Chapter 10 A & P of Pregnancy Test 1 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Chapter 10 A & P of Pregnancy Test 1 Deck (43):
1

A woman’s obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation, twins were born at 34 weeks of gestation, and another child was born at 35 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?
a. 3-1-1-1-3
b. 3-0-3-0-3
c. 4-1-2-0-4
d. 4-2-1-0-3

C. The correct calculation of this woman's gravidity and parity information. Using the GPTAL system, her information is calculated as:
G: This, the first number, reflects the total number of times the woman has been pregnant; she is pregnant for the fourth time.
T: This number indicates the number of pregnancies carried to term, not the number of deliveries at term; only one of her pregnancies has resulted in a fetus at term.
P: This is the number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth; the woman has had two pregnancies in which she delivered preterm.
A: This number signifies whether the woman has had any abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability; she has not.
L: This number signifies the number of children born that currently are living; the woman has four children.

2

A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She has had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?
a. 2-0-0-1-1
b. 2-1-0-1-0
c. 3-1-0-1-0
d. 3-0-1-1-0

C. The correct calculation of this woman's gravidity and parity is 3-1-0-1-0. Using the GPTAL system explained in question 1, this client's gravidity and parity information is calculated as follows:
G: Total number of times the woman has been pregnant (she is pregnant for the third time)
T: Number of pregnancies carried to term (she has had only one pregnancy that resulted in a fetus at term)
P: Number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth (none)
A: Abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability (she has had one)
L: Number of children born who are currently living (she has no living children)

3

Over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy tests usually rely on which technology to test for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
a. Radioimmunoassay
b. Radioreceptor assay
c. Latex agglutination test
d. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

D. ELISA technology is used in OTC pregnancy tests for its one step, accurate results. Radioimmunoassay, radioreceptor assay, and latex agglutination tests are all used to detect hCG at varying times in the early gestational period, but they are not features of OTC pregnancy tests.

4

A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have:
a. Amenorrhea.
b. Chadwick’s sign.
c. Positive pregnancy test.
d. Hegar’s sign.

A. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs of pregnancy are those felt by the woman. A positive pregnancy test, the presence of Chadwick's sign, and the presence of Hegar's sign would all be probable signs of pregnancy.

5

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse’s instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:
a. A positive pregnancy test.
b. Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife.
c. Braxton Hicks contractions.
d. Quickening.

B. Positive signs of pregnancy are those that are attributed to the presence of a fetus, such as hearing the fetal heartbeat or palpating fetal movement. A positive pregnancy test and Braxton Hicks contractions would be probable signs of pregnancy. Quickening would be a preumptive sign of pregnancy.

6

A woman is at 14 weeks of gestation. The nurse would expect to palpate the fundus at which level?
a. Not palpable above the symphysis at this time
b. Slightly above the symphysis pubis
c. At the level of the umbilicus
d. Slightly above the umbilicus

B. In normal preganancies the uterus grows at a predictable rate. It may be palpated above the symphysis pubis sometime between the twelfth and fourteenth weeks of pregnancy. As the uterus grows, it may be palpated above the symphysis pubis sometime between 12th and 14th weeks of pregnancy. The uterus rises gradually to the level of the umbilicus at 22 to 24 weeks of gestation.

7

During a client’s physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as:
a. Hegar’s sign
b. Chadwick’s sign
c. McDonald’s sign
d. Goodell’s sign

A. At approximately 6 weeks of gestation, softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment occur; this is called Hegar’s sign. McDonald’s sign indicates a fast food restaurant. Chadwick’s sign is the blue-violet coloring of the cervix caused by increased vascularity; this occurs around the fourth week of gestation. Softening of the cervical tip is called Goodell’s sign, which may be observed around the sixth week of pregnancy.

8

Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester?
a. Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2)
b. Increased pulse rate
c. Increased blood pressure
d. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production

B. Between 14 and 20 weeks of gestation the pulse increases about 10 to 15 beats/min, which persists to term. Splitting of S1 and S2 is more audible. In the first trimester blood pressure usually remains the same as at the prepregnancy level, but it gradually decreases up to about 20 weeks of gestation. During the second trimester both the systolic and diastolic pressures decrease by about 5 to 10 mm Hg. Production of RBCs accelerates during pregnancy.

