Chapter 8 - How Does the Nervous System Develop and Adapt? Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Chapter 8 - How Does the Nervous System Develop and Adapt? Deck (97):
1

Research has linked the neurotransmitter ______ to sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
A) dopamine
B) serotonin
C) acetylcholine
D) norepinephrine

B) serotonin

2

According to recent research, which of the following scenarios is most likely to lead to an infant death from SIDS?
A) higher than normal levels of serotonin
B) faster reuptake of serotonin in the synapse
C) lower than normal levels of acetylcholine
D) higher levels of acetylcholinesterase

B) faster reuptake of serotonin in the synapse

3

Which of the following statements regarding SIDS is not true?
A) SIDS is linked with serotonin levels.
B) Mice with high levels of 5-HT1A autoreceptors are more likely to die of SIDS.
C) SIDS kills about 2500 babies a year in the United States.
D) SIDS is more common in girls

D) SIDS is more common in girls

4

Planning skills are the function of:
A) parietal lobes.
B) temporal lobes.
C) occipital lobes.
D) frontal lobes.

D) frontal lobes

5

You can test planning capability by using the:
A) Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale.
B) digit span test.
C) Tower of Hanoi test.
D) mirror drawing test.

C) Tower of Hanoi test

6

Which of the following is not a correct statement about development?
A) The brain of a child is the same as that of an adult only smaller.
B) Because there are behaviors that develop late, there must be neural structures that develop late.
C) Because a brain structure develops late, there must be behaviors that develop late.
D) The brains of children at different ages are not comparable

The brain of a child is the same as that of an adult only smaller

7

The frontal lobes are fully developed:
A) at birth.
B) around age 5.
C) around age 10.
D) None of the answers is correct.

D) None of the answers is correct

8

The idea of preformation would imply that:
A) an embryo is a miniature adult.
B) embryos of different species look different.
C) embryos should look nothing like an adult.
D) embryos of different species look different and embryos should look nothing like an adult

A) an embryo is a miniature adult

9

Which of the following embryos has a forebrain, brainstem, and spinal cord?
A) salamander
B) human
C) chicken
D) salamander, human, and chicken

D) salamander, human, and chicken

10

A primitive brain can be seen in a human embryo by the ______ week after conception.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

C) third

11

After the second week of prenatal development the ____ progresses to become a(n) ______.
A) zygote; embryo
B) embryo; zygote
C) zygote; fetus
D) embryo; fetus

A) zygote; embryo

12

The forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain are first visible in a human embryo after about:
A) 10 days.
B) 14 days.
C) 28 days.
D) 35 days.

C) 28 days

13

The central nervous system originates from:
A) the neural crest.
B) the neural tube.
C) the neural envelope.
D) All of the answers are correct.

B) the neural tube

14

In human embryos, gyri and sulci first start to form after about:
A) 30 days.
B) 5 months.
C) 7 months.
D) 8 months.

C) 7 months

15

Sexual differentiation occurs by the end of the ______ month of gestation.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

B) second

16

Testosterone:
A) is present only after the testes are formed.
B) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics but not the development of the brain.
C) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics and the development of the brain in both males
and females.
D) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics and the development of the brain in males but not
females

D) affects the peripheral sexual characteristics and the development of the brain in males but not
females

17

Male and female genitalia become differentiated at around:
A) 30 days.
B) 60 days.
C) 4 months.
D) 6 months.

B) 60 days

18

______ have an almost limitless capacity for self-renewal.
A) Stem cells
B) Progenitor cells
C) Glial cells
D) Neuroblasts

A) Stem cells

19

In an adult, stem cells are found in:
A) the hippocampus.
B) the ventricles.
C) the pia mater.
D) the CSF.

B) the ventricles

20

Progenitor cells come from:
A) neuroblasts.
B) stem cells.
C) glioblasts.
D) glial cells.

B) stem cells

21

Neuroblasts and glioblasts are formed directly from:
A) stem cells.
B) progenitor cells.
C) the ventricles.
D) the neural tube.

B) progenitor cells.

22

Which of the following sequences is correct?
A) stem, progenitor, blast, glia
B) progenitor, stem, blast, glia
C) blast, stem, progenitor, glia
D) stem, progenitor, glia, blast

A) stem, progenitor, blast, glia

23

______ is the process that works to suppress gene expression.
A) Methylation
B) Mutation
C) Translation
D) Transcription

A) Methylation

24

Compounds that signal brain cells to develop in certain ways are called:
A) progenitors.
B) neurotropic factors.
C) somites.
D) chemical factors.

