Chapter 6 cross country flight planning Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Chapter 6 cross country flight planning Deck (211):
1

3 common ways to navigate

A. Pilotage ( reference of landmarks)
B. Dead Reckoning ( computing direction and distance from a known position)
C. Radio Navigation ( by use of radio aids)

2

Charts available for VFR nagivation

A. Sectional Charts
B. VFR terminal Area Charts
C. VFR flyway planning Charts

3

Isogonic line

Broken magenta lines, connect equal magnetic variation. Show amount and direction of magnetic variation

4

Magnetic variation

Variation is the angle between true north and magnetic north. Expressed as east variation or west variation depending upon whether magnetic North (MN) is to the east or west of the true north

5

Convert true direction to a magnetic direction

East is least (subtract)
West is Best (add)

6

Latitude

Run parallel to the equator (east and west)

7

Longitude

Un perpendicular to the equator (north and south)

8

Magnetic deviation

The electrical components fucking up the magnetic compass

9

Types of navigational aids

A. VOR
B. VORTAC
C. DME
D. RNAV

10

VOR or VORTAC

VHF radio stations that project radials in all directions (360) from the station. Each radials denoted by its outbound magnetic direction. Almost all VOR will be VORTACs- provides standard bearing infor of a VOR plus distance infor to pilots of airplanes which have distance measuring equipments

11

What frequency range do VORs operate

VHF band between 108 and 117.95 MHz. immediately below aviation communication frequencies

12

What is VOR radial

Line of magnetic bearing extending from an omnidirectional range (VOR). Projects 380 radials from the station. Also identified ‘from’ the station. 360 will always be located north of the station

13

VOR NAVAIDS classified

Terminal, low, high

14

Limitations to VOR reception distances

VORS are subject to line-of-sight restrictions and the range varies proportionally to the alt of the receiving equipment

15

Different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR receiver equipment j

A. VOT check - plus or minus 4 degree
B. Ground checkpoint -
C. Airborne checkpoint
D. Dual VOR check
E. Selected radial over a know ground point

16

DME

Distance measuring equipment (airborne and ground) used to measure, in NM, slant range distance of an aircraft from the DME navigational aid. Aircraft equiped with it are provided with distance and ground speed info when receiving VORTAC

17

GPS

Global Positioning System is a satellite radio based navigation system that broadcast a signal used by receivers to determine a precise position anywhere in the world. Receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a pseudo-range measurements that is then used to determine the users location

18

3 functional elements of GPS

Space element - consists of 30 satellites
Control element - consists of a network of ground based GPS monitoring and control stations that ensure the accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks
User element - consists of antennas and receiver - processors onboard aircraft that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing to the user

19

Different types of GPS receiver available for use

GPS receivers used fro VFR naviagtion vary from fully integrated IFR/VFR installations used to support VFR operations to handheld devices

20

Purpose of RAIM

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is self monitoring function performed by a GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received from the satellites at all times. GPS will alert pilot if there is no integrity of the GPS

21

Where can pilot obtain RAIM availability info

Using manufacturer supplied RAIM prediction tool or SAPT on FAA website

22

If RAIM capability is lost in flight, can you continue using GPS for nav

Without RAIM have no reassurance of accuracy

23

Preflight checks for GPS equipment

A. Verify that GPS equipment is properly installed and certified fro the planned operation
B. Verify that the databases (nav, terrain, obstacles) have not expired
C. Review GPS NOTAM/RAIM info related to the planned route of flight
D. Review operational status of ground - based NAVIADS and related equipment , appropriate to route of flight
E. Determine that GPS receiver operation manual or plane flight manual supplement is onboard and available for use

24

Determine what type of operation a GPS receiver is approved for

Reference POH/AFM and supplements to determine limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed

25

FSS briefer provide GPS notams

No must request GPS/WAAS NOTAMS

26

WAAS

Wide area augmentation System is a ground and satellite intregrated navigational error correction system that provides accuracy enhancements to signals received from the Global Positioning System. Provides extremely accurate lateral and vertical naviagtion signals to aircraft equiped

27

Limitations of GPS

A. RAIM capability - many VFR receivers and all hand - held units have no RAIM alerting capability
B. Database currency - must always update for IFR requirements
C. Antenna Location - location matter of convenience that’s performance.

