Chapter 16 Flashcards
(252 cards)
1
Q
Why is an effective leave program an essential military requiremetn
A
Because lengthy respites tend to have psychological and phsycial benefits
2
Q
DoDI ____ Leave and liberty plicy and precdures, states that all officers in command, major headquters and military departnets shall ensure that secondary and nonessential efforst do not prevent and effective leave program
A
DoDI 1327.6
3
Q
Leave accures at a rate of ____ calder days per motnh of active duty service
A
2 1/2 days
4
Q
Annual leave accrual is temporariy increased from a total of 60 days to ____ until 30 Sept 2015
A
75 Days
5
Q
When accuring leave, what does the expression “use or loe” mean
A
Leave in excess of 75 days is lost if not used by the end of theFY
6
Q
You may reqest to carry over excess leave from one FY to the next if mission requriemetn preclude using it prior to 30 spet T/F
A
True
7
Q
When can the AF pay you for unused leave
A
Upon reenlistment, retirement, separation under honorable conditions or death
8
Q
You cannot reciev3e accured leave payment for more than ___ days of accured leave druign yoru military career
A
60 days
9
Q
When does leave not accrue
A
AWAOl in an unauthorized leave status confineded for a court martial sentence in an excess leave status on appellate leave under title 10 section 876
10
Q
How long can you keep special leave accrual earned in combat zones or in support of operatoins
A
Combat zones - four FY
Support ofoperations - Two FY
11
Q
Describe the additional one time special leave accrual sell back authorized for enlistd service members
A
You may sell back up to 30 days of SLA that counts toward your 60 day career cap
12
Q
Memebers lose leave in excess of 75 days at the end of the FY unless they are eligible for special leave accrual T/F
A
True
13
Q
Elibiable members who lose leave on 1 October may have only the portion of leave restored that cold not possibley be used befoe the end of the FY not to exceed ____ days
A
120 days
14
Q
Who approves special leave accrual for an orgnaization
A
MAJCOM or FOA directors or personnel or equievlants (colonel or above)
15
Q
Any commander in the chain of command may dny a member request for SLA without referring it to a higher level authority when the rquest does not meet the criteria for SLA condierations T/F
A
True
16
Q
Until 30 Sept ___ Members who serve on active duty while entitled to hostile fire imminent danger pay for 120 consecutive days may retain SLA until the end of th Fourth FY following the FY in wich the udty asisggnemnt in terminated
A
2015
17
Q
Members not assigned to a hostile fire imminenet danger pay area for at least 120 consecutive days are autrized dto retain SLA up to how many days
A
120 Days
18
Q
Leave must being and end in the local area, meantin what
A
The palce of residence from wich the member commutes to the duty station on a daily basis
19
Q
How is the local area defined when your enroute to a PCS or TDY assigbnmet
A
The old Permante Duty Station for beginning leave, the new PDS for ending leave
20
Q
AF form 8988 is used for all types of leave an permistive TDY when leave web cannot be usted, with what expection
A
When mbmebers take leave en route with PCS or tdy travel, the FSO uses the travel voucher to detmin authorized tavel and chargeable leave
21
Q
When are non duty days and holidays chargeable leave days
A
when they cocur during th authorized period of leave
22
Q
If leve includes a weekend, can it end on a Friday and begin again on a monday
A
No
23
Q
Are successive Monday torugh firday leaves ever approved
A
Only under memebercy or unusual circumstances
24
Q
If a member is incapacitated and unable to reparot for duty up on expiration of leave because of illness or injry who may notify the leave approving autorty on the mbmers behalf
A
Next of kin, attending physician, representative at th nearest medial treatment facility
25
what happens to your leave status if your hospitalized or on quarters status
Chargeable leave ends the day before and restarts the day following hosptiaztion or quarters status, regardless of the hour of admission, discharge or realease rom quaters
26
Who changes the leave status to AWOL when a member fails to return to deyt at eh end of their lreave period
MPS and the AF personnel center casualty services branch
27
Extension of leave must b rquertsd orally or in wirting. What time constraints apply
The extension must be rquested early enough to allow the member to return to duty on tme if the approval authority disapproves the extnesion
28
When may unit commanders recal members from leave
For military necessity or in the best interest of the AF
29
If your unit commadner authorized resumption of leave after you complet the duty that resulted in recal are new leave forms or orders rquied
Yes
30
TO resume leave a new AF form ___ or orders must be prepared aftery ou complet th eeduty that rsulted in recal
998
31
Identify five of the many types of leave
```
Annual
advance
convalescent
emergency
en route
terminal
excess
Envionrmtn and Moral Leave
```
32
What is another name for ordinary leave
Annual leave
33
Wha tis annual leave used for
