Chapter 16 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Chapter 16 Deck (252):
1

Why is an effective leave program an essential military requiremetn

Because lengthy respites tend to have psychological and phsycial benefits

2

DoDI ____ Leave and liberty plicy and precdures, states that all officers in command, major headquters and military departnets shall ensure that secondary and nonessential efforst do not prevent and effective leave program

DoDI 1327.6

3

Leave accures at a rate of ____ calder days per motnh of active duty service

2 1/2 days

4

Annual leave accrual is temporariy increased from a total of 60 days to ____ until 30 Sept 2015

75 Days

5

When accuring leave, what does the expression "use or loe" mean

Leave in excess of 75 days is lost if not used by the end of theFY

6

You may reqest to carry over excess leave from one FY to the next if mission requriemetn preclude using it prior to 30 spet T/F

True

7

When can the AF pay you for unused leave

Upon reenlistment, retirement, separation under honorable conditions or death

8

You cannot reciev3e accured leave payment for more than ___ days of accured leave druign yoru military career

60 days

9

When does leave not accrue

AWAOl
in an unauthorized leave status
confineded for a court martial sentence
in an excess leave status
on appellate leave under title 10 section 876

10

How long can you keep special leave accrual earned in combat zones or in support of operatoins

Combat zones - four FY
Support ofoperations - Two FY

11

Describe the additional one time special leave accrual sell back authorized for enlistd service members

You may sell back up to 30 days of SLA that counts toward your 60 day career cap

12

Memebers lose leave in excess of 75 days at the end of the FY unless they are eligible for special leave accrual T/F

True

13

Elibiable members who lose leave on 1 October may have only the portion of leave restored that cold not possibley be used befoe the end of the FY not to exceed ____ days

120 days

14

Who approves special leave accrual for an orgnaization

MAJCOM or FOA directors or personnel or equievlants (colonel or above)

15

Any commander in the chain of command may dny a member request for SLA without referring it to a higher level authority when the rquest does not meet the criteria for SLA condierations T/F

True

16

Until 30 Sept ___ Members who serve on active duty while entitled to hostile fire imminent danger pay for 120 consecutive days may retain SLA until the end of th Fourth FY following the FY in wich the udty asisggnemnt in terminated

2015

17

Members not assigned to a hostile fire imminenet danger pay area for at least 120 consecutive days are autrized dto retain SLA up to how many days

120 Days

18

Leave must being and end in the local area, meantin what

The palce of residence from wich the member commutes to the duty station on a daily basis

19

How is the local area defined when your enroute to a PCS or TDY assigbnmet

The old Permante Duty Station for beginning leave, the new PDS for ending leave

20

AF form 8988 is used for all types of leave an permistive TDY when leave web cannot be usted, with what expection

When mbmebers take leave en route with PCS or tdy travel, the FSO uses the travel voucher to detmin authorized tavel and chargeable leave

21

When are non duty days and holidays chargeable leave days

when they cocur during th authorized period of leave

22

If leve includes a weekend, can it end on a Friday and begin again on a monday

No

23

Are successive Monday torugh firday leaves ever approved

Only under memebercy or unusual circumstances

24

If a member is incapacitated and unable to reparot for duty up on expiration of leave because of illness or injry who may notify the leave approving autorty on the mbmers behalf

Next of kin, attending physician, representative at th nearest medial treatment facility

25

what happens to your leave status if your hospitalized or on quarters status

Chargeable leave ends the day before and restarts the day following hosptiaztion or quarters status, regardless of the hour of admission, discharge or realease rom quaters

26

Who changes the leave status to AWOL when a member fails to return to deyt at eh end of their lreave period

MPS and the AF personnel center casualty services branch

27

Extension of leave must b rquertsd orally or in wirting. What time constraints apply

The extension must be rquested early enough to allow the member to return to duty on tme if the approval authority disapproves the extnesion

28

When may unit commanders recal members from leave

For military necessity or in the best interest of the AF

29

If your unit commadner authorized resumption of leave after you complet the duty that resulted in recal are new leave forms or orders rquied

Yes

30

TO resume leave a new AF form ___ or orders must be prepared aftery ou complet th eeduty that rsulted in recal

998

31

Identify five of the many types of leave

Annual
advance
convalescent
emergency
en route
terminal
excess
Envionrmtn and Moral Leave

