Chapter 13 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the assumptions of the basic EOQ model?
    a. Annual demand requirements are known and constant.

    b. Lead time does not vary.

    c. Each order is received in a single delivery.
    d. Quantity discounts are available.

    e. All of the above are necessary assumptions.
A

d. Quantity discounts are available.


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2
Q
  1. Which of the following interactions with vendors would potentially lead to inventory reductions?
    a. reduce lead times

    b. increase safety stock

    c. less frequent purchases
    d. larger batch quantities
    e. longer order intervals
A

a. reduce lead times


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3
Q
  1. A non-linear cost related to order size is the cost of:
    a. interest

    b. insurance

    c. taxes
    d. receiving
    e. space
A

d. receiving

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4
Q
  1. In a two-bin inventory system, the amount contained in the second bin is equal to the:
    a. ROP

    b. EOQ

    c. amount in the first bin
    d. optimum stocking level
    e. safety stock
A

a. ROP


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5
Q
  1. When carrying costs are stated as a percentage of unit price, the minimum points on the total cost curves:
    a. Line up

    b. Equal zero

    c. Do not line up
    d. Cannot be calculated

    e. Depend on the percentage assigned
A

c. Do not line up

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6
Q
  1. Dairy items, fresh fruit and newspapers are items that:
    a. do not require safety stocks

    b. cannot be ordered in large quantities

    c. are subject to deterioration and spoilage
    d. require that prices be lowered every two days
    e. have minimal holding costs
A

c. are subject to deterioration and spoilage

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely to be included in order costs?
    a. processing vendor invoices for payment

    b. moving delivered goods to temporary storage

    c. inspecting incoming goods for quantity
    d. taking an inventory to determine how much is needed
    e. temporary storage of delivered goods
A

e. temporary storage of delivered goods

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8
Q
  1. In an A-B-C system, the typical percentage of the number of items in inventory for A items is about:
    a. 10

    b. 30

    c. 50
    d. 70
    e. 90
A

a. 10


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9
Q
  1. In the A-B-C classification system, items which account for fifteen percent of the total dollar-volume for a majority of the inventory items would be classified as:

    a. A items

    b. B items
    c. C items

    d. A items plus B items
    e. B items plus C items
A

c. C items


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10
Q
  1. In the A-B-C classification system, items which account for sixty percent of the total dollar-volume for few inventory items would be classified as:

    a. A items

    b. B items
    c. C items

    d. A items plus B items
    e. B items plus C items
A

a. A items


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11
Q
  1. The purpose of “cycle counting” is to:

    a. count all the items in inventory

    b. count bicycles and motorcycles in inventory

    c. reduce discrepancies between inventory records and actual
    d. reduce theft

    e. count 10% of the items each month
A

c. reduce discrepancies between inventory records and actual

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12
Q
  1. The EOQ model is most relevant for which one of the following?
    a. ordering items with dependent demand

    b. determination of safety stock

    c. ordering perishable items
    d. determining fixed interval order quantities
    e. determining fixed order quantities
A

e. determining fixed order quantities

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13
Q
  1. Which is not a true assumption in the EOQ model?
    a. Production rate is constant

    b. Lead time doesn’t vary

    c. No more than 3 items are involved
    d. Usage rate is constant
    e. No quantity discounts
A

c. No more than 3 items are involved

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14
Q
  1. In a supermarket, a vendor’s restocking the shelves every Monday morning is an example of:
    a. safety stock replenishment

    b. economic order quantities

    c. reorder points
    d. fixed order interval
    e. blanket ordering
A

d. fixed order interval

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15
Q
  1. A cycle count program will usually require that ‘A’ items be counted:
    a. daily.

    b. once a week.

    c. monthly.
    d. quarterly.

    e. more frequently than annually.
A

e. more frequently than annually.

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16
Q
  1. A risk avoider would want ______ safety stock.
    a. Less

    b. More

    c. The same
    d. Zero
    e. 50%
A

b. More


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17
Q
  1. In the basic EOQ model, if annual demand doubles, the effect on the EOQ is:
    a. It doubles.

    b. It is four times its previous amount.

    c. It is half its previous amount.
    d. It is about 70 percent of its previous amount.
    e. It increases by about 40 percent.
A

e. It increases by about 40 percent.