Vacations, family needs such as illness, traditional national holidays, spiritual events or other religious observance or as terminal leave with retirement or separation from active duty
34
____ leave is granted based on a resonalbe expectation that a member will accrue at least that much leave during the remaiing period of active military service
Advance
35
What is the uprupose of advance leave
To enable members to resolve emergencies or urgent persanl situation when they have limited or no accrured leave
36
When ammeber has teken all possible advance leave that will be accrured druing the remaing period of active service, unti commanders change his or her leave status from adavace to ____ leave
Excess
37
____ leave is not chargeable
Convalescent
38
Can convalescent leave be used if a member elects civilian medical car eat personal expense and an AF physican determines the medical procedure is condiered electve
No
39
Can convalescent leave be used if a member elects civilian medical care for a medically necessary procedure such as childbirth
Yes
40
When may emergency leave be granted
This chargeable leave may be granted for personal or family emergencies involving the immediate family
41
Unit commanders approve emergency leave. To whom may they delegate this task
No lower than the first sergeant for enlisted personnel
42
What is the usual initial period for emergency leave
No more than 30 days
43
Can you be granted and extension of leave, beyond the initial 30 days, when on emergency leave
Yes up to an additional 30 days
44
If an emergency leave period extends more than 60 days what should unit commanders advise members to do
Apply for a humanitarian or exceptional family member reassignment or hardship discharge
45
Who approves emergency leave if the leave requested results in member having a cumulative negative leave balance of over 30 days
AFPC
46
Can members request emergency leave to attend court hearing s or to resolve marital or financial problems
No
47
____ leave is ordinary leave used in connection with PCS, including the first PCS upon completion of tech school
En Route
48
Losing unit CC normally approve up to ___ days of en route leave with any pcs if the leave does not interfere with the reporting date to either a port or new assignment
30 days
49
How many days of leave en route may members who complete basic or Tech school request if their first duty stat is in the Conus and If it is an overseas assignment
10 days ; 14 Days
50
What is terminal leave
Chargeable leave taken in conjunction with retirement or separation from active duty
51
Normally a member does not return to duty after terminal leave begins T/F
True
52
____ leave is normally used for personal or family emergencies when members cannot request advance leave
Excess
53
Why does entitlement to pay and allowances and leave accrual stop on the members first day of excess leave
Because excess leave is a no pay status
54
Will a member receive disability pay if injured while on excess leave
No
55
Where is environmental and moral leave authorized
At OS installations where adverse environmental conditions requires special arrangements for leave in desirable places at periodic intervals
56
What is funded Environmental and Morale leave leav3e
Funded EML is charged as ordinary leave, but members may us DoD owned or controlled aircraft. Travel time to and from EML destination is not charged as leave
57
What is unfunded EML Leave
Unfunded EML is charged as ordinary leave, but members receive space a air transportation from the duty location and travel time to and from the leave destination is charged as leave
58
A pass period is an authorized absence from duty for a relatively short time. When does it starts and end
It starts at the end of normal work hours on a duty day and ends at the beginning of normal work hours the next duty day
59
There are mileage restrictions for pass periods T/F
False
60
A regular pass includes the non duty days of Saturday and Sunday and a holiday if a member normally works Monday through Friday, or up to four days if a member works a nontraditional work schedule. The combination of non duty days and a public holiday may not exceed ___ days
Four
61
Is an authorized 4 day holiday period consistent of a holiday, compensatory time off day and a weekend considered a regular or special pass period
Regular
62
Why do unit CC award 3 or 4 day special passes
For special occasions or circumstances or for some type of special recognition or compensatory time off
63
To what level may unit commanders delegate the approval authority for special passes
To a level no lower then Squadron Section commander, deputies or equivalents
64
When do special passes start and stop
They start after normal work hours on a given day and stop at the beginning of normal work hours on either the 4th day for a 3 day special pass or the 5 day for a 4 day special pass
65
You may take a special pass in conjunction with leave without a duty day between the pass and leave period T/F
True
66
What is PTDY
A period of authorized absence to attend or participate in a designated official or semi official program for which funded TDY is not appropriate
67
Two situations where per missive TDY is not authorized
