CHRL Knowledge Exam

Question 1

__________ is the interdisciplinary approach to designing equipment and systems so that they can easily be used without causing injury.

Answer 1

Ergonomics

Question 2

Under occupational health and safety legislation, workers have the following responsibilities EXCEPT:
a) Comply with all acts and regulations
b) Report hazardous conditions and defective equipment
c) Wear protective equipment, where necessary
d) Work first and report hazardous conditions later

Answer 2

d) Work first and report hazardous conditions later

Question 3

A mine worker who inhales hazardous substances would be reported as having:
a) An occupational injury
b) An industrial disease
c) An acute disease
d) A workplace accident

Answer 3

b) An industrial disease

Question 4

All of the following workplace conditions increase the risk of violence EXCEPT FOR:
a) Working in groups in isolated conditions
b) Working nights
c) Handling cash
d) Denying clients requests

Answer 4

a) Working in groups in isolated conditions

Question 5

An intern was burned when she touched a hazardous material not knowing what it was. This incident could have been avoided if the company had a program called:
a) VDT
b) QWL
c) WHMIS
d) TQM

Answer 5

c) WHMIS

Question 6

Keith is an alcoholic and his supervisor would like to support his recovery. Which of the following programs will help him to do this?
a) A wellness program
b) A graduated return to work program
c) A stress management program
d) An employee assistance program

Answer 6

d) An employee assistance program

Question 7

Zabeen is a very efficient software analyst, but recently there was a noticeable increase in errors on the documents she produced. Zabeen may be exhibiting signs of:
a) Alarm reaction
b) Eustress
c) Depression
d) Carpel tunnel syndrome

Answer 7

c) Depression

Question 8

Organizations offer ______ to prevent productivity losses from depression, anxiety, substance abuse and stress.
a) Employee counselling
b) Employee assistance programs
c) Employee coaching
d) Employee transfers

Answer 8

b) Employee assistance programs

Question 9

On the job alcoholism is considered:
a) A disciplinary matter
b) A personal matter
c) A psychosocial matter
d) A disability

Answer 9

d) A disability

Question 10

Depression is manifested in the workplace by these symptoms:
a) Loss of emotional integrity
b) Increased voluntary employee turnover
c) Heightened concentration
d) Increased accidents and sick days

Answer 10

d) Increased accidents and sick days

Question 11

Bill C-45 is a legislation that:
a) Requires managers to inform workers of unsafe work conditions
b) Allows for prosecution of decision-makers for criminal negligence regarding OH&S
c) Ensures no-fault compensation for workplace accidents
d) Gives workers the right to refuse unsafe work

Answer 11

b) Allows for prosecution of decision-makers for criminal negligence regarding OH&S

Question 12

An approaching deadline is causing employees to work harder. As a result, productivity has increased; however, you are concerned that it may not be sustainable. Which of the following describes what the employees are feeling?
a) Distress
b) Chronic stress
c) Acute stress
d) Eustress

Answer 12

d) Eustress

Question 13

All of the following are potential signs of depression EXCEPT:
a) Hostility
b) Alcohol abuse
c) Hyperactive or nervous behaviour
d) Extreme dependence on others

Answer 13

c) Hyperactive or nervous behaviour

Question 14

Which of the following would NOT qualify for a workers’ compensation claim?
a) A person being injured on the way to an employment interview
b) A company truck driver having an accident after work hours while returning the company vehicle to its parking lot
c) A manager being injured while travelling out of province to a business meeting
d) A person being injured while volunteering at your workplace

Answer 14

a) A person being injured on the way to an employment interview

Question 15

Who is responsible for safety in the workplace?
a) Management and workers
b) The government, unions, management, and workers
c) The government and management
d) Unions and management

Answer 15

b) The government, unions, management, and workers

Question 16

Cumulative trauma disorders are likely to occur in which of the following occupations?
a) Postal delivery person
b) Retail sales clerk
c) Construction foreman
d) Data entry clerk

Answer 16

d) Data entry clerk

Question 17

Employee depression results in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Substance abuse
b) Job burnout
c) Absenteeism
d) Low productivity

Answer 17

b) Job burnout

Question 18

Which of the following is a severe stage of distress?
a) Eustress
b) Acute stress
c) Burnout
d) Alarm reaction

Answer 18

c) Burnout

Question 19

If your department practices incremental budgeting, this means:
a) Budgets are set based on activities.
b) Budgets are made based on line items.
c) Budgets are set from scratch every year.
d) Budgets are based on the previous year’s budget.

