Flashcards in Chapter 25 Exam II Deck (50):
1. A chest radiograph film is ordered for a child with suspected cardiac problems. The child’s parent asks the nurse, “What will the radiograph show about the heart?” The nurse’s response should be based on knowledge that the x-ray film will show:
a. bones of chest but not the heart.
b. measurement of electrical potential generated from heart muscle.
c. permanent record of heart size and configuration.
d. computerized image of heart vessels and tissues.
A chest radiograph will provide information on the heart size and pulmonary blood-flow patterns. It will provide a baseline for future comparisons. The heart will be visible, as well as the sternum and ribs. Electrocardiography (ECG) measures the electrical potential generated from heart muscle. Echocardiography will produce a computerized image of the heart vessels and tissues by using sound waves.
2. The nurse is assessing a child after a cardiac catheterization. Which complication should the nurse be assessing for?
a. Cardiac arrhythmia
b. Hypostatic pneumonia
c. Heart failure
d. Rapidly increasing blood pressure
Because a catheter is introduced into the heart, a risk exists of catheter-induced dysrhythmias occurring during the procedure. These are usually transient. Hypostatic pneumonia, heart failure, and rapidly increasing blood pressure are not risks usually associated with cardiac catheterization.
3. José is a 4-year-old child scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Preoperative teaching should be:
a. directed at his parents because he is too young to understand.
b. detailed in regard to the actual procedures so he will know what to expect.
c. done several days before the procedure so that he will be prepared.
d. adapted to his level of development so that he can understand.
Preoperative teaching should always be directed at the child’s stage of development. The caregivers also benefit from the same explanations. The parents may ask additional questions, which should be answered, but the child needs to receive the information based on developmental level. Preschoolers will not understand in-depth descriptions and should be prepared close to the time of the cardiac catheterization.
4. Which explanation regarding cardiac catheterization is appropriate for a preschool child?
a. Postural drainage will be performed every 4 to 6 hours after the test.
b. It is necessary to be completely “asleep” during the test.
c. The test is short, usually taking less than 1 hour.
d. When the procedure is done, you will have to keep your leg straight for at least 4 hours.
The child’s leg will have to be maintained in a straight position for approximately 4 hours. Younger children can be held in the parent’s lap with the leg maintained in the correct position. Postural drainage will not be performed unless the child has corresponding pulmonary problems. The child should be sedated to lie still, but being completely asleep is not necessary. The test will vary in length of time from start to finish.
5. The nurse is caring for a school-age child who has had a cardiac catheterization. The child tells the nurse that the bandage is “too wet.” The nurse finds the bandage and bed soaked with blood. The most appropriate initial nursing action is to:
a. notify physician.
b. apply new bandage with more pressure.
c. place the child in Trendelenburg position.
d. apply direct pressure above catheterization site.
If bleeding occurs, direct continuous pressure is applied 2.5 cm (1 inch) above the percutaneous skin site to localize pressure over the vessel puncture. Notifying a physician and applying a new bandage can be done after pressure is applied. The nurse can have someone else notify the physician while the pressure is being maintained. It is not a helpful intervention to place the girl in the Trendelenburg position. It would increase the drainage from the lower extremities.
6. The nurse is preparing an adolescent for discharge after a cardiac catheterization. Which statement by the adolescent would indicate a need for further teaching?
a. “I should avoid tub baths but may shower.”
b. “I have to stay on strict bed rest for 3 days.”
c. “I should remove the pressure dressing the day after the procedure.”
d. “I may attend school but should avoid exercise for several days.”
The child does not need to be on strict bed rest for 3 days. Showers are recommended; children should avoid a tub bath. The pressure dressing is removed the day after the catheterization and replaced by an adhesive bandage to keep the area clean. Strenuous activity must be avoided for several days, but the child can return to school.
7. Surgical closure of the ductus arteriosus would:
a. stop the loss of unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation.
b. decrease the edema in legs and feet.
c. increase the oxygenation of blood.
d. prevent the return of oxygenated blood to the lungs.
The ductus arteriosus allows blood to flow from the higher-pressure aorta to the lower-pressure pulmonary artery, causing a right-to-left shunt. If this is surgically closed, no additional oxygenated blood (from the aorta) will return to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. The aorta carries oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. Because of the higher pressure in the aorta, blood is shunted into the pulmonary artery and the pulmonary circulation. Edema in the legs and feet is usually a sign of heart failure. This repair would not directly affect the edema. Increasing the oxygenation of blood would not interfere with the return of oxygenated blood to the lungs.