32

What is another name for ordinary leave

Annual leave

33

Wha tis annual leave used for

Vacations, family needs such as illness, traditional national holidays, spiritual events or other religious observance or as terminal leave with retirement or separation from active duty

34

____ leave is granted based on a resonalbe expectation that a member will accrue at least that much leave during the remaiing period of active military service

Advance

35

What is the uprupose of advance leave

To enable members to resolve emergencies or urgent persanl situation when they have limited or no accrured leave

36

When ammeber has teken all possible advance leave that will be accrured druing the remaing period of active service, unti commanders change his or her leave status from adavace to ____ leave

Excess

37

____ leave is not chargeable

Convalescent

38

Can convalescent leave be used if a member elects civilian medical car eat personal expense and an AF physican determines the medical procedure is condiered electve

No

39

Can convalescent leave be used if a member elects civilian medical care for a medically necessary procedure such as childbirth

Yes

40

When may emergency leave be granted

This chargeable leave may be granted for personal or family emergencies involving the immediate family

41

Unit commanders approve emergency leave. To whom may they delegate this task

No lower than the first sergeant for enlisted personnel

42

What is the usual initial period for emergency leave

No more than 30 days

43

Can you be granted and extension of leave, beyond the initial 30 days, when on emergency leave

Yes up to an additional 30 days

44

If an emergency leave period extends more than 60 days what should unit commanders advise members to do

Apply for a humanitarian or exceptional family member reassignment or hardship discharge

45

Who approves emergency leave if the leave requested results in member having a cumulative negative leave balance of over 30 days

AFPC

46

Can members request emergency leave to attend court hearing s or to resolve marital or financial problems

No

47

____ leave is ordinary leave used in connection with PCS, including the first PCS upon completion of tech school

En Route

48

Losing unit CC normally approve up to ___ days of en route leave with any pcs if the leave does not interfere with the reporting date to either a port or new assignment

30 days

49

How many days of leave en route may members who complete basic or Tech school request if their first duty stat is in the Conus and If it is an overseas assignment

10 days ; 14 Days

50

What is terminal leave

Chargeable leave taken in conjunction with retirement or separation from active duty

51

Normally a member does not return to duty after terminal leave begins T/F

True

52

____ leave is normally used for personal or family emergencies when members cannot request advance leave

Excess

53

Why does entitlement to pay and allowances and leave accrual stop on the members first day of excess leave

Because excess leave is a no pay status

54

Will a member receive disability pay if injured while on excess leave

No

55

Where is environmental and moral leave authorized

At OS installations where adverse environmental conditions requires special arrangements for leave in desirable places at periodic intervals

56

What is funded Environmental and Morale leave leav3e

Funded EML is charged as ordinary leave, but members may us DoD owned or controlled aircraft. Travel time to and from EML destination is not charged as leave

57

What is unfunded EML Leave

Unfunded EML is charged as ordinary leave, but members receive space a air transportation from the duty location and travel time to and from the leave destination is charged as leave

58

A pass period is an authorized absence from duty for a relatively short time. When does it starts and end

It starts at the end of normal work hours on a duty day and ends at the beginning of normal work hours the next duty day

59

There are mileage restrictions for pass periods T/F

False

60

A regular pass includes the non duty days of Saturday and Sunday and a holiday if a member normally works Monday through Friday, or up to four days if a member works a nontraditional work schedule. The combination of non duty days and a public holiday may not exceed ___ days

Four

61

Is an authorized 4 day holiday period consistent of a holiday, compensatory time off day and a weekend considered a regular or special pass period

Regular

62

Why do unit CC award 3 or 4 day special passes

For special occasions or circumstances or for some type of special recognition or compensatory time off

63

To what level may unit commanders delegate the approval authority for special passes

To a level no lower then Squadron Section commander, deputies or equivalents

64

When do special passes start and stop

They start after normal work hours on a given day and stop at the beginning of normal work hours on either the 4th day for a 3 day special pass or the 5 day for a 4 day special pass

65

You may take a special pass in conjunction with leave without a duty day between the pass and leave period T/F

True

66

What is PTDY

A period of authorized absence to attend or participate in a designated official or semi official program for which funded TDY is not appropriate

67

Two situations where per missive TDY is not authorized

A PME graduation when the graduate is a coworker friend or military spouse
A change of command or retirement ceremony

