Chapter 10 Flashcards Preview

Brain and Behavior > Chapter 10 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Chapter 10 Deck (193):
1

Large birds, like flamingos, often stand on one leg to:
a. impress the opposite sex.
b. eat.
c. maintain muscle strength.
d. warm the leg that is tucked under their body.

d. warm the leg that is tucked under their body.

2

What defines a homeostatic process?
a. the regulation of blood flow
b. any process governed by hormones
c. the maintenance of certain body variables within a fixed range
d. reproduction involving distinct male and female genders in a species

c. the maintenance of certain body variables within a fixed range

3

Processes that reduce any discrepancies from the set point are known as:
a. negative feedback.
b. positive feedback.
c. homeothermic.
d. thermostasis.

a. negative feedback.

4

The term ____ refers to temperature regulation and other biological processes that keep body variables within a fixed range.
a. negative feedback
b. positive feedback
c. homeothermic
d. thermostasis

c. homeothermic

5

Much of motivated behavior can be described as:
a. diabetic feedback.
b. negative feedback.
c. positive feedback.
d. homeothermic mechanisms.

b. negative feedback.

6

When the range maintained by homeostatic processes is very narrow, what is it called?
a. a set point
b. a match point
c. idiopathic
d. band specific

a. a set point

7

A set point refers to:
a. a very narrow range that the body works to maintain at a stable level.
b. the regulation of blood flow.
c. the release of hormones at a set point in time.
d. initiating a change in body temperature at a set point in time.

a. a very narrow range that the body works to maintain at a stable level.

8

Set points for temperature and body fat:
a. are fixed.
b. change with time of year only.
c. only change due to varying internal conditions.
d. change depending on many conditions.

d. change depending on many conditions.

9

Some set points may vary considerably over time in order to respond to changes in the environment. This adaptability is known as:
a. homeostasis.
b. allostasis.
c. negative feedback.
d. homeothermic.

b. allostasis.

10

Homeostasis is to ____ as allostasis is to ____.
a. constant, variable
b. variable, constant
c. constant, decreasing
d. variable, increasing

d. variable, increasing

11

An average young adult expends about ____ kilocalories (kcal) per day.
a. 3,000
b. 2,600
c. 2,000
d. 3,600

b. 2,600

12

Humans expend most of their energy on what activity?
a. walking, running, and other forms of locomotion
b. in the beating of their hearts and blood circulation
c. propagating action potentials in the billions of neurons in the nervous system
d. maintaining basal metabolism

d. maintaining basal metabolism

13

Poikilothermic organisms include:
a. humans.
b. most mammals.
c. amphibians and reptiles.
d. all mammals and all fish.

c. amphibians and reptiles.

14

Poikilothermic organisms have body temperatures which:
a. remain relatively constant no matter the change in the external environment.
b. are the same as the temperatures of their environments.
c. are nearly constant, although the brain temperature varies.
d. allow them to survive in very warm climates only.

b. are the same as the temperatures of their environments.

15

How do reptiles control their body temperature, if at all?
a. They dilate or constrict blood vessels.
b. They move to different locations in their environment.
c. They shiver and sweat.
d. There is nothing they can do.

b. They move to different locations in their environment.

16

How do amphibians and reptiles control their body temperature?
a. they cannot
b. by shivering and sweating
c. by changing the reflectivity of their skin
d. by choosing an appropriate area of the environment

d. by choosing an appropriate area of the environment

17

Homeothermic organisms include:
a. amphibians and reptiles.
b. reptiles and fish.
c. amphibians and fish.
d. mammals and birds.

d. mammals and birds.

18

Generating heat is to ____ as radiating heat is to ____.
a. surface area; temperature of the set point
b. total body mass; surface area
c. raising the set point; lowering the set point
d. sweating; shivering

c. raising the set point; lowering the set point

19

Which organisms, if any, use behavioral means to regulate their body temperature?
a. poikilothermic, but not homeothermic
b. homeothermic, but not poikilothermic
c. both poikilothermic and homeothermic
d. neither poikilothermic nor homeothermic

c. both poikilothermic and homeothermic

20

One advantage of being homeothermic is that it:
a. reduces the fuel requirements of the body.
b. prevents excessive reliance on a single sensory system.
c. enables the individual to stay active when the environment is cool.
d. decreases the need for shivering and sweating.

c. enables the individual to stay active when the environment is cool.

21

An advantage of maintaining a constant body temperature is that it:
a. enables an animal to stay equally active at all environmental temperatures.
b. enables an animal to survive on a wider variety of diets.
c. minimizes the energy that must be expended on basal metabolism.
d. enables an animal to detect changes in the temperature of the environment.

a. enables an animal to stay equally active at all environmental temperatures.`

22

Some insects, frogs and fish survive extreme cold by:
a. generating vast amounts of heat through their blood.
b. stocking their blood with large amounts of glycerol at the start of the winter.
c. allowing ice crystals to expand in their blood vessels and cells.
d. decreasing their surface to volume ratio.

b. stocking their blood with large amounts of glycerol at the start of the winter.

23

Why did mammals evolve a body temperature of 37 degrees Celsius?
a. They benefit from a high temperature because they seldom need to cool themselves by much.
b. Most protein bonds begin to break at this temperature.
c. Their body proteins are stable only at 37 degrees Celsius or above.
d. It is the only way they can detect changes in the temperature of the environment.

a. They benefit from a high temperature because they seldom need to cool themselves by much.