A PME graduation when the graduate is a coworker friend or military spouse
A change of command or retirement ceremony
68
AF policy upgraded the status of retirement ceremony from personal in nature to an official function This made it possible for CC to fund permissive tdy travel for the presiding official. Can thy also fund travel for attendees not officiating in the ceremonies
no
69
Why did the SECDEF direct establishment of the post deployment/mobilization respite absence program
To support total force policy and recognize members who are required to mobilize or deploy with a frequency beyond established rotation goals
70
Post deployment mobilization respite absence is a new category of administrative absence that applies to creditable deployment and mobilizations underway on or commencing after 19 Jan ____
2007
71
What is the yearly deployment to dwell ratio for the active component under PDMRA
1:2
72
What is the yearly mobilization to dwell ratio for reserve components under PDMRA
1:5
73
When do AF members accrue PDMRA
During creditable deployment temporary duty to the land areas of Afghanistan or Iraq
74
Aircrew participating in mission into and out of within or over the area of eligibility in support of military operations count each day of operations one day of PDMRA. How is deployment defined
As a member TDY under contingency, exercise and deployment orders to the land areas of Afghanistan or Iraq
75
Creditable PDMRA time continues to accrue during periods of R and R leave and for TDY of ____ or less consecutive days outside of Afghanistan or Ira
30 or less consecutive days
76
Who usually approves ordinary leave requests
Commanders delegate approval to the lowest supervisory level that meets the needs of the unit
77
Leave authorization numbers will not normally be given earlier than____ days prior to the leave effective date
14 days
78
Members on leave should us ____ management principles t assess all hazards and control risks before excessive or hazardous travel, especially when traveling by automobiles
Risk
79
How do supervisors process the AF form 988 when it is not digitally processed
The supervisor sends Part I with the authorization number to the servicing finance office and gives part II to the member after obtaining a leave authorization number. The supervisor retains Part III for completion after the member returns from leave
80
Upon returning from leave the member signs part III of AF Form 988. The supervisor certifies the dates of leave and sends it to whom
The commander support staff
81
Why did the AF adopt the current method of recording leave
To prevent fraud in the leave reporting system
82
What system automates the method of requesting an processing leave in lieu of using the hard copy AF Form 988
Leave Web
83
What is the purpose of the mishap prevention program
To minimize loss of AF resources and protect AMN from death, injuries or occupational illnesses by managing risk on and off duty
84
the challenge of ____ technologically advanced combat systems and changing duty requirements demands strong on duty mishap prevention programs
Deployments
85
Who has responsibilities in the Mishap Prevention Program
All AF Personnel
86
AF personnel use sound risk management principles, processes tools and techniques to assess and mitigate only on duty risks T/F
False
87
An AF ____ is an unplanned occurrence or series of occurrences resulting in damage to public or private property, occupational illness to AF personnel, or death or injury to on or off duty AF military personnel
Mishap
88
What constitutes a Class A mishap
Direct mishap cost totals $2M
A dod ACFT excluding RPA 1, 2, 3 is destroyed
Fatality or permanent total disability
89
Describe a Class B mishap
Cost $500K or more but less then $2M
Permanent partial disability
Inpatient hospitalization of three or more personnel, not including observation or diagnostic care
90
A Class ___ mishap is defined by direct mishap cost that total $50K or more, but less then $500K
Class C
91
The least damaging mishap is the class
Class D
92
`What does an effective mishap prevention program depend on
Individual integrating mishap prevention principles at every functional level and complying with applicable safety standard
93
Who implements the mishap prevention programs at the installation level
The safety staff, host and tenant unit
94
Commanders at all levels implement the US AF mishap prevention program. Name three ways installation commanders accomplish this
Provide safe and healthful workplaces for all installation employees
Ensure leadership is accountable for enforcing safety and occupational health standards
Chair the installation safety council and or environment safety and occupational health council
95
CCs below installation level implement the US AF mishap prevention program and a safety and health program in their unit or AOR. Describe their other two mishap prevention responsibilities
Appointing a primary and alternate USR where commanders are not authorized full time safety personnel
Ensuring a proactive mishap prevention program is implemented, including procurement and proper use of PPE and worker facility compliance with standards