8. Which defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow?
a. Pulmonic stenosis
b. Tricuspid atresia
c. Atrial septal defect
d. Transposition of the great arteries
Atrial septal defect results in increased pulmonary blood flow. Blood flows from the left atrium (higher pressure) into the right atrium (lower pressure) and then to the lungs via the pulmonary artery. Pulmonic stenosis is an obstruction to blood flowing from the ventricles. Tricuspid atresia results in decreased pulmonary blood flow. Transposition of the great arteries results in mixed blood flow.
9. The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on congenital heart defects. Which structural defect constitutes tetralogy of Fallot?
a. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
b. Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
d. Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Tetralogy of Fallot has these four characteristics: pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. There is pulmonic stenosis but not atrial stenosis in tetralogy of Fallot. Right ventricular hypertrophy, not left ventricular hypertrophy, is present in tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot has right ventricular hypertrophy, not left ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect, not aortic hypertrophy.
10. A nurse is teaching nursing students the physiology of congenital heart defects. Which defect results in decreased pulmonary blood flow?
a. Atrial septal defect
b. Tetralogy of Fallot
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Patent ductus arteriosus
Tetralogy of Fallot results in decreased blood flow to the lungs. The pulmonic stenosis increases the pressure in the right ventricle, causing the blood to go from right to left across the ventricular septal defect. Atrial and ventricular septal defects and patent ductus arteriosus result in increased pulmonary blood flow.
11. Which is best described as the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures?
a. Pulmonary congestion
b. Congenital heart defect
c. Heart failure
d. Systemic venous congestion
The definition of heart failure is the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures to meet the body’s metabolic demands. Pulmonary congestion is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the lungs. Congenital heart defect is a malformation of the heart present at birth. Systemic venous congestion is an excessive accumulation of fluid in the systemic vasculature.
12. Which is a clinical manifestation of the systemic venous congestion that can occur with heart failure?
c. Peripheral edema
d. Pale, cool extremities
Peripheral edema, especially periorbital edema, is a clinical manifestation of systemic venous congestion. Tachypnea is a manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Tachycardia and pale, cool extremities are clinical manifestations of impaired myocardial function.
13. The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a child in heart failure (HF). Which is a beneficial effect of administering digoxin (Lanoxin)?
a. It decreases edema.
b. It decreases cardiac output.
c. It increases heart size.
d. It increases venous pressure.
Digoxin has a rapid onset and is useful for increasing cardiac output, decreasing venous pressure, and, as a result, decreasing edema. Cardiac output is increased by digoxin. Heart size and venous pressure are decreased by digoxin.
14. A nurse is preparing to administer an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which drug should the nurse be administering?
a. Captopril (Capoten)
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
d. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. Furosemide is a loop diuretic. Spironolactone blocks the action of aldosterone. Chlorothiazide works on the distal tubules.
15. An 8-year-old child is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should notify the practitioner and withhold the medication if the apical pulse is less than _____ beats/min.
If a 1-minute apical pulse is less than 70 beats/min for an older child, the digoxin is withheld; 60 beats/min is the cut-off for holding the digoxin dose in an adult. A pulse below 90 to 110 beats/min is the determination for not giving a digoxin dose to infants and young children.
16. A 6-month-old infant is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should notify the practitioner and withhold the medication if the apical pulse is less than _____ beats/min.
c. 90 to 110
d. 110 to 120
If the 1-minute apical pulse is below 90 to 110 beats/min, the digoxin should not be given to a 6-month-old. 60 beats/min is the cut-off for holding the digoxin dose in an adult. 70 beats/min is the determining heart rate to hold a dose of digoxin for an older child. 110 to 120 beats/min is an acceptable heart rate to administer digoxin to a 6-month-old.
17. The nurse is teaching parents about signs of digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. Which is a common sign of digoxin toxicity?
Vomiting is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Seizures are not associated with digoxin toxicity. The child will have a slower heart rate, not respiratory rate. The heart rate will be slower, not faster.