24

What is the benefit of maintaining a body temperature of 37 degrees Celsius?
a. warmer muscles
b. more protein
c. more blood
d. more body water

a. warmer muscles

25

The temperature required by reproductive cells of birds and most mammals is:
a. higher than the rest of the body.
b. lower than the rest of the body.
c. the same as the internal organs of the body.
d. fluctuating in direct opposition to changes in body temperature.

b. lower than the rest of the body.

26

Beyond about 40° or 41°C, ___ begin to break their bonds and lose their useful properties.
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. cells
d. proteins

d. proteins

27

The physiological changes that defend body temperature are mainly controlled by the:
a. pineal body and preoptic area.
b. preoptic area and anterior hypothalamus.
c. parietal cortex and hypothalamus.
d. preoptic area and posterior hypothalamus.

b. preoptic area and anterior hypothalamus.

28

Blood vessel constriction, shivering, and sweating are controlled by which area of the brain?
a. pineal body
b. preoptic area of the hypothalamus
c. parietal cortex
d. cerebellum

b. preoptic area of the hypothalamus

29

The POA/AH monitors body temperature partly by monitoring:
a. its own temperature.
b. brain temperature.
c. heart temperature.
d. the temperature of the thalamus.

a. its own temperature.

30

30. If an experimenter heats the preoptic area of an animal in a cool environment, the animal will:
a. shiver.
b. pant or sweat.
c. fluff its fur.
d. decrease its preference for salty tastes.

b. pant or sweat.

31

If an experimenter cools the preoptic area of an animal in a warm environment, the animal will:
a. shiver.
b. pant or sweat.
c. move to a colder environment.
d. decrease its preference for salty tastes.

a. shiver.

32

What evidence do we have that the preoptic area controls body temperature?
a. After damage to the preoptic area, an animal will simultaneously sweat and shiver.
b. Each cell in the preoptic area has a temperature at which it is most active.
c. Removed cells maintain a constant temperature even in a cell culture.
d. Heating or cooling the preoptic area leads to sweating or shivering.

d. Heating or cooling the preoptic area leads to sweating or shivering.

33

Cells in the preoptic area of the hypothalamus monitor which temperatures?
a. internal organs
b. their own and the skin
c. differences between the arteries and veins
d. differences between internal organs and the skin

b. their own and the skin

34

A person most likely to shiver when the:
a. skin is cold, but the preoptic area is at normal temperature.
b. temperature difference between the skin and the preoptic area is large.
c. skin and the preoptic area are both hot.
d. skin and the preoptic area are both cold.

d. skin and the preoptic area are both cold.

35

Damage to the preoptic area causes an animal to:
a. eat a great deal and gain weight.
b. stop eating.
c. fail to sweat when overheating, but still shiver when cold.
d. fail to shiver and sweat sufficiently.

d. fail to shiver and sweat sufficiently.

36

After damage to the preoptic area, an animal:
a. eats a great deal and gains weight.
b. stops eating.
c. fails to sweat when overheating, but still shivers when cold.
d. fails to shiver and sweat sufficiently.

d. fails to shiver and sweat sufficiently.

37

How do adult mammals with damage to the preoptic area regulate their body temperature?
a. physiologically
b. pharmacologically
c. behaviorally
d. not at all

c. behaviorally

38

The way that mammals with damage to their preoptic area regulate their body temperature is similar to what other group?
a. birds
b. reptiles
c. normal mammals
d. inanimate objects

b. reptiles

39

When bacteria, viruses, fungi, or other intruders invade the body, it mobilizes ____ to attack them.
a. leptin
b. cholecystokinin
c. cytokines
d. leukocytes

d. leukocytes

40

In response to infection, leukocytes release proteins called:
a. leptin.
b. cholecystokinin.
c. cytokines.
d. insulin.

c. cytokines.

41

If an animal which lacks physiological mechanisms of temperature control gets an infection, it:
a. gets cold instead of feverish.
b. gets hot only at the point where the infection began.
c. chooses a hotter environment.
d. recovers faster than animals that can control body temperature.

c. chooses a hotter environment.

42

A fever:
a. develops independently of the preoptic area.
b. is part of the body's defense against an illness.
c. is an indication that the body is not yet fighting the infection.
d. serves to keep an animal warm during periods of reduced activity.

b. is part of the body's defense against an illness.

43

In humans, a fever above ____ is life-threatening.
a. 37°C (98°F)
b. 39°C (103°F)
c. 41°C (109°F)
d. 36°C (96°F)

c. 41°C (109°F)

44

Approximately what percent of the mammalian body is composed of water?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 70%

d. 70%

45

Your posterior pituitary is most likely to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH):
a. if you are very thirsty.
b. shortly after drinking a large glass of water.
c. if you are very hungry.
d. shortly after eating a large meal.

a. if you are very thirsty.

46

What is the hormone released by the posterior pituitary that causes your kidneys to reabsorb and conserve water?
a. antidiuretic hormone
b. insulin
c. luteinizing hormone
d. oxytocin

a. antidiuretic hormone

47

Vasopressin raises blood pressure by:
a. causing the blood vessels to dilate.
b. constricting the blood vessels.
c. increasing the blood's salt concentration.
d. decreasing the blood's salt concentration.

b. constricting the blood vessels.

48

Diabetes insipidus literally means "passing without taste" because the urine is produced in such large quantities that it is tasteless. This disease is most likely caused by a problem with the production or release of:
a. renin.
b. vasopressin.
c. angiotensinogen.
d. prostaglandins.

b. vasopressin.