28

VFR waypoint

Provide pilots with supplementary tool to assist with position awareness while navigation visually in aircraft equipped with area navigation receivers. Provide navigational aids for pilots unfamiliar with an area. 5 letter identifier beginning with VP and retrievable from navigation databases, only used when operating under VFR

29

After takeoff, attempt to activate VFR flight plan but are unable to contact FSS. What will happen to flight plan

Be held by FSS until 1 hour after the proposed departure time and then is cancelled

30

If disoriented or lost on cross country flight

- straighten up and fly right. Fly a specific heading in a direction you believe to correct read book page 6-15

31

Low on fuel; weather deteriorating; inadequate experience; darkness imminent; and/or equipment malfunctioning

GET ON THE GROUND

32

If cannot locate position

4 c’s
-Climb - higher alt allows better communication capability as well as better visual range for identification of landmarks
-Communicate - use the system. Use 121.5 MHz
-Confess- once communications are established, let them know the problem
-Comply - follow instructions

33

Most common type of communication radio equipment, and how Many channels are available

Most common type is VHF, operates on frequencies between 118.0 and 136.97 MHz and is classified as 720 or 760 depending on number of channels it can accommodate. 720 and 760 uses .025 spacing with 720 having frequency range up to 135.975 and the 760 going up to 136.975

34

Universal VHF ‘emergency’

121.5 MHz. This frequency guarded by military towers, most civil towers, FSS and radar facilities

35

Frequencies used for ground control

121.6 to 121.9 MHz

36

CTAF

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency, designated for purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. May be UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS or TOWER frequency

37

UNICOM

Nongovernmental communication facility which provide airport info at certain airports. Use 122.7, 122.725,, 122,8, 122,975, 123.0, 123.05 and 123.075. And with control tower FSS 122.950

38

ATIS

Automatic terminal info service, continous broadcast of recorded no control info in selected high activity terminal areas. Improve controller effectiveness and relieve frequency congestion by automating the competitive transmission of essential but routine info

39

Airport without control tower of FSS or UNICOM

Where there is no tower, use multicom frequency 122.9 for self announce procedures. MULTICOM is mobile service not open to public use

40

RCO

Remote communication outlet, in unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel, provides ground to ground communications between ATC and pilots at satellite airports. IFR cancellation or departure/landing times, departure authorization. Used for advisory whenever plane is below coverage of primary air/ground frequency

41

How to determine what frequency is appropriate for activating his/her VFR flight plan once airborne

A. Ask FSS briefer during preflight weather briefing
B. Consult communication section under flight service for airport of departure in chart supplement

42

Heavy - lined box surrounding NAVAID frequency

Indicates FSS frequencies 121.5, 122.2, 243, 255.4 are available and if frequency is on top of the box meaning they are addition to FSS

43

Thin lined blue box surrounding NAVAID frequency

Without frequencies on top indicates that there are no standard FSS frequencies available. ‘No voice’ symbol

44

Why would frequency be on top of thin lined blue box

Best frequencies to use in the immediate vicinity of NAVAID site, and ensure reception by the controlling FSS at low alts without terrain interference. Followed by R indicating FSS only receives on that frequency. Pilot will listen for response over NAVAID

45

Determine HIWAS from sectional

NAVIADS that have hiwas depicted with ‘H’ in upper right corner of identification box

46

Inflight emergency, what authority and responsibilites does he/she have

A. PIC is directly responsible for and is final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft
B. In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to extent required to meet that emergency
C. Each PIC who deviates from Part 91 shall, upon request, send a written report of that deviation

47

Restrictions of alcohol

A. Within 8 hrs after consumption of any alcoholic beverage
B. While under the influence
C. While using any drug that affects persons safety
D. While having an alcohol concentration of .04 or more

48

Portable electronics on plane

Under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices

49

Objects dropped from aircraft

May not drop from aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to person or property. But does not prohibit

50

Preflight action required in local area

Familiarize with info concerning flight, runway lengths and take off and landing distance

51

Preflight action away from local area

Notams
Weather reports and forecast
Known ATC traffic delays
Runaway lengths at airports of intended use
Alternatives available if planned flight cannot be completed
Fuel requirements