68

AF policy upgraded the status of retirement ceremony from personal in nature to an official function This made it possible for CC to fund permissive tdy travel for the presiding official. Can thy also fund travel for attendees not officiating in the ceremonies

no

69

Why did the SECDEF direct establishment of the post deployment/mobilization respite absence program

To support total force policy and recognize members who are required to mobilize or deploy with a frequency beyond established rotation goals

70

Post deployment mobilization respite absence is a new category of administrative absence that applies to creditable deployment and mobilizations underway on or commencing after 19 Jan ____

2007

71

What is the yearly deployment to dwell ratio for the active component under PDMRA

1:2

72

What is the yearly mobilization to dwell ratio for reserve components under PDMRA

1:5

73

When do AF members accrue PDMRA

During creditable deployment temporary duty to the land areas of Afghanistan or Iraq

74

Aircrew participating in mission into and out of within or over the area of eligibility in support of military operations count each day of operations one day of PDMRA. How is deployment defined

As a member TDY under contingency, exercise and deployment orders to the land areas of Afghanistan or Iraq

75

Creditable PDMRA time continues to accrue during periods of R and R leave and for TDY of ____ or less consecutive days outside of Afghanistan or Ira

30 or less consecutive days

76

Who usually approves ordinary leave requests

Commanders delegate approval to the lowest supervisory level that meets the needs of the unit

77

Leave authorization numbers will not normally be given earlier than____ days prior to the leave effective date

14 days

78

Members on leave should us ____ management principles t assess all hazards and control risks before excessive or hazardous travel, especially when traveling by automobiles

Risk

79

How do supervisors process the AF form 988 when it is not digitally processed

The supervisor sends Part I with the authorization number to the servicing finance office and gives part II to the member after obtaining a leave authorization number. The supervisor retains Part III for completion after the member returns from leave

80

Upon returning from leave the member signs part III of AF Form 988. The supervisor certifies the dates of leave and sends it to whom

The commander support staff

81

Why did the AF adopt the current method of recording leave

To prevent fraud in the leave reporting system

82

What system automates the method of requesting an processing leave in lieu of using the hard copy AF Form 988

Leave Web

83

What is the purpose of the mishap prevention program

To minimize loss of AF resources and protect AMN from death, injuries or occupational illnesses by managing risk on and off duty

84

the challenge of ____ technologically advanced combat systems and changing duty requirements demands strong on duty mishap prevention programs

Deployments

85

Who has responsibilities in the Mishap Prevention Program

All AF Personnel

86

AF personnel use sound risk management principles, processes tools and techniques to assess and mitigate only on duty risks T/F

False

87

An AF ____ is an unplanned occurrence or series of occurrences resulting in damage to public or private property, occupational illness to AF personnel, or death or injury to on or off duty AF military personnel

Mishap

88

What constitutes a Class A mishap

Direct mishap cost totals $2M
A dod ACFT excluding RPA 1, 2, 3 is destroyed
Fatality or permanent total disability

89

Describe a Class B mishap

Cost $500K or more but less then $2M
Permanent partial disability
Inpatient hospitalization of three or more personnel, not including observation or diagnostic care

90

A Class ___ mishap is defined by direct mishap cost that total $50K or more, but less then $500K

Class C

91

The least damaging mishap is the class

Class D

92

`What does an effective mishap prevention program depend on

Individual integrating mishap prevention principles at every functional level and complying with applicable safety standard

93

Who implements the mishap prevention programs at the installation level

The safety staff, host and tenant unit

94

Commanders at all levels implement the US AF mishap prevention program. Name three ways installation commanders accomplish this

Provide safe and healthful workplaces for all installation employees
Ensure leadership is accountable for enforcing safety and occupational health standards
Chair the installation safety council and or environment safety and occupational health council

95

CCs below installation level implement the US AF mishap prevention program and a safety and health program in their unit or AOR. Describe their other two mishap prevention responsibilities

Appointing a primary and alternate USR where commanders are not authorized full time safety personnel
Ensuring a proactive mishap prevention program is implemented, including procurement and proper use of PPE and worker facility compliance with standards

96

What form must be used when necessary to identify and report hazardous s conditions that place AF personnel or property at risk

AF Form 457

97

HFAC are about people in their working and recreational environment, and how the features of individuals tools, task and working environment influence human performance. T/F

False

98

When considering the influence of Human factors on mishaps, what four things can a systematic root cause analysis achieve

Identify HFAC deficiencies
Apply mitigations strategies
improve organizational cultures
establish processes to interrupt chains of events and avoid mishaps