B) neurotropic factors

25

If you wanted to increase the number of progenitor cells, you could always add:
A) nerve growth factor.
B) fibroblast growth factor.
C) epidermal growth factor.
D) testosterone.

C) epidermal growth factor

26

Which of the following is the correct sequence of brain development?
A) cell birth, cell differentiation, cell migration, myelogenesis
B) cell birth, cell migration, cell differentiation, cell maturation
C) cell birth, cell maturation, cell differentiation, cell migration
D) cell birth, cell maturation, myelogenesis, cell migration

B) cell birth, cell migration, cell differentiation, cell maturation

27

Neurogenesis (the process of forming neurons) is largely complete by:
A) 10 weeks.
B) 20 weeks.
C) 30 weeks.
D) 40 weeks.

B) 20 weeks

28

Neuronal differentiation is largely complete by:
A) 8 weeks.
B) 23 weeks.
C) 29 weeks.
D) 31 weeks.

C) 29 weeks

29

Cell differentiation:
A) occurs after neuron maturation.
B) occurs after migration.
C) occurs before neuron generation.
D) is not complete until well after birth

B) occurs after migration

30

The brain can cope with injury more easily during:
A) differentiation.
B) cell migration.
C) neurogenesis.
D) neuron maturation.

C) neurogenesis

31

The ______ is thought to contain a primitive map or blueprint of the cortex that tells developing neurons where to migrate to.
A) brainstem
B) thalamus
C) subventricular zone
D) hippcampus

C) subventricular zone

32

Cells find their appropriate location by following a road laid down by:
A) astrocytes.
B) oligodendrocytes.
C) radial glial cells.
D) None of the answers is correct.

C) radial glial cells

33

Neurons migrate to the correct locations by following:
A) radial glial cells.
B) chemical signals.
C) genetic signals.
D) both radial glial cells and chemical signals.

D) both radial glial cells and chemical signals

34

Cells in layer ______ of the cortex develop first.
A) I
B) III
C) IV
D) VI

D) VI

35

Neuronal maturation involves ______ and ______.
A) migration; specialization
B) dendrite growth; synapse formation
C) migration; synapse formation
D) specialization; dendrite growth

B) dendrite growth; synapse formation

36

The process of dendrite growth that occurs in the first 2 years of life is referred to as:
A) arborization.
B) extension.
C) sprouting.
D) shaping.

A) arborization

37

Generally speaking, ______ tend to grow much faster than ______.
A) neurons; glia
B) glia; neurons
C) axons; dendrites
D) dendrites; axons

C) axons; dendrites

38

The dendritic field in ______ starts off very simply, but becomes increasingly complex until about 2 years of age.
A) visual cortex
B) Broca’s area
C) auditory cortex
D) somatosensory cortex

B) Broca’s area

39

Dendrites develop on cells:
A) before differentiation.
B) before migration.
C) after cell maturation.
D) during cell maturation.

D) during cell maturation

40

Which of the following is not a symptom of autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?
A) impaired social interactions
B) a narrow range of interests
C) repetitive movements
D) impaired spatial skills

D) impaired spatial skills

41

Jane is 7 years old. She has very poor language skills and is incredibly clumsy with her hands. Jane may have:
A) autism spectrum disorder (ASD).
B) Asperger’s syndrome.
C) Rett’s syndrome.
D) William’s syndrome

C) Rett’s syndrome

42

In the 1990s, rates of autism were approximately 1 in 2000; however, recent estimates suggest that autism occurs in:
A) 1 in 55.
B) 1 in 76.
C) 1 in 88.
D) 1 in 160.

C) 1 in 88

43

Jeffrey is 6 years old. He is socially awkward and did not learn to walk until he was almost 2. In addition, he still has a hard time using a fork or spoon to feed himself. He is obsessed with model airplanes (he has over 200 models and can name each one). This is the only activity he engages in unless he is pressured into doing something else. Jeffrey most likely has:
A) Asperger’s syndrome.
B) Autism spectrum disorder.
C) Rett’s syndrome.
D) William’s syndrome.

A) Asperger’s syndrome.

