on different chromosomes

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153
Q

What does heterozygous mean?

A

Alleles are different

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154
Q

What does homozygous mean?

A

The alleles code the same.

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155
Q

What is the dominant allele?

A

The allele whose traits are shown phenotypically

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156
Q

What is the recessive allele?

A

The allele whose traits are not shown phenotypically

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157
Q

What is genotype?

A

The combination of alleles you have.

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158
Q

What is a monohybrid cross?

A

Genetically crossing two parents to look at just one characteristic

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159
Q

Sex chromosomes of men

A

XY

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160
Q

Sex chromosomes oof women

A

XX

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161
Q

Which sex chromosomes do Sperm carry?

A

either X or Y

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162
Q

Which sex chromosomes so eggs carry?

A

X

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163
Q

What determines the sex of an embryo?

A

Whether it carries an X or a Y chromosome

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164
Q

What are the two types of variation?

A

Genetic variation

Environmental variation

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165
Q

Which is the recessive blood-type allele?

A

blood type O

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166
Q

Environmental variation is also known as acquired characteristics, what does it mean?

A

Characteristics that an organism acquires during their lifespan.

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167
Q

What is evolution?

A

The slow and continuous change if an organisms’ inherited characteristics from one generation to the next.

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168
Q

What is Natural Selection?

A

When variation in alleles causes a selective advantage over different selection pressures, those variation with advances will survive, those without will die out.

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169
Q

Evidence for evolution can be found in…

A

Antibiotic resistance

Fossils

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170
Q

Human beings and our evolutionary ancestors are known as…

A

hominids

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171
Q

In human evolution, who is Ardi?

A

A hominid fossil of the species Ardipithecus ramidus

She was found in Ethiopia and is 4.4 million years old.

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172
Q

What about Ardi’s features suggest she is a mixture of human and ape?

A
  • The structure of her feet suggests she climbed tortes - an ape-like big toe two grasp branches
  • Long arms and Short legs
  • Brain was about the same size as a chimpanzee
  • The structure of her legs suggests she walked upright.
  • Bone structure in her hands suggests she didn’t use her hand to help her walk
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173
Q

What is cranial capacity?

A

It’s the space taken up by the brain in the skull, thoughts to be the brain size.

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174
Q

In human evolution, who is Lucy?

A

A hominid fossil of the species Australopithecus afarensis. She was found in Ethiopia and is thought to be 3.2 million years old.
She is more human-like that Ardi

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175
Q

What about Lucy’s features make her more human-like than Ardi?

A
  • Arched feet, more adapted to walking than climbing, and no ape-like big toe
  • The size of her arms and legs was in the middle of the expected size for apes and humans
  • Her brain was larger than Ardi’s but still smaller in size to a chimp’s brain.
  • Structure of her leg and feet bones suggest she walked upright, more efficiently than Ardi.
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176
Q

Who is Turkana Boy?

A

A 1.6 million year old fossil found in Kenya
From species Homo Erectus
More human-like than Lucy

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177
Q

Features Turkana boy?

A

Shortt arms and long legs are much more human than an ape
Brain was much larger than Lucy’s - similar to human size
Structure of his legs and feet suggests he was even better adapted tot walking upright than Lucy.

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178
Q

Fossils by age, starting with the oldest -

A

Ardi
Lucy
Turkana boy

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179
Q

How can you use the development of tools as evidence of human evolution?

A

They started using stone tools and these gradually became more complex, so their brains must have been getting larger.

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180
Q

Who are homo Habilis and whaat tools did they use?

A

Lived between 2.5-1.5 million years ago
They made simple stone tools called pebble tools by hitting rocks together to make sharp flakes. These could be used to scrape meat from bones or crack bones open

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181
Q

Who are Homo Erectus and what tools did they use?

A

Lived between 2 - 0.3 million years ago
Sculpted rocks into shapes to produce more complex tools like simple hand-axes. These could be used to hunt, dig, shop and scrape meant from bones.

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182
Q

Who are homo neanderthalensis an what tools did they use?

A

Lived beween 300,000 and 25,000 years ago

They made complex tools. There is evidence that they used flint tools, with sharp, pointed edges and wooden spears.

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183
Q

Who are Homo sapiens and what tools did they use?

A

Modern humans
The first h.sapien appears about 200,000 years ago,
By this point the flint tools were widely used. More complex pointed tools, including fish hooks, needles and arrowheads appeared around 50,000 years ago

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184
Q

How are tools dated?

A
  • Looking at the structural features of the tool or fossil
  • Using stratigraphy - the study of rock layers
  • Carbon dating
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185
Q

Whaat is the pentadactyl limb?

A

A limb with 5 digits

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186
Q

How does the pentadactyl limb provide evidence for evolution?

A

The similarity in bone structure

If they’d all evolved from different ancestors, it’d be highly unlikely that they’d share bone structure.

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187
Q

What are the five kingdoms oof the “Five Kingdom Classification”?

A
  1. Animals
  2. Plants
  3. Fungi
  4. Prokaryotes
  5. Protists
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188
Q

What order are organisms classfied?

A
Kingdom
Phylum
Class
Order
Family
Genus
Species
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189
Q

What is selective breeding? (AKA artificial selection)

A

When humans pick particular plants or animals with (or without) specific traits so that those characteristics stay in (or out) of the population

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190
Q

Examples for uses of selective breeding

A

Animals that produce more milk or meat
Crops with disease resistance
Dogs that are gentle
Plans that produce bigger fruit

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191
Q

Process of selective breeding

A
  1. Select individuals (M&F) with desired trait
  2. Breed them with each other
  3. Select the best offspring and breed those together
  4. Continue two breed and select for desirable trait
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192
Q

Disadvantages of selective breeding

A

Reducing the gene pool which could result in poor health or disease susceptibility

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193
Q

What is tissue culture?

A

When cells are cultured outside of their natural place.

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194
Q

What is genetic engineering?

A

To transfer a gene from one organisms genome into another

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195
Q

What is GMO?

A

Genetically modified organism

An organism which has had a gene genetically engineered inside.

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196
Q

Examples of genetic engineering…

A

Bacteria can be engineered tooo produce insulin that can be used to treat diabetes
Crops for improving size or durability to drout
Cows oor sheep to produce useful human proteins in their milk which can be used to treat arthritis, multiple sclerosis etc.

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197
Q

How does genetic engineering work?

A
  • DNA is cut with a restriction enzyme. Each RE recognizes a specific palindromic DNA sequence and can cut the DNA only at these spots. The cutting leaves a “sticky end”.
  • Vector is cut open using the same restriction enzyme
  • The vector and insert with the matching “sticky ends” are incubated with ligases and join up to produce recombinant DNA
  • The recombinant DNA can be put into new cells and the cells can express the protein which the plasmid codes for.
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198
Q

Benefits for genetic engineering

A

Herbicide resistant crops
Insulin in bacteria for treatment of diabetes
Can increase a crop yield
- Resistant to pests
- Survive in drought
To produce certain nutrients which could help combat deficiencies in developing countries
- E.g. Vitamin A - golden rice

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199
Q

Disadvantages for genetic engineering

A

Ethical concerns- embryos don’t always survive
Horizontal transfer of resistant genes in plants - i.e. weeds could become herbicide resistant
GM crops may adversely effect e food chain or human health

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200
Q

Why use GM crops?

A

For “food security”

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201
Q

Disadvantages for GM crops as a response to food security

A

People argue that others go hungry because they can’t afford food, not because there isn’t any so poverty is the main issue, not food scarcity
Fear that countries may become dependent on companies selling GM seeds
Sometimes the problem is poor soil which can’t be fixed with current GM
Concern for long term effects on human health of exposure to GM crops.

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202
Q

What is a Bt crop?

A

Bacillus thuringiensis
A type oof bacterium that produces a toxin which is harmful to the larvae of insects that kill crops.
The gene for Bt can be inserted to the crop and expressed in their leaves and stem to protect from insect invasion.
Bt toxin is harmless to humans, animals and other insects.

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203
Q

Benefits of Bt crop

A

Increase crop yield

Reduce the needs for chemical pesticides which are harmful to the environment

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204
Q

Disadvantages of Bt crop

A

The insects are frequently exposed to the toxin so there is a chance they will become resistant to it.
- Farmers try to overcome this by using other insecticides too.