99

Name the four levels used to determine the root cause of a mishap when dealing with the Human factors analysis and classification system

Organizational influences
supervision
precondition
acts

100

When analyzing the root causes of mishaps, at what level does upper level management directly or indirectly affect the operator resulting in system failure, human error or an unsafe situation

Organization influences

101

When analyzing the root cause4s of mishaps the level where supervision fails to correct known problems, leading to unsafe acts is known as command influences T/F

False

102

What are preconditions for unsafe acts, as they pertain to analyzing the root cause of a mishap

Condition of the operators, environmental factors or personnel factors that result in human error or an unsafe situation

103

When analyzing the root causes of mishaps, unsafe acts fall into three categories T/F

False (Violations and errors)

104

Explain the difference between an unsafe act that is a violation and one that is an error

A violation involves an operator disregarding rules and instructions. An error is a more commonly undertows human factor and can be classified as a skill based error a judgment and decision making error or a perception error

105

Reckless behavior and unwise decision are not tolerated T/F

True

106

Who ensures that personnel understand the implications of poor decisions and the importance of compliance

Supervisors

107

What role do commanders play in reinforcing accountability

Ensure personnel are ware of AFIS
Enforce compliance
May direct an additional investigation for disciplinary purposes

108

What can filed or absent defenses in organizational factors, unsafe supervision, pre conditions for unsafe acts and unsafe acts cause

A mishap

109

If an AMN is injured or dies due to his or her own misconduct, affecting LOD determination what may happened

the AMN or family may lose substantial benefit's

110

What does the AMNs career and life, along with his or her family well begin depend upon

Wise decisions

111

Why are supervisors in the best potion to identify hazards, assess risks associated with those hazards and correct unsafe work practices or safety deficiencies

Because they are responsible for training, establishing work methods and job instructions, assigning jobs and supervising personnel

112

What does the occupational safety program create to achieve successful mission accomplishment

A highly trained workforce that recognizes the importance of safety precautions and procedures and adheres to standards incorporating the basic elements of RM

113

Safety training may only be integrating into tasks performance training T/F

False

114

Before any operation begins or any safety training takes place, what helps the supervisor determine where people may be injured or equipment damaged

A job safety analysis

115

Supervisors use what methods to eliminate or control unsafe and unhealthy working conditions

Engineering, administrative controls, or the use of PPPE

116

When is use of PPE appropriate

Only when other controls are not possible or practical for non routine use

117

Commanders must provide PPE for AF military members and civilian employees T/F

True

118

List three methods of documentation that can be used for occupational safety program

AF Form 55
Electronic mediums
Locally developed products

119

Name five of the fiscal year 2013 top 10 most frequently cited OSHA violations

Fall protection
Hazard communication
Scaffolding
Respiratory protection
Electrical wiring
Powered industrial trucks
Ladders
Hazardous energy control
Electrical, system design
Machine guarding

120

How must the areas around exits be kept in order to enforce safety standards

Free of obstructions

121

If ladders are defective in any way, what must be done to enforce safety standards

They must be removed from service

122

In order to enforce safety standards, fully insult plugs so that no part of the ___ is exposed

Prongs

123

In order to enforce safety standards when using a plug with a their or grounding prong what must you do

Check frequently to ensure that it is secure

124

Circuit breakers and disconnect switches must be readily accessible to workers and building management personnel. What else must be accessible in order to enforce safety standards

Fuses

125

To enforce safety standards, why must you never tape circuit breakers in the On Position

Breakers that trip frequently indicate electrical problems

126

To enforce safety standards, where must you never durum cords

Through holes in walls, ceilings, floors, doorways, windows, etc...

127

To enforce safety standards, only us __- surge protectors to power computers and related equipment

Multi receptacle

128

To enforce safety standards, never sue surge protectors or extension cords for ___ items

high CURRENT

129

electrical OUTLEST, SWIT CHES AND JUNCTION BOXES MUST BE KEPT IN GOOD CONDTION IN ORDER TO ENFORCE SAFETY STANDARDS. what ELSE DO THEY REQURIED

Secure Cover plates

130

To enforce safety standards, ensure one or more methods of ____ is provided to protect the operator and others in the machine area

Machine guarding

131

How do you report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately

AF Form 457

132

Within 10 duty days, the investigator of a hazard reported by AF Form 457 must respond in writing about the corrective action or plans. What else must the investigator do