18. The parents of a young child with heart failure tell the nurse that they are “nervous” about giving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse’s response should be based on which statement?
a. It is a safe, frequently used drug.
b. It is difficult to either overmedicate or undermedicate with digoxin.
c. Parents lack the expertise necessary to administer digoxin.
d. Parents must learn specific, important guidelines for administration of digoxin.
Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range. The margin of safety between therapeutic, toxic, and lethal doses is very small. Specific guidelines are available for parents to learn how to administer the drug safely and to monitor for side effects. Digoxin is a frequently used drug, but it has a narrow therapeutic range. Small amounts of the liquid are given to infants, making it easy to overmedicate or undermedicate. Parents may lack the necessary expertise to administer the drug at first, but with discharge preparation, they should be prepared to administer the drug safely.
19. The nurse is talking to a parent of an infant with heart failure about feeding the infant. Which statement about feeding the child is correct?
a. “You may need to increase the caloric density of your infant’s formula.”
b. “You should feed your baby every 2 hours.”
c. “You may need to increase the amount of formula your infant eats with each feeding.”
d. “You should place a nasal oxygen cannula on your infant during and after each feeding.”
The metabolic rate of infants with heart failure is greater because of poor cardiac function and increased heart and respiratory rates. Their caloric needs are greater than those of the average infants, yet their ability to take in the calories is diminished by their fatigue. Infants with heart failure should be fed every 3 hours; a 2-hour schedule does not allow for enough rest, and a 4-hour schedule is too long. Fluids must be carefully monitored because of the heart failure. Infants do not require supplemental oxygen with feedings.
20. As part of the treatment for heart failure, the child takes the diuretic furosemide (Lasix). As part of teaching home care, the nurse encourages the family to give the child foods such as bananas, oranges, and leafy vegetables. These foods are recommended because they are high in:
Diuretics that work on the proximal and distal renal tubules contribute to increased losses of potassium. The child’s diet should be supplemented with this electrolyte. With this type of diuretic, potassium must be monitored and supplemented as needed.
21. An 8-month-old infant has a hypercyanotic spell while blood is being drawn. The nurse’s first action should be to:
a. assess for neurologic defects.
b. place the child in the knee-chest position.
c. begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
d. prepare family for imminent death.
The first action is to place the infant in the knee-chest position. Blow-by oxygen may be indicated. Neurologic defects are unlikely. The child should be assessed for airway, breathing, and circulation. Often, calming the child and administering oxygen and morphine can alleviate the hypercyanotic spell.
22. The nurse is caring for a child with persistent hypoxia secondary to a cardiac defect. The nurse recognizes that a risk exists of cerebrovascular accidents (strokes). Which is an important objective to decrease this risk?
a. Minimize seizures.
b. Prevent dehydration.
c. Promote cardiac output.
d. Reduce energy expenditure.
In children with persistent hypoxia, polycythemia develops. Dehydration must be prevented in hypoxemic children because it potentiates the risk of strokes. Minimizing seizures, promoting cardiac output, and reducing energy expenditure will not reduce the risk of cerebrovascular accidents.
23. Parents of a 3-year-old child with congenital heart disease are afraid to let their child play with other children because of possible overexertion. The nurse’s reply should be based on which statement?
a. Child needs opportunities to play with peers.
b. Child needs to understand that peers’ activities are too strenuous.
c. Parents can meet all of the child’s needs.
d. Constant parental supervision is needed to avoid overexertion.
The child needs opportunities for social development. Children usually limit their activities if allowed to set their own pace. The child will limit activities as necessary. Parents must be encouraged to seek appropriate social activities for the child, especially before kindergarten. The child needs to have activities that foster independence. The child will be able to regulate activities.
24. Which should the nurse consider when preparing a school-age child and the family for heart surgery?
a. Unfamiliar equipment should not be shown.
b. Let child hear the sounds of an ECG monitor.
c. Avoid mentioning postoperative discomfort and interventions.
d. Explain that an endotracheal tube will not be needed if the surgery goes well.
The child and family should be exposed to the sights and sounds of the intensive care unit (ICU). All positive, nonfrightening aspects of the environment are emphasized. The child should be shown unfamiliar equipment and its use demonstrated on a doll. Carefully prepare the child for the postoperative experience, including intravenous (IV) lines, incision, and endotracheal tube.