52

Seatbelt use

Each person onboard must have safety belt and harness on taxi, takeoff and landing. PIC must ensure everyone has seatbelt on

53

Crew members seatbelt

Harness and belt on taxi, takeoff, landing. Belt only airborne

54

Close proximity in formation flight

A. May operate to another plane to create collision hazard
B. In formation only in arrangement with each PIC
C. May no have passengers for hire

55

Right of way by aircraft

Balloons
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft
Refueling aircraft has right of way over anyone plane
And aircraft in distress over that

56

Converging

Aircraft on right has right of way

57

Approach head on

Both aircraft shall alter course to right

58

Overtaking

Plane being overtaken has right of way; pilot overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right

59

Right of way rules when two or more aircraft are approaching airport for landing

On final or landing have right of way over plane in flight or on runway but don’t take advantage and force someone off runway who just landed and are attempting to taxi off. Two or more approaching, the lowest alt has right of way but cannot cut in front of plane on final to land

60

Max airspeed below 10000’

<250K

61

Min safe alt over congested area

Except for take off and landing- city, town, settlement or over open air assembly of persons, below alt of 1000’ above highest obstacle and within 2000’ horizontal radius

62

Min safe alt other than congested area

No lower than 500’ AGL expect over open water. In water no closer than 500’ of person, vessel

63

Min safe alt

Alt allowing, if power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to person or property

64

Min safe alt over national parks

Min alt of 2000’ AGL

65

Flying below 18000’ MSL alt setting???
91.121

If under 31.00 hg follow ATC alt of within 100 NM of airport

66

Altimeter not available before flight

Elevation of departure airport

67

When may deviate from ATC clearance

A. Amended clearance has been obtained
B. Emergency exit
C. Response to traffic or collision avoidance system resolution advisory

68

Action required if deviated from ATC and priority is given

A. If deviate from ATC because of collision avoidance must notify ATC asap
B. Given priority by ATC because of emergency just report within 48 hours to manager of ATC facility if requested

69

Steady green

On ground - cleared for takeoff
In air - cleared to land

70

Flashing green

On ground - cleared to taxi
In air - return for landing

71

Steady red

On ground - stop
In air - yield, continue circling

72

Flashing red

On ground - taxi clear of runway
In air - unsafe, do not land

73

Flashing white

On groun - return to start
In air - nothing

74

Alternate red/green

On ground - exercise extreme caution
In air - exercise extreme caution

75

Radio fails under VFR while operating in towered controlled airport, what conditions must be met before landing

A. Weather conditions must be at or above VFR min
B. Visual contact with the tower is maintained
C. Clearance to land is received

76

Rules traffic pattern operations at non towered airports within class E or G

Approaching to land, make all turns to the left unless airport displays otherwise
Departing comply with traffic patterns established for airport

77

In class D, procedure used when approaching to land on runway with VASI

Maintain alt at or above glide slope until lower alt is necessary for safe landing

78

fuel requirement for VFR flight at night

Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and assuming normal cruising speed, fly after at least 45 min

79

Fuel VFR requirement for day

Fly to first point of intended landing with normal cruising speed, fly after for 30 min

80

Level cruising flight at alt more than 3000’ above surface, rules concerning specific alt. Flown

Above 3000’ but less that not 18000’ magnetic course 0 to 179 degrees, fly at odd thousand foot MSL plus 500’. When magnetic course of 180 to 359 degree, fly at even thousand foot MSL plus 500’

81

ELT

Emergency Locator Transmitter - radio transmitter attached to aircraft structure, operates from its own power source on 121.5, 243.0 MHz and 406 MHz. Aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward - sweeping audio tone, 2-4 times a second. Function without human action after accident. Tested during first 5 min after any hour

82

ELT required on all aircraft

No one may operate plane unless there is a attached to plane an automatic - type ELT and in operable condition.
Except:
Engaged in design and testing
New aircraft arriving for delivery
Agriculture operations

83

Battery replaced or recharged for ELT

A. Transmitter been used for more than 1 cumulative hour
B. 50% of useful life has expired

84

Supplemental oxygen on board

Alt above 12,500 MSL up to and including 14000 MSL, part of flight more than 30 min, min flight crew must have and use supplemental oxygen.
Alt above 14000 MSL, for the entire time at those alt. Flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen
At cabin pressure alt above 15000 MSL, each occupant provided with oxygen