9

A number of changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy. What change persists after birth?
a. Epulis
b. Telangiectasia
c. Chloasma
d. Striae gravidarum

D. Striae gravidarum, or stretch marks, reflect separation within the underlying connective tissue of the skin. After birth they usually fade, although they never disappear completely. An epulis is a red, raised nodule on the gums that bleeds easily. Chloasma, or mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead, especially in dark-complexioned pregnant women. Chloasma usually fades after the birth. Telangiectasia, or vascular spiders, are tiny, star-shaped or branchlike, slightly raised, pulsating end-arterioles usually found on the neck, thorax, face, and arms. They occur as a result of elevated levels of circulating estrogen. These usually disappear after birth.

10

The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy. A woman can expect to experience what change?
a. Her center of gravity will shift backward.
b. She will have increased lordosis.
c. She will have increased abdominal muscle tone.
d. She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.

B. An increase in the normal lumbosacral curve (lordosis) develops, and a compensatory curvature in the cervicodorsal region develops to help her maintain her balance. The center of gravity shifts forward. She will have decreased muscle tone. She will notice increased mobility of her pelvic joints.

11

A 31-year-old woman believes that she may be pregnant. She took an OTC pregnancy test 1 week ago after missing her period; the test was positive. During her assessment interview the nurse inquires about the woman’s last menstrual period and asks whether she is taking any medications. The woman states that she takes medicine for epilepsy. She has been under considerable stress lately at work and has not been sleeping well. She also has a history of irregular periods. Her physical examination does not indicate that she is pregnant. She has an ultrasound scan, which reveals that she is not pregnant. What is the most likely cause of the false-positive pregnancy test result?
a. She took the pregnancy test too early.
b. She takes anticonvulsants.
c. She has a fibroid tumor.
d. She has been under considerable stress and has a hormone imbalance.

B. Anticonvulsants may cause false-positive pregnancy test results. OTC pregnancy tests use enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay technology, which can yield positive results as soon as 4 days after implantation. Implantation occurs 6 to 10 days after conception. If the woman were pregnant, she would be into her third week at this point (having missed her period 1 week ago). Fibroid tumors do not produce hormones and have no bearing on hCG pregnancy tests. Although stress may interrupt normal hormone cycles (menstrual cycles), it does not affect human chorionic gonadotropin levels or produce positive pregnancy test results.

12

A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy. She has been complaining of nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis. The nurse suspects that:
a. This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen.
b. This is an abnormal cardiovascular change, and the nosebleeds are an ominous sign.
c. The woman is a victim of domestic violence and is being hit in the face by her partner.
d. The woman has been using cocaine intranasally.

A. Elevated levels of estrogen cause capillaries to become engorged in the respiratory tract. This may result in edema in the nose, larynx, trachea, and bronchi. This congestion may cause nasal stuffiness and epistaxis. Cardiovascular changes in pregnancy may cause edema in lower extremities. Determining that the woman is a domestic violence victim and was hit in the face cannot be made on the basis of the sparse facts provided. If Betty had been hit in the face, she most likely would have additional physical findings. The use of cocaine by the woman cannot be made on the basis of the sparse facts provided.

13

The nurse caring for the pregnant client must understand that the hormone essential for maintaining pregnancy is:
a. Estrogen.
b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
c. Oxytocin.
d. Progesterone.

D. Progesterone is essential for maintaining pregnancy; it does so by relaxing smooth muscles. This reduces uterine activity and prevents miscarriage. Estrogen plays a vital role in pregnancy, but it is not the primary hormone for maintaining pregnancy. hCG levels rise at implantation but decline after 60 to 70 days. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.

14

The nurse providing care to the pregnant woman should know that all are normal gastrointestinal changes in pregnancy except:
a. Ptyalism.
b. Pica.
c. Pyrosis.
d. Decreased peristalsis.

B. Pica (a desire to eat nonfood substances) is an indication of iron deficiency and should be evaluated. Ptyalism (excessive salivation), pyrosis (heartburn), and decreased peristalsis are normal findings

15

Appendicitis may be difficult to diagnose in pregnancy because the appendix is:
a. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right.
b. Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left.
c. Deep at McBurney point.
d. Displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.