44

Which of the following guide growth cones to their appropriate destination?
A) tropic molecules
B) trophic molecules
C) adhesion molecules
D) trophic and adhesion molecules

A) tropic molecules

45

Which of the following brain regions has the highest density of synapses shortly after birth?
A) primary visual cortex
B) prefrontal cortex
C) Broca’s area
D) Wernicke’s area

A) primary visual cortex

46

The number of synaptic contacts in the human cerebral cortex is estimated to be:
A) 10^10.
B) 10^12.
C) 10^14.
D) 10^16.

C) 10^14

47

______ is(are) molecules that help(s) cells bind to one another to aid in migration.
A) Tropic molecules
B) Nerve growth factor
C) Cell-adhesion molecules
D) Trophic molecules

C) Cell-adhesion molecules

48

It is estimated that synaptic pruning eliminates approximately ______ percent of synapses in the human cortex.
A) 10
B) 40
C) 50
D) 65

B) 40

49

One reason that many neurons die during synaptic pruning is that they must compete for limited amounts of:
A) radial glial cells.
B) cell adhesion molecules.
C) nerve growth factor.
D) tropic molecules.

C) nerve growth factor.

50

Most neurons that die during synaptic pruning die as a result of:
A) apoptosis.
B) necrosis.
C) structural damage.
D) the death of sodium-potassium pumps.

A) apoptosis

51

In an experiment examining the ability of children to discriminate speech sounds of various languages, Werker and Tees found:
A) that children under age 2 had no discrimination ability.
B) that children could discriminate, but the ability declines over the first year of life.
C) that children begin to discriminate during the first year and this ability continues until they begin to speak at around age 2.
D) None of the answers is correct.

B) that children could discriminate, but the ability declines over the first year of life.

52

Which of the following statements about synaptic pruning is not true?
A) Synaptic pruning probably can be influenced by drugs.
B) Synaptic pruning is proportionally larger in smaller-brained animals.
C) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by hormones.
D) Synaptic pruning is probably influenced by experience.

B) Synaptic pruning is proportionally larger in smaller-brained animals

53

Which of the following statements regarding synaptic pruning is not true?
A) Synaptic pruning may play an important role in learning your native language.
B) Synaptic pruning may allow the brain to adapt more flexibly to a changing environment.
C) Synaptic pruning may be a cause of autism.
D) Synaptic pruning may partly explain differences in cultural beliefs based on experience.

C) Synaptic pruning may be a cause of autism

54

The frontal lobes reach adult maturity around age:
A) 15.
B) 18.
C) 20.
D) 30.

D) 30

55

Research has demonstrated that aversive childhood experiences (e.g., physical abuse) are linked with:
A) increased rates of mental illness in middle age.
B) increased rates of suicide in middle age.
C) increased rates of addiction in middle age.
D) All of the answers are correct.

D) All of the answers are correct

56

According to research by Paul Flechsig, myelination continues until age:
A) 4.
B) 12.
C) 25.
D) 18.

D) 18

57

The pincer grasp:
A) is a reflex present at birth.
B) is not evident until age 2.
C) develops between 8 and 11 months.
D) disappears as the motor cortex develops

C) develops between 8 and 11 months

58

Increases in cortical thickness in the hand area of the primary motor cortex are associated with:
A) increases in hand size.
B) increases in grip strength.
C) increases in manual dexterity.
D) All of the answers are correct.

C) increases in manual dexterity

59

The typical 6-year-old has a:
A) 300- to 600-word vocabulary.
B) 600- to 1,000-word vocabulary.
C) 1,000- to 2,000-word vocabulary.
D) 2,000- to 2,500-word vocabulary.

D) 2,000- to 2,500-word vocabulary

60

Which of the following statements regarding language areas of the cortex is not correct?
A) Changes in dendritic complexity in speech areas are among the most impressive in the brain.
B) Language areas are among the earliest regions of the cortex to complete myelination.
C) Between 15 and 24 months of age there is a dramatic increase in density of dendrites and
axons in the language areas.
D) By age 2 cell division and migration are complete in the language zones of the cerebral cortex.

B) Language areas are among the earliest regions of the cortex to complete myelination

61

Language development in children aged 2 to 4 years has been linked with:
A) pruning of neurons in Broca’s area.
B) pruning of neurons in Wernicke’s area.
C) thickening of the cortex in Broca’s area.
D) thinning of the cortex in the mouth region of the primary motor cortex.