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18
Q
  1. In the basic EOQ model, if lead time increases from five to 10 days, the EOQ will:
    a. double

    b. increase, but not double

    c. decrease by a factor of two
    d. remain the same
    e. none of the above
A

d. remain the same

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19
Q
  1. In the basic EOQ model, an annual demand of 40 units, an ordering cost of $5, and a holding cost of $1 per unit per year will result in an EOQ of:

    a. 20

    b. square root of 200
    c. 200

    d. 400

    e. none of these
A

a. 20


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20
Q
  1. In the basic EOQ model, if D = 60 per month, S = $12, and H = $10 per unit per month, EOQ is:
    a. 10

    b. 12

    c. 24
    d. 72
    e. 144
A

b. 12


21
Q
  1. In the basic EOQ model, if annual demand is 50, carrying cost is $2, and ordering cost is $15, EOQ is approximately:

    a. 11

    b. 20
    c. 24
    d. 28
    e. 375
A

d. 28

22
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true for Economic Production Quantity model?
    a. Usage rate is constant.

    b. Production rate exceeds usage rate.

    c. Run size exceeds maximum inventory.
    d. There are no ordering or setup costs.

    e. Average inventory is one-half maximum inventory.
A

d. There are no ordering or setup costs.


23
Q
  1. Given the same demand, setup/ordering costs, and carrying costs, the EOQ calculated using incremental replenishment will be ____________ if instantaneous replenishment was assumed:

    a. greater than the EOQ

    b. equal to the EOQ
    c. smaller than the EOQ

    d. greater than or equal to the EOQ
    e. smaller than or equal to the EOQ
A

a. greater than the EOQ


24
Q
  1. The introduction of quantity discounts will cause the optimum order quantity to be:
    a. smaller

    b. unchanged

    c. greater
    d. smaller or unchanged
    e. unchanged or greater
A

e. unchanged or greater

25
Q
  1. A fill rate is the percentage of _____ filled by stock on hand.
    a. Shipments

    b. Demand

    c. Inventory
    d. Safety stock
    e. Lead time
A

b. Demand


26
Q
  1. In the quantity discount model, with carrying cost stated as a percentage of unit purchase price, in order for the EOQ of the lowest curve to be optimum, it must:

    a. have the lowest total cost

    b. be in a feasible range
    c. be to the left of the price break quantity for that price
    d. have the largest quantity compared to other EOQ’s
    e. none of the above
A

b. be in a feasible range

27
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not generally a determinant of the reorder point?
    a. rate of demand

    b. length of lead time

    c. lead time variability
    d. stockout risk
    e. purchase cost
A

e. purchase cost

28
Q
  1. If no variations in demand or lead time exist, the ROP will equal:
    a. the EOQ

    b. expected usage during lead time

    c. safety stock
    d. the service level

    e. the EOQ plus safety stock
A

b. expected usage during lead time


29
Q
  1. If average demand for an inventory item is 200 units per day, lead time is three days, and safety stock is 100 units, the reorder point is:

    a. 100 units

    b. 200 units
    c. 300 units
    d. 600 units
    e. 700 units
A

e. 700 units

30
Q
  1. Which one of the following is implied by a “lead time” service level of 95 percent?

    a. Approximately 95 percent of demand during lead time will be satisfied.

    b. Approximately 95 percent of inventory will be used during lead time.

    c. The probability is 95 percent that demand during lead time will exactly equal the amount on hand at the beginning of lead time.
    d. The probability is 95 percent that demand during lead time will not exceed the amount on hand at the beginning of lead time.

    e. none of the above
A

d. The probability is 95 percent that demand during lead time will not exceed the amount on hand at the beginning of lead time.


31
Q
  1. Which one of the following is implied by an “annual” service level of 95 percent?
    a. Approximately 95 percent of demand during lead time will be satisfied.

    b. The probability is 95 percent that demand will exceed supply during lead time.

    c. The probability is 95 percent that demand will equal supply during lead time.
    d. The probability is 95 percent that demand will not exceed supply during lead time.
    e. None of the above.
A

e. None of the above.

32
Q
  1. Daily usage is exactly 60 gallons per day. Lead time is normally distributed with a mean of 10 days and a standard deviation of 2 days. What is the standard deviation of demand during lead time?

    a. 60 x 2

    b. 60 times the square root of 2
    c. 60 times the square root of 10
    d. 60 x 10

    e. none of the above
A

a. 60 x 2


The standard deviation of demand during lead time is the square root of squared demand times the squared standard deviation of lead time.