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205
Q

Other GM methods for increasing food production - Fertilizer - what is it?
Advantages and disadvantages

A

Helps to alleviate issues with bad soil. It contains minerals essential for plant growth, e.g. nitrates and phosphates
However, excess fertilizer can cause eutrophication in the surrounding water sources

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206
Q

What is eutrophication?

A

An excess of nutrients in the water which leads to algal blooms and the death of aquatic organisms

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207
Q

Other GM methods for increasing food production - Biological control - what is it?
e.g.s in agriculture around the qworld
Advantages and disadvantages

A

Use of other predator or parasite organisms to eliminate pests
e.g. Cane toad (native to South and Central America, and Southern USA) were introduced into Australia trot eat beetles that were damaging sugarcane crops
This can have longer lasting effects than chemical pesticides and be less harmful to wildlife in the Shortt-term. However, introducing new wildlife to a region can cause problems. e.g. Can toads are now pests themselves in Australia because they poison the native predator species that eat them.

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208
Q

What is a disease?

A

A condition where part of an organism doesn’t function properly.

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209
Q

WHO definition for health:

A

Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being, and more merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

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210
Q

Two types of diseases:

A

Communicable and non-communicable

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211
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

Those that can spread between individuals
Caused by things like bacteria, viruses, parasites and fungi. They’re sometimes described as contagious or infectious diseases.

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212
Q

What is a non-communicable disease?

A

One that can’t spread between individuals
Generally last a long time.
e.g. Asthma, cancer and coronary heart disease are examples of non-communicable diseases.

213
Q

Can hosting a disease make you more susceptible to another>

A

yes.

Because your body may become weakened by the disease so it’s less able to fight off others.

214
Q

Types of communicable disease:

A
  1. Pathogens
215
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Organisms that cause disease
Both plants and animals can be infected by pathogens
There are several types of pathogens including: Bacteria, viruses, protists and fungi.

216
Q

What is Bacteria?

A

Very small cells which can reproduce rapidly inside your body.
They can produce toxins that damage cells and tissue which make you unwell.
e.g. Helicobacter pylori - cause stomach ulcers

217
Q

What are viruses?

A

Not cells
They reproduce rapidly inside the body
Live inside our own cells and replicate using machinery to produce copies of themselves. The cell often them bursts releasing all the new virus. The cell damage is what makes us feel ill.
e.g. HIV - the virus infects and destroys cells that normally help to defend the body against disease.

218
Q

What are protists?

A

A eukaryotic, single-celled organism.
Some protists are parasites.
Parasites live on or inside other organisms and can cause them damage
Transferred to the organism via vector, which doesn’t get the disease itself.
e.g. Malaria is caused by a protist that lives inside the mosquito.

219
Q

What is fungi?

A

Some are single celled. Others have a Boyd made mum of hyphae.
These hyphae can grow and penetrate human skin and the surface of plants, causing disease. The hyphae can produce spores, which can be spread to other plants and animals.

220
Q

How do pathogens spread?

A
  1. drinking or bathing is dirty water
  2. Airborne
  3. consuming contaminated water or food
  4. Infected bodily fluids
  5. carried and transmitted through animal vectors
221
Q

Examples of bacterial disease

A
  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Cholera
  3. Stomach Ulcers
222
Q

What is tuberculosis, how does it spread and how can spread be reduced?

A

TB arises from exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Signs and Symptoms = coughing and lung damage.
It is airborne. Spreads through the air in droplets when infected individuals cough and sneeze.
To avoid spread:
1. infected individuals should avoid crowded spaces and sleep alone.
2. Infected individuals (and others for precaution) should practice good hygiene.
3. stay in well ventilated spaces to avoid transmitting to those around.

223
Q

What is cholera, how does it spread and how can it be reduced?

A

Cholera is a disease spread by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae
Signs and symptoms = diarrhoea that lasts a few days leading to severe dehydration and further complications including death.
It spread through contaminated water sources which is shy it is prevalent in developing countries, where clear water is not widely available.
Can be reduced by providing access to clean water.

224
Q

What are stomach ulcers, how does it spread and how can it be reduced?

A

Caused by the bacterium, Helicobacter pylori
Causes inflammation of the stomach lining, which can lead to the lining booming damaged. This, in turn, allows stomach acid to penetrate the lining, creating a hole that exposes the tissue underneath.
Symptoms include stomach pain, nausea and vomiting.
Spreads through oral transmission, so ensuring a clean water supply and clean living conditions.

225
Q

What is Ebola, how it it transmitted and how can it be reduced.

A

A virus that is spread through bodily fluids of an infected individual.
Causes hemorrhagic fever - a fever where you bleed internally from your eyes, nose or mouth.
The spread can be reduced by isolating infected individuals and sterilizing any areas where the virus may be present. And ensuring medical staff wash their hands regularly and wear protective clothing.

226
Q

Name two types of viral disease

A
  1. Ebola

2. HIV

227
Q

Name two types of disease caused by fungi and protists

A
  1. Chalara ash dieback

2. Malaria

228
Q

What is Chalara ash dieback, how is it transmitted and how is it reduced?

A

A fungal disease
It infects ash trees, with symptoms including loss of leaves and bark lesions. In most cases it leads to death of the tree either directly or because it cannot defend itself from other diseases.
It is transmitted through the air. The fungus is carried through the air by the wind, and also by moving infected trees to other locations.
To slow the spread:
1. Removing young infected trees and replacing with a different species off tree.
2. restricting the movement of Ash trees

229
Q

What is malaria, how does it spread and how can it be stopped?

A

Caused by a protist
Part of the protists life cycle takes place inside the mosquito.
The mosquitos are vectors - They pick up the protist when it feeds on an animal and then infects other animals as it feeds on another by inserting it into the animals blood vessels.
Causes repeating episodes of fever. It can be fatal. Causes damage to the red blood cells and the liver.
Can limit the spread by 1. stopping mosquitos from breeding. 2. protection from mosquito bites.

230
Q

What is Chlamydia, how is it transmitted and how can it be limited?

A

Chlamydia is caused by the spread of the bacterium, chlamydia.
It behaves similarly to a virus in that it can only replicate inside a host cell.
No symptoms but it can result in infertility
Can be limited by wearing a condom or avoiding sexual contact.

231
Q

What is HIV, how is it transmitted and how can it be limited?

A

HIV is the Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
It attacks white blood cells, which are a key part of the body’s immune response.
Following infection, some people experience flu-like symptoms, whereas others may not experience any symptoms at all.
Usually the person doesn’t experience any symptoms at all for several years. During this time the spread in the body can be controlled using antiretroviral drugs to stop the virus replicating in the body.
By exchanging certain infected bodily fluids. Most commonly, through sexual contact or sharing needles.
Can be limited by wearing a condom, not sharing needles or medication to reduce the risk of infected individuals passing it on.

232
Q

What is a virus?

A

A strand of DN surrounding a protein “coat”

233
Q

Name the two pathways that a virus can reproduce through.

A
  1. The lytic pathway

2. The Lysogenic pathway

234
Q

Describe the Lytic Pathway of the virus life cycle

A
  1. The virus attaches itself to a specific host cell and injects its genetic material into the cell
  2. The virus then uses proteins and enzymes in the host cell to replicate its genetic material and produce the components of new viruses.
  3. Once it’s all been replicated it reassembles ro form new viruses
  4. The host cell splits open, releasing the new viruses which can then go on and infect more cells.
235
Q

Describe the Lysogenic Pathway of the virus life cycle

A
  1. The virus attaches itself to a specific host cell and injects its genetic material into the cell.
  2. The genetic material injected by the virus is incorporated into the genome of the host cell.
  3. The viral genetic material gets replicated along with the host DNA every time the host cell divides. At this point, the virus is dormant and no new viruses are made.
  4. Eventually a trigger, e.g. presence of a chemical causes the viral genetic material to leave the genome and enter the lytic pathway.
236
Q

What are he physical defenses of plants against pests and pathogens?

A
  1. Most plant leaves and stems have a waxy cuticle, which provides a barrier to stop pathogens entering or pests from damaging them. The barrier also stops water collecting on them which reduces the risk of transfer of pathogens in water.
  2. The cell walls of plant cells are made from cellulose. Another physical barrier of the plant to pathogens that make it past the waxy cuticle.
237
Q

What are the chemical defenses of plans against pests and pathogens?

A
  • Antiseptics can kill bacteria and fungal pathogens.
    e. g. spearmint plants produce an oil that acts as a natural fungicide
  • Other plants produce poisons which can deter pests from feeding on their leaves.
    e. g. nicotine produced by tobacco plants is an insecticide
238
Q

How do you detect plant diseases in the field?