A. The appendix is displaced high and to the right, beyond McBurney point.

16

A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses) reaching the stage of fetal viability is called a:
a. Primipara.
b. Multipara.
c. Primigravida.
d. Nulligravida.

A. A primipara is a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a viable fetus. To remember terms, keep in mind: gravida is a pregnant woman; para comes from parity, meaning a viable fetus; primi means first; multi means many; and null means none. A primigravida is a woman pregnant for the first time. A multipara is a woman who has completed two or more pregnancies with a viable fetus. A nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant.

17

Which time-based description of a stage of development in pregnancy is accurate?
a. Viability—22 to 37 weeks since the last menstrual period (LMP) (assuming a fetal weight greater than 500 g)
b. Term—pregnancy from the beginning of week 38 of gestation to the end of week 42
c. Preterm—pregnancy from 20 to 28 weeks
d. Postdate—pregnancy that extends beyond 38 weeks

B. Term is 38 to 42 weeks of gestation. Viability is the ability of the fetus to live outside the uterus before coming to term, or 22 to 24 weeks since LMP. Preterm is 20 to 37 weeks of gestation. Postdate or postterm is a pregnancy that extends beyond 42 weeks or what is considered the limit of full term.

18

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is an important biochemical marker for pregnancy and therefore the basis for many tests. A maternity nurse should be aware that:
a. hCG can be detected as early as 2.5 weeks after conception.
b. The hCG level increases gradually and uniformly throughout pregnancy.
c. Much lower than normal increases in the level of hCG may indicate a postdate pregnancy.
d. A higher than normal level of hCG may indicate an ectopic pregnancy or Down syndrome.

D. Higher levels also could be a sign of multiple gestation. hCG can be detected as early as 7 to 10 days after conception. The hCG level fluctuates during pregnancy: peaking, declining, stabilizing, and increasing again. Abnormally slow increases may indicate impending miscarriage.

19

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the uterus, nurses should be aware that:
a. Lightening occurs near the end of the second trimester as the uterus rises into a different position.
b. The woman’s increased urinary frequency in the first trimester is the result of exaggerated uterine antireflexion caused by softening.
c. Braxton Hicks contractions become more painful in the third trimester, particularly if the woman tries to exercise.
d. The uterine souffle is the movement of the fetus.

B. The softening of the lower uterine segment is called Hegar’s sign. Lightening occurs in the last 2 weeks of pregnancy, when the fetus descends. Braxton Hicks contractions become more defined in the final trimester but are not painful. Walking or exercise usually causes them to stop. The uterine souffle is the sound made by blood in the uterine arteries; it can be heard with a fetal stethoscope.

20

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in the cervix, vagina, and position of the fetus, nurses should be aware that:
a. Because of a number of changes in the cervix, abnormal Papanicolaou (Pap) tests are much easier to evaluate.
b. Quickening is a technique of palpating the fetus to engage it in passive movement.
c. The deepening color of the vaginal mucosa and cervix (Chadwick’s sign) usually appears in the second trimester or later as the vagina prepares to stretch during labor.
d. Increased vascularity of the vagina increases sensitivity and may lead to a high degree of arousal, especially in the second trimester.

D. Increased sensitivity and an increased interest in sex sometimes go together. This frequently occurs during the second trimester. Cervical changes make evaluation of abnormal Pap tests more difficult. Quickening is the first recognition of fetal movements by the mother. Ballottement is a technique used to palpate the fetus. Chadwick’s sign appears from the sixth to eighth weeks.

21

The mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal is called the:
a. operculum
b. leucorrhea
c. funic souffle
d. ballottement

A. The operculum protects against bacterial invasion. Leucorrhea is the mucus that forms the endocervical plug (the operculum). The funic souffle is the sound of blood flowing through the umbilical vessels. Ballottement is a technique for palpating the fetus.

22

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their breasts, nurses should be aware that:
a. The visibility of blood vessels that form an intertwining blue network indicates full function of Montgomery’s tubercles and possibly infection of the tubercles.
b. The mammary glands do not develop until 2 weeks before labor.
c. Lactation is inhibited until the estrogen level declines after birth.
d. Colostrum is the yellowish oily substance used to lubricate the nipples for breastfeeding.