96
What form must be used when necessary to identify and report hazardous s conditions that place AF personnel or property at risk
AF Form 457
97
HFAC are about people in their working and recreational environment, and how the features of individuals tools, task and working environment influence human performance. T/F
False
98
When considering the influence of Human factors on mishaps, what four things can a systematic root cause analysis achieve
Identify HFAC deficiencies
Apply mitigations strategies
improve organizational cultures
establish processes to interrupt chains of events and avoid mishaps
99
Name the four levels used to determine the root cause of a mishap when dealing with the Human factors analysis and classification system
Organizational influences
supervision
precondition
acts
100
When analyzing the root causes of mishaps, at what level does upper level management directly or indirectly affect the operator resulting in system failure, human error or an unsafe situation
Organization influences
101
When analyzing the root cause4s of mishaps the level where supervision fails to correct known problems, leading to unsafe acts is known as command influences T/F
False
102
What are preconditions for unsafe acts, as they pertain to analyzing the root cause of a mishap
Condition of the operators, environmental factors or personnel factors that result in human error or an unsafe situation
103
When analyzing the root causes of mishaps, unsafe acts fall into three categories T/F
False (Violations and errors)
104
Explain the difference between an unsafe act that is a violation and one that is an error
A violation involves an operator disregarding rules and instructions. An error is a more commonly undertows human factor and can be classified as a skill based error a judgment and decision making error or a perception error
105
Reckless behavior and unwise decision are not tolerated T/F
True
106
Who ensures that personnel understand the implications of poor decisions and the importance of compliance
Supervisors
107
What role do commanders play in reinforcing accountability
Ensure personnel are ware of AFIS
Enforce compliance
May direct an additional investigation for disciplinary purposes
108
What can filed or absent defenses in organizational factors, unsafe supervision, pre conditions for unsafe acts and unsafe acts cause
A mishap
109
If an AMN is injured or dies due to his or her own misconduct, affecting LOD determination what may happened
the AMN or family may lose substantial benefit's
110
What does the AMNs career and life, along with his or her family well begin depend upon
Wise decisions
111
Why are supervisors in the best potion to identify hazards, assess risks associated with those hazards and correct unsafe work practices or safety deficiencies
Because they are responsible for training, establishing work methods and job instructions, assigning jobs and supervising personnel
112
What does the occupational safety program create to achieve successful mission accomplishment
A highly trained workforce that recognizes the importance of safety precautions and procedures and adheres to standards incorporating the basic elements of RM
113
Safety training may only be integrating into tasks performance training T/F
False
114
Before any operation begins or any safety training takes place, what helps the supervisor determine where people may be injured or equipment damaged
A job safety analysis
115
Supervisors use what methods to eliminate or control unsafe and unhealthy working conditions
Engineering, administrative controls, or the use of PPPE
116
When is use of PPE appropriate
Only when other controls are not possible or practical for non routine use
117
Commanders must provide PPE for AF military members and civilian employees T/F
True
118
List three methods of documentation that can be used for occupational safety program
AF Form 55
Electronic mediums
Locally developed products
119
Name five of the fiscal year 2013 top 10 most frequently cited OSHA violations
```
Fall protection
Hazard communication
Scaffolding
Respiratory protection
Electrical wiring
Powered industrial trucks
Ladders
Hazardous energy control
Electrical, system design
Machine guarding
```
120
How must the areas around exits be kept in order to enforce safety standards
Free of obstructions
121
If ladders are defective in any way, what must be done to enforce safety standards
They must be removed from service
122
In order to enforce safety standards, fully insult plugs so that no part of the ___ is exposed
Prongs
123
In order to enforce safety standards when using a plug with a their or grounding prong what must you do
Check frequently to ensure that it is secure
124
Circuit breakers and disconnect switches must be readily accessible to workers and building management personnel. What else must be accessible in order to enforce safety standards
Fuses
125
To enforce safety standards, why must you never tape circuit breakers in the On Position
Breakers that trip frequently indicate electrical problems
126
To enforce safety standards, where must you never durum cords
Through holes in walls, ceilings, floors, doorways, windows, etc...