Answer 19

d) Budgets are based on the previous year’s budget.

Question 20

A variable cost is a cost that:
a) Fluctuates in accordance with a change in activity
b) Increases and decreases with inflation
c) Escalates over time
d) Is difficult to budget for

Answer 20

a) Fluctuates in accordance with a change in activity

Question 21

Your organization has 550 permanent employees and 35 casual employees. Their compensations are considered to be:
a) Fixed and variable costs
b) Overhead costs
c) Activity-based costs
d) Capital costs

Answer 21

a) Fixed and variable costs

Question 22

Which of the following information is NOT recorded on a balance sheet?
a) Gross profit
b) Physical assets
c) Liabilities
d) Goodwill

Answer 22

a) Gross profit

Question 23

Which of the following describes a company’s debt ratio?
a) Current liabilities divided by current assets excluding inventory
b) Total debt divided by total assets
c) Outstanding loans against current liquid assets
d) Current assets against current liabilities

Answer 23

b) Total debt divided by total assets

Question 24

An organization that makes kitchenware has decided to sell off all of its linens. The cost of the linens was $15,000, and it was able to sell them for $25,000. This means that the company has:
a) Realized a $10,000 annual profit
b) Increased its inventory value by $10,000
c) Increased its equity by $10,000
d) Reduced its liability by $15,000

Answer 24

c) Increased its equity by $10,000

Question 25

Loan Bean Coffee Shop has monthly expenses amounting to $85,000. Each month, coffee beans cost approximately $35,000. The cost of coffee beans is: a) A variable expense b) A fixed expense c) A cash flow d) An asset

Answer 25

a) A variable expense

Question 26

An example of a fixed cost for an HR department would be: a) In-house HRIS administration costs b) Recruitment advertising costs c) Employee orientation costs d) Employee service award costs

Answer 26

a) In-house HRIS administration costs

Question 27

A company’s statement of cash flows is also known as: a) The income statement b) The balance sheet c) The statement of changes in financial position d) The variance report

Answer 27

c) The statement of changes in financial position

Question 28

You have started an HR consulting firm with a colleague. You each deposit $10,000 in the business account to cover costs such as office space and business cards. The initial deposit is considered to be: a) Owners' goodwill b) Owners' equity c) Owners' assets d) Owners' expense

Answer 28

b) Owners' equity

Question 29

The main purpose of the HR department's budget is to: a) Plan and control spending b) Track the ROI of HR programs c) Identify cost over-runs and short-falls d) Communicate the value of human capital

Answer 29

a) Plan and control spending

Question 30

From a financial perspective, an example of a company's goodwill is: a) The value of stock-options payable to employees b) The positive variance between actual and budgeted costs c) The intangible value of its brand name d) The commitment to abide by ethical financial practices

Answer 30

c) The intangible value of its brand name

Question 31

Jean, the new HR manager, decided that she will evaluate each and every expense item before including them into this year's budget. Which budgeting model is she using? a) Zero-based budget b) Fixed-plus budget c) Incremental budget d) Variable budget

Answer 31

a) Zero-based budget

Question 32

What are financial variances? a) The differences between budgeted and actual amounts b) The costs that fluctuate with a change in activity c) The differences between annual costs and annual revenues d) The inflationary adjustments applied to incremental budgets

Answer 32

a) The differences between budgeted and actual amounts

Question 33

Experts say the first step in choosing an HRIS is for HR personnel to: a) Research the features of competitive systems b) Determine the technology platform that best fits the organization's technical infrastructure c) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis d) Prepare a budget for the project

Answer 33

c) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis

Question 34

The primary purpose of an HR audit is to: a) Measure HR department program performance against pre-established goals. b) Establish standards against which department performance can be compared and improved c) Establish a balance of measures to show HR's contribution to organization performance d) Assess how well the HR department is performing against "best practices"

Answer 34

a) Measure HR department program performance against pre-established goals.