A

Usually detected by observation

Plant pathologists usually examine plants and recognize symptoms of disease

239
Q

What can distribution of disease tell you about the cause of disease?

A

Patches of disease might indicate spread through the soil, but random distribution would suggest an airborne pathogen.

240
Q

How do you detect plant disease in the lab?

A
  1. Antigens from a particular pathogen will be found in a plant infected with that pathogen and can be detected using monoclonal antibodies.
    The detection of an antigen unique to a particular pathogen allows that pathogen to be identified and the disease diagnosed.
  2. If the plant is infected, the pathogens DNA will be present in the plant’s tissue.
241
Q

What are the the types of barriers to pathogens in the human body?

A
  1. Physical

2. Chemical

242
Q

Examples of physical barriers…

A
  • The skin
  • Hair and mucous in the nose
  • mucous in the trachea and bronchi
  • Cilia of the trachea and bronchi
243
Q

Examples of chemical barriers

A
  • HCl in the stomach

- Lysozymes to kill bacteria

244
Q

What cells make up the immune system?

A

White blood cells

245
Q

How do white blood cells kill pathogens?

A
  1. consume them - phagocytosis
  2. producing antibodies - b-lymphocytes
    3.
246
Q

How does the anti-body producing b-lymphocyte attach pathogens?

A

It produced antibodies which recognize antigens that are present on the pathogen. These antibodies are then secreted from the lymphocyte and blind to the pathogen.so that they can be targeted by other white blood cells.

247
Q

Which type of white blood cell produces antibodies?

A

B-lymphocytes

248
Q

What is a memory lymphocyte?

A

Lymphocytes that remember specific antigens

249
Q

How does an immunization work?

A

Usually involves being injected with a vaccine which contains a small amount of dead or inactive virus.
However, because the virus still contains the antigen, the immune system is still activated and lymphocytes produce antibodies against it.
This also triggers the production of memory lymphocytes to protect against a second infection.

250
Q

Example of immunisation

A

MMR vaccine: Contains small amounts of weakened virus

251
Q

Pros of immunization:

A

Helps to control spread of virus and sometimes eliminate it altogether.
Prevention of outbreaks… epidemics and pandemics

252
Q

What is herd immunity

A

When a significant proportion of the population have been immunized against a specific pathogen, fewer people are likely to catch it and, in turn, pass it on.

253
Q

Coons of immunisation

A

They don’t always work

Can have a bad reaction

254
Q

How do you make a monoclonal antibody?

A

They are produced from clones of a single B-lymphcyte.

255
Q

What is a hybridoma?

A

The fusion of a mouse B-lymphocyte with a myeloma cell

- These cells can be cloned to make lots of identical cells.

256
Q

Uses for monoclonal antibodies

A
  • Pregnancy tests - HCG hormone
  • Diagnosing and treating cancer
  • finding blood clots
257
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used in the diagnosis of cancer?

A
  1. monoclonal antibodies are labelled with a radioactive element and administered to the patient via a drip.
  2. The monoclonal antibodies are then delivered throughout the body and bind to any tumor cells they come in to contact with.
  3. a picture that detects radioactivity is taken and the tumor cells light up. It can be used to show where the cancer is, how big it is and how fast it is spreading.
258
Q

How are monoclonal antibodies used in the treatment of cancer?

A
  1. They can be attached to anticancer drugs and delivered to the patient via drip.
  2. The antibodies bind to specific cells because they only blind to specific tumor markers. The drugs kills cancer cells but not normal cells.
259
Q

How do monoclonal antibodies find blood clots?

A
  1. attach radioactive element to monoclonal antibody targeting blood clotting proteins
  2. inject the monoclonal antibody and take a picture with a radiooactive sensitive camera. - clot with light up bright.
260
Q

What are the three stages of drug testing?

A
  1. pre-clinical on human cells and tissues
  2. pre-clinical on animals
  3. clinical on human volunteers
261
Q

Explain pre-clinical testing on human cells and tissue

A

Useful to know if it works, but it does’t tell you how the drug will effect a whole body or multiple systems.

262
Q

Explain pre-clinical testing online animals

A

This tests the efficacy, how toxic the drug is, and best dosage

263
Q

Explain clinical testing

A

Only if the test passes use on live animals can it be administered into human volunteers.
This stage ensures there are no adverse side-effects on a normal human body. The dosage starts low and is gradually increased over time.
If healthy human volunteers do not suffer any side-effects it can be used on patients.

264
Q

How do you calculate the optimum dose?

A

The most significant therapeutic effect with the least side-effects.

265
Q

What is a placebo?

A

A substance that looks like the drug that is being tested but doesn’t do anything, e.g. a sugar pill.
It allows the data to not be screwed according to patients thinking they feel better because of their treatment.

266
Q

What does a “blind” clinical trial mean?

A

The patient in the study doesn’t know whether they are getting the real drug or the placebo.

267
Q

What does a “double blind” clinical trial mean?

A

Neither the doctor administering, nor the patient know which condition they’ll be receiving: drug or placebo.

268
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

Drug that kill bacteria
Work by inhibiting functions inside a bacterial cell without harming humans
Don’t destroy viruses

269
Q

How does penicillin work?

A

Inhibits the building of the bacterial cell wall so that it can’t divide

270
Q

Difference between antibiotics and antiseptics

A
  1. Antiseptics kill bacteria outside your body, antibiotics kills bacteria inside your body
271
Q

How do you test antibiotic resistance on an agar plate?

A

Place small paper disks soaked in antibiotic onto san agar plate and then spread the bacteria.
Bacteria will grow where it is able, i.e. if it is resistant to a type of Antibiotic then the bacteria will grow near it, but it if it isn’t resistent there will be holes where it can’t grow. This is called the inhibition zone
- Include a control disk

272
Q

Examples of aseptic techniques to culture bacteria

A
  1. Petri dish and growth medium should be sterile
    - This can be done via autoclave
  2. sterilize the innoculating loop over a flame
  3. Liquid cultures should be kept in a sterile vile with a lid and this lid should only be removed when using it.
  4. petri dishes should be stored upside down to avoid condensation dripping on it.
273
Q

What can the inhibition zone tell you about an antibiotic?

A

The larger the inhibition Zone, the more effective the antibiotic.
- Area = pi x r^2

274
Q

What is a non-communicable disease risk factor?

A

Something that increases the likelihood of disease

275
Q

Examples of lifestyle related risk factors:

A

Smoking
Drinking alcohol
Diet
Low levels of exercise

276
Q

Diseases associated with smoking…

A

Cardiovascular disease
Cancer
Emphysema
Bronchitis

277
Q

What is cardiovascular disease?

A

Any disease associated with the heart of vasculature. e.g. heart attack or stroke
-Heart attacks and strokes occur when blood supply to the heart or brain is cut off, this stops oxygen supply reaching these cells and causes them to die

278
Q

How is smoking a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A

Nicotine increases heart rate and therefore blood pressure. High blood pressure can damage the artery walls which can contribute to the build up off fatty deposits in the arteries. This can restrict blood flow and increase the risk of a heart attack or stroke.

279
Q

How is smoking a risk factor for lung cancer?

A

Cigarette smoke contains carcinogens which cause mutations in the genes that control cell division, leading to cancer.

280
Q

Diseases associated with alcohol

A

Liver disease, e.g. cirrhosis
Liver cancer
Cardio vascular disease

281
Q

How is alcohol a risk factor for liver cancer?

A

Enzymes in the liver breakdown alcohol, but the products of the breakdown can cause damage to cells of the liver.
Damage to liver cells can also occur when toxic chemicals caused by alcohol from the gut leak into the liver
Drinking can also cause permenant liver damage

282
Q

Diseases associated with poor diet

A

Malnutrition - when there aren’t enough nutrients to stay healthy or when there are too many of a particular thing.
.e.g scurvy, obesity

283
Q

Diseases associated with low physical activity

A

cardio vascular disease
high blood pressure
cancers

284
Q

Local, national and global impacts of non-communicable diseases

A

Local - Areas where there is high consumption of alcohol, lots of smokers or poor nutrition may have increase occurrence of cardiovascular disease or cancer and therefore put more pressure on local healthcare services.
National - In somewhere like the UK where there is a National health service, increased consumption has a negative impact on the nation and resources around the country.. When people can’t work because of a non-communicable disease, this can have negative implication on that country’s economy.
Global - In developing countries malnutrition is a problem and can hold back the development of their economy.