49

Which hormone, released by the posterior pituitary, both raises blood pressure and enables the kidneys to reabsorb water?
a. vasopressin
b. prolactin
c. thymosin
d. ACTH

a. vasopressin

50

The two types of thirst are ____ and ____.
a. osmotic thirst; hypervolemic thirst
b. osmotic thirst; hypovolemic thirst
c. hypovolemic thirst; set point thirst
d. vasopressin thirst; osmotic thirst

b. osmotic thirst; hypovolemic thirst

51

After an increase in the solute concentrations in the body, you will experience:
a. a set point.
b. osmotic thirst.
c. hypovolemic thirst.
d. hunger.

b. osmotic thirst.

52

Eating salty potato chips increases the concentration of sodium in the:
a. extracellular fluid.
b. intracellular fluid.
c. nuclear fluid.
d. osmotic fluid.

a. extracellular fluid.

53

The tendency of water to flow across a semipermeable membrane from the area of low solute concentration to the area of higher concentration is termed:
a. hypovolemic pressure.
b. hypovolemic thirst.
c. osmotic pressure.
d. OVLT.

c. osmotic pressure.

54

What is caused by a high concentration of solutes outside the cells?
a. increase in blood pressure
b. water flows into the cells
c. water flows out of the cells
d. excretion of diluted urine

c. water flows out of the cells

55

What is the cause of osmotic thirst?
a. dryness of the throat
b. the availability of tasty fluids
c. low blood volume
d. increased concentration of solutes in the blood

d. increased concentration of solutes in the blood

56

____ occurs when solutes are more concentrated on one side of the membrane than on the other.
a. Osmoytic thirst
b. Osmotic pressure
c. Hypovolemic thirst
d. Hypovolemic pressure

b. Osmotic pressure

57

Eating salty pretzels would most likely result in:
a. a craving for plain water.
b. a greater salt craving.
c. drinking sugary liquids.
d. hypovolemic thirst.

a. a craving for plain water.

58

What kind of thirst is produced by an increased concentration of solutes in the blood?
a. Postprandial
b. Hypovolemic
c. Non-homeostatic
d. Osmotic

d. Osmotic

59

The brain gets part of its information regarding low osmotic pressure from:
a. receptors around the third ventricle.
b. the blood-brain barrier.
c. the subfornical organ.
d. thalamus.

a. receptors around the third ventricle.

60

Specialized neurons for detecting osmotic pressure are found in the brain areas surrounding which structure?
a. third ventricle
b. nucleus dorsalis
c. pituitary gland
d. Hypothalamus

a. third ventricle

61

The areas around the third ventricle can detect chemicals circulating in the blood because:
a. these areas are not protected by a blood-brain barrier.
b. these areas have low concentrations of solutes themselves.
c. there is so much more blood here than anywhere else in the brain.
d. these cells maintain a higher internal temperature than the rest of the body.

a. these areas are not protected by a blood-brain barrier.

62

The areas important for detecting osmotic pressure and the salt content of the blood include:
a. substantia nigra.
b. red nucleus.
c. ventromedial hypothalamus.
d. OVLT and subfornical organ.

d. OVLT and subfornical organ.

63

What area of the brain is largely responsible for detecting osmotic pressure?
a. substantia nigra
b. red nucleus
c. ventromedial hypothalamus
d. OVLT and subfornical organ

d. OVLT and subfornical organ

64

The brain can anticipate an osmotic need before the rest of the body actually experiences it:
a. because of the change in blood pressure.
b. because the stomach can detect high levels of sodium.
c. through detection of highly concentrated urine.
d. because of the rate of vasopressin release.

b. because the stomach can detect high levels of sodium.

65

An animal knows when to stop drinking by:
a. monitoring CCK levels.
b. how much urine is present in the bladder.
c. detecting how much water is in the stomach.
d. monitoring vasopressin levels.

c. detecting how much water is in the stomach.

66

After a lesion to the lateral preoptic area, a rat would react to an increase in sodium levels by:
a. drinking less and excreting highly concentrated urine.
b. drinking more and excreting a great deal of dilute urine.
c. increasing its activity level without changing the amount it drinks.
d. sweating profusely, but not drinking much.

a. drinking less and excreting highly concentrated urine.

67

The rate at which the posterior pituitary releases vasopressin is under the control of the:
a. lateral preoptic area of the hypothalamus.
b. supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei.
c. subfornical organ.
d. thalamus.

b. supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei.

68

A rat with damage to its lateral preoptic area:
a. drinks a lot of water.
b. drinks only to wash down its food.
c. has normal osmotic thirst but impaired hypovolemic thirst.
d. has impaired osmotic thirst.

d. has impaired osmotic thirst.

69

The lateral preoptic area and surrounding parts of the hypothalamus control:
a. CCK levels.
b. hunger.
c. drinking.
d. vasopressin levels.

c. drinking.

70

What causes hypovolemic thirst?
a. dryness of the throat
b. low blood volume
c. increased concentration of solutes in the blood
d. too much salt in the diet

b. low blood volume

71

A loss of blood will lead to what kind of thirst?
a. Osmotic
b. Non-homeostatic
c. Hypovolemic
d. Postprandial

c. Hypovolemic

72

Like vasopressin, ____ constricts the blood vessels, compensating for the drop in blood pressure.
a. angiotensin I
b. angiotensin II
c. renin
d. sodium

b. angiotensin II

73

After a loss of blood volume, an animal will:
a. drink whatever it can find, indiscriminately.
b. drink a great deal of pure water.
c. drink excessively concentrated saltwater.
d. alternately drink pure water and excessively concentrated saltwater.

d. alternately drink pure water and excessively concentrated saltwater.