85

Aerobatic flight of aircraft not permitted

Over congested
Over open air assembly of persons
Lateral boundaries of surface areas of Class B, class C, D or E
4 NM center line of federal airway
Below an alt of 1500’ above surface
Flight visibility is less than 3 SM

86

Aerobatic flight

Intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in planes attitude, or acceleration

87

Parachutes required on board

Bank angle of 60 degree
Nose up or down attitude of 30 degree
Does not apply for tests for pilot certification
And spins and other flight maneuvers

88

Class A

18000MSL up to and including FL600, airspace overlying waters within 12 NM of the coast. Designated international airspace beyond 12 NM of the coast, within domestic radio navigation signal or ATC

89

VFR flight in Class A

No, unless otherwise authorized by ATC and under instrument flight rules

90

Min pilot certification for operation in class A

Private certification with instrument rating

91

Min equipment for Class A

2 way radio communication with ATC on frequency
Mode C alt encoding transponder
Equiped with instrument and equipment required for IFR operation

92

Class B

Surface to 10000’MSL (busiest airports)

93

MIn pilot certification to operate within Class B

PIC holds private pilot cert
PIC holds recreational and met CFR 61.101
PIC sport certification and met CFR 81.325
Student pilot met requirements 61.94 or 61.95

94

Min equipment for Class B

2 way radio comm
Mode C
If IFR, VOR or TAC receiver and RNAV system

95

Basic requirements for Class B

Must obtain ATC clearance

96

Weather condition for VFR in Class B

Clear of clouds with at least 3SM visibility

97

Class B depicted on charts

Solid shaded blue line

98

ATC services provided in Class B

VFR pilots provided sequencing and separation from planes

99

Max speed in Class B under 10000’MSL

250 Knots

100

Max speed in Class C or D or within 4 NM of airport

200 Knots

101

Class C

Surface to 4000’MSL, operational control tower and certain number of IFR operations

102

Dimensions of Class C

5 NM radius core surface extends from the surface to 4000’ MSL, 10 NM radius shelf area extends from 1200’ to 4000’ MSL

103

Min pilot certification for Class C

Student pilot certificate

104

Min equipment to operate in Class C

2 way radio comm
Automatic pressure alt reporting equipment with Mode C capability

105

Basic requirements for Class C

Each person must establish 2 way comm with ATC providing air traffic services prior to enetering and maintain communication

106

Radio established meaning Class C

ATC has said your call sign back and meaning are allowed to enter
If call sign not repeated radio comm have not been established and may not enter airspace

107

Departing satellite airport w/out operative control tower located within class C & D, requirements

Each person must establish and maintain 2 way comm with ATC facilities have jurisdiction over C asap

108

Min weather condition for VFR in class C

3 SM visibility and cloud clearance 500’ below, 1000’ above and 2000’ horizontal clouds

109

Class C depicted on charts

Solid magenta line

110

ATC services in Class C

All VFR
Sequenced to primary airport
Provided class C services within airspace and outer area
Basic radar services beyond the outer area on workload permitting basis

111

Various types of terminal radar services available for VFR

Basic radar service
TRSA
Class C
Class B

112

Basic radar service

Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established

113

TRSA service

Radar sequencing and separation for VFR

114

Class C service

Addition to basic radar, separation between IFR and VFR

115

Class B service

Addition to basic radar, separation between IFR, VFR, and/or weight and sequencing of VFR arrivals

116

Mode C required

At or above 10000’ MSL
Within 30 miles of class B, below 10000 MSL
Within and above all Class C, up to 10000’MSL
Within 10 Miles of designated airports except outside of class D airspace and below 1200’ AGL

117

Max speed in Class C

At or below 2500’ AGL within 4 NM of primary airport no more than 200 Knots

118

Class D

Extends upward from surface to 2500’ MSL

119

Requirements for Class D

Establish 2 way comm with ATC providing air traffic services prior to entering and thereafter maintaining comm

120

ATC clearance required if flight operations are conducted through Class E area arrival extension