285
Q

What is obesity?

A

Being too overweight, having too much body fat.

286
Q

How is obesity measured?

A

BMI

Hip to waste ratio

287
Q

What is the formula for BMI?

A

mass (kg) / (height (m))^2

288
Q

How do you measure waist to hips ratio?

A

Circumference of waist / circumference of hips .

289
Q

What does the waist to hip ratio mean?

A

The higher the number the more excess weight you are likely carrying
A ratio of >1 for men and >0.85 for women indicates that there is too much excess fat around the middle. This is also known as abdominal obesity

290
Q

What is abdominal obesity?

A

When someones waist to hip ratio is too high

291
Q

What is cardio vascular disease?

A

Describes diseases of the heart or blood vessels
Generally associated with narrowing or blockage of the arteries
This occurs when fatty deposits build up on the artery wall. These deposits occur where there is damage to the artery wall. e.g. by high blood pressure. These deposits can also encourage blood clots to form which can block blood flow completely.

292
Q

Lifestyle risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease?

A
Smoking
Alcohol
obesity
diet with high saturated fats
lack of exercise
293
Q

Examples of Cardiovascular disease

A

Coronary heart disease - When fatty deposits build up on the arteries that supply the muscles of the heart.
Stroke - When an already narrowed artery supplying the brain with blood is blocked by a clot, cutting off blood supply to the brain.

294
Q

How can CVD be treated?

A
Lifestyle changes
medicines
- Statins
- Antihypertensives
- Anticoagulants
295
Q

What are statins?

A

Pros - Drugs that reduce the amount of ‘bad’ cholesterol (AKA LDL cholesterol) in the blood. Therefore slows the rate of fatty deposit formation on the artery wall.

Cons - Because they are long-term drugs a patient may forget to take them.

  • negative side effects include: Headaches and muscle aches. also, kidney failure, liver damage and memory loss.
  • The effect isn’t instant.
296
Q

What are hypertensives?

A

Reduce blood pressure
Reduced blood pressure will reduce chance of damage to the artery wall and in turn, reduce risk of fatty build up.
Types:
Diuretics - flushes excess water out
ACE inhibitors - relax blood vessels
Beta blockers - Cause the heart to beat slower and less forcefully.

297
Q

What are anticoagulants?

A

Thin the blood. e.g. Warfarin
Reduce the probability of blood clots forming by thinking the blood
Cons - blood clots are necessary to protect after injury. Therefore someone taking an anti-coagulant will lose more blood if involved in a serious injury. Can also increase the risk of serious injury.

298
Q

Surgical procedures to treat cardiovascular disease

A

Stent
Coronary bipass
Donor heart

299
Q

What is a stent?

A

Stent is a wire mesh tubing that can be put into an artery to keep it wide and open, and to smush any cholesterol deposits on the side.
Advantages - effective for a long time
- quick recovery time after surgery.
Cons - Risk of complications during surgery
- Risk of infection
- Overtime the arteries can narrow again as scar tissue can grow around it
- Risk of blot clots hear the stent
- Anti-coagulants required in conjunction to avoid risk of clotting.

300
Q

Coronary bipass surgery

A

For when a patient has several blocked vessels.

When a piece of healthy blood vessel is taken from elsewhere in the patients body and used to bypass the blocked region of the coronary artery.

Cons - longer and higher risk then inserting a stent
- longer stay in hospital than a stent

Pros - lower chance the surgery will need repeating than a stent

301
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of a heart transplant

A

Pros - can save someones life
Cons - Transplanted hearts does not always start pumping right away so more treatment is necessary until it improves.
- Can be recognized by the immune system as foreign and attacked. To reduce this risk patients are required to use immunodepressants which puts them at a higher risk of communicable disease.

302
Q

What do plants need to make energy?

A

Sun
Chlorophyll
CO2
Water

303
Q

What tis photosynthesis?

A

The process which a plant uses energy from the sun to convert CO2 and water into glucose and oxygen.

304
Q

What is an organisms biomass?

A

The mass of living material in an organism.

305
Q

Where does photosynthesis happen?

A

In the chloroplasts within green plant cells, they contain a pigments called chlorophyll that absorb light.

306
Q

Is photosynthesis endothermic or exothermic?

A

Endothermic

307
Q

What does endothermic mean?

A

Energy is transferred from the environment in this process.

308
Q

What is an exothermic reaction?

A

Transfer energy to the surroundings

309
Q

Where does photosynthesis happen?

A

In the leaves of all plants.

310
Q

What is the function of the xylem?

A

To transport water around a plant

311
Q

Photosynthesis word equation:

A

CO2 + water —-light—-> glucose + oxygen

312
Q

Photosynthesis symbol equation

A

6CO2 + 6H2O —-light—> C6H12O6 + 6O2

313
Q

What factors can effect the rate of photosynthesis?

A
  1. intensity of light
  2. temperature
  3. concentration of CO2
314
Q

What is the effect of light intensity on photosynthesis?

A

Photosynthesis gets quicker with higher temperatures, until a certain point and then at that point either CO2 or temperature become the rate limiting factor

315
Q

Effect of temperature on photosynthesis?

A

Photosynthesis rate will increase until a certain point, and then after a specific temperature will start to decline again.
This is because the enzymes required for photosynthesis perform optimally at certain temperatures

316
Q

What is the inverse square law?

A

Light intensity decreases in proportion to the square of the distance

317
Q

Equation for the inverse square law

A

Light intensity is proportional to (1/d^2)

318
Q

What are the two transportation tissues in plants?

A

Phloem and xylem

319
Q

Describe the Phloem

A

Long columns made of living cells that span the plant which contain “end walls” with pores which allow cell sap to flow through
Used for transport of food. Transported in both directions, this is called translocation and requires energy from respiration.

320
Q

Describe the xylem

A

Dead cells joined end to end without “end walls” between them and a hole running down the middle.
Strengthened with material called lignin
Carry water and mineral ions from the roots to the stem and leaves. This is called transpiration stream.

321
Q

What is the transpiration stream?

A

The loss of water from a plants surface, caused by the evaporation and diffusion of water from the surface.

322
Q

Describe the transpiration stream

A
  1. Water from the leaf evaporates and diffuses out of the leaf, mail through stomata.
  2. This creates a shortage of water in the leaf and more water and minerals is transported up the xylem to the leaf.
  3. This means that more water is drawn up from the roots and there’s a constant transpiration stream through the plant
323
Q

What are Root hair cells?

A

Cells found on the root of the plant which look like microscopic hairs.
They provide a larger surface area for the plants to absorb more minerals and water from the soil.
Concentration of mineral ions is usually higher in the root hair cells so active transport is necessary for absorption.
There’s normally more water in the soil than in the root so water can be transported via osmosis.

324
Q

Factors effecting transpiration?

A

Light intensity
Air flow
temperature

325
Q

How does light intensity effect transpiration?

A

The greater the light intensity the increased transpiration rate.
Stomata begin to close when it gets dark because photosynthesis can’t happen without sunlight and therefore CO2 isn’t required.
When the stomata are closed there is less evaporation of water.

326
Q

How does temperature effect transpiration?

A

The higher the temperature the quicker the transpiration rate.
When it’s warm the water particles have more energy to evaporate and diffuse out of the stroma.

327
Q

How does air flow effect transpiration?

A

The better the air flow, the higher the transpiration rate.
If air flow around the leaf is poor then there will be more water vapor on the leaf. Therefore, less water will be released from the leaf by diffusion and slow the rate of transpiration.

328
Q

How can you estimate the rate of transpiration?

A

Using a potometer
We assume the water uptake from the plant is directly proportional to the water lost from the leaves which should tell you the rate of transpiration.

329
Q

What are stomata?

A

Tiny pores on the surface of a plant, mostly found on the lower surface of leaves.
They allow CO2 and O2 to diffuse into and out of the leaf, and to allow water vapor to escape during transpiration.
Two guard cells surround the stomata

330
Q

What is a guard cell?

A

Surrounds a stomata

331
Q

How does the guard cell control the size of the stomata?

A
  1. When the plant has lots of water the guard cell fills with water and goes turgid. This opens up the stomata so that gases can be exchanged for photosynthesis.
  2. When the plant has little water the guard cells have no water and turn flaccid, closing the stomata. This helps to maintain water from the inside the plant.
332
Q

What properties of guard cells make them ideal for their function?