C. Lactation is inhibited until after birth. The visible blue network of blood vessels is a normal outgrowth of a richer blood supply. The mammary glands are functionally complete by midpregnancy. Colostrum is a creamy, white-to-yellow premilk fluid that can be expressed from the nipples before birth.

23

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their cardiovascular system, maternity nurses should be aware that:
a. A pregnant woman experiencing disturbed cardiac rhythm, such as sinus arrhythmia requires close medical and obstetric observation, no matter how healthy she otherwise may appear.
b. Changes in heart size and position and increases in blood volume create auditory changes from 20 weeks to term.
c. Palpitations are twice as likely to occur in twin gestations.
d. All of the above changes likely will occur.

B. Auscultatory changes should be discernible after 20 weeks of gestation. A healthy woman with no underlying heart disease does not need any therapy. The maternal heart rate increases in the third trimester, but palpitations may not necessarily occur, let alone double. Auditory changes are discernible at 20 weeks.

24

To reassure and educate their pregnant clients about changes in their blood pressure, maternity nurses should be aware that:
a. A blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low; a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high.
b. Shifting the client’s position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit.
c. The systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances; the diastolic pressure remains constant.
d. Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy.

D. Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava also leads to varicose veins in the legs and vulva. The tightness of a cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too high; similarly the looseness of a cuff that is too large results in a reading that is too low. Because maternal positioning affects readings, blood pressure measurements should be obtained in the same arm and with the woman in the same position. The systolic blood pressure generally remains constant but may decline slightly as pregnancy advances. The diastolic blood pressure first drops and then gradually increases.

25

Some pregnant clients may complain of changes in their voice and impaired hearing. The nurse can tell these clients that these are common reactions to:
a. A decreased estrogen level.
b. Displacement of the diaphragm, resulting in thoracic breathing.
c. Congestion and swelling, which occur because the upper respiratory tract has become more vascular.
d. Increased blood volume.

C. Estrogen levels increase, causing the upper respiratory tract to become more vascular; thus produces swelling and congestion in the nose and ears and therefore voice changes and impaired hearing. The diaphragm is displaced and the volume of blood is increased. However, the main concern is increased estrogen levels.

26

To reassure and educate pregnant clients about the functioning of their kidneys in eliminating waste products, maternity nurses should be aware that:
a. Increased urinary output makes pregnant women less susceptible to urinary infection.
b. Increased bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the enlarging uterus results in the urge to urinate even if the bladder is almost empty.
c. Renal (kidney) function is more efficient when the woman assumes a supine position.
d. Using diuretics during pregnancy can help keep kidney function regular.

B. First bladder sensitivity and then compression of the bladder by the uterus result in the urge to urinate more often. A number of anatomic changes make a pregnant woman more susceptible to urinary tract infection. Renal function is more efficient when the woman lies in the lateral recumbent position and less efficient when she is supine. Diuretic use during pregnancy can overstress the system and cause problems.

27

Which statement about a condition of pregnancy is accurate?
a. Insufficient salivation (ptyalism) is caused by increases in estrogen.
b. Acid indigestion (pyrosis) begins early but declines throughout pregnancy.
c. Hyperthyroidism often develops (temporarily) because hormone production increases.
d. Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial.

D. Normal nausea and vomiting rarely produce harmful effects, and nausea and vomiting periods may be less likely to result in miscarriage or preterm labor. Ptyalism is excessive salivation, which may be caused by a decrease in unconscious swallowing or stimulation of the salivary glands. Pyrosis begins as early as the first trimester and intensifies through the third trimester. Increased hormone production does not lead to hyperthyroidism in pregnant women.

28

A first-time mother at 18 weeks of gestation is in for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit. The client tells the nurse that she is afraid that she is going into premature labor because she is beginning to have regular contractions. The nurse explains that this is the Braxton Hicks sign and teaches the client that this type of contraction:
a. Is painless
b. Causes cervical dilation.
c. Increases with walking.
d. Impedes oxygen flow to the fetus.