Conduct follow up reviews until the corrective action is completed

133

Why must each AF installation have an effective traffic safety program as part of its mishap prevention program

Because Traffic mishaps cause the highest number of AF injury related deaths each year

134

Reckless behaviors account for more then ____ percent of PMV fatalities in the last 10 years

70 Percent

135

What activities have recently begun to cause more PMV accidents

Distraction by non driving activities such as talking on cell phones, texting or using a navigation device

136

What is risk management

RM is decision making process that systematically evaluations possible courses of actin, identifies risks and benefits, and determines the best COA for any given situation

137

How does RM help commander, functional managers, supervisors and individuals maximize capabilities while limiting risk

By applying a simple, systematic process appropriate for all personnel and functions, in both on and off duty situations

138

What four principles govern all actions associated with the management of risk and are applicable 24 hrs a day 7 days a week, by all personnel for all on and off duty operations, task and activities

Accept no unnecessary risk
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
Integrate RM into operations an planning at all levels
Apply the process cyclically and continuously

139

What is an unnecessary risk

An unnecessary risk comes without a commensurate return in terms of real benefits or available opportunities.
It will not contribute meaningfully to mission or activity accomplishment and needlessly jeopardizes personnel or other assets

140

Explain the RM principle Accept no unnecessary risk

All AF missions and daily routines involve risk. Make logical choices that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk

141

Should airmen be completely risk averse

No

142

When making risk decision, why is it important to engage personnel with prior knowledge and experience of the mission or activity

they help ensure a proper balance between benefits and costs

143

Explain the RM principle Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

anyone can make a risk decision that impacts personnel wellbeing, but some risk acceptance decisions must com from an appropriate decision making authority that can allocate resources and implement controls to mitigate or eliminate risks. W

144

Who must be fully engaged in the risk decision process

Those accountable for the success or failure of the mission or activity

145

Explain the RM principle integrate risk management into operations and planning at all levels

Integrating risk management into planning at all levels and as early as possible provides the greatest opportunity to make well informed risk decisions and implement effective risk controls

146

When are risk assessments of operations and activities most successful

When they are accomplished in the normal sequence of events by individuals directly involved in the event and not as a last minute or add on process

147

Explain RM principle apply the process cyclically and continuously

Using the process cyclically and continuously helps identify and assess hazards, develop and implement controls, evaluate outcomes and provide feedback to airman

148

There are two primary levels of RM that dictate the effort and scope of evaluation risk. What are they

Deliberate
Real time

149

Deliberate and real time RM are interrelated when it comes to making RM decisions T/F

True

150

A strong, effective RM process involved careful and deliberate planning coupled with effective Real time RM. What does this full spectrum approach ensure

Comprehensive risk mitigation and the likelihood of mission or activity success

151

What process must be formally applied during deliberate RM

The 5 Step RM process

152

What type of RM planning is reserved for complex operations, systems, high priority or visibility situations or circumstances in which hazards are not well understood

In depth RM

153

In depth RM is usually implemented well in advance of the planned system, mission, even t or activity T/F

true

154

While using deliberate RM it is important to always include experience, expertise, and knowledge of ___ to identify known hazards risks and strategies to effectively mitigate risks

Experienced personnel

155

RM is used on the fly when time is limited and Deliberate RM planning is impractical. Instead of using the full 5 step RM process what should you apply

The easy to remember Assess the situation
Balance controls
Communicate
Decide and debrief (ABCD) mnemonic

156

Each step in the RM process addresses a unique aspect of how to effectively deal with risk. Identify these five steps

Step 1 - Identify the Hazards
Step 2 - Assess the Hazards
Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions
Step 4 - Implement Controls
Step 5 - Supervise and Evaluate

157

What are the key aspects of step 1 of the RM process, Identify the Hazards

Mission task analysis
List Hazards
List causes

158

How are hazards defined during step 1 of the RM process, Identify the Hazards

Any real or potential condition that can cause mission degradation, injury, illness, death to personnel, or damage to or loss of equipment property

159

Which step of RM process involves the application of quantitative and or qualitative measures to determine the probability and severity of negative effects that may result from exposure to risks hazards

Step 2 - Assess the hazards

160

What are the key aspects of step 2 of the RM process, Assess the Hazards

Assess Hazard exposure
Assess Hazard severity
Assess probability
Assess risk levels
Complete risk assessment