A
  1. A thin outer wall and a thick inner wall to aid with the opening and closing mechanism.
  2. Light sensitive so they close the stomata at night to stop take up of CO2 and preserve water.
  3. There is normally more stomata on the bottom side of the leaf since it is usually shaded and cooler - loses less water in these conditions.
333
Q

What types of tissue are found in plant leaves?

A

epidermal, mesophyll, xylem and phloem tissues.

334
Q

How is a leaf adapted to make photosynthesis efficient?

A
  1. The epidermal layer is covered in a waxy cuticle, which helps to reduce water loss from the leaf by evaporation.
  2. the upper epidermis layer is transparent to allow maximum light through to the palisade layer
  3. The cells of the palisade mesophyll tissue contain lots of chloroplasts near the top.
  4. the phloem and xylem forma network of vasculature which delivers water and other nutrients to the leaf while taking glucose from the leaf to the ret of the plant, they also help with structure.
  5. Leaves have a large surface area to absorb light
335
Q

How is the leaf adapted for efficient gas exchange?

A
  1. stomata of the lower epidermis in leaves.

2. air space in the spongey mesophyll tissue increase the rate of diffusion of gases through the leaf.

336
Q

What features do plants adapt to cope with environmental conditions?

A

Leaves
cuticles
number and position of stomata

337
Q

What are some adaptation of cactus?

A
  1. Plants have small leaves, or spines instead of leaves
    - reduced surface area for loss of water by evaporation
    - Stop animals eating the plants for water.
  2. Curled leaves or hairs on the surface of leaves
    - reduced airflow close to the leaf which reduces evaporation and diffusion of water out of the leaf.
  3. Leaves with a thick waxy cuticle
    - reduces evaporation
  4. Thick stems
    - helps to store more water
  5. Fewer stomata or stomata that only open at night
    - reduce evaporation
  6. Stomata sunken into the leaf.
    - Reduces air flow near the stomata and the loss of water through it.
338
Q

What is auxin?

A

A plant hormone

339
Q

What does Auxin do?

A

Controls growth near the tips of the roots and shoots.

  • phototropism
  • gravitropism
340
Q

What is phototropism?

A

plant growth in response to light

341
Q

What is gravitropism?

A

Plant growth in response to gravity

342
Q

How does auxin work?

A

It is produced in the tip of the shoots and moved backwards to stimulate the cell elongation process.
It is also produced in the tips of the roots and moves backwards to inhibit cell elongation in the cells behind the root.

343
Q

What does positively phototropic mean?

A

A plant begins to bend towards light.

shoots are positively phototropic

344
Q

What happens in phototropism?

A

Cells in the shaded area of the plant begin to elongate as a quicker rate than those in the sun. This causes a bend towards the light.

345
Q

How does a plant growing side-ways recorrect itself?

A

Gravity pulled the auxin to the bottom of the shoot. This then encourages elongation oof the shoot at the bottom and causes bending of the shoot away from gravity

346
Q

Are shoots positively or negatively gravitropic?

A

negatively

the grow away from gravity

347
Q

What happens to a root that is growing sideways?

A

More auxin accumulates on its lower side. However, in the root auxin inhibits growth. Therefore the cells on top of the root grow quicker and the root bends downwards.
-positive gravitropism.

348
Q

How does a root growing in light correct itself?

A

If a root is exposed to light more auxin will accumulate on the shaded side. Therefore the root bends back into the shade
- negative phototropism

349
Q

What commercial uses are there for Auxin?

A
  1. selective weed killer

2. growing cuttings

350
Q

What plant hormones can be used for commercial uses?

A

Auxins
Gibberellins
Ethene

351
Q

What commercial uses do gibberellins have?

A
  1. controlling flower and fruit formation
  2. controlling seed germination
  3. producing seedless fruit
352
Q

What commercial uses do ethene have?

A

fruit ripening

353
Q

Which system controls the secretion of hormones?

A

endocrine system

354
Q

How are hormones carried around the body?

A

in the blood plasma

355
Q

What is a hormone?

A

Chemical messengers which travel in the blood to activate cells in target organs

356
Q

Where are hormones produced?

A

in endocrine glands

357
Q

glands of the endocrine system are:

A
pituitary
thyroid
pancreas
adrenal
ovaries
testes
358
Q

Describe the pituitary gland

A

Found at the base of the brain
Produces hormones that regulate body conditions
AKA: Master gland because the hormones produced here also effect other glands
Produces follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

359
Q

Describe the thyroid gland

A

Found in the throat
Produces thyroxin
Thyroxin is important for regulating metabolism, temperature and heart rate.

360
Q

Describe the pancreas

A

Produces insulin which regulates blood glucose

361
Q

Describe the adrenal glands

A

Located just above the kidneys

Produce adrenaline which prepares the body for it’s “fight or flight” response.

362
Q

Describe the ovaries

A

Only found in females

produce oestrogen and is important for the menstruation cycle

363
Q

Describe the testes

A

Only found in males

Produce testosterone which controls puberty and sperm production.

364
Q

Why is adrenaline important?

A

Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal gland.
It is released in response to the fight or flight response in order to
1. increase heart rate
2. Increase blood pressure
3. increase blood flow to the muscles
4. increase blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.

365
Q

What is thyroxin and why is it important?

A

A hormone secreted by the thyroid gland, which is found in the neck.
Important for regulating basal metabolic rate.
Detects high levels of metabolic change to negatively regulate them back down - negative feedback loop.

366
Q

What happens when decreased thyroxin is detected in the blood?

A
  • The hypothalamus is stimulated to release more Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)
  • TRH stimulates the pituitary gland to release Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
  • TSH stimulates the thyroid to release more thyroxin
367
Q

What happens when INCREASED thyroxin is detected in the blood?

A
  • The release of thyrotropin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus is inhibited
  • This reduces thyroid stimulating hormone from the pituitary gland and therefore slows release of thyroxin from the thyroid
368
Q

What are the four stages of the menstruation cycle?

A
  1. lining of the uterus breaks down
  2. lining of the uterus builds back up
  3. egg is released
  4. lining of the uterus is maintained
369
Q

What happens during stage 1 of the menstruation cycle?

A

menstruation starts - usually lasts around 4 days

370
Q

What happens during stage of the menstruation cycle?

A

The lining of the uterus is repaired from day 4 to 14 into a thick, spongey layer of blood vessels, ready for a fertilized egg to implant

371
Q

What happens during stage 3 of the menstruation cycle?

A

An egg is released

This is known as ovulation

372
Q

What happens during stage 4 of the menstruation cycle?

A

The lining stays in tact for ~ 14 days, until day 28 of the cycle.
If no fertilized egg has landed on the lining before day 28, the spongey lining will start to break down and a new cycle will begin

373
Q

What is oestrogen important for?

A

Stimulates growth of the uterus lining in stage 2
Produced in the ovaries
High levels of oestrogen stimulate a surge in Luteinizing hormone (LH)

374
Q

What is progesterone used for?

A

Maintenance of the uterus lining in stage 4
Released by the corpus luteum after ovulation.
Inhibits release of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)

375
Q

What is follicle stimulating hormone? (FSH)

A

Causes a follicle to mature in one of the ovaries
~follicle is egg and its surrounding cells
Stimulates the ovaries to produce oestrogen
Produced in the pituitary gland

376
Q

What is luteinizing hormone? (LH)

A

Stimulates the release of the egg at day 14.
Produced in the pituitary gland
The surge in LH causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be released (ovulation)
It also stimulates the remainder of the follicle to form the corpus luteum

377
Q

What causes the cycle to end?

The uterus liming to start breaking down

A

hen the levels of progesterone fall and there’s low levels of oestrogen.
-Low levels of progesterone allows FSH to increase and this starts the whole cycle again.

378
Q

Two methods of treating infertility

A

Clomifene therapy

IVF

379
Q

What is clomifene therapy?

A

Some women are infertile because they don’t ovulate or don’t ovulate regularly
These women can take clomifene which works by causing more LH and FSH to be released by the body which stimulate egg maturation and ovulation.

380
Q

IVF - in vitro fertilisation

A

Collecting the women’s eggs and fertilizing them using the mans sperm in a laboratory.
The fertilized eggs can be grown into embryos.
Once they have become tiny balls of cells they can be transferred into the uterus
-FSH and LH are given to the women before egg collection to encourage egg maturation
-IVF is an example of Assisted Reproductive Technology

381
Q

Hormonal methods of contraception

A

Oestrogen

progesterone

382
Q

How can oestrogen be used as a contraceptive?