127
To enforce safety standards, only us __- surge protectors to power computers and related equipment
Multi receptacle
128
To enforce safety standards, never sue surge protectors or extension cords for ___ items
high CURRENT
129
electrical OUTLEST, SWIT CHES AND JUNCTION BOXES MUST BE KEPT IN GOOD CONDTION IN ORDER TO ENFORCE SAFETY STANDARDS. what ELSE DO THEY REQURIED
Secure Cover plates
130
To enforce safety standards, ensure one or more methods of ____ is provided to protect the operator and others in the machine area
Machine guarding
131
How do you report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately
AF Form 457
132
Within 10 duty days, the investigator of a hazard reported by AF Form 457 must respond in writing about the corrective action or plans. What else must the investigator do
Conduct follow up reviews until the corrective action is completed
133
Why must each AF installation have an effective traffic safety program as part of its mishap prevention program
Because Traffic mishaps cause the highest number of AF injury related deaths each year
134
Reckless behaviors account for more then ____ percent of PMV fatalities in the last 10 years
70 Percent
135
What activities have recently begun to cause more PMV accidents
Distraction by non driving activities such as talking on cell phones, texting or using a navigation device
136
What is risk management
RM is decision making process that systematically evaluations possible courses of actin, identifies risks and benefits, and determines the best COA for any given situation
137
How does RM help commander, functional managers, supervisors and individuals maximize capabilities while limiting risk
By applying a simple, systematic process appropriate for all personnel and functions, in both on and off duty situations
138
What four principles govern all actions associated with the management of risk and are applicable 24 hrs a day 7 days a week, by all personnel for all on and off duty operations, task and activities
Accept no unnecessary risk
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
Integrate RM into operations an planning at all levels
Apply the process cyclically and continuously
139
What is an unnecessary risk
An unnecessary risk comes without a commensurate return in terms of real benefits or available opportunities.
It will not contribute meaningfully to mission or activity accomplishment and needlessly jeopardizes personnel or other assets
140
Explain the RM principle Accept no unnecessary risk
All AF missions and daily routines involve risk. Make logical choices that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk
141
Should airmen be completely risk averse
No
142
When making risk decision, why is it important to engage personnel with prior knowledge and experience of the mission or activity
they help ensure a proper balance between benefits and costs
143
Explain the RM principle Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
anyone can make a risk decision that impacts personnel wellbeing, but some risk acceptance decisions must com from an appropriate decision making authority that can allocate resources and implement controls to mitigate or eliminate risks. W
144
Who must be fully engaged in the risk decision process
Those accountable for the success or failure of the mission or activity
145
Explain the RM principle integrate risk management into operations and planning at all levels
Integrating risk management into planning at all levels and as early as possible provides the greatest opportunity to make well informed risk decisions and implement effective risk controls
146
When are risk assessments of operations and activities most successful
When they are accomplished in the normal sequence of events by individuals directly involved in the event and not as a last minute or add on process
147
Explain RM principle apply the process cyclically and continuously
Using the process cyclically and continuously helps identify and assess hazards, develop and implement controls, evaluate outcomes and provide feedback to airman
148
There are two primary levels of RM that dictate the effort and scope of evaluation risk. What are they
Deliberate
| Real time
149
Deliberate and real time RM are interrelated when it comes to making RM decisions T/F
True
150
A strong, effective RM process involved careful and deliberate planning coupled with effective Real time RM. What does this full spectrum approach ensure
Comprehensive risk mitigation and the likelihood of mission or activity success
151
What process must be formally applied during deliberate RM
The 5 Step RM process
152
What type of RM planning is reserved for complex operations, systems, high priority or visibility situations or circumstances in which hazards are not well understood
In depth RM
153
In depth RM is usually implemented well in advance of the planned system, mission, even t or activity T/F
true
154
While using deliberate RM it is important to always include experience, expertise, and knowledge of ___ to identify known hazards risks and strategies to effectively mitigate risks
Experienced personnel
155
RM is used on the fly when time is limited and Deliberate RM planning is impractical. Instead of using the full 5 step RM process what should you apply
The easy to remember Assess the situation
Balance controls
Communicate
Decide and debrief (ABCD) mnemonic
156
Each step in the RM process addresses a unique aspect of how to effectively deal with risk. Identify these five steps
```
Step 1 - Identify the Hazards
Step 2 - Assess the Hazards
Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions
Step 4 - Implement Controls
Step 5 - Supervise and Evaluate
```
157
What are the key aspects of step 1 of the RM process, Identify the Hazards
Mission task analysis
List Hazards
List causes
158
How are hazards defined during step 1 of the RM process, Identify the Hazards