74

Consuming too much salt will trigger ____ thirst. Bleeding or heavy sweating will trigger ____ thirst.
a. sympathetic, parasympathetic
b. parasympathetic, sympathetic
c. osmotic, hypovolemic
d. hypovolemic, osmotic

c. osmotic, hypovolemic

75

An animal with hypovolemic thirst will drink:
a. a large volume of pure water.
b. only enough to moisten its throat.
c. mildly salty water rather than pure water.
d. only water with a low pH.

c. mildly salty water rather than pure water.

76

Sodium-specific hunger is closely associated with:
a. osmotic thirst.
b. hypovolemic thirst.
c. the OVLT.
d. decreased renin release.

b. hypovolemic thirst.

77

Vasopressin and angiotensin II are similar in that they both promote:
a. increased urination.
b. decreased thirst.
c. decreased blood pressure.
d. increased blood pressure.

d. increased blood pressure.

78

Hypovolemic thirst:
a. depends mostly on the lateral preoptic area.
b. can be satisfied better by salt water than by pure water.
c. is stimulated by an increased concentration of solutes in the blood.
d. can only be satisfied by drinking a great deal of pure water.

b. can be satisfied better by salt water than by pure water.

79

Individuals who have lost sodium and other solutes:
a. may experience a craving for salty tastes.
b. must learn by trial and error to replace the correct amount.
c. will often experience a craving for vitamins.
d. lose ability to discriminate among tastes.

a. may experience a craving for salty tastes.

80

Severe blood loss will result in a preference for:
a. pure water.
b. slightly salty water.
c. highly concentrated salt solutions.
d. carbohydrates.

b. slightly salty water.

81

Hypovolemia induces thirst by inducing production of which hormone?
a. CCK
b. Insulin
c. Prolactin
d. Angiotensin II

d. Angiotensin II

82

The effect of an injection of a drug that blocks angiotensin II receptors would be:
a. decreased hunger.
b. decreased drinking.
c. increased drinking.
d. increased blood pressure.

b. decreased drinking.

83

What effect does the hormone angiotensin II have?
a. increased storage of food as fat
b. constriction of blood vessels
c. decreased emptying of the stomach
d. increased growth of the gonads

b. constriction of blood vessels

84

Strong craving for salty tastes is known as:
a. potassium-specific thirst.
b. sodium-specific hunger.
c. sodium-specific thirst.
d. potassium-specific hunger.

b. sodium-specific hunger.

85

The hormone aldosterone results in the:
a. conservation of water.
b. excretion of sodium.
c. conservation of sodium.
d. decreased preference for salty tastes.

c. conservation of sodium.

86

Aldosterone triggers:
a. conservation of water.
b. an increased preference for salty tastes.
c. excretion of sodium.
d. a decreased preference for salty tastes.

d. a decreased preference for salty tastes.

87

Aldosterone and angiotensin II together change the properties of ____, neurons in the nucleus of the tractus solitarius.
a. renin receptors
b. sodium receptors
c. smell receptors
d. taste receptors

d. taste receptors

88

A combination of the hormones aldosterone and angiotensin II leads to an increase in preference for ____ tastes.
a. sweet
b. sour
c. salty
d. bitter

c. salty

89

Bears eat as much as they can at one time because:
a. they do not regulate body temperature.
b. they do not need a constant supply of energy.
c. their main foods are available in large quantities for short times.
d. their food is always difficult to find.

c. their main foods are available in large quantities for short times.

90

Small birds generally eat:
a. as much as they can at one time.
b. only what they need at the moment.
c. three discrete meals per day.
d. mostly during the night.

b. only what they need at the moment.

91

What is the first point in the digestive system where enzymes begin to break down food?
a. Mouth
b. Esophagus
c. Stomach
d. small intestine

a. Mouth

92

The esophagus brings food from the:
a. mouth to the stomach.
b. stomach to the sphincter.
c. sphincter to the intestines.
d. stomach to the intestines.

a. mouth to the stomach.

93

What is the main site for absorption of digested food into the bloodstream?
a. Esophagus
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine

c. Small intestine

94

The small intestine:
a. absorbs water and minerals.
b. digests proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
c. is the secondary site for the absorption of digested foodstuffs into the bloodstream.
d. stores excess nutrients as glycogen, protein, or fat.

b. digests proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.

95

The large intestine:
a. absorbs water and minerals.
b. digests proteins, fats, and carbohydrates.
c. is the main site for the absorption of digested foodstuffs into the bloodstream.
d. stores excess nutrients as glycogen, protein, or fat.

a. absorbs water and minerals.

96

Most young mammals stop nursing, at least partly, due to the loss of what ability?
a. metabolizing the sugar in milk
b. sucking sufficiently
c. the Babinski reflex
d. digesting the fat in milk

a. metabolizing the sugar in milk

97

After a certain age, most mammals lose their ability to metabolize lactose because:
a. levels of the enzyme lactase decline.
b. it competes with other nutrients in other food types.
c. eating meat is not compatible with drinking milk.
d. they no longer need the nutrients found in milk.

a. levels of the enzyme lactase decline.

98

What best explains the absence of the use of dairy products in many Asian cuisines?
a. cultural bias
b. digestive limitations
c. religious taboos
d. the geographic region's incapability of supporting dairy animals

b. digestive limitations

99

Humans are a partial exception to which rule?
a. Adults can all drink milk.
b. They all have a declining level of lactose tolerance as they age.
c. All children limit dairy products.
d. Milk causes stomach cramps in all humans.

b. They all have a declining level of lactose tolerance as they age.