161

A single model of RA matrix is suitable for all situation T/F

False

162

What document offers a complete and in depth description of a RA matrix

AFPAM 90-803

163

What are the four sample levels of severity given in the sample RA matrix in Chapter 16

Catastrophic
Critical
Moderate
Negligible

164

What step of the RM process involves the development and selection of specific strategies and controls to reduce or eliminate risk

Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions

165

What are the key aspects of step 3 of the RM process, Develop Controls and make decisions

Identifying control options
Determining control effects
Prioritizing risk controls
Selecting risk controls
Making risk control decisions

166

In step 3 of the RM process Develop Controls and make decisions, effective mitigation measures will reduce one of what three3 components of risk

Probability, severity or exposure

167

In step 3 of the RM process, Develop Controls and make decisions, the higher the risk, the lower the decision level needs to be to ensure an appropriate analysis of overall costs compared to benefits T/F

False

168

What is the standard for establishing levels of RM decision authority across the AF

There is no Standard

169

in Step 3 of the RM process develop controls and make decision, decision makers must choose the most mission supportive risk ____ consistent with RM principles that provide the best solutions of hazards

Controls

170

When identifying control options during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what should each hazard have

One or more controls that can effectively eliminate, avoid or reduce the risk to an acceptable level

171

When determining control effected during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what qualities will the best controls possess

They will be consistent with mission objective and optimize use of available resources

172

When selecting risk controls during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, select the risk controls that reduce risk to what level

An acceptable level

173

When making risk control decision during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what should you do if the risks outweigh the benefits and you cannot identify any new controls

Inform the next level in the chain of command that, based on the evaluation the risk of the mission exceeds the benefits and should be modified

174

As circumstances change for a mission or activity what must ensure that pervious go, no go decisions are valid

The benefit to risk comparison

175

What step of the RM process develops and carries out an implementation strategy to identify the who what when where and costs associated with the control measure

Step 4 - Implement Controls

176

What are the key aspect of step 4 of the RM process, implement controls

Make implementation clear
Establish accountability
Provide support

177

During step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, why must accountability for mission related controls be emphasized across all levels of leadership and personnel involved

So there is a clear understanding of the risk and responsibilities of commanders and subordinates alike

178

During step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, there must always be accountability for acceptance of risk, regardless of circumstances T/F

True

179

When making implementation clear during step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, provide a ____ for implementation and a vision of the end stat

Road Map

180

When establishing accountability during step 4 of the RM process, implement controls individuals involved in a specific risk management process must know who is responsible and accountable at each stage of an activity. What else must they know

If possible, when decisions will be elevated to the next level

181

To be successful when providing support during step 4 of the RM process Implement controls, who must be behind the control measures put into place

Command/Leadership

182

What step of the RM process continues through the life cycle of a system, mission or activity

Step 5 - Supervise and evaluate

183

What are the key aspects of step 5 of the RM process supervise and evaluate

Supervise
Evaluate
Feedback

184

In step 5 of the RM process Supervise and evaluate, action is taken when necessary to correct ineffective risk controls and reinitiate risk management steps in response to new hazards T/F

True

185

When are risks and controls reevaluated as part of step 5 of the RM process, Supervise and evaluate

Anytime the personnel, equipment, mission or activity change or new actions are anticipated in an environment not covered in the original RM analysis

186

During leadership changes, what does step 5 of the RM process, supervise and evaluate stipulate that outgoing leaders share with incoming leaders to provide a positive transition of risk acceptance and reduce volatility

Knowledge, experiences and lessons

187

Every risk analysis should be perfect the first time T/F

False

188

Name three excellent tools for measurements conducted as part of the RM process

After action reports
Surveys
In process reviews

189

A RM feedback system ensures that corrective and preventative action was effective and identifies, analyzes and corrects new hazards. What else does it do

Informs all involved about the implementation process and controls

190

____ in the RM process can occur in the form of briefings, lessons learned, cross tell report, benchmarking and database reports

Feedback

191

When it is essential to streamline the 5 step RM process for situations involving quick decision, AMN can use the easy to remember ABCD mnemonic, what does it stand for

Assess the situation
Balance Controls
Communicate
Decide and debrief

192

In the assess the situation step of the real time RM process, what does a complete assessment require

Perception of what is happening
Integration of information and goals
projection into the future