33
Q
  1. Lead time is exactly 20 days long. Daily demand is normally distributed with a mean of 10 gallons per day and a standard deviation of 2 gallons. What is the standard deviation of demand during lead time?

    a. 20 x 2

    b. 20 x 10
    c. 2 times the square root of 20
    d. 2 times the square root of 10
    e. none of the above
A

c. 2 times the square root of 20

The standard deviation of demand during lead time equals the daily standard deviation of demand times the square root of the lead time.

34
Q
  1. All of the following are possible reasons for using the fixed order interval model except:
    a. Supplier policy encourages use.

    b. Grouping orders can save in shipping costs.

    c. The required safety stock is lower than with an EOQ/ROP model.
    d. It is suited to periodic checks of inventory levels rather than continuous monitoring.
    e. Continuous monitoring is not practical.
A

c. The required safety stock is lower than with an EOQ/ROP model.

35
Q
  1. Which of these products would be most apt to involve the use of a single-period model?
    a. gold coins

    b. hammers

    c. fresh fish
    d. calculators
    e. frozen corn
A

c. fresh fish

36
Q
  1. In a single-period model, if shortage and excess costs are equal, then the optimum service level is:
    a. 0

    b. .33

    c. .50
    d. .67

    e. none of these
A

c. .50

The ratio of shortage cost to shortage plus excess cost is 0.5.

37
Q
  1. In a single-period model, if shortage cost is four times excess cost, then the optimum service level is ___ percent.

    a. 100

    b. 80
    c. 60
    d. 40
    e. 20
A

b. 80

The ratio of shortage cost to shortage plus excess cost is 0.8.

38
Q
  1. In the single-period model, if excess cost is double shortage cost, the approximate stockout risk, assuming an optimum service level, is ___ percent.

    a. 100

    b. 67
    c. 50
    d. 33
    e. 5
A

b. 67

The ratio of shortage cost to shortage plus excess cost is 0.67.

39
Q
  1. If, in a single-period inventory situation, the probabilities of demand being 1, 2, 3, or 4 units are .3, .3, .2, and .2, respectively. If two units are stocked, what is the probability of selling both of them?
    a. .5

    b. .6
    c. .7

    d. .8

    e. none of these
A

c. .7


40
Q
  1. The management of supply chain inventories focuses on:
    a. internal inventories

    b. external inventories

    c. both internal and external inventories
    d. safety stock elimination
    e. optimizing reorder points
A

c. both internal and external inventories

41
Q
  1. An operations strategy for inventory management should work towards:
    a. increasing lot sizes

    b. decreasing lot sizes

    c. increasing safety stocks
    d. decreasing service levels
    e. increasing order quantities
A

b. decreasing lot sizes


42
Q
  1. Cycle stock inventory is intended to deal with ________.
    a. excess costs

    b. shortage costs

    c. stockouts
    d. expected demand
    e. quantity discounts
A

d. expected demand

43
Q
  1. An operations strategy which recognizes high carrying costs and reduces ordering costs will result in:
    a. unchanged order quantities

    b. slightly decreased order quantities

    c. greatly decreased order quantities
    d. slightly increased order quantities
    e. greatly increased order quantities
A

c. greatly decreased order quantities

44
Q
  1. The need for safety stocks can be reduced by an operations strategy which:
    a. increases lead time

    b. increases lead time variability

    c. increases lot sizes
    d. decreases ordering costs

    e. decreases lead time variability
A

e. decreases lead time variability

45
Q
  1. If average demand for an item is 20 units per day, safety stock is 50 units, and lead time is four days, the ROP will be:

    a. 20

    b. 50
    c. 70
    d. 80
    e. 130
A

e. 130

Multiply the demand rate by the lead time and add the safety stock.

46
Q
  1. With an A-B-C system, an item that had a high demand but a low annual dollar volume would probably be classified as:

    a. A

    b. B
    c. C

    d. none of these
A

c. C


47
Q
  1. The fixed order interval model would be most likely to be used for this situation:
    a. A company has switched from mass production to lean production.

    b. Production is done in batches.

    c. Spare parts are ordered when a new machine is purchased.
    d. Grouping orders can save shipping costs.
    e. none of these
A

d. Grouping orders can save shipping costs.

48
Q
  1. Which item would be least likely to be ordered under a fixed order interval system?
    a. textbooks at a college bookstore

    b. auto parts at an assembly plant

    c. cards at a gift shop
    d. canned peas at a supermarket
    e. none of these
A

b. auto parts at an assembly plant


49
Q
  1. Which one of these would not be a factor in determining the reorder point?
    a. the EOQ

    b. the lead time

    c. the variability of demand
    d. the demand or usage rate
    e. all are factors
A

a. the EOQ