A. Soon after the fourth month of gestation uterine contractions can be felt through the abdominal wall. Braxton Hicks contractions are regular and painless and continue throughout the pregnancy. Although they are not painful, some women complain that they are annoying. Braxton Hicks contractions usuall ceases with walking or exercise. They can be mistaken for true labor; however, they do not increase in intensity, frequency, or cause cervical dilation. In addition, they facilitate uterine blood flow through the intervillous spaces of the placenta and thereby promote oxygen delivery to the fetus.

29

The diagnosis of pregnancy is based on which positive signs of pregnancy? Choose all that apply.
a. Identification of fetal heartbeat
b. Palpation of fetal outline
c. Visualization of the fetus
d. Verification of fetal movement
e. Positive hCG test

A, C, D
Identification of fetal heartbeat, visualization of the fetus, and verification of fetal movement are all positive, objective signs of pregnancy. Palpation of fetal outline and a positive hCG test are probable signs of pregnancy. A tumor also can be palpated. Medication and tumors may lead to false-positive results on pregnancy tests.

30

A woman is in for a routine prenatal checkup. You are assessing her urine for proteinuria. You know that which findings are considered normal? Choose all that apply.
a. Dipstick assessment of trace to +1
b. 300 mg/24 hours

A, B
Small amounts of protein in the urine are acceptable during pregnancy. The presence of protein in greater amounts may indicate renal problems. A dipstick assessment of +2 and >300 mg/24 hours are excessive amounts of protein in the urine and should be evaluated further.

31

____________________ is when the fetus begins to descend and drop into the pelvis.

Lightening

32

If exhibited by a pregnant woman, what represents a positive sign of pregnancy?

A. Morning sickness
B. Quickening
C. Positive pregnancy test
D. Fetal heartbeat auscultated with Doppler/fetoscope




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Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.



12.
ID: 499190305







D. Morning sickness and quickening, along with amenorrhea and breast tenderness, are presumptive signs of pregnancy; subjective findings are suggestive but not diagnostic of pregnancy. Other probable signs include changes in integument, enlargement of the uterus, and Chadwick sign. A positive pregnancy test is still considered to be a probable sign of pregnancy (objective findings are more suggestive but not yet diagnostic of pregnancy) since error can occur in performing the test or in rare cases human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) may be detected in the urine of nonpregnant women. Chances of error are less likely to occur today since pregnancy tests used are easy to perform and are very sensitive to the presence of the hCG associated with pregnancy. Detection of a fetal heartbeat, palpation of fetal movements and parts by an examiner, and detection of an embryo/fetus with sonographic examination would be positive signs diagnostic of pregnancy.

33

Which hematocrit (Hct) and hemoglobin (Hgb) results represent(s) the lowest acceptable values for a woman in the third trimester of pregnancy?

A. 38% Hct; 14 g/dL Hgb
B. 35% Hct; 13 g/dL Hgb
C. 33% Hct; 11 g/dL Hgb
D. 32% Hct; 10.5 g/dL Hgb

C. Represents the lowest acceptable value during the first and the third trimesters.

34

When assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a woman at 30 weeks of gestation, the nurse counts a rate of 82 beats/min. Initially the nurse should:

A. recognize that the rate is within normal limits and record it.
B. assess the woman’s radial pulse.
C. notify the physician.
D. allow the woman to hear the heartbeat.

B. The expected FHR is 120 to 160 beats/min. The nurse may have inadvertently counted the uterine souffle, the beatlike sound of blood flowing through the uterine blood vessels, which corresponds to the mother’s heartbeat. The physician should be notified if the FHR is confirmed to be 82 beats/min. Allow the woman to hear the heart beat as soon as a full assessment is made.

35

Over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy tests usually rely on which technology to test for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?

A. Radioimmunoassay
B. Radioreceptor assay
C. Latex agglutination test
D. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

D. The radioimmunoassay tests for the summit of hCG in serum or urine samples. This test must be performed in the laboratory. The radioreceptor assay is a serum test that measures the ability of a blood sample to inhibit the binding of hCG to receptors. The latex agglutination test in no way determines pregnancy. Rather, it is done to detect specific antigens and antibodies. OTC pregnancy tests use ELISA for its one-step, accurate results.

36

A nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates an understanding of the nurse’s instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:

A. a positive pregnancy test.
B. fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife.
C. Braxton Hicks contractions.
D. quickening.