193

The assess the situation step of the real time RM process combines which two step of the 5 step RM process

Step 1 - Identify the Hazards
Step 2 - Assess the Hazards

194

In the balance controls step of the Real time RM process, personnel must consider all controls to facilitate mission or activity success and to eliminate or mitigate risk. What can make this step more effective

Better preparation

195

The balance control step of the Real Time RM process is specifically tied to making risk control decision, similar to which step of the 5 step RM process

Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions

196

In the communicate step of the Real time RM process, personnel experience stress and loss of situational awareness, which may lead to diminished communication skills and tunnel vision. How can it help individuals to know that they are losing situational awareness

They can make corrections and communicate with teammates and leadership in real time situations. they can also step back to reevaluate options

197

In the communicate step of the real time RM process, communication can take various forms. List three examples

Real Tim communication with leadership to discuss problems or intentions
Internal team/crew communication to discuss real time hazards and mitigation
Individuals internalizing a situation to evaluate whether they are on the right path

198

Explain what happens in the decide and debrief step of Real time RM

Amn decide whether to continue, modify or abandon the mission
Make every effort to weigh risk decision before selecting the best COA
Examine what worked and what did not work to improve performance and future activities

199

How does the Decide and debrief step of the real time RM process differ from Step 4 of the 5 step RM process, implement controls

An impanation strategy is not carefully developed and carried out in step 4. Instead real time RM relies on an individual or small group taking immediate or near immediate action to mitigate risks in real time

200

Sexual assault is a ___ and is not tolerated by the US AF

Crime

201

Sexual assault falls well short of the standards America expects of its men and women in uniform. It also violates AF core values T/F

True

202

____ for self, others and the AF institution is inherent in the core values

Respect

203

The DoDs definition of sexual assault, for training and educational purposes, affects the definition of offenses under the CUMJ T/F

False

204

Sexual assault is defined by the DoD as intentional sexual contact, characterized by what

Use of force, threats, intimidation or abuse of authority, or if the victim does not or cannot consent

205

Sexual assault includes a broad category of sexual offenses. List three examples

Rape
Sexual assault
Aggravated sexual contact
Abusive sexual contact
Forcible Sodomy
Attempts to commit any of these offenses

206

Consent requires words or overt acts by a ___ person that indicate freely given agreement to sexual conduct

Competent

207

A person must express lack of consent to sexual conduct through words T/F

False

208

Does a lack of verbal or physical resistance to sexual conduct constitute consent

No

209

A pervious or current dating relationship, or a persona ___ of ___ does not constitute consent to sexual conduct

Manner of Dress

210

Does consent to sexual conduct exist if a person is sleeping or incapacitated

No

211

Who ensures the implementation of the sexual assault prevention and response program, including sexual assault awareness, prevention and response training

The SARC

212

To whom does the SARC report

The installation commander t

213

The SARC ensures appropriate care is coordinated and provided to ____ victims of sexual assault perpetrated by someone other than the victims spouse or partner

Adult

214

A SARC may obtain a written waiver from the installation commander in lieu of proper training and credentials T/F

False

215

Who provides non clinical crisis intervention, referral and ongoing non clinical support to adult victims of sexual assault perpetrated by someone other than the victims souse or partner

VA

216

What support does a sexual assault VA provide

Information on available options and resources
Liaison assistance with other organizations and agencies on victim care matters
Performance of victim advocacy duties

217

What are the two types of sexual assault VA

Sexual Assault prevention and response VA
Volunteer VA

218

All sexual assault VA must be trained and ____

Credentialed

219

Who may be a sexual assault prevention and response VA

A full time general service civilian employee selected and trained by the SARC

220

Who may be a volunteer sexual assault VA

Military and DoD civilian employee volunteers selected and trained by the SARC

221

What two reporting options are available when you report a sexual assault

Unrestricted Reporting
Restricted reporting

222

_____ reporting of sexual assault activates victim services and accountability responses and its essential to eliminating the crime

Unrestricted

223

Restricted reporting to sexual assault offers an option for victims who do not want ____ or AF law enforcing involvement

Command

224

Restricted reporting of sexual assault provides access to all victim care services but will not trigger an investigation or notify the chain of command T/F

True

225

Who must report sexual assault incidents involving subordinates in their supervisory chain to the SAR, commander and OSI

Military members and civilian employees, unless authorized to received confidential communication or exempt by law, regulation or policy