100

People who are lactose intolerant can consume a little milk, and larger amounts of ____, which are easier to digest.
a. cheese and yogurt
b. Meats
c. fruits and vegetables
d. beans

a. cheese and yogurt

101

The ability to digest lactose varies in a patchy way from place to place on which continent?
a. Asia
b. Europe
c. Africa
d. Antarctica

c. Africa

102

Many people, including physicians, believe that eating ____ makes children hyperactive.
a. salt
b. fatty foods
c. sugar
d. protein

c. sugar

103

A common misconception is that eating turkey increases the body’s supply of ____, which enables the brain to make chemicals that make you sleepy.
a. lactase
b. tryptophan
c. lacrose
d. sucrose

b. tryptophan

104

Increasing tryptophan helps the brain produce ____, which induces sleepiness.
a. glucose
b. phenylalanine
c. melatonin
d. lactose

c. melatonin

105

Tryptophan enters the brain by an active-transport protein that it shares with ____ and other large amino acids.
a. phenylalanine
b. melatonin
c. lactose
d. glucose

a. phenylalanine

106

Taste and other mouth sensations contribute to:
a. hunger.
b. satiety.
c. thirst.
d. overeating.

b. satiety.

107

Ordinarily, which of the following is the most important mechanism for ending a meal?
A the amount of glucose in the blood
B the amount of leptin reaching the brain
C the amount of insulin reaching the brain
D sensations from the stomach

D sensations from the stomach

108

In sham-feeding, animals are:
a. allowed to chew but not swallow.
b. allowed to chew and swallow, but the food never enters the stomach.
c. only allowed to eat a mixture devoid of nutrients.
d. only allowed to eat an artificial substance.

b. allowed to chew and swallow, but the food never enters the stomach.

109

The brain finds out about the degree of stretch of the stomach from:
a. visual feedback.
b. the hormone angiotensin.
c. sensory receptors on the skin of the abdomen.
d. activity of the vagus nerve.

d. activity of the vagus nerve.

110

By what means does the brain find out about the nutrient content of food in the stomach?
a. Hormones
b. activity of the vagus nerve
c. activity of the splanchnic nerves
d. the duodenum

c. activity of the splanchnic nerves

111

The vagus nerve is to ____ as the splanchnic nerves are to ____.
a. stomach fullness; nutrient contents of the stomach
b. the taste of food; the texture of food
c. nutrient contents of the stomach; water contents of the stomach
d. oral factors (such as chewing and taste); stomach fullness

a. stomach fullness; nutrient contents of the stomach

112

The vagus and splanchnic nerves help to control feeding by relaying information to the brain from the:
a. taste buds.
b. muscles.
c. stomach.
d. liver.

c. stomach.

113

The first digestive site that absorbs a significant amount of nutrients is the:
a. mouth.
b. stomach.
c. duodenum.
d. vagus.

c. duodenum.

114

If the duodenum is partly distended and the stomach is not full, rats will:
a. continue to eat.
b. eat larger meals.
c. stop eating.
d. drink more.

c. stop eating.

115

The splanchnic nerves convey information about:
a. the nutrient contents of the stomach.
b. discomfort in the stomach.
c. satiety.
d. thirst.

a. the nutrient contents of the stomach.

116

When food distends the duodenum, the duodenum releases which hormone?
a. CCK
b. Aldosterone
c. angiotensin II
d. Prolactin

a. CCK

117

When food distends the duodenum, the duodenum releases which hormone?
a. Prolactin
b. Aldosterone
c. angiotensin II
d. Cholecystokinin

d. Cholecystokinin

118

One way by which food in the duodenum inhibits appetite is by:
a. inhibiting the release of CCK.
b. releasing CCK.
c. breaking down CCK into inactive components.
d. releasing glucagon.

b. releasing CCK.

119

An injection of CCK will:
a. increase sodium preferences.
b. lead to a preference for fatty foods.
c. decrease the size of the next meal.
d. cause increased storage of food as fats.

c. decrease the size of the next meal.

120

One interpretation of how the hormone CCK promotes satiety is that it:
a. speeds up the digestive processes in the intestines.
b. increases the rate at which glucose enters the cells of the body.
c. causes the stomach to fill more quickly.
d. facilitates the emptying of the stomach.

c. causes the stomach to fill more quickly.

121

Which of the following is NOT true about the hormone CCK (cholecystokinin)?
a. The duodenum releases CCK when food distends the duodenum.
b. CCK tightens the sphincter muscle between the stomach and duodenum.
c. CCK crosses the blood-brain barrier and inhibits cells in the hypothalamus.
d. CCK stimulates the vagus nerve and causes cells in the hypothalamus to release CCK as a neurotransmitter.

c. CCK crosses the blood-brain barrier and inhibits cells in the hypothalamus.

122

The blood's glucose level ordinarily remains relatively constant because of the activity of:
a. CCK.
b. the liver.
c. the thyroid gland.
d. the gall bladder.

b. the liver.

123

Why does the level of glucose in the blood vary so little under normal circumstances?
a. Manufacturing glucose is a lengthy process, so the body uses it slowly.
b. Glucose does not leave the blood to enter the cells of the body.
c. Mammals learn to eat only foods that contain glucose.
d. The liver can convert stored nutrients into glucose.

d. The liver can convert stored nutrients into glucose.