25. Seventy-two hours after cardiac surgery, a young child has a temperature of 101° F. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Keep child warm with blankets.
b. Apply a hypothermia blanket.
c. Record temperature on nurses’ notes.
d. Report findings to physician.
In the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery, the body temperature may increase to 37.7° C (100° F) as part of the inflammatory response to tissue trauma. If the temperature is higher or continues after this period, it is most likely a sign of an infection and immediate investigation is indicated. Blankets should be removed from the child to keep the temperature from increasing. Hypothermia blanket is not indicated for this level of temperature. The temperature should be recorded, but the physician must be notified for evaluation. Suctioning should be done only as indicated, not on a routine basis. The child should be suctioned for no more than 5 seconds at one time. Symptoms of respiratory distress are avoided by using appropriate technique.
26. Which is an important nursing consideration when suctioning a young child who has had heart surgery?
a. Perform suctioning at least every hour.
b. Suction for no longer than 30 seconds at a time.
c. Administer supplemental oxygen before and after suctioning.
d. Expect symptoms of respiratory distress when suctioning.
If suctioning is indicated, supplemental oxygen is administered with a manual resuscitation bag before and after the procedure to prevent hypoxia. Suctioning should be done only as indicated, not on a routine basis. The child should be suctioned for no more than 5 seconds at one time. Symptoms of respiratory distress are avoided by using appropriate technique.
27. The nurse is caring for a child after heart surgery. Which should the nurse do if evidence is found of cardiac tamponade?
a. Increase analgesia.
b. Apply warming blankets.
c. Immediately report this to physician.
d. Encourage child to cough, turn, and breathe deeply.
If evidence is noted of cardiac tamponade, which is blood or fluid in the pericardial space constricting the heart, the physician is notified immediately of this life-threatening complication. Increasing analgesia may be done before the physician drains the fluid, but the physician must be notified. Warming blankets are not indicated at this time. Encouraging the child to cough, turn, and breathe deeply should be deferred till after the evaluation by the physician.
28. Which is an important nursing consideration when chest tubes will be removed from a child?
a. Explain that it is not painful.
b. Explain that only a Band-Aid will be needed.
c. Administer analgesics before procedure.
d. Expect bright red drainage for several hours after removal.
It is appropriate to prepare the child for the removal of chest tubes with analgesics. Short-acting medications can be used that are administered through an existing IV line. A sharp, momentary pain is felt. This should not be misrepresented to the child. A petroleum gauze, air-tight dressing will be needed, but it is not a pain-free procedure. Little or no drainage should be found on removal.
29. Which is the most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis?
a. Staphylococcus albus
b. Streptococcus hemolyticus
c. Staphylococcus albicans
d. Streptococcus viridans
S. viridans is the most common causative agent in bacterial (infective) endocarditis. Staphylococcus albus, Streptococcus hemolyticus, and Staphylococcus albicans are not common causative agents.
30. Which painful, tender, pea-sized nodules may appear on the pads of the fingers or toes in bacterial endocarditis?
a. Osler nodes
b. Janeway lesions
c. Subcutaneous nodules
d. Aschoff nodes
Osler nodes are red, painful, intradermal nodes found on pads of the phalanges in bacterial endocarditis. Janeway lesions are painless hemorrhagic areas on palms and soles in bacterial endocarditis. Subcutaneous nodules are nontender swellings, located over bony prominences, commonly found in rheumatic fever. Aschoff nodules are small nodules composed of cells and leukocytes found in the interstitial tissues of the heart in rheumatic myocarditis.
31. The primary nursing intervention to prevent bacterial endocarditis is to:
a. institute measures to prevent dental procedures.
b. counsel parents of high-risk children about prophylactic antibiotics.
c. observe children for complications, such as embolism and heart failure.
d. encourage restricted mobility in susceptible children.
The objective of nursing care is to counsel the parents of high-risk children about both the need for prophylactic antibiotics for dental procedures and the necessity of maintaining excellent oral health. The child’s dentist should be aware of the child’s cardiac condition. Dental procedures should be done to maintain a high level of oral health. Prophylactic antibiotics are necessary. Children should be observed for complications such as embolism and heart failure and restricted mobility should be encouraged in susceptible children, but maintaining good oral health and prophylactic antibiotics is important.