Question 35

In order to better understand the career movements that occur within your organization, you would: a) Create a selection spreadsheet b) Conduct a Markov analysis c) Engage linear programming d) Determine labour supply and demand

Answer 35

b) Conduct a Markov analysis

Question 36

An analysis of your recent practices indicates that your current cumulative yield ratio is 20 percent. Which of the following best explains this outcome? a) 20% of employees are at or above the job rate of their pay band. b) Three out of every 15 grievances are settled without going to arbitration. c) The return on investment for a recent training program was 20% of the total training cost. d) Four out of 20 applicants who applied to a recent on-line job posting were qualified.

Answer 36

d) Four out of 20 applicants who applied to a recent on-line job posting were qualified.

Question 37

When determining your organization's "quality-of-hire" statistics, which of the following variables will NOT be considered? a) Percentage of new hires with acceptable productivity within an acceptable time frame b) Percentage of new hires retained after a one year period c) Percentage of all applicants found to be qualified candidates d) Average annual job performance of new hires

Answer 37

c) Percentage of all applicants found to be qualified candidates

Question 38

Which of the following will identify the most effective external recruitment source? a) Yield ratio b) Average cost per hire formula c) Realistic job previews d) Average time to hire

Answer 38

a) Yield ratio

Question 39

Three hundred applicants for 25 positions would yield a selection ratio of: a) 12 b) 0.12 c) 0.08 d) 8

Answer 39

c) 0.08

Question 40

If you were asked to rate an employee on this item, "Formulates specific objectives for each contract", using a range of "1 -- almost never" to "5 -- almost always", you would be using: a) A behaviourally anchored rating scale b) A behaviour observation scale c) A behaviour checklist d) A forced-choice method

Answer 40

b) A behaviour observation scale

Question 41

Your organization is interested in benchmarking employees' views of organizational effectiveness. The most effective way to do this would be through: a) Employee focus groups b) Employee involvement team c) Employee task forces d) Employee climate surveys

Answer 41

d) Employee climate surveys

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a primary impact that technology has had on HRM? a) Lower HR administration costs b) Connecting people with each other and with the HR data they need c) Changed the role of supervisors in managing employees d) Transformed the way HR processes are designed and executed

Answer 42

c) Changed the role of supervisors in managing employees

Question 43

Which of the following evaluations will indicate whether employees understood the material presented in a recent training course? a) Reaction evaluation b) Learning evaluation c) Behaviour evaluation d) Results evaluation

Answer 43

b) Learning evaluation

Question 44

Donald Kirkpatrick's four levels of evaluation are: a) Pre-test, intervention, post-test, return on investment b) Understand, apply, analyze, evaluate c) Reaction, learning, behaviour, results d) Recall, compilation, experimentation, application

Answer 44

c) Reaction, learning, behaviour, results

Question 45

When conducting a training needs analysis, the process includes: a) An organizational analysis, a task analysis, and a person analysis b) A performance analysis, a skills analysis, and a cost analysis c) An employee analysis, a job analysis, and a curriculum analysis d) An environmental analysis, an operational analysis, and a performance analysis

Answer 45

a) An organizational analysis, a task analysis, and a person analysis

Question 46

Which of the following statements about employment termination is true? a) Wrongful dismissal arises from a lawsuit. b) Constructive dismissal arises from a violation of employment standards. c) Summary dismissal is accompanied by a notice period. d) An employee's employment can only be terminated with just cause.

Answer 46

a) Wrongful dismissal arises from a lawsuit.

Question 47

As a result of a downsizing, Joe’s employment was terminated with two weeks’ pay in lieu of notice. This could be an example of: a) A summary dismissal b) A dismissal with cause c) A wrongful dismissal d) A dismissal without cause

Answer 47

d) A dismissal without cause

Question 48

As a result of an employee’s complaint about being unfairly treated, the employee and employer have agreed to engage a third party to hear both sides and make a binding decision. Which of the following dispute resolution processes best describes this situation? a) Arbitration b) Mediation c) Ombudsperson review d) Peer-review system

Answer 48

a) Arbitration

Question 49

Under a positive discipline process, to correct performance problems, managers will issue ___________ to employees to improve their unacceptable performance. a) Warnings b) Reprimands c) Policies d) Reminders

Answer 49

d) Reminders

Question 50

Who determines whether a proposed bargaining unit is appropriate? a) Mediator b) Labour relations board c) Union leaders d) Employer