C) thickening of the cortex in Broca’s area

62

Which of the following sequences is correct according to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?
A) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
B) sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational
C) sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational, preoperational
D) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational

A) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

63

Kristen likes it when her mom cuts her sandwich into four pieces because she likes having four sandwiches instead of just one. Based on what you know about Piaget’s theory of cognitive development (assuming Kristen is a normally developing child), pick the age that most accurately represents how old Kristen might be.
A) 5
B) 7
C) 9
D) 11

A) 5

64

William is playing a game with his little brother, and he takes his brother’s favorite stuffed animal and hides it underneath a blanket. His little brother then grabs the blanket to reveal the hidden toy. It appears as though William’s little brother has progressed past the:
A) preoperational period.
B) concrete operational period.
C) sensorimotor period.
D) formal operational period.

C) sensorimotor period

65

According to Piaget, in which development stage do children start to understand mathematical transformations?
A) preoperational period
B) concrete operational period
C) sensorimotor period
D) formal operational period

B) concrete operational period

66

Growth spurts up to age 16 account for large increases in brain weight. This is most likely due to increases in:
A) the number of neurons and glial cells.
B) the number of glial cells and synapses.
C) myelination.
D) All of the answers are correct.

B) the number of glial cells and synapses

67

Which of the following is not associated with brain growth up to age 16?
A) an increase in the number of neurons
B) an increase in the number of glial cells
C) an increase in the number of synapses
D) an increase in the number of blood vessels

A) an increase in the number of neurons

68

The nonmatching-to-sample task described in your text is thought to measure the functions of:
A) frontal lobes.
B) temporal lobes.
C) basal ganglia.
D) limbic system.

B) temporal lobes

69

The concurrent discrimination task described in your text is thought to measure the functions of:
A) frontal lobes.
B) temporal lobes.
C) basal ganglia.
D) brainstem.

C) basal ganglia

70

Studies have shown that children are able to solve the ______ prior to the _______.
A) nonmatching-to-sample task; concurrent discrimination task
B) nonmatching-to-sample task; displacement task
C) concurrent discrimination task; nonmatching-to-sample task
D) concurrent discrimination task; displacement task

C) concurrent discrimination task; nonmatching-to-sample task

71

Rats raised in “stimulating” environments solve mazes:
A) more slowly than rats raised in laboratory environments.
B) faster than rats raised in laboratory environments.
C) just as quickly as rats raised in laboratory environments.
D) None of the answers is correct.

B) faster than rats raised in laboratory environments

72

In rats ______ has(have) been shown to lead to enhanced motor and cognitive skills and recovery from brain injury.
A) injection of growth hormones
B) a low-fat diet
C) tactile stimulation
D) high doses of vitamin C

C) tactile stimulation

73

Enriched experience does not increase the:
A) size of neurons.
B) number of neurons.
C) number of synapses.
D) number of astrocytes.

B) number of neurons

74

Brain imaging studies investigating native and second languages have revealed that second languages tend to result in great activation in:
A) the auditory cortex.
B) the basal ganglia and cerebellum.
C) the inferior parietal cortex.
D) All of the answers are correct.

B) the basal ganglia and cerebellum

75

The ______ is the notion that neurons or their axons and dendrites are drawn toward a chemical that indicates the correct pathway.
A) chemical biomarker hypothesis
B) chemical roadmap theory
C) chemoaffinity hypothesis
D) genetic blueprint hypothesis

C) chemoaffinity hypothesis

76

The condition in which vision in one eye is reduced as a result of disuse is known as:
A) hemianopia
B) macular degeneration
C) astigmatism
D) amblyopia

D) amblyopia

77

Imprinting has been related to changes in the:
A) forebrain.
B) basal ganglia.
C) midbrain.
D) hindbrain.

A) forebrain

78

Dogs that are deprived of stimulation during rearing:
A) seek out human affection.
B) seek out other dogs.
C) have an abnormal response to pain.
D) None of the answers is correct.

C) have an abnormal response to pain

79

Early exposure to stress may predispose people to develop ______ later in life.
A) depression
B) anxiety disorders
C) ADHD
D) both depression and anxiety disorders

D) both depression and anxiety disorders

80

Masculinization refers to the effects of:
A) testosterone on brain cells.
B) too little estrogen on female embryos.
C) testosterone on female embryos.
D) too little estrogen on brain cells.