Any real or potential condition that can cause mission degradation, injury, illness, death to personnel, or damage to or loss of equipment property
159
Which step of RM process involves the application of quantitative and or qualitative measures to determine the probability and severity of negative effects that may result from exposure to risks hazards
Step 2 - Assess the hazards
160
What are the key aspects of step 2 of the RM process, Assess the Hazards
```
Assess Hazard exposure
Assess Hazard severity
Assess probability
Assess risk levels
Complete risk assessment
```
161
A single model of RA matrix is suitable for all situation T/F
False
162
What document offers a complete and in depth description of a RA matrix
AFPAM 90-803
163
What are the four sample levels of severity given in the sample RA matrix in Chapter 16
Catastrophic
Critical
Moderate
Negligible
164
What step of the RM process involves the development and selection of specific strategies and controls to reduce or eliminate risk
Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions
165
What are the key aspects of step 3 of the RM process, Develop Controls and make decisions
```
Identifying control options
Determining control effects
Prioritizing risk controls
Selecting risk controls
Making risk control decisions
```
166
In step 3 of the RM process Develop Controls and make decisions, effective mitigation measures will reduce one of what three3 components of risk
Probability, severity or exposure
167
In step 3 of the RM process, Develop Controls and make decisions, the higher the risk, the lower the decision level needs to be to ensure an appropriate analysis of overall costs compared to benefits T/F
False
168
What is the standard for establishing levels of RM decision authority across the AF
There is no Standard
169
in Step 3 of the RM process develop controls and make decision, decision makers must choose the most mission supportive risk ____ consistent with RM principles that provide the best solutions of hazards
Controls
170
When identifying control options during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what should each hazard have
One or more controls that can effectively eliminate, avoid or reduce the risk to an acceptable level
171
When determining control effected during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what qualities will the best controls possess
They will be consistent with mission objective and optimize use of available resources
172
When selecting risk controls during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, select the risk controls that reduce risk to what level
An acceptable level
173
When making risk control decision during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what should you do if the risks outweigh the benefits and you cannot identify any new controls
Inform the next level in the chain of command that, based on the evaluation the risk of the mission exceeds the benefits and should be modified
174
As circumstances change for a mission or activity what must ensure that pervious go, no go decisions are valid
The benefit to risk comparison
175
What step of the RM process develops and carries out an implementation strategy to identify the who what when where and costs associated with the control measure
Step 4 - Implement Controls
176
What are the key aspect of step 4 of the RM process, implement controls
Make implementation clear
Establish accountability
Provide support
177
During step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, why must accountability for mission related controls be emphasized across all levels of leadership and personnel involved
So there is a clear understanding of the risk and responsibilities of commanders and subordinates alike
178
During step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, there must always be accountability for acceptance of risk, regardless of circumstances T/F
True
179
When making implementation clear during step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, provide a ____ for implementation and a vision of the end stat
Road Map
180
When establishing accountability during step 4 of the RM process, implement controls individuals involved in a specific risk management process must know who is responsible and accountable at each stage of an activity. What else must they know
If possible, when decisions will be elevated to the next level
181
To be successful when providing support during step 4 of the RM process Implement controls, who must be behind the control measures put into place
Command/Leadership
182
What step of the RM process continues through the life cycle of a system, mission or activity
Step 5 - Supervise and evaluate
183
What are the key aspects of step 5 of the RM process supervise and evaluate
Supervise
Evaluate
Feedback
184
In step 5 of the RM process Supervise and evaluate, action is taken when necessary to correct ineffective risk controls and reinitiate risk management steps in response to new hazards T/F
True
185
When are risks and controls reevaluated as part of step 5 of the RM process, Supervise and evaluate
Anytime the personnel, equipment, mission or activity change or new actions are anticipated in an environment not covered in the original RM analysis
186
During leadership changes, what does step 5 of the RM process, supervise and evaluate stipulate that outgoing leaders share with incoming leaders to provide a positive transition of risk acceptance and reduce volatility
Knowledge, experiences and lessons
187
Every risk analysis should be perfect the first time T/F
False
188
Name three excellent tools for measurements conducted as part of the RM process
After action reports
Surveys
In process reviews
189
A RM feedback system ensures that corrective and preventative action was effective and identifies, analyzes and corrects new hazards. What else does it do
Informs all involved about the implementation process and controls
