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Flashcards in Chapter 8 Deck (73)
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1
Q

What is linea alba?

A

A white line typically located on buccal mucosa associated with pressure, irritation, or sucking trauma

2
Q

What term describes chronic cheek chewing?

A

Morsicatio buccarum

3
Q

What term describes lesions due to chronic biting on the labial mucosa?

A

Morsicatio labiorum

4
Q

What term describes lesions due to chronic biting on the tongue?

A

Morsicatio linguarum

5
Q

Morsicatio buccarum occurs in a higher prevalence in those under ______ or with ______ _______.

A

Stress or with psychologic conditions

6
Q

Where is morsicatio buccarum typically found?

A

Bilaterally on the anterior buccal mucosa

7
Q

What term describes areas of erythema surrounding a central, removable, yellow fibrinopurulent membrane caused by trauma?

A

Traumatic ulceration

8
Q

Where do traumatic ulcerations commonly occur?

A

On lips, tongue and buccal mucosa

9
Q

What kind of border can develop immediately adjacent to the ulceration?

A

A rolled white border of hyperkeratosis

10
Q

What term describes a unique form of chronic traumatic ulceration characterized by eosiniphils?

A

Traumatic ulcerative granuloma with stromal eosinophilia aka eosinophilic ulceration

11
Q

What type of reaction is traumatic ulcerative granuloma with stromal eosiniophilia?

A

A deep pseudoinvasice inflammatory reaction that is slow to resolve

12
Q

Where does traumatic ulcerative granuloma with stromal eosiniophilia usually occur?

A

On the tongue, because the skeletal muscle damage attracts eosinophils

13
Q

How is traumatic ulcerative granuloma with stromal eosinophilia treated?

A

Incisional biopsiy is usually curative (and removing the source of injury)

14
Q

What term describes chronic ulcerations found under the tongue in infants due to trauma from nursing?

A

Riga-Fede disease

15
Q

How are traumatic ulcerations treated?

A

By removing the source of injury if possible, but medication for pain relief (topical analgesics) can useful

16
Q

When is a biopsy warranted in traumatic ulcers?

A

In cases that do not resolve after 2 weeks

17
Q

What are the 2 types of electrical burns?

A

Contact and Arc

18
Q

How many burn admissions to hospitals are electrical burns to the oral cavity?

A

5% of all burn admissions to hospitals

19
Q

What do electrical burns appear as in the oral cavity?

A

Painless, charred, yellow area that doesn’t bleed, with edema. Area becomes necrotic and begins to slough around the 4th day.

20
Q

What do most thermal burns of the oral cavity arise from?

A

Ingestion of hot foods or beverages

21
Q

What do thermal burns of the oral cavity appear as?

A

Appear as zones of erythema and ulceration

22
Q

What can cause chemical burns in the oral cavity?

A

Holding medication within their mouths (aspirin, bisphosphonates, chlorpromazine, promazine)

23
Q

What are some other things that can cause chemical injuries in the oral cavity by patient or dentist misuse?

A

Tooth whitening products, hydrogen peroxide, phenol, silver nitrate, certain endodontic materials, cotton roll, toothpaste

24
Q

What tissues are primarily targeted by antineoplastic therapy?

A

Tissues with rapid turnover such as the oral epithelium, urogenital tract, and the bone marrow

25
Q

How many patients receiving head and neck radiation have oral ramifications?

A

100% or patients receiving head and neck radiation have oral ramification

26
Q

What are the 2 predominant oral problems that result from antineoplastic therapy?

A

Oral mucositis and hemorrhage

27
Q

What are some other oral complications of antineoplastic therapy?

A

Xerostomia, loss of taste, osteoradionecrosis, trismus, developmental abnormalities

28
Q

What does BRONJ stand for?

A

Bisphosphonate-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaws

29
Q

How do bisphophonates work?

A

Inhibit osteoclasts, and possible interfere with angiogenesis

30
Q

What are bisphosphonates used for?

A

Slow osseous involvement of cancer, treat Paget’s disease, and reverse osteoporosis

31
Q

What are some characteristics of first generation bisphosphonate medications?

A

1st gen bisphosphonates have a low potency and are readily metabolized

32
Q

2nd generation bisphosphonates are termed ___________ due to the addition of a ________ side chain.

A

aminobisphosphonates due to the addition of a nitrogen side chain

33
Q

True or False: 2nd gen bisphosphonates are less potent and are not incorporated into the skeleton

A

False, 2nd gen BPs are MORE potent and are INCORPORATED into the skeleton (and have a half life of 10 years)

34
Q

What area of the body has the highest rate of incorporation of BPs?

A

The jaws (highest in active remodeling)

35
Q

What percentage of Bisphosphonate-related osteonecrosis of the jaws occurs in patients who have received IV formulations?

A

95% of BRONJ occurs in patients who have recieved IV formulations, and 85% of patients had multiple myeloma

36
Q

What is the prevalence of osteonecrosis in patients taking IV bisphosphonates, and the prevalence in patients taking oral bisphosphonates?