124

Which hormone controls the rate at which glucose leaves the blood and enters the cells?
a. CCK
b. Aldosterone
c. Glucagon
d. Insulin

d. Insulin

125

Which hormonal levels fluctuate when people are eating, or getting ready to eat?
a. insulin levels fall
b. insulin levels rise
c. CCK levels rise
d. CCK levels fall

b. insulin levels rise

126

Glucagon stimulates the liver to covert ____ to ____.
a. glucose; glycogen
b. glucose; insulin
c. glycogen; glucose
d. insulin; glycogen

c. glycogen; glucose

127

Glucagon stimulates the liver to:
a. convert glucose to glycogen.
b. store glucose.
c. convert glycogen to glucose.
d. decrease blood glucose levels.

c. convert glycogen to glucose.

128

What happens when insulin levels are high?
a. Fat supplies are converted to glucose, which enters the blood.
b. Fat supplies are depleted.
c. Glucose entry into the cells increases.
d. The sphincter muscle between the stomach and the duodenum opens.

c. Glucose entry into the cells increases.

129

What happens when insulin levels are high upon completing a meal?
a. Fat supplies are converted to glucose which enters the blood.
b. Glucose entry into the cells decreases.
c. Blood glucose levels increase.
d. The individual feels hungry again soon after the meal.

d. The individual feels hungry again soon after the meal.

130

Chronically high insulin levels lead to increased appetite by:
a. lowering body temperature, increasing the need for nutrition.
b. preventing glucose from entering the cells.
c. causing a high percentage of available glucose to be stored as fat.
d. directly altering the responses of the taste buds.

c. causing a high percentage of available glucose to be stored as fat.

131

What insulin levels would we expect to find when an animal is putting on extra fat in preparation for migration or hibernation?
a. very low, as in diabetes
b. normal
c. high
d. unstable and rapidly fluctuating

c. high

132

What happens when blood levels of insulin are extremely low?
a. Glucose leaves the blood to be stored as fat.
b. Appetite is low.
c. There is excess glucose in the blood, but it cannot enter the cells.
d. The brain shifts to proteins as its main source of fuel.

c. There is excess glucose in the blood, but it cannot enter the cells.

133

Through what mechanism does insulin affect appetite?
A It enables stored nutrients to enter the blood stream.
B It enables glucose in the blood stream to enter the cells.
C It converts other nutrients into glucose.
D It converts glucose into other nutrients.

B It enables glucose in the blood stream to enter the cells.

134

Why do both high levels and very low levels of insulin lead to increased eating?
a. Glucose leaves the blood to be stored as fat.
b. Fat supplies are being rapidly converted to glucose.
c. Little glucose is reaching the cells to be used as fuel.
d. Activity of the taste buds is directly enhanced.

c. Little glucose is reaching the cells to be used as fuel.

135

Variations in insulin level alter hunger by changing the:
a. rate of emptying by the stomach.
b. availability of glucose to the cells.
c. sensitivity of the taste buds.
d. ability of CCK to cross the blood-brain barrier.

b. availability of glucose to the cells.

136

For most obese individuals, giving them leptin would:
A decrease appetite.
B increase appetite.
C increase sensitivity to leptin.
D produce little effect.

D produce little effect.

137

Which of the following groups of people would most likely benefit from taking leptin?
a. anorexic patients
b. normal obese people
c. obese people with faulty leptin receptors
d. obese people who fail to produce leptin

d. obese people who fail to produce leptin

138

____ signals the brain about the body’s fat reserves, providing a long-term indicator of whether meals have been too large or too small.
a. Renin
b. Insulin
c. Leptin
d. Glucagon

c. Leptin

139

Fat cells produce:
a. CCK.
b. insulin.
c. neuropeptide Y.
d. leptin.

d. leptin.

140

Leptin is produced by:
a. the paraventricular nucleus.
b. body fat.
c. neuropeptide Y.
d. orexin A.

b. body fat.

141

High levels of leptin are associated with:
a. decreased activity and eating.
b. increased activity and eating.
c. decreased activity and increased eating.
d. increased activity and decreased eating.

d. increased activity and decreased eating.

142

Many kinds of information impinge onto two kinds of cells in one nucleus of the hypothalamus, which is regarded as the “master area” for control of appetite. That area is the:
A suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B sexually dimorphic nucleus.
C solitary nucleus
D arcuate nucleus

D arcuate nucleus

143

Rats with damage to the paraventricular nucleus (PVN) eat ____ compared to normal rats.
a. larger meals
b. more frequent meals
c. more if the food tastes good and less if it tastes bad
d. smaller meals

a. larger meals

144

Which area of the hypothalamus seems to be critical for the ending of meals?
a. lateral hypothalamus
b. ventromedial hypothalamus
c. preoptic area
d. paraventricular nucleus

d. paraventricular nucleus

145

An increase in the size of meals is most likely to occur following damage to which area of the hypothalamus?
a. Paraventricular
b. Lateral
c. Preoptic
d. Ventromedial

a. Paraventricular

146

Leptin directly activates receptors in the part of the hypothalamus known as the:
a. paraventricular nucleus.
b. ventromedial hypothalamus.
c. arcuate nucleus.
d. lateral preoptic area.

c. arcuate nucleus.

147

Which of the following would result in an increase in body weight?
a. chronically low insulin levels
b. damage to the paraventricular nucleus
c. damage to the lateral hypothalamus
d. stimulation of the ventromedial hypothalamus

b. damage to the paraventricular nucleus

148

Neurons in the arcuate nucleus would be most excited by:
a. bitter food.
b. tasty food.
c. leptin.
d. CCK.

b. tasty food.