B. A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy. Positive signs of pregnancy are those that are attributed to the presence of a fetus, such as hearing the fetal heartbeat or palpating fetal movement. Braxton Hicks contractions are a probable sign of pregnancy. Quickening is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

37

During a client’s physical examination, the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as the:

A. Hegar sign.
B. McDonald sign.
C. Chadwick sign.
D. Goodell sign.

A. At approximately 6 weeks of gestation, softening and compressibility of the lower uterine segment occur; this is called the Hegar sign. The McDonald sign indicates a fast-food restaurant. The Chadwick sign is a blue-violet cervix caused by increased vascularity; this occurs around the fourth week of gestation. Softening of the cervical tip is called the Goodell sign, which may be observed around the sixth week of pregnancy.

38

Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester?

A. Less audible heart sounds (S1 , S2 )
B. Increased pulse rate
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production

B. Splitting of S1 and S2 is more audible. Between 14 and 20 weeks of gestation, the pulse increases about 10 to 15 beats/min, which persists to term. In the first trimester blood pressure usually remains the same as the prepregnancy level, but it gradually decreases up to about 20 weeks of gestation. During the second trimester both the systolic and diastolic pressures decrease by about 5 to 10 mm Hg. Production of RBCs accelerates during pregnancy.

39

A woman who has completed one pregnancy with a fetus (or fetuses) reaching the stage of fetal viability is called a:

A. primipara.
B. primigravida.
C. multipara.
D. nulligravida.


A. A primipara is a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a viable fetus. To remember terms, keep in mind that gravida is a pregnant woman; para comes from parity, meaning a viable fetus; primi means first; multi means many; and null means none. A primigravida is a woman pregnant for the first time. A multipara is a woman who has completed two or more pregnancies with a viable fetus. A nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant.

40

Which presumptive signs (felt by the woman) or probable sign (observed by the examiner) of pregnancy is not matched with another possible cause?

A. Amenorrhea: stress, endocrine problems
B. Quickening: gas, peristalsis
C. Goodell sign: cervical polyps
D. Chadwick sign: pelvic congestion

C. Amenorrhea sometimes can be caused by stress, vigorous exercise, early menopause, or endocrine problems. Quickening can be gas or peristalsis. Goodell sign might be the result of pelvic congestion, not polyps. Chadwick sign might be the result of pelvic congestion.

41

In order to reassure and educate pregnant clients about changes in their blood pressure, maternity nurses should be aware that:

A. a blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low; a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high.
B. shifting the client’s position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit.
C. the systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances; the diastolic pressure remains constant. Incorrect
D. compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the latter stage of term pregnancy.

D. The tightness of a cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too high; similarly, the looseness of a cuff that is too large results in a reading that is too low. Because maternal positioning affects readings, blood pressure measurements should be obtained in the same arm and with the woman in the same position. The systolic blood pressure generally remains constant but may decline slightly as pregnancy advances. The diastolic blood pressure first drops and then gradually increases. This compression also leads to varicose veins in the legs and vulva.

42

A pregnant woman is the mother of two children. Her first pregnancy ended in a still birth at 32 weeks of gestation, her second pregnancy with the birth of her daughter at 36 weeks, and her third pregnancy with the birth of her son at 41 weeks. Using the 5-digit system to describe this woman’s current obstetric history, the nurse would record ____________________________.


Correct Responses
•4-1-2-0-2

Gravida (the first number) is 4 since this woman is now pregnant and was pregnant 3 times before. Para (the next 4 numbers) represents the outcomes of the pregnancies and would be described as: 4T: 1 = Term birth at 41 weeks of gestation (son) 4P: 2 = Preterm birth at 32 weeks of gestation (stillbirth) and 36 weeks of gestation (daughter) 4A: 0 = Abortion: none occurred 4L: 2 = Living children: her son and her daughter.

43

A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She has had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system? _____.







Correct Responses
•3-1-0-1-0

Using the GPTAL system, this woman’s gravidity and parity information is calculated as follows:
G: Total number of times the woman has been pregnant (she is pregnant for the third time)
T: Number of pregnancies carried to term (she has one stillborn)
P: Number of pregnancies that resulted in a preterm birth (she has none)
A: Abortions or miscarriages before the period of viability (she has had one)
L: Number of children born who are currently living (she has no living children)