190
____ in the RM process can occur in the form of briefings, lessons learned, cross tell report, benchmarking and database reports
Feedback
191
When it is essential to streamline the 5 step RM process for situations involving quick decision, AMN can use the easy to remember ABCD mnemonic, what does it stand for
Assess the situation
Balance Controls
Communicate
Decide and debrief
192
In the assess the situation step of the real time RM process, what does a complete assessment require
Perception of what is happening
Integration of information and goals
projection into the future
193
The assess the situation step of the real time RM process combines which two step of the 5 step RM process
Step 1 - Identify the Hazards
| Step 2 - Assess the Hazards
194
In the balance controls step of the Real time RM process, personnel must consider all controls to facilitate mission or activity success and to eliminate or mitigate risk. What can make this step more effective
Better preparation
195
The balance control step of the Real Time RM process is specifically tied to making risk control decision, similar to which step of the 5 step RM process
Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions
196
In the communicate step of the Real time RM process, personnel experience stress and loss of situational awareness, which may lead to diminished communication skills and tunnel vision. How can it help individuals to know that they are losing situational awareness
They can make corrections and communicate with teammates and leadership in real time situations. they can also step back to reevaluate options
197
In the communicate step of the real time RM process, communication can take various forms. List three examples
Real Tim communication with leadership to discuss problems or intentions
Internal team/crew communication to discuss real time hazards and mitigation
Individuals internalizing a situation to evaluate whether they are on the right path
198
Explain what happens in the decide and debrief step of Real time RM
Amn decide whether to continue, modify or abandon the mission
Make every effort to weigh risk decision before selecting the best COA
Examine what worked and what did not work to improve performance and future activities
199
How does the Decide and debrief step of the real time RM process differ from Step 4 of the 5 step RM process, implement controls
An impanation strategy is not carefully developed and carried out in step 4. Instead real time RM relies on an individual or small group taking immediate or near immediate action to mitigate risks in real time
200
Sexual assault is a ___ and is not tolerated by the US AF
Crime
201
Sexual assault falls well short of the standards America expects of its men and women in uniform. It also violates AF core values T/F
True
202
____ for self, others and the AF institution is inherent in the core values
Respect
203
The DoDs definition of sexual assault, for training and educational purposes, affects the definition of offenses under the CUMJ T/F
False
204
Sexual assault is defined by the DoD as intentional sexual contact, characterized by what
Use of force, threats, intimidation or abuse of authority, or if the victim does not or cannot consent
205
Sexual assault includes a broad category of sexual offenses. List three examples
```
Rape
Sexual assault
Aggravated sexual contact
Abusive sexual contact
Forcible Sodomy
Attempts to commit any of these offenses
```
206
Consent requires words or overt acts by a ___ person that indicate freely given agreement to sexual conduct
Competent
207
A person must express lack of consent to sexual conduct through words T/F
False
208
Does a lack of verbal or physical resistance to sexual conduct constitute consent
No
209
A pervious or current dating relationship, or a persona ___ of ___ does not constitute consent to sexual conduct
Manner of Dress
210
Does consent to sexual conduct exist if a person is sleeping or incapacitated
No
211
Who ensures the implementation of the sexual assault prevention and response program, including sexual assault awareness, prevention and response training
The SARC
212
To whom does the SARC report
The installation commander t
213
The SARC ensures appropriate care is coordinated and provided to ____ victims of sexual assault perpetrated by someone other than the victims spouse or partner
Adult
214
A SARC may obtain a written waiver from the installation commander in lieu of proper training and credentials T/F
False
215
Who provides non clinical crisis intervention, referral and ongoing non clinical support to adult victims of sexual assault perpetrated by someone other than the victims souse or partner
VA
216
What support does a sexual assault VA provide
Information on available options and resources
Liaison assistance with other organizations and agencies on victim care matters
Performance of victim advocacy duties
217
What are the two types of sexual assault VA
Sexual Assault prevention and response VA
| Volunteer VA
218
All sexual assault VA must be trained and ____
Credentialed
219
Who may be a sexual assault prevention and response VA
A full time general service civilian employee selected and trained by the SARC
220
Who may be a volunteer sexual assault VA
Military and DoD civilian employee volunteers selected and trained by the SARC
221
What two reporting options are available when you report a sexual assault
Unrestricted Reporting
| Restricted reporting
222
_____ reporting of sexual assault activates victim services and accountability responses and its essential to eliminating the crime
Unrestricted
223
Restricted reporting to sexual assault offers an option for victims who do not want ____ or AF law enforcing involvement
Command
224
Restricted reporting of sexual assault provides access to all victim care services but will not trigger an investigation or notify the chain of command T/F
True
225