32. Which is a common, serious complication of rheumatic fever?
b. Cardiac arrhythmias
c. Pulmonary hypertension
d. Cardiac valve damage
Cardiac valve damage is the most significant complication of rheumatic fever. Seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, and pulmonary hypertension are not common complications of rheumatic fever.
33. The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on childhood-acquired heart diseases. Which is a major clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever?
b. Osler nodes
c. Janeway spots
d. Splinter hemorrhages of distal third of nails
Polyarthritis, which is swollen, hot, red, and painful joints, is a major clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever. The affected joints will change every 1 to 2 days. Primarily the large joints are affected. Osler nodes, Janeway spots, and splinter hemorrhages are characteristic of infective endocarditis.
34. The nurse is admitting a child with rheumatic fever. Which therapeutic management should the nurse expect to implement?
a. Administering penicillin
b. Avoiding salicylates (aspirin)
c. Imposing strict bed rest for 4 to 6 weeks
d. Administering corticosteroids if chorea develops
The goal of medical management is the eradication of the hemolytic streptococci. Penicillin is the drug of choice. Salicylates can be used to control the inflammatory process, especially in the joints, and reduce the fever and discomfort. Bed rest is recommended for the acute febrile stage, but it does not need to be strict. The chorea is transient and will resolve without treatment.
35. Which action by the school nurse is important in the prevention of rheumatic fever?
a. Encourage routine cholesterol screenings.
b. Conduct routine blood pressure screenings.
c. Refer children with sore throats for throat cultures.
d. Recommend salicylates instead of acetaminophen for minor discomforts.
Nurses have a role in prevention—primarily in screening school-age children for sore throats caused by group A b-hemolytic streptococci. They can achieve this by actively participating in throat culture screening or by referring children with possible streptococcal sore throats for testing. Cholesterol and blood pressure screenings do not facilitate the recognition and treatment of group A b-hemolytic streptococci. Salicylates should be avoided routinely because of the risk of Reye syndrome after viral illnesses.
36. When discussing hyperlipidemia with a group of adolescents, the nurse should explain that cardiovascular disease can be prevented by high levels of:
c. low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).
d. high-density lipoproteins (HDLs).
HDLs contain very low concentrations of triglycerides, relatively little cholesterol, and high levels of proteins. It is thought that HDLs protect against cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol, triglycerides, and LDLs are not protective against cardiovascular disease.
37. Which is the leading cause of death after heart transplantation?
d. Heart failure
The posttransplant course is complex. The leading cause of death after cardiac transplantation is rejection. Infection is a continued risk secondary to the immunosuppression necessary to prevent rejection. Cardiomyopathy is one of the indications for cardiac transplant. Heart failure is not a leading cause of death.
38. When caring for the child with Kawasaki disease, the nurse should know which information?
a. A child’s fever is usually responsive to antibiotics within 48 hours.
b. The principal area of involvement is the joints.
c. Aspirin is contraindicated.
d. Therapeutic management includes administration of gamma globulin and aspirin.
High-dose IV gamma globulin and aspirin therapy is indicated to reduce the incidence of coronary artery abnormalities when given within the first 10 days of the illness. The fever of Kawasaki disease is unresponsive to antibiotics and antipyretics. Mucous membranes, conjunctiva, changes in the extremities, and cardiac involvement are seen. Aspirin is part of the therapy.
39. The nurse is teaching nursing students about shock that occurs in children. One of the most frequent causes of hypovolemic shock in children is:
b. blood loss.
d. congenital heart disease.
Blood loss is the most frequent cause of hypovolemic shock in children. Sepsis causes septic shock, which is overwhelming sepsis and circulating bacterial toxins. Anaphylactic shock results from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Congenital heart disease contributes to hypervolemia, not hypovolemia.
40. Which type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitivity reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks, which may occur with drug or latex allergy?
Anaphylactic shock results from extreme allergy or hypersensitivity to a foreign substance. Neurogenic shock results from loss of neuronal control, such as the interruption of neuronal transmission that occurs from a spinal cord injury. Cardiogenic shock is decreased cardiac output. Hypovolemic shock is a reduction in the size of the vascular compartment, decreasing blood pressure, and low central venous pressure.
41. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to see as shock progresses in a child and becomes decompensated shock?
d. Confusion and somnolence
Confusion and somnolence are beginning signs of decompensated shock. Thirst, irritability, and apprehension are signs of compensated shock.
42. Which occurs in septic shock?
b. Increased cardiac output
d. Angioneurotic edema
Increased cardiac output, which results in warm, flushed skin, is one of the manifestations of septic shock. Fever and chills are characteristic of septic shock. Vasodilation is more common than vasoconstriction. Angioneurotic edema occurs as a manifestation in anaphylactic shock.
43. A child is brought to the emergency department experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting. While an airway is being established, the nurse should prepare which medication for immediate administration?
a. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
b. Dobutamine (Dobutarex)
c. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
d. Calcium chloride (calcium chloride)
After the first priority of establishing an airway, administration of epinephrine is the drug of choice. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, is usually not used for severe reactions. Dobutamine and calcium chloride are not appropriate drugs for this type of reaction.
44. Clinical manifestations of toxic shock syndrome include:
a. severe hypertension.
b. subnormal temperature.
c. erythematous macular rash.
d. papular rash over extremities.
One of the diagnostic criteria for toxic shock syndrome is a diffuse macular erythroderma. Hypotension is one of the manifestations. Fever of 38.9° C or higher is a characteristic. Desquamation of the palms and soles of the feet occurs in about 1 to 2 weeks.
45. A preschool child is scheduled for an echocardiogram. Parents ask the nurse whether they can hold the child during the procedure. The nurse should answer with which response?
a. “You will be able to hold your child during the procedure.”
b. “Your child can be active during the procedure, but can’t sit in your lap.”
c. “Your child must lie quietly; sometimes a mild sedative is administered before the procedure.”
d. “The procedure is invasive so your child will be restrained during the echocardiogram.”
Although an echocardiogram is noninvasive, painless, and associated with no known side effects, it can be stressful for children. The child must lie quietly in the standard echocardiographic positions; crying, nursing, or sitting up often leads to diagnostic errors or omissions. Therefore, infants and young children may need a mild sedative; older children benefit from psychological preparation for the test. The distraction of a video or movie is often helpful.
46. The nurse is caring for an infant with congestive heart disease (CHD). The nurse should plan which intervention to decrease cardiac demands?
a. Organize nursing activities to allow for uninterrupted sleep.
b. Allow the infant to sleep through feedings during the night.
c. Wait for the infant to cry to show definite signs of hunger.
d. Discourage parents from rocking the infant
The infant requires rest and conservation of energy for feeding. Every effort is made to organize nursing activities to allow for uninterrupted periods of sleep. Whenever possible, parents are encouraged to stay with their infant to provide the holding, rocking, and cuddling that help children sleep more soundly. To minimize disturbing the infant, changing bed linens and complete bathing are done only when necessary. Feeding is planned to accommodate the infant’s sleep and wake patterns. The child is fed at the first sign of hunger, such as when sucking on fists, rather than waiting until he or she cries for a bottle because the stress of crying exhausts the limited energy supply. Because infants with CHD tire easily and may sleep through feedings, smaller feedings every 3 hours may be helpful.
The nurse is admitting a child with coarctation of the aorta. Which figure depicts this congenital heart defect?
looks like a heart with but the aorta is slimmed and arched
Nursing interventions for the child after a cardiac catheterization would include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Allow ambulation as tolerated.
b. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours.
c. Assess the affected extremity for temperature and color.
d. Check pulses above the catheterization site for equality and symmetry.
e. Remove pressure dressing after 4 hours.
f. Maintain a patent peripheral intravenous catheter until discharge.
ANS: C, F
The extremity that was used for access for the cardiac catheterization must be checked for temperature and color. Coolness and blanching may indicate arterial occlusion. The child should have a patent peripheral intravenous line (PIV) to ensure adequate hydration.
Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see as shock progresses in a child and becomes decompensated shock? (Select all that apply.)
a. Thirst and diminished urinary output
b. Irritability and apprehension
c. Cool extremities and decreased skin turgor
d. Confusion and somnolence
e. Normal blood pressure and narrowing pulse pressure
f. Tachypnea and poor capillary refill time
ANS: C, D, F
Cool extremities, decreased skin turgor, confusion, somnolence, tachypnea, and poor capillary refill time are beginning signs of decompensated shock.