A

6-8% for IV BPs, and 1:100,000 for oral BPs

37
Q

When does BRONJ occur?

A

60% of BRONJ occur after a dental procedure, and 40% occur spontaneously

38
Q

Why does treatment of BRONJ vary?

A

Formulation of the drug, extent of disease, duration of drug use

39
Q

Should routine dental therapy be modified in patients taking bisphosphonates?

A

No, routine dental therapy should probably not be modified

40
Q

What should precautions should be taken in patients taking bisphosphonates when manipulation of bone is needed?

A

PO BPs - informed consent, IV BPs - avoid manipulation of bone

41
Q

If BRONJ is suspected, what should be done?

A

Refer to an oral surgeon! Get treated ASAP

42
Q

What is methamphetamine?

A

A powdered stimulant that can be smoked, snorted, injected, or taken orally

43
Q

Most methamphetamine users are ________.

A

Men ages 20-40

44
Q

What is parasitosis?

A

Neurosis that produces the sensation of snakes/insects crawling on or under the skin, caused by methamphetamine use

45
Q

How does methamphetamine use affect oral health?

A

Rampant dental caries occurs due to poor oral hygiene and extreme xerostomia, leading to consumptions of sugary and acidic drinks/food

46
Q

How does methamphetamine use affect the use of local anesthetics?

A

Meth potentiates the sympathomimetic amines for up to 6 hours

47
Q

Use of local anesthetics with epinephrine on patients using methamphetamine can lead to what 3 things?

A

Hypertensive crisis, cerebral vascular accident, myocardial infarction

48
Q

What term describes a persistent scaling and flaking of the vermilion border?

A

Exfoliative cheilitis

49
Q

What are some of the causes of submucosal hemorrhage?

A

Repeated coughing or vomiting, convulsions, oral sex, anticoagulant therapy, thrombocytopenia, disseminated intravascular coagulation, viral infections

50
Q

What are petechiae?

A

Pin point submucosal hemorrhage

51
Q

What are purpura?

A

Bruises (submucosal hemorrhage)

52
Q

What is ecchymosis?

A

Submucosal hemorrhage covering an area, like a limb

53
Q

When should submucosal hemorrhages be treated?

A

When they are associated with systemic disease

54
Q

What term describes dark staining caused pigmented material that have been implanted in the oral mucosa?

A

Amalgam tattoo

55
Q

What are some of the ways that amalgam can be incorporated into the oral mucosa?

A

Mucosal abrasion and amalgam dust, broken amalgam pieces falling into extraction sites, contaminated dental floss, endodontic retrofill, high speed handpieces

56
Q

What are some other materials that can be implanted into the mucosa?

A

Pencil graphite, coal dust, metal dust, broken disk, dental burs

57
Q

How do confirm your diagnosis of amalgam tattoo?

A

Radiographs, no treatment required if it can be detected by x ray but if not detectable, a biopsy must be done to rule out melanoma

58
Q

What are some consequences of having piercings in the oral cavity?

A

Chipped tooth/teeth, periodontal defect or trauma, infection, inflammatory lesions

59
Q

What is a susuk?

A

Implantation of a magical charm thought to enhance or preserve beauty relieve pain, bring success, provide protection

60
Q

What term describes a production or melanin caused by nicotine stimulation?

A

Smoker’s melanosis

61
Q

What is the most common location of smoker’s melanosis?

A

Usually anterior facial gingiva

62
Q

What percentage of smokers will have oral pigmentation?smoker’s melanosis?

A

About 20% or tobacco smokers will have oral pigmentation

63
Q

How can smoker’s melanosis be treated?

A

Cessation of smoking results in gradual disappearance

64
Q

When should biopsy be considered for smoker’s melanosis?

A

When pigmentation is in an unexpected location or if there are clinical changes

65
Q

What term describes a dome shaped, slight radiopaque lesion arising from the intact floor of the maxillary sinus?

A

Antral pseudocyst

66
Q

What does an antral pseudocyst consist of?

A

An exudate

67
Q

Is treatment necessary for an antral pseudocyst?

A

Treatment is not necessary, unless it is contributing to increased sinus pressure

68
Q

What term describes an introduction of air into subcutaneous or fascial spaces of the face and neck?

A

Cervicofacial emphysema

69
Q

When can cervicofacial emphysema occur?

A

After use of compressed air, after difficult/prolonged extractions, or as a result of increased intraoral pressure after an oral surgery (sneezing)

70
Q

How can cervicofacial emphysema be prevented?

A

Avoiding use of air driven hand pieces during oral surgery

71
Q

When can cervicofacial emphysema become painful?

A

After the air spread and the enlargement increases

72
Q

How does one distinguish cervicofacial emphysema from angioedema?

A

By checking for crepitus within the swelling

73
Q

How is cervicofacial emphysema treated?

A

Broad spectrum ABX, it will resolve withing 2-5 days