Class E may be extension of Class B, C, D and E. Begins at surface and extend up to overlying controlled airspace. Extension provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a comm requirement on pilots operating under VFR. Surface area arrival extensions become part of surface area and are in effect during the same times as surface area

121

Min weather conditions required for VFR in Class D

3 SM visibility
Cloud clearance 500’ below, 1000’ above, and 2000’ horizontal

122

Class D depicted on charts

Blue segmented lines

123

Air traffic control in Class D

No separation services to VFR. Pilot responsible. controller will proved safety alerts and sequencing on workload permitting

124

Max speed in Class D

At or below 2500’ AGL within 4 NM of airport more than 200 Knots

125

Class D control tower closes

Tower is closed, its Class E rules down to 700’ AGL and Class G to surface

126

Class E

ATC service provided to IFR and VFR with airspace classification

127

Operating rules and pilot/equipment requirements for Class E

A. Min pilot cert - student pilot
B. No specific equipment
C. No specific for arrival or thru flight

128

Class E transition areas

Extend upward from either 700’AGL (magenta) or 1200’AGL (blue). Help separate arriving and departing IFR from VFR

129

Comm in Class E

Comm must be established with ATC and two way communication must be established and maintained. Established prior to 4 NM up and including 2500’ AGL

130

Class E depicted on chart

Magenta segmented line

131

Class G

Uncontrolled and has not been designated as any other class. ATC has no authority or responsibility to control traffic

132

Comm with a tower located within class G

Comm must be established with ATC prior to entering and maintained. prior to 4 NM up to and including 2500’ AGL

133

Vertical limits of Class G

Begins at surface and continues put overlying controlled space, not exceed 14500 MSL

134

Min weather requirements in Class G and below 1200’ AGL

When visibility is less than 3 SM but not less than 1 SM during night, operated clear of clouds within 1.5 of runway

135

Basic VFR weather min required

1000’ ceiling and 3 miles visibility

136

Special VFR

Special VFR clearance must be obtained if cannot fly VFR, prior to entering class B, Class C, D, E provided flight can remain clear of clouds and 1 SM ground visibility

137

Special VFR availablitly

Pilots may request and be given clearance to enter, leave or operate within class D & E and some B and C traffic permitting.

138

Contact to obtain special VFR

Control tower, request to tower. Class E from nearest tower, FSS or center

139

Special VFR at night

Not allowed unless IFR rated

140

Prohibited area

Defined dimensions identified by area on surface of earth, where flight is prohibited
Associated with security and national welfare

141

Restricted Area

Identified by area of surface of earth within flight is subject to restrictions. Often hazards to plane like gun fire, aerial gunnery

142

Enter restricted or prohibited areas

May not operate within those areas, unless have permission of the using or control agency. Usually no operation in prohibited and prior permission for restriced

143

Warning area

Defined dimensions extending from 3 NM outward from coast containing activity that may be hazardous. Is to warn pilots

144

MOA

Military operating area, separating military training activities from IFR traffic. VFR exercise extreme caution. Active/Inactive. Contact FSS within 100 Miles of area to obtain times. Prior to entering contact controlling agency

145

Alert Area

Area contain high volume pilot training. On alert when flyging thru these areas and follow regulations

146

Controlled firing areas

Contain activities hazardous to non participating planes. Firing is suspended immediately when plane is spotted. Not charted

147

National Security Area

Areas where requirements for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots voluntary avoid. Can be temporarily prohibited for increase security

148

Special Flight Rules Area

SFRA, special federal aviation regulations apply. Like Washington DC. Regulations and operations found in CFR part 93 and chart legend

149

Special use airspace be found

Charted on IFR or visual charts

150

VFR flyaways, VFR corridors, Class B transition routes

Depicted on reverse side of VFR terminal area charts aka class b airspace charts

151

Military training routes

Use by military for low alt, high speed training. Above 1500’AGL (3 digits) flown max extent, under IFR. Routes 1500’AGL and below (4 digits) flown under VFR.