A

To prevent egg release
f oestrogeen is taken every day to keep the levels prementantly high, it can inhibit FSH production. After a while egg maturation and, in turn, egg release stop.

383
Q

How does progesterone prevent pregnancy?

A
  1. It creates a thick mucus which inhibits sperm from entering the uterus and fertilizing the egg.
  2. Can also inhibit egg maturation and therefore release.
384
Q

Barrier methods of contraception

A

Condoms - male and female

A diaphragm

385
Q

Which are more effective contraceptives, hormonal or barrier?

A

Generally speaking, hormonal are more effective.

386
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

Regulation of internal body (and cell) condition to maintain a constant environment, in response to both Internal and external conditions.

387
Q

Examples of homeostasis

A

Blood glucose levels

Thermoregulation

388
Q

Excess glucose is stored as:

Where>

A

glycogen

Liver and muscles, but when these stores are full excess glucose is stored as lipids in the tissues

389
Q

What is insulin?

A

A hormone produced by the pancreas

390
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Decreases blood glucose levels

391
Q

How does insulin decrease blood glucose levels?

A
  1. After a meal containing carbs, a persons blood glucose rises, which can be detected by the pancreas.
  2. The pancreas produces insulin, which is secreted into the blood.
  3. Insulin causes other body cells to increase glucose absorption. Cells in the liver and muscle can absorb it and store its as glycogen.
  4. blood glucose levels fall
392
Q

What is type I diabetes?

A

A condition where the body produces little or no insulin which can result in very high glucose levels

393
Q

How do you control type I diabetes?

A

Insulin therapy

394
Q

What is insulin therapy?

A

Injecting insulin into subcutaneous tissue (fatty tissue just under the skin). It can enter the bloodstream from there.
Usually multiple times per day

395
Q

Other considerations for people with type I diabetes

A
  • Limit the intake of food rich in simple carbohydrates
  • Spread consumption of starchy foods throughout the day rather than in lumps.
  • Regular exercise, since this can increase the metabolism of cells and therefore remove more glucose from the blood.
396
Q

What is type II diabetes?

A

When a person doesn’t produce much insulin or when a person becomes resistant to their own insulin.

397
Q

Risk factor for type II diabetes:

A

obesity

Specifically, fat around the abdomen

398
Q

How to control type II diabetes?

A
  • A healthy diet
  • Regular exercise
  • lose weight it required
  • Some may require insulin injections
399
Q

What does a blood glucose graph look like for someone with type I diabetes?

A

Rises immediately after food and then plateaus because there is no insulin

400
Q

A blood glucose graph for someone without diabetes?

A

A sharp rise in the 30 minutes after consumption and then a sharp fall in the following 30 minutes.
After ~80 minutes there is no glucose left in the bloodstream

401
Q

What hormone is required to bring blood glucose levels back up to normal when they’re low?

A

glucagon

402
Q

Where is glucagon produced?

A

Pancreas

403
Q

How does glucagon work?

A
  1. low blood glucose levels are detected
  2. Pancreas responds by producing glucagon
  3. Glucagon causes the glycogen stores to be converted back to glucose, which then enters the blood
  4. blood glucose levels rise
404
Q

What is the thermo regulatory centre and where do you find it?

A

A section of the brain which is connected too receptors to regulate body temperature
Located in the hypothalamus

405
Q

What receptors are important for thermo-regulation?

A
  1. Receptors in the thermoregulatory centre are sensitive to the blood flowing through the brain
  2. Receptors in the skin that send information about skin temperature via nervous impulses. These receptors are located in the epidermis (outer layer of the skin) and the dermis (deeper layer of skin, just below the epidermis)
406
Q

What happens when a change in body temperature is detected?

A

Change in temperature is detected by receptors and a signal is sent to the hypothalamus, which coordinates the response.
Hypothalamus receives and process the information and triggers the effectors automatically.
The effectors produce a response to increase or decrease the heat loss from the body so that the body cools or heats

407
Q

Examples of responses to cool the body

A
  1. erector muscles on the skin lie flat, which means less air is trapped near the surface of the skin, so there isn’t a layer oof insulating air near the skin.
  2. Sweat is proceeded by sweat glands in the dermis, and released onto the surface f the skin through pores int eh dermis. When sweat is released it transfers energy from the body into the environment.
  3. Blood vessels supplying the skin capillaries dilate, so more blood flows closer to the surface of the skin, which helps energy transfer from the skin to the environment. Dilation of the blood vessels is known as vasodilation
408
Q

What is the word for dilation of the blood vessels?

A

vasodialtion

409
Q

Examples of responses to heat the body

A
  1. erector muscles in the dermis contract which makes hairs on the skin stand up. This traps an insulating layer of air next to the skin, reducing the amount of energy transferred into the environment.
  2. little to no sweat is produced
  3. Blood vessels supplying capillaries close to the skin constrict, this reduced the amount of blood flowing near the surface of the skin, thereby reducing the transfer of energy into the environment. Vasoconstriction.
  4. Shivering. Increases rate of respiration which transfers more energy to warm the body.
410
Q

Which system are the kidneys part of?

A

Urinary system

411
Q

How do the kidneys function?

A

Take waste products out of the blood to make urine
- Waste products include urea, excess ions and water.
Substances are filtered out of the blood as it passes through the kidneys
- This is known as ultrafiltration
- Useful substances such as glucose, ions and the correct amount of water are then absorbed back into the blood.
- This is known as selective reabsorption

412
Q

Structure of the urinary system

A
  • Renal artery
  • renal vein
  • right kidney
  • left kidney
  • bladder
  • urethra
  • ureter
413
Q

What are the small structures in the kidney where ultrafiltration and selective reabsorption takes place?

A

Nephron

414
Q

Describe ultrafiltration

A

Takes place in the nephron

  1. At the start of the nephron, blood from the renal artery flows through a network of capillaries called the glomerulus.
    - The glomerulus is surrounded by a sac of tissue known as the Bowman’s capsule
  2. The liquid part of the blood is forced out of the glomerulus and into the Bowman’s capsule through a high pressure - This is ultrafiltration.
    - Bigger molecules e.g. proteins, can’t pass through the membrane between the glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule, so they stay in the blood
415
Q

Describe selective reabsorption

A

Also in the nephron
1. After the filtered liquid leaves the Bowman’s capsule, int passes through the
- proximal convoluted tubule
- Loop of Henle
- Distal convoluted tubule
As the liquid flows along these parts useful substances are selectively reabsorbed.
All glucose in the liquid is selectively reabsorbed

416
Q

What type of transport is required for selective reabsorption?

A

Active

417
Q

What is the anti-diuretic hormone?

A

The hormone that controls the amount of water that is reabsorbed in the “selective reabsorption” process.

418
Q

How does the anti-diuretic hormone work?

A

Makes the collecting ducts of the nephron more permeable two water so that more water can be reabsorbed.
This is important for stopping the body becoming dehydrated.

419
Q

Where is the anti-diuretic hormone released from?

A

Pituitary gland

420
Q

How does the body monitor how much water is needed?

A

The brain monitors water content of the blood and instructs the pituitary gland to release ADH if necessary.
The whole process is controlled by a negative feedback loop

421
Q

What two treatments can a person with kidney disease have?

A

Dialysis

Kidney transplant

422
Q

What is dialysis?

A

Machines take over the role of the kidney and filter to remove waste substances.

423
Q

How does the dialysis machine work?

A

A person’s blood moves around the machine alongside a partially permeable membrane, surrounded by dialysis fluid.
The partially permeable membrane allows things like ions and waste substances to dialyze.
The dialysis fluid has the same concentration of ions and glucose as healthy blood, therefore nothing that is required for healthy blood will be lost during osmosis between the patient blood and the healthy blood.

424
Q

Possible problem with kidney transplant:

A

Rejection:
This happens when the immune system of the organ recipient rejects the organ.
This happens when the antigens on the donor kidney aren’t recognized as being part of the body. In turn, white blood cells can attack the donor kidney and destroy it.

425
Q

How to reduce chances of an organ being rejected:

A
  1. Find a matched donor. This is usually based om blood
426
Q

Define: Habitat

A

A place where an organism lives

427
Q

Define: population

A

All the organisms of one species living in a habitat

428
Q

Define: Community

A

All the organisms of different species living in one habitat

429
Q

Define: Abiotic factors

A

Non-living factors of the environment e.g. temperature

430
Q

Define: Biotic factors

A

Living factors of the environment e.g. food

431
Q

Define: Eco system

A

A community of organisms long with all the abiotic factors of the environment.