226

Must military members an civilian employees report sexual assault incidents not involving subordinates in their supervisory chain to the SARC

No, but they are strongly encouraged to report the incident or to encourage the victim to do so

227

Upon notification of a sexual assault, what does the SARC do immediately

Response to the victim, or directs a VA to respond

228

May the victim of a sexual assault request a different VA

Yes if one is available

229

Unless the victim declines assistance following a sexual assault, what information does the SARC or VA provide

The sexual assault response process
Restricted or unrestricted reporting
Healthcare treatment
Sexual assault forensic examinations
Special Victims Counsel

230

What sexual assault prevention and response support services are available to AFR component members in Title 10 status who are sexually assaulted while performing active service and inactive duty training

Full services, including response support services from a SARC or VA

231

AFR component members who were sexually assaulted prior to or while not performing active service or inactive training, when not in title 10 statues, are eligible for ____ sexual assault prevention and response support services

Limited

232

What two types of non military individuals are only eligible to make unrestricted sexual assault report and receive emergency medical services at no cost, unless otherwise eligible as a service member or TRICARE beneficiary

DoD civilian employees and dependents 18 years or older, when stationed or performing duties outside the CONUS and eligible for treatment military facilities there
US citizen DoD contractor personnel, when authorized to accompany the armed forces in a contingency operation outside the CONUS

233

What option is available to report allegations of sexual assault without imitating the investigative process

Restricted reporting

234

What is the purpose of restricted reporting of sexual assault allegations

To remove barriers to medical care and support, and give victims additional time and increase control over the release and management of personal information

235

The AF is committed to treating victims of sexual assault with dignity and respect and protecting their privacy. What other commitment does the AF uphold

To provide them with support, advocacy and care

236

Who may receive a restricted report of a sexual assault allegation

SARC, healthcare personnel and VA

237

Chaplains and other individuals entitled to privileged communications are authorized to accept a report of sexual assault T/F

False

238

What requirement of AFI 44-102, is waived for restricted reports of sexual assault incidents

Reporting sexual assault incidents to the AF OSI or other appropriate authorities

239

If a VA is contacted by a victim wishing to make a restricted report, but has not been assigned by the SARC to the victim, what should the VA do

Immediately refer the victim to the SARC

240

Whom must the SARC notify within 24 hours of receiving a restricted report of an alleged sexual assault

The installation or host wing commander

241

Commanders and law enforcement may not use in formation from restricted reports of sexual assault allegations to initiate an investigation T/F

True

242

An unrestricted report of a sexual assault is one made through normal reporting channels. What channels does this include

The victims chain of command
Law enforcement
AF OSI
Other criminal Investigative services

243

A report of an alleged sexual assault is made to a SARC, VA or healthcare personnel and the individual elects unrestricted reporting. What happens tot he report

It is forwarded to OSI

244

Who is routinely deemed to have a valid need to know about an unrestricted report of sexual assault allegation

Law enforcement
The commanders and first sergeants of the victim and the alleged assailant
Legal personnel
SARC
VA assigned to the victim
Health care providers

245

What steps must a commander take immediately when notified of a sexual assault through unrestricted reporting

Ensure the victims physical safety, emotional security and medical treatment needs are met
The OSI or appropriate criminal investigative agency, SARC are notified
The victim or alleged assailant is temporarily reassigned or relocated if appropriate

246

If you consult the SARC about a sexual assault, then elect not to report , must the SARC inform investigators or commanders about the report

No

247

A sexual assault investigation may uncover evidence that the victim engaged in misconduct. Name several examples

Underage drinking or other related alcohol offenses
Adultery
Drug abuse
Fraternization
other violations of instructions, regulations or orders

248

If an investigation of sexual assault uncovers evidence that the victim engaged in misconduct, commanders must balance accountability for misconduct against what two things

Avoid unnecessary additional trauma to the victim
Encourage reports of sexual assault

249

Deploying members receive training on sexual assault issues before departing T/F

True

250

The AF only identifies trained military SARC for AEF rotational support for global contingency operations, consistent with requirements established by a commander, Air Force Forces T/F

False

251

Normally each AEW warrants at least one SARC requirement. What are the requirements for deployments smaller than an AEF

Deployed commanders must provide a sexual assault response capability consistent with AF requirements

252

Home station unit commanders must ensure that AF members, prior to deployment are trained on annual and pre deployment sexual assault and response training requirements T/F

True