Answer 50

b) Labour relations board

Question 51

A decision-making leave is usually one of the last steps in: a) A dispute resolution b) A conflict of interest c) A progressive discipline process d) A positive discipline process

Answer 51

d) A positive discipline process

Question 52

The principal role of the union steward is to: a) Negotiate and administer the collective agreement b) Represent the interests of bargaining unit members c) Organize certification drives d) Coordinate the grievance handling process

Answer 52

b) Represent the interests of bargaining unit members

Question 53

Which of the following dispute resolution terms applies to a situation in which a neutral third party is employed to help employees and managers come to a voluntary agreement? a) Ombudsperson b) Intervention c) Arbitration d) Mediation

Answer 53

d) Mediation

Question 54

A unionized employee is likely to use which of the following complaint procedures? a) A step-review system b) A hearing officer complaint system c) A peer-review system d) Mediation

Answer 54

a) A step-review system

Question 55

As a result of a recent restructuring, Air Canada will need to terminate some exempt customer service employee. Which of the following employment laws will govern how Air Canada handles these terminations? a) Public Service Staff Relations Act b) Common Law and Canada Labour Code c) Canada Labour Code d) Ontario Employment Standards Act

Answer 55

b) Common Law and Canada Labour Code

Question 56

When a certification drive is in process, management should avoid which of the following? a) Discussing the union drive with employees b) Discussing the union drive with managers and supervisors c) Communicating the potential impact of unionization to employees d) Providing new incentives to employees

Answer 56

d) Providing new incentives to employees

Question 57

Decertification occurs when: a) The union no longer wants to represent the employees. b) The employer applies to the Labour Relations Board to remove the union. c) The bargaining unit becomes too small to represent. d) Employees apply to the Labour Relations Board to remove the union.

Answer 57

d) Employees apply to the Labour Relations Board to remove the union.

Question 58

During a legal strike, the main purpose of picketing includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Hampering the employer's efforts to run its operations b) Encouraging wild-cat strikes of other unions that also have workers at that site c) Discouraging the movement of products and supplies across the premises d) Providing information to the public and those required to cross the picket line

Answer 58

b) Encouraging wild-cat strikes of other unions that also have workers at that site

Question 59

The union begins bargaining for a 9% wage increase but has a bottom line of 5%. The organization's limit is 6% but begins negotiating at 3%. The bargaining zone is: a) 0.03 b) 0.06 c) 0.01 d) 0.04

Answer 59

c) 0.01

Question 60

You have just learned your employees have filed an application for union certification. The management team is holding a town hall to open up lines of communication. Which of the following should they avoid addressing? a) The employer’s willingness and desire to deal directly with employees b) The employees’ right to choose to be non-unionized c) The employer’s openness to improving working conditions d) That employees who join unions pay union dues

Answer 60

c) The employer’s openness to improving working conditions

Question 61

There are two ways in which unions can become certified in Canada. They are mandatory ballot and __________. a) Bargaining unit roll-call b) Card-check c) Involuntary recognition d) Industry practice

Answer 61

b) Card-check

Question 62

Which of the following collective bargaining dispute resolution processes will most likely shrink the gap between the union’s demands and the employer’s offer? a) Expedited arbitration b) Mediation c) Final offer arbitration d) Conciliation

Answer 62

c) Final offer arbitration

Question 63

As part of your bargaining strategy, your management team wants to engage the union in brainstorming problems, identifying solutions, and consensus decision making. Which of the following types of bargaining best describes this approach? a) Pattern bargaining b) Distributive bargaining c) Concessionary bargaining d) Interest-based bargaining

Answer 63

d) Interest-based bargaining

Question 64

Mary joins XYZ Company and is told that as a condition of employment she must join the union. This is known as: a) An agency shop security clause b) A union shop security clause c) A voluntary union recognition clause d) A preamble to employment clause

Answer 64

b) A union shop security clause

Question 65

Rights arbitration is: a) Binding only if both parties agree to the arbitrator's recommendation b) Used to settle a deadlock in the negotiation of a collective agreement c) Used to settle a dispute arising from the interpretation of a collective agreement d) Involves the union and management presenting final offers