432
Q

From lowest to highest, what are the levels of organization in an ecosystem?

A
  1. Individual
  2. Population
  3. Community
  4. Ecosystem
433
Q

What does interdependence mean?

A

When organisms within an ecosystem are dependent on one another for food and shelter.
Extinction or removal of one species could have enormous knock on effects for the rest of the species within the ecosystem.

434
Q

What is mutualism?

A

A type of interdependence, mutualism is when a mutual relationship forms between two organisms in which both benefit.

e. g. bees and plant
- bees visit plants to get nectar, but bees simultaneously pollenate the flower.

435
Q

What is parasitism?

A

A type of interdependence.
When a parasite lives in or very closet to the host species. The parasite takes what it needs to survive but the organism doesn’t benefit.
e.g. flees on dogs - the flees feed on the blood of the dog, but the dog doesn’t get anything in return.

436
Q

In an ecosystem, what word if used to refer to the living factors?

A

Abiotic

437
Q

In an ecosystem, what word if used to refer to the non-living factors?

A

Biotic

438
Q

Examples of abiotic factors

A

temperature
light intensity
availability of water
presence of pollutants

439
Q

How does temperature effect a community?

A

Distribution of birds - birds prefer different temperatures but a changing climate means they are found in new places.

440
Q

How does light iintensity effect a community?

A

As trees grow and develop more branches, the ground below them becomes more shaded. This can stop grass from growing underneath the trees because grasses need plenty of light to grow. The grass may eb replaced with fungi which can cope with shaded areas better.

441
Q

How does water availability effect a community?

A

All organisms need water to live, so a shortage of water will have an enormous effect on the community.

442
Q

How does levels of pollutants effect a community?

A

lichens are unable to survive if the concentration of sulfur dioxide is too high. So, an increase in sulfur dioxide concentration might reduce the population size of lichens in an area.

443
Q

Examples of biotic factors:

A

Competition
Predation
Disease

444
Q

How does a change in competition effect a community?

A

Organisms need things from their environment to survive and reproduce, so aa change in this environment could lead to more or less food, nutrients or habitat.

445
Q

How does predation effect a community?

A

If the population of Prey increases, then so will the population of predators. However, as the population of predators increases, the number of prey will decrease.

446
Q

How do you measure distribution of an organism?

A

Quadrats

Transect

447
Q

What is a Quadrat?

A

A square frame enclosing a known area

448
Q

What type of organism is a quadrate designed to monitor?

A

small organisms that are slow moving or don’t move around.

449
Q

What is the bottom of the food chain called?

A

Producer

Usually a plant or alga

450
Q

What is the organization of the food chain?

A

Producer –> Primary consumer –> secondary consumer –> tertiary consumer.
Each stage is called a trophic level

451
Q

How is energy lost from food chains?

A
  1. Transferred to the environment via heat.
  2. not all of the organism is consumed, leaving some energy in the remainder of the corpse
  3. Not all of the parts that are eaten can be digested
452
Q

Whats the average number or trophic levels in a food chain and why

A

4-5

Because so much energy is lost between each trophic level that one chain can only sustain 4-5 organisms.

453
Q

What is the pyramid of biomass?

A

Shows the relative mass of an organism at each trophic level in a food chain.

454
Q

What is biodiversity?

A

The variety of living organisms in an ecosystem

-The greater the biodiversity, the healthier the ecosystem

455
Q

How does eutrophication effect biodiversity?

A

E.g. from fertilizer
Excess nitrates cause algae to form on top of the river which causes less light to penetrate to the river bed
Plants can’t photosynthesise with reduced light
few plants
Organisms feed on the decaying plants as they die and population grows as a result
organisms also feed on oxygen provided by plants, but fewer plants to provide oxygen and so fish die

456
Q

How does fish farming effect biodiversity?

A

Using open nets in water causes:

  1. eutrophication from feeding fish
  2. transplantation of wild fish into new waters killing indigenous species
  3. Breeding ground for parasites
  4. Predators can get trapped and die
457
Q

How does introducing non-indigenous species effect biodiversity?

A

Non-indigenous species compete with the indigenous species in an area for food and shelter, sometimes causing them to outcompete the indigenous and kill them.
Non-indiginouos species can bring diseases with them that the indigenous species aren’t used to, and can kill them off that way, too.

458
Q

How can humans maintain biodiversity?

A

Reforestation

Conservation schemes

459
Q

How does reforestation effect biodiversity?

A

reversing the effects of deforestation

restoring habits of species ini forests

460
Q

How does conservation effect biodiversity?

A

Helps to prevent species dying out.

461
Q

Biological factors effecting food availability

A
Populatioon
dietary habits - meat eating
Environmental changes
Lack of sustainability
New pests and pathogens
462
Q

How do human-caused environmental changes effect food availability?

A

Changes in rainfall patters may causes droughts or drowning of crops

463
Q

What does lack of sustainability mean?

A

Meeting the need of today’s population without affecting the ability of future generations to meet their needs.

464
Q

How do pests and pathogens effect food availability?

A

Cause damage to crops and livestock, reducing yield.

465
Q

What is the carbon cycle?

A

There is only a finite amount of carbon in the universe, therefore carbon has to be recycled through the carbon cycle.

  1. This is recycled via photosynthesis in trees and plants and
  2. Carbons is released back into living organisms up the food chain.
  3. The organism releases carbon back into the atmosphere via respiration and eventual decomposition after death.
    - 3.1 CO2 is released from the ground or fossil fuels or burning into the air,
  4. Start all over again.
466
Q

How is the carbon cycle “powered”?

A

photosynthesis

467
Q

What is the water cycle?

A
  1. Energy from the sun causes water from land and sea to evaporate.
    - 1.2 Plants transpirate releasing water into the atmosphere
  2. Water vapor rises but when it gets cool enough it condenses into clouds
  3. water falls from the clouds as precipitation
468
Q

What is potable water?

A

Water that is suitable for drinking

469
Q

What methods can we use for harvesting potable water?

A

Desalination

470
Q

What is desalination?

A

Removes salts (mineral ions) from salt water.

471
Q

Methods of desalination…

A

Thermal desalination

Reverse osmosis

472
Q

Whaat is thermal desalination?

A

Salt water is boiled so that the clean water evaporates and the salt is left behind.
The evaporated steam travels down a vessel and pools into a tank of clean water.

473
Q

What is reverse osmosis?

A
  1. Salt water is first treated to remove solids before being fed into a vessel with a high pressure and a semi-permeable membrane
  2. Pressure causes water molecules to move in the opposite direction to the salt concentration
  3. As water is forced through the membrane, salts are left behind, removing them from the water.
474
Q

What is the nitrogen cycle?

A
  1. nitrogen fixation
    - The process of taking nitrogen out of the air into the soil and making nitrogen containing ions
  2. nitrogen moves through the food chain
    - Plants absorb ions from the soil and use the Nitrogen to make proteins. It’s then passed along then food chain or decomposed again.
  3. Nitrogen is returned to air
475
Q

What are the chemical formulas for nitrates, ammonia and ammonium ions and nitrites?

A

NO3-
NH3
NH4+
NO2-

476
Q

What are the two nitrogen fixations methods?

A
  1. Energy from a bolt of lightening can convert N2 into Nitrogen ions.
  2. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria - They turn N2 into ammonia.
    - Ammonia forms ammonium ions in solution that plants can use
477
Q

How does nitrogen in plants get decomposed by bacteria?

A

nitrifying bacteria

  • They turn ammonia from decaying plants into nitrites, or nitrates into nitrates
  • Nitrogen can be returned to soil and reabsorbed.
478
Q

How is nitrogen returned back into the air?

A

Denitrifying bacteria

  • Turns nitrates back into N2 gas
  • This is of no benefit to living organisms
  • Often found in water logged soils.
479
Q

How can farmers exogenously add nitrates to soil?

A

Crop rotation
- Changing crops in the fields between seasons. The cycle should contain a nitrogen fixing crop to replenish the available nitrates.
Fertilisers
- Spreading animal manure or compost recycles the nutrients left in plant and animal waste.
-Artificial fertilizers containing nitrates can also be used, but these are expensive.

480
Q

What are indicator species?