149

Ghrelin is associated with ____ in the periphery and ____ in the brain.
a. CCK release, inhibition of the arcuate nucleus
b. leptin release, inhibition of the arcuate nucleus
c. stomach contractions, excitation of the arcuate nucleus
d. stomach distension, excitation of the arcuate nucleus

c. stomach contractions, excitation of the arcuate nucleus

150

CCK, insulin, and leptin provide input to the ____ neurons in the ____ nucleus.
a. satiety-sensitive, paraventricular
b. satiety-sensitive, arcuate
c. hunger-sensitive, arcuate
d. hunger-sensitive, paraventricular

b. satiety-sensitive, arcuate

151

In the control of appetite, CCK, leptin, and insulin converge their effects onto hypothalamic cells that release transmitters in the ____ family.
a. melanocortin
b. endorphin
c. acetylcholine
d. purine

a. melanocortin

152

Hunger and satiety-sensitive neurons in the arcuate nucleus affect neurons in the ____, thereby affecting meal size.
a. paraventricular nucleus
b. lateral hypothalamus
c. OVLT
d. ventromedial hypothalamus

a. paraventricular nucleus

153

A drug that stimulates melanocortin receptors would most likely:
a. increase meal frequency.
b. increase leptin production.
c. decrease meal size.
d. increase meal size.

c. decrease meal size.

154

Inhibitory neurotransmitters used by the hunger-sensitive neurons of the arcuate nucleus that inhibit the PVN include:
a. alpha-MSH and leptin.
b. NPY and insulin.
c. insulin and glucagon.
d. NPY and AgRP.

d. NPY and AgRP.

155

When neuropeptide Y inhibits the paraventricular nucleus, it:
a. leads to extreme undereating.
b. produces extreme overeating.
c. depletes fat stores.
d. interferes with digestion.

b. produces extreme overeating.

156

What is the result of inhibition of the paraventricular nucleus (PVN) by the transmitter neuropeptide Y?
a. increased meal size
b. decreased meal size
c. finicky food selection
d. cessation of drinking during meals

a. increased meal size

157

Under what condition does orexin motivate animals to eat?
a. right after a meal
b. when approaching starvation
c. in the mornings
d. when insulin levels are high

b. when approaching starvation

158

Which of the following would lead to eating a larger than normal meal?
a. increasing leptin levels
b. decreasing NPY levels
c. increasing NPY levels
d. damaging the lateral hypothalamus

c. increasing NPY levels

159

One of the most promising hopes for appetite control drug researchers is the:
a. melanocortin receptor.
b. cortin receptor.
c. melan receptor.
d. agoutin receptor.

a. melanocortin receptor.

160

Output from the paraventricular nucleus acts on the:
a. preoptic area.
b. ventromedial hypothalamus.
c. lateral hypothalamus.
d. baroreceptors.

c. lateral hypothalamus.

161

An animal refuses food and loses weight after damage to which part of the hypothalamus?
A suprachiasmatic nucleus
B ventromedial hypothalamus
C lateral hypothalamus
D paraventricular nucleus.

C lateral hypothalamus

162

After damage to the lateral hypothalamus, animals:
a. show normal osmotic thirst but not hypovolemic thirst.
b. show normal hypovolemic thirst but not osmotic thirst.
c. eat less.
d. eat more.

c. eat less.

163

Electrical stimulation of a rat's lateral hypothalamus would most likely result in:
a. an increase in food seeking behaviors.
b. a decrease in food seeking behaviors.
c. a decrease in chewing and other reflexes associated with eating.
d. damage to dopamine-containing axons passing through it.

a. an increase in food seeking behaviors.

164

In the lateral hypothalamus, cell bodies are to ____ as axons passing through are to ____.
a. feeding; overall activity
b. feeding; drinking
c. overall arousal; feeding
d. drinking; feeding

a. feeding; overall activity

165

Which of the following behaviors would be most affected by damage to the cell bodies of the lateral hypothalamus?
a. feeding behavior
b. sexual behavior
c. osmotic thirst
d. memory

a. feeding behavior

166

The ____ increases the pituitary gland’s secretion of hormones that increase insulin secretion.
a. occipital cortex
b. lateral hypothalamus
c. medial part of the hypothalamus
d. pineal gland

b. lateral hypothalamus

167

An animal has trouble digesting its food after damage to the:
a. occipital cortex.
b. lateral hypothalamus.
c. medial part of the hypothalamus.
d. pineal gland.

b. lateral hypothalamus.

168

What is one reason why animals with a lesion in the lateral hypothalamus eat so little?
a. They are constantly active and over-responsive to sensory stimuli.
b. All the food they eat is immediately converted into fat storage.
c. They experience a decreased cortical response to the smell and sight of food.
d. They have low levels of blood sugar.

c. They experience a decreased cortical response to the smell and sight of food.

169

An animal is most likely to eat more frequently and gain weight after damage to the:
a. preoptic area.
b. areas surrounding the third ventricle.
c. ventromedial hypothalamus.
d. lateral hypothalamus.

c. ventromedial hypothalamus.

170

After damage in and around the ventromedial hypothalamus, animals are more likely to:
a. overeat and gain weight.
b. refuse food and lose weight.
c. produce low levels of the hormone CCK.
d. be slow in their digestion.

a. overeat and gain weight.

171

In what way is a rat with damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus similar to a starving animal?
a. Both will eat a large amount of whatever food is available, regardless of its taste.
b. Both empty food out of their stomachs at a rate that is slower than normal.
c. Both have low levels of fuel available to its cells.
d. Both go through long periods of refusing to eat.

c. Both have low levels of fuel available to its cells.