A) testosterone on brain cells

81

Which of the following statements regarding studies of Romanian orphans is not true?
A) Most of the orphans were underweight.
B) Most of the orphans had smaller than average brains.
C) Most of the orphans had significant intellectual and motor impairments.
D) Most of the orphans never reached “normal” levels of intelligence unless they were adopted before age 5.

D) Most of the orphans never reached “normal” levels of intelligence unless they were adopted before age 5

82

Jocelyn Bachevalier trained infant male and female monkeys on both the concurrent discrimination task and the object reversal task. She found that the female monkeys were:
A) superior to the males on the object reversal task and equal on the concurrent discrimination
task.
B) superior to the males on the concurrent discrimination task and equal on the object reversal
task.
C) better on the concurrent task and the males were better on the object reversal task.
D) better on the object reversal task and the males were better on the concurrent task.

C) better on the concurrent task and the males were better on the object reversal task

83

Removal of the ovaries of middle-aged laboratory rats:
A) has no effect on the brain.
B) leads to a marked growth of dendrites.
C) leads to an increase in glial numbers in the cortex.
D) leads to a marked growth of dendrites and an increase in glial numbers in the cortex.

D) leads to a marked growth of dendrites and an increase in glial numbers in the cortex

84

Complex environmental housing:
A) increases dendritic growth in the hippocampus of female rats more than in males.
B) increases dendritic growth in the visual cortex of both sexes equally.
C) increases dendritic growth in the hippocampus of male rats more than in females.
D) has no effect on dendritic growth in the visual cortex of either sex but does produce an
increase in the number of glial cells.

A) increases dendritic growth in the hippocampus of female rats more than in males

85

Male and female brains are:
A) different only in size.
B) different in response to environmental events.
C) different only during early development.
D) unaffected by gonadal hormones.

B) different in response to environmental events

86

Studies of gynandromorphic songbirds has revealed that the male birdsong is:
A) under hormonal control.
B) under genetic control.
C) learned through observing other male birds.
D) under both hormonal and genetic control.

B) under genetic control

87

Children who have brain injuries to language areas in the first couple of years:
A) never recover language function.
B) recover function over many years.
C) show no severe language disturbances.
D) show lack of further development of language while maintaining their prelesion level of function.

C) show no severe language disturbances

88

Some researchers suggest that prenatal exposure to caffeine or nicotine may lead to a child developing:
A) autism spectrum disorder.
B) William’s syndrome
C) ADHD.
D) developmental dyslexia.

C) ADHD

89

Anencephaly is a result of:
A) acute brain injury.
B) failure of the back end of the neural tube to close.
C) failure of the front end of the neural tube to close.
D) a spinal cord abnormality.

C) failure of the front end of the neural tube to close

90

Abnormal brain development that results in behavioral effects:
A) is immediately evident.
B) may not be evident until adolescence.
C) may not be evident until the brain starts to lose neurons in the third decade.
D) cannot be detected until autopsy.

B) may not be evident until adolescence

91

Down syndrome is caused by:
A) hormonal abnormality.
B) brain injury.
C) neurological disease.
D) a genetic abnormality.

D) a genetic abnormality

92

Cerebral palsy can be caused by:
A) a genetic abnormality.
B) a neurological disease.
C) a hormone imbalance.
D) oxygen deprivation.

D) oxygen deprivation

93

Phenylketonuria is caused by:
A) anoxia.
B) metabolic error.
C) infection.
D) abnormal brain development.

B) metabolic error

94

Kwashiorkor syndrome is caused by:
A) malnutrition.
B) birth trauma.
C) genetic abnormality.
D) sensory deprivation.

A) malnutrition

95

In a study examining the brains of mentally retarded children, Dominique Purpura found:
A) fewer dendrites than normal.
B) fewer neurons than normal.
C) fewer glial cells.
D) more glial cells.

A) fewer dendrites than normal

96

Brain scans and autopsies of the brains of schizophrenics have shown:
A) smaller ventricles.
B) heavier brains because of increased glial growth.
C) a decrease in the number of neurons in the frontal cortex.
D) a larger parahippocampal gyrus.

C) a decrease in the number of neurons in the frontal cortex

97

Some researchers have suggested that schizophrenia results from abnormal development of the:
A) amygdala.
B) frontal cortex.
C) hippocampus.
D) temporal cortex.

B) frontal cortex