152

TRSA

Terminal radar service area, airspace surrounding designated airports within ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on full time basis for IFR and participating VFR. Urged not mandatory

153

What class is TRSA

Does not fit in any class. Airports within trsa become class D remaining portion trsa overlies other contorted space, normally class E

154

TRSAs depicted

On VFR sectional and terminal charts with solid black line and alt segments. Class D portion with blue segmented line

155

ADIZ

Air defense identification zone, airspace over land or water, extending upward from surface
Locations:
Domestic - located within US along international boundary
Coastal - over coastal waters
Distant early warning ident Zone - over coastal waters of Alaska
Land based ADIZ - over US merto areas

156

Requirements prior to operations into, within or across ADZ

Flight plan filed
Transponder - equiped with operable beacon Mode C and turned on and assigned ATC code
Position reports - for IFR, normal positioning reporting
Etc....

157

Immediate notification to NTSB required

Serious incidents:
Flight control system malfunction
Crewmember unable to perform normal duties
Inflight fire
Aircraft collision inflight
Property damage greater than 25k
Overdue aircraft
Release of all portion of prop blade from plane
Complete loss of info, from more than 50% of EFIS display

158

Aircraft incident

Occurrence other than an accident associated with operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect safety of operation

159

Aircraft accident

Occurrence associated with the operation of plane which takes place between the time any person boards the plane with intention of flight and all that have disembarked. Person suffers death or serious injury, aircraft receives substantial damage

160

Serious injury

Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hrs commencing within 7 days from the date of injury
Broken bones
Severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage
Involving internal organ
2-3 degree burn more than 5% body

161

Substantial damage

Damage of failure adversely affects structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of plane and require major repair. Engine failure need replacement, dented skin and etc

162

Notification to NTSB be necessary for any accident even if no injuries

All depends on the definition of accident

163

Where are accident or incident reports filed

With field office of the board nearest accident or incident. National Transportation Safety Board field offices are listed in US govt pages of telephone directories

164

After accident or incident , how soon must report be filed to NTSB

Within 10 days of accident
When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing

165

Can FAA use reports submitted to NASA for enforcement reasons

FAA will not use NASA under the Aviation Safety reporting program in any enforcement action except info concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the program. By submitting report within 10 days pilot is not protected from FAA finding violation of regulation, but providing some immunity from civil penalty

166

VASI

Visual approach slope indicator, system of lights provide visual descent guidance info during the approach to runway.
Red over red - below glide path
Red over white - on glide path
White over white - above glide path

167

PAPI

Precision approach path indicator, use lights similar to VASI. Single row. 5 miles day and 20 miles night
4 white - high
3 white - slightly high
2 white - on glide path
1 white - slightly low
4 red - low

168

Airport rotating beacon during hours of daylight

Class B, C, D, E - indicate ground visibility less than 3 miles and/or ceiling is less than 1000’

169

Mandatory instruction sign

Red background/white inscription; denotes an entrance to a runway, a critical area, or prohibited area

170

Location sign

black background/yellow inscription yellow border; no arrows; identify taxiway or runway location, boundary of runway, or ILS critical area

171

Direction sign

Yellow background/black inscription; identifies designation of intersection taxiway leading out of an intersection that a pilot would expect to turn onto or hold short of

172

Destination sign

Yellow background/black inscription and also contain arrows; provides info on locating runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation

173

Info sign

Yellow background/black inscription; used to provide pilot with info on areas that cant be seen from control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures

174

Runway distance remaining sign

Black background/white numeral inscription; indicates distance of the remaining runway in thousands of feet

175

What color are runway markings and taxiway markings

Runways are white
Markings for taxiway. Not intended for use by aircraft, and holding positions are yellow

176

Methods pilot may use to determine proper runway

Listening to UNICOM and weather services
Wind direction socket
Traffic patterns
Landing strip

177

Standard direction of turns when approaching an uncontrolled airport for landing

All turns must be made to the left unless traffic pattern indicates the turns to the right

178

Standard alt traffic pattern alt

1000’AGL is recommended. Usually 600’ to 1500’

179

Recommended entry and departure procedures used at airports without operating control tower

Enter traffic patten in level flight, abeam midpoint of runway at pattern alt. Departing traffic pattern, continue straight out, exit with 45 degree beyond departure end of runway after reaching pattern alt

180

Traffic pattern alt located

Chart supplement US

181

What is ARTCC and what useful service can it provide to VFR

Air route traffic control center, facility established to provide air traffic control service primarily to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during en route phase. Air route surveillance radar allows capability to detect and display aircrafts positon while en route. Work loaded permit, certain advisory are provided for VFR. Frequencies from FSS or chart supplement