Who must report sexual assault incidents involving subordinates in their supervisory chain to the SAR, commander and OSI
Military members and civilian employees, unless authorized to received confidential communication or exempt by law, regulation or policy
226
Must military members an civilian employees report sexual assault incidents not involving subordinates in their supervisory chain to the SARC
No, but they are strongly encouraged to report the incident or to encourage the victim to do so
227
Upon notification of a sexual assault, what does the SARC do immediately
Response to the victim, or directs a VA to respond
228
May the victim of a sexual assault request a different VA
Yes if one is available
229
Unless the victim declines assistance following a sexual assault, what information does the SARC or VA provide
```
The sexual assault response process
Restricted or unrestricted reporting
Healthcare treatment
Sexual assault forensic examinations
Special Victims Counsel
```
230
What sexual assault prevention and response support services are available to AFR component members in Title 10 status who are sexually assaulted while performing active service and inactive duty training
Full services, including response support services from a SARC or VA
231
AFR component members who were sexually assaulted prior to or while not performing active service or inactive training, when not in title 10 statues, are eligible for ____ sexual assault prevention and response support services
Limited
232
What two types of non military individuals are only eligible to make unrestricted sexual assault report and receive emergency medical services at no cost, unless otherwise eligible as a service member or TRICARE beneficiary
DoD civilian employees and dependents 18 years or older, when stationed or performing duties outside the CONUS and eligible for treatment military facilities there
US citizen DoD contractor personnel, when authorized to accompany the armed forces in a contingency operation outside the CONUS
233
What option is available to report allegations of sexual assault without imitating the investigative process
Restricted reporting
234
What is the purpose of restricted reporting of sexual assault allegations
To remove barriers to medical care and support, and give victims additional time and increase control over the release and management of personal information
235
The AF is committed to treating victims of sexual assault with dignity and respect and protecting their privacy. What other commitment does the AF uphold
To provide them with support, advocacy and care
236
Who may receive a restricted report of a sexual assault allegation
SARC, healthcare personnel and VA
237
Chaplains and other individuals entitled to privileged communications are authorized to accept a report of sexual assault T/F
False
238
What requirement of AFI 44-102, is waived for restricted reports of sexual assault incidents
Reporting sexual assault incidents to the AF OSI or other appropriate authorities
239
If a VA is contacted by a victim wishing to make a restricted report, but has not been assigned by the SARC to the victim, what should the VA do
Immediately refer the victim to the SARC
240
Whom must the SARC notify within 24 hours of receiving a restricted report of an alleged sexual assault
The installation or host wing commander
241
Commanders and law enforcement may not use in formation from restricted reports of sexual assault allegations to initiate an investigation T/F
True
242
An unrestricted report of a sexual assault is one made through normal reporting channels. What channels does this include
The victims chain of command
Law enforcement
AF OSI
Other criminal Investigative services
243
A report of an alleged sexual assault is made to a SARC, VA or healthcare personnel and the individual elects unrestricted reporting. What happens tot he report
It is forwarded to OSI
244
Who is routinely deemed to have a valid need to know about an unrestricted report of sexual assault allegation
```
Law enforcement
The commanders and first sergeants of the victim and the alleged assailant
Legal personnel
SARC
VA assigned to the victim
Health care providers
```
245
What steps must a commander take immediately when notified of a sexual assault through unrestricted reporting
Ensure the victims physical safety, emotional security and medical treatment needs are met
The OSI or appropriate criminal investigative agency, SARC are notified
The victim or alleged assailant is temporarily reassigned or relocated if appropriate
246
If you consult the SARC about a sexual assault, then elect not to report , must the SARC inform investigators or commanders about the report
No
247
A sexual assault investigation may uncover evidence that the victim engaged in misconduct. Name several examples
Underage drinking or other related alcohol offenses
Adultery
Drug abuse
Fraternization
other violations of instructions, regulations or orders
248
If an investigation of sexual assault uncovers evidence that the victim engaged in misconduct, commanders must balance accountability for misconduct against what two things
Avoid unnecessary additional trauma to the victim
| Encourage reports of sexual assault
249
Deploying members receive training on sexual assault issues before departing T/F
True
250
The AF only identifies trained military SARC for AEF rotational support for global contingency operations, consistent with requirements established by a commander, Air Force Forces T/F
False
251
Normally each AEW warrants at least one SARC requirement. What are the requirements for deployments smaller than an AEF
Deployed commanders must provide a sexual assault response capability consistent with AF requirements
252
Home station unit commanders must ensure that AF members, prior to deployment are trained on annual and pre deployment sexual assault and response training requirements T/F
True