172

Animals eat more frequent (but normal size) meals after damage to the ____. They eat larger meals (but at normal frequency) after damage to the ____.
a. paraventricular nucleus, ventromedial hypothalamus
b. ventromedial hypothalamus, paraventricular nucleus
c. lateral hypothalamus, ventromedial hypothalamus
d. paraventricular nucleus, lateral hypothalamus

b. ventromedial hypothalamus, paraventricular nucleus

173

Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus leads to eating:
a. the same, but drinking less than normal amounts.
b. the same large amount each meal, regardless of the taste.
c. less.
d. normal-sized meals, but eating them more frequently.

d. normal-sized meals, but eating them more frequently.

174

Damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus leads to:
a. eating the same amount; there are no changes.
b. eating less.
c. eating more when presented with a normal or sweetened diet.
d. becoming less finicky about what they eat.

c. eating more when presented with a normal or sweetened diet.

175

After damage to the ventromedial hypothalamus, an animal will most likely:
a. increase its activity level.
b. eat much more at any given meal.
c. overeat when presented with a sweetened diet.
d. only undereat when presented with a very sweet food.

c. overeat when presented with a sweetened diet.

176

What are two reasons why animals with ventromedial hypothalamic damage overeat?
a. rapid stomach emptying and high insulin levels
b. high CCK levels and under-responsiveness to tastes
c. decreased thirst and lack of facial muscle fatigue
d. decreased body temperature and increased levels of digestive juices

a. rapid stomach emptying and high insulin levels

177

What is one reason why animals with damage in or near the ventromedial hypothalamus overeat?
a. They have low levels of insulin.
b. Their stomach emptying rate is slow compared to other animals.
c. They have excessively high levels of the hormone CCK.
d. They store too much of each meal as fat.

d. They store too much of each meal as fat.

178

Animals with damage in or near the ventromedial hypothalamus gain weight:
a. even if they eat the same amount as a normal animal.
b. in spite of high activity levels.
c. only if they have access to unlimited water supplies.
d. only if they eat a small number of very large meals per day.

a. even if they eat the same amount as a normal animal.

179

The increasing prevalence of obesity obviously relates to the increased availability of our diet and ____.
a. depression
b. psychological distress
c. increased activity
d. sedentary lifestyle

d. sedentary lifestyle

180

A Danish study correlating the weights of 540 adopted children with various adoptive and biological relatives found:
a. a higher correlation with biological relatives than adoptive relatives.
b. a higher correlation with adoptive siblings than with biological siblings.
c. the same correlation with biological relatives and adoptive relatives.
d. a higher correlation with biological relatives during childhood but a higher correlation with adoptive relatives in adulthood.

a. a higher correlation with biological relatives than adoptive relatives.

181

Obesity in Prader-Willi syndrome is linked to a problem with:
a. melanocortin.
b. ghrelin.
c. NPY.
d. leptin.

b. ghrelin.

182

More Native American Pimas are overweight now than in the early 1900s because of a change in which aspect of their lives?
A Diet
B Stress
C Exercise
D Education

A Diet

183

Fructose, used in corn syrup as a sweetener, may lead to increased obesity by:
a. failing to trigger satiety.
b. having more calories than other sugars.
c. slowing fat digestion.
d. enhancing PVN activity.

a. failing to trigger satiety.

184

Orlistat (Xenical) can reduce body weight by:
a. increasing CCK release.
b. increasing stomach distention.
c. blocking serotonin reuptake.
d. preventing absorption of fats.

d. preventing absorption of fats.

185

"Fen-Phen", an appetite suppressant drug, acts by ____ serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.
a. stimulating release of
b. blocking reuptake of
c. blocking receptors for
d. breaking down

b. blocking reuptake of

186

Sibutramine affects weight gain by:
a. stimulating dopamine release.
b. inhibiting dopamine release.
c. blocking reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
d. inhibiting serotonin and norepinephrine.

c. blocking reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.

187

If someone with extreme obesity fails to respond to other treatments an option is ____ in which part of the stomach is removed or sewed off so that food cannot enter.
a. fen-phen
b. sibutramine
c. gastric bypass surgery
d. orlistat

c. gastric bypass surgery

188

The majority of people with ____ are ____.
a. bulimia; men
b. anorexia; middle-aged men
c. bulimia; young women
d. bulimia; middle-aged women

c. bulimia; young women

189

On average, people with bulimia show a variety of biochemical abnormalities, including increased production of ____.
a. insulin
b. ghrelin
c. dopamine
d. orlistat

b. ghrelin

190

A cycle of food-deprivation following by overeating characterizes:
a. anorexia.
b. bulimia.
c. bipolar disorder.
d. obesity.

b. bulimia.

191

Abnormal levels of which neurotransmitter often have been found in bulimics?
a. lower-than-normal levels of peptide YY
b. lower-than-normal levels of CCK
c. higher-than-normal levels of serotonin
d. increased receptor sensitivity for serotonin

b. lower-than-normal levels of CCK

192

Research on rats has demonstrated similarities between bulimia and:
a. Parkinson's disease.
b. drug addiction.
c. bipolar disorder.
d. epilepsy.

b. drug addiction.

193

What does the eating cycle of bulimia have in common with addictive drugs?
a. Both activate the brain's reinforcement areas.
b. Starvation decreases their cravings.
c. Both can be relieved with morphine.
d. There is nothing in common.

a. Both activate the brain's reinforcement areas.