182

Transponder codes

1200 - VFR operations
7500 - Hijack
7600 - Communication failure
7700 - emergency

183

Initial Contact with operating control tower

Maintain two way comm while operating in Class B, C, D unless told other wise. Initial call up 15 miles from airport

184

Comm procedures recommended when departing class D area

Remain on tower frequency for purpose of receiving traffic info. Reducing tower congestion, no need to request permission to leave tower frequency once outside Class B, C, D

185

Standard to Zulu time

EST - +5
CST - +6
MST - +7
PST - +8
Daylight saving time subtract 1 hr from above

186

Radio facilites in order

arriving - ATIS, approach, control wotwer, ground
departing - ATIS, clearance delivery, ground control, control tower, depature control

187

NOTAMS

Notice to airmen - time critical aeronautical info for temp or not know in advance to be published . NOTAMS can affect a pilots decision to make flight. includes runway closure, changes in status of nav aids, ILS and other info

188

D NOTAMS

info that requires wide dissemination via telecommunciation and pertains to en route nav aids, civil public use airports listed in AFD, facilities, services, and procedures

189

FDC NOTAMS

flight info that is regulatory in nature, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage

190

POINTER NOTAMS

issued by flight service to highlight or point out another NOTAM, such as FDC NOTAM. use for cross referencing important info

191

SAA NOTAMS

issued when special activity airspace will be active outside the published times

192

MILITARY NOTAMS

pertain to military nav aids/airports that are part of NAS

193

TFR

temp flight restrictions issued via NOTAMS, restrict plane from flying over certain areas on a temp basis, to protect person or property in air or ground. special event hazard, general warning

194

NOtAM info obtained

FSS
NTAP
DUATS
internet
FIS-B

195

VFR required to be filed

not requried , but strongly recommended filed with FAA FSS to receive search and rescue

196

DVFR

defense vfr, requried to file for security purposes. because flights into coastal or domestic ADIZ

197

Does tower automatically close your flight plan

No not for VFR. Pilot is responsible to ensure plan is canceled. Close on FSS or ask ATC

198

If behind schedule on filed flight

Report or cancel flight plan within 30 min or search and rescue is started

199

Wake turbulence

Passage of aircraft thru atmosphere. Includes vortices, thrust stream turb, jet wash, prop wash, and rotor wash. In ground and in air

200

Where are wake turb and wingtip vortices likely to occur

All aircraft generate turb and vortices. Avoid behind plane especially at low alt,

201

LAHSO

Land and hold short operation at controlled airports. At intersecting taxiway, runway or other designated areas from ATC. PIC can accept or deny depending on safety and below basic VFR

202

Available landing data (ALD) found

In special notices section of chart supplement and in Terminal procedure controllers provide the info

203

Look for drones

Cannot operate in controlled airspace without a waiver from FAA. Must fly below 400’AGL and in daylight

204

3 areas that contribute to runway incursions

Comm - misunderstanding, failure to comm
Airport knowledge - failure to nav the airport correctly, interpret signs
Cockpit procedures for maintaining orientation - failure to maintain situational awareness

205

Preflight includes

A. Review and understand signs, marking and lighting
B. Review airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify hot spots
C. NOTAMS and ATIS
D. Pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing
E. Plan for critical times and locations on taxi route
F. Plan to complete as many plane checklist items as possible prior to taxi

206

Hot Spot

Runway safety related problem area or intersection on an airport. Complex confusing taxiway-taxiway or taxiway-runway intersection. Lack of visibility may exist or tower may be unable to see at certain areas

207

Sterile cockpit procedures

Focus on duties without distraction by non-flight matters unrelated to safety and procedures. Refrain from nonessential items. Brief passengers on this

208

Progressive taxi

Pilot unfamiliar with airport and confused, includes step by step taxi directions

209

Write down taxi instructions

Reduces pilots vulnerability to forget and reference for read back

210

When issued taxi route, automatically authorize to cross any runway that intersects

NO, must receive runway crossing for each runway that taxi route crosses

211

Read back info to controller

Runway assignment
Any clearance to enter specific runway
Any instruction to hold short of a specific runway or Lin up