A

Organisms which help identify conditions

481
Q

Which species are good for detection of clean water?

A

Stonefly and freshwater shrimp.

Because they’re sensitive to the concentration of dissolved oxygen in water.

482
Q

Which species are good for detection of polluted water?

A

bloodworm
Sludgeworm
Because they have adapted to living ini polluted environements

483
Q

Which species are a good indicator for air pollution?

A

Lichen and Blackspot fungus

Because they’re both sensitive to the amount of sulfur dioxide in the air - presence indicates clean air.

484
Q

Methods for using indicator species to detect pollution

A
  1. Survey to ask if the species is present or absent from an area
  2. Counting the number of time a species occurs in an area will give a better numerical value.
485
Q

Pros of using indicator species for detection of pollution

A

Cheap

486
Q

Cons of using indicator species too detection pollution

A

Other factors could be contributing to presence of a species.
Accuracy is low

487
Q

factors effecting decomposition?

A

Temperature
Water availability
Oxygen availability

488
Q

How do water, temp and O2 effect rate of decomposition?

A

Water - provides nutrients to microorganisms
temp - enzymes ~37^C
Oxygen - microorganisms need it

489
Q

How does food preservation work?

A

Slow decomposition by making water availability, oxygen content and temperature less desirable for microorganism growth.

490
Q

Factors effecting the rate of diffusion…

A

Surface area
Concentration gradient
Distance - the thinner the exchange surface, the less distance to move across

491
Q

What is Fick’s law?

A

The relationship between the rate of diffusion and the factors that affect it:

Rate of diffusion is proportional to…
(Surface Area) x (Concentration difference) / (Thickness of membrane)

492
Q

What does Fick’s law mean?

A

That the rate of diffusion changes proportional to the change in surface area, concentration or thickness of the membrane.

493
Q

How are the alveolus adapted for gas exchange?

A

The alveolus (plural) are made up of bundles of alveoli (singular) which are surrounded by tiny blood vessels known as capillaries. When the blood returns from the rest of the body and is dispersed around the capillaries, the CO2 - O2 concentration gradient between the alveoli and capillary causes the exchange of gasses.

494
Q

What cells make up the blood?

A

Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets and plasma

495
Q

What are red blood cells and what do they do?

A

Also called erythrocytes
Transport oxygen around the body
Have a biconcave disc shape which increases surface area for absorbing oxygen.
Has a red pigment called haemoglobin, which contains iron and carries oxygen.
-Don’t have a cell nucleus and therefore don’t have any DNA - allows for more haemoglobin and more oxygen transport.

496
Q

How does oxygen transport occur?

A

O2 is diffused into the blood via capillaries surrounding the alveoli and fuses with haemoglobin to become oxyhemoglobin.
In the body, the opposite happens - oxyhaemoglobin splits to become oxygen + haemoglobin to provide energy to the body tissues.

497
Q

How does oxygen transport occur?

A

O2 is diffused into the blood via capillaries surrounding the alveoli and fuses with haemoglobin to become oxyhemoglobin.
In the body, the opposite happens - oxyhaemoglobin splits to become oxygen + haemoglobin to provide energy to the body tissues.

498
Q

What are white blood cells and what do they do?

A

The body’s defense against infection - the immune system

499
Q

Types of white blood cell

A

Phagocytes - white blood cells that change shape to engulf welcome organisms - process known as phagocytosis
Lymphocytes - A group of cells with difference functions depending on their type. e.g. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and others produce antitoxins to neutralize toxins in the body.

500
Q

What are platelets?

A

Small pieces of cells with no nucleus

They help the blood to clot at wounds to prevent bleeding out and to provide a barrier to invading microorganisms

501
Q

What is plasma and what does it doo?

A
A pale liquid that carries everything in in the blood including...
red and white blood cells and platelets
nutrients
CO2
O2
Urea
Hormoones
proteins
Antibodies and antitoxins
502
Q

Three types of blood vessel

A

Capillaries
Veins
Arteries

503
Q

Function and structure of arteries

A

Carry blood away from the heart

  • Artery walls are strong and elastic to withstand the pressure of the heart pumping blood to the rest of the body, therefore they contain thick layers of muscle and plastic fibers allow them to stretch and spring back.
  • The walls are thick compared to the size of the hole running down the middle (The lumen)
504
Q

Structure and function of the capillaries

A

Arteries branch into capillaries
Involved in the exchange of gases to tissues
They are super tiny
Crazy thin, very permeable walls which promote gas exchange. Usually only 1 cell thick. This increases the rate of diffusion by decreasing the distance between the blood and the tissue.
-Very narrow which allows them to fit into small gaps
-Large surface area compared to their volume.

505
Q

Structure and function of the veins

A

Veins carry blood to the heart
capillaries eventually join up to become veins
Blood is at a much lower pressure in the veins because it is further from the heart s walls of veins aren’t as thick
-Large lumen
-Valves which stop the back flow of blood.

506
Q

What are the two types of circulatory system?

A

A double system

A single system

507
Q

What is a double circulatory system?

A

One that first pumps deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs and oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. Second, it pumps blood away from the heart and around there rest of the body before making it back to the heart,

508
Q

What is a single circulatory system?

A

Only deoxygenated blood runs through the heart.

Blood runs through the body, pumped by the heart and is oxygenated in the capillaries of the gills.

509
Q

examples of single circulatory system:

A

fish

510
Q

What are the differences in blood pressure between a single and double circulatory system

A

Blood pressure in this system is limited to prevent damage to the capillaries of the gills.
In a double system, Blood pressure lead to the lungs is low too protect the lung. Blood pressure exiting the heart is much higher to circulate blood quicker.

511
Q

Chambers of the heart:

A

Right and left ventricle and atrium

512
Q

Blood vessels of the heart

A

Vena cava - right atrium
pulmonary artery - right ventricle
aorta - left ventricle
pulmonary vein - left atrium

513
Q

Valves of the heart

A

Tricuspid valve between the chambers of the right side
Bicuspid valve between the chambers of the left side
Semi-lunar valves in the ventricles before exit

514
Q

Deoxygenated blood flow through which side of the heart>

A

right

515
Q

Describe blood flow through the heart

A
  1. Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood through the vena cava.
    Left atrium receives oxygenated blood through the pulmonary vein.
  2. Atrium contracts pushing blood into the ventricles
  3. ventricles contract - deoxygenated blood moves from the right ventricle to the lungs via the pulmonary vein.. Oxygenated blood exits via the aorta to the rest of the body
516
Q

Which chambers have the thickest walls and why?

A

Ventricles because they have to pump blood so much further. Similarly, the walls of the left ventricle are thicker than the right because oxygenated blood moved further (around the body) than deoxygenated blood leaving the right ventricle (too the lungs)

517
Q

Ho do you calculate cardiac output?

A

Cardiac output (cm^3) = part rate x stroke volume (cm^3).

  • HR = bpm
  • Stroke volume = volume of blood pumped by one ventricle each time it contracts.
518
Q

What is an exothermic reaction?

A

One where energy is transferred into the environment.

519
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

An exothermic reaction which releases energy for metabolic processes, and occurs continuously n every cell living organisms.

520
Q

Two types of respiration

A

Aerobic

Anaerobic

521
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

Respiration that uses oxygen

  • The most efficient way to transfer energy from glucose
  • It is happening all the time in plants and animals
522
Q

Where does aerobic respiration occur?

A

Mitochondria

523
Q

What’s the word equation for respiration?

A

Glucose + Oxygen –> Carbon dioxide + water

524
Q

What’s the chemical equation for aerobic respiration?

A

C6-H12-O6 + O2 –> CO2 + H2O

525
Q

What’s the word equation for anaerobic respiration in mammals?

A

Glucose –> Lactic Acid

526
Q

What is anaerobic respiration?

A

Transfer of energy from glucose without oxygen
-Less efficient than aerobic respiration since there is only a partial breakdown of glucose.
-

527
Q

What’s the word equation for anaerobic respiration in plants?

A

Glucose –> Ethanol + CO2

528
Q

Compare (A) anaerobic and (B) aerobic respiration:

  1. Is O2 needed?
  2. What are the products?
  3. How much energy is transferred?
A
  1. A - No, B- Yes
  2. A - Lactic acid (mammals) or Ethanol and CO2 (plants), B- CO2 and H2O
  3. A - not much, B- Lots.
529
Q

How do you measure the rate of respiration?

A

A Respirometer