Answer 65

c) Used to settle a dispute arising from the interpretation of a collective agreement

Question 66

When the union's and the employer's negotiating positions overlap, this is referred to as: a) The bargaining zone b) The equilibrium zone c) The blue zone d) The bargaining exchange zone

Answer 66

a) The bargaining zone

Question 67

The Canadian Union of Postal Workers is an example of what type of union? a) Craft union b) Administrative union c) Employee association d) Industrial union

Answer 67

d) Industrial union

Question 68

From a union’s perspective, negotiating the collective agreement are the major responsibilities of: a) Arbitrators b) Shop stewards c) Bargaining agents d) Business agents

Answer 68

d) Business agents

Question 69

Typically, a training needs assessment could include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Cost-benefit analysis b) Task analysis c) Person analysis d) Organization analysis

Answer 69

a) Cost-benefit analysis

Question 70

Your organization has decided to partner with a local business college to engage a team of students to take on a project as part of their marketing course. What term best describes this type of training? a) On-the-job training b) Cooperative training c) Internship training d) Apprenticeship training

Answer 70

c) Internship training

Question 71

You have been asked to design a sales training program and evaluate it using a summative evaluation methodology. Which of the following evaluation techniques will you most likely use? a) Participant knowledge test administered at the end of the session b) An end-of-session participant role-play scenario c) An analysis of the change in sales volumes d) An after-the-fact participant questionnaire to assess the behaviour change on the job

Answer 71

c) An analysis of the change in sales volumes

Question 72

After a training program, participants are usually asked for their reactions. A question such as "How much of the training program can be applied to your job?" is an example of: a) Affective reaction measure b) Utility reaction measure c) Self-report behaviour measure d) Declarative learning measure

Answer 72

b) Utility reaction measure

Question 73

__________________ forecasts the financial benefits derived from a training program. a) Cost-effectiveness evaluation b) Cost-benefit evaluation c) Return on Investment d) Utility analysis

Answer 73

d) Utility analysis

Question 74

Which of the following methods of learning will maximize the learning retention of a complex series of tasks? a) Massed practice and whole learning b) Distributed practice and whole learning c) Massed practice and part learning d) Distributed practice and part learning

Answer 74

d) Distributed practice and part learning

Question 75

Overlearning results in: a) Habitual performance b) Stronger locus of control c) Lower learner satisfaction d) Training fatigue

Answer 75

a) Habitual performance

Question 76

Post-workshop assessment questions are created during what phase of the instructional systems design model of training and development? a) Needs analysis b) Design c) Development d) Evaluation

Answer 76

c) Development

Question 77

Natasha wishes to stop smoking and is in the process of completing a smoking-cessation program offered by her employer. The trainer asks her to make a list of the times that she most enjoys a cigarette. This list is necessary as part of what process? a) Behaviour modification b) Relapse prevention therapy c) Pre- and post-evaluation d) Transfer of learning

Answer 77

b) Relapse prevention therapy

Question 78

The students in Dr. Singh's class recently learned how to conduct structured interviews. Robert, a student in the class, has just been given the opportunity to use those skills at work. That Robert was able to successfully use those skills at work is an example of: a) On-the-job training b) Role playing c) Behaviour reinforcement d) Transfer of learning

Answer 78

d) Transfer of learning

Question 79

A key measure of an employee's readiness to learn can be assessed by all of the following EXCEPT: a) A trainability test b) The participant's perception of the transfer climate c) The participant's motivation to learn d) The requirement for relapse prevention

Answer 79

d) The requirement for relapse prevention

Question 80

Which of the following does not focus on enhancing the transfer of learning? a) Ensuring an effective learning climate b) Stress the value of the training to the participant c) Remove work processes that conflict with the training from the work environment d) Replicate aspects of the work environment in the training

Answer 80

a) Ensuring an effective learning climate

Question 81

The phrase "transfer of training" refers to: a) The ability of learners to apply the skills learned on their job b) Transferring training program from one department to another in order to distribute the learning c) Sharing training materials with colleagues from within your industry d) Applying the concepts used in one training program to another

Answer 81

a) The ability of learners to apply the skills learned on their job

Question 82

Which of the following training evaluation methods is unethical in some situations? a) Pre-post design with control group b) Post-only data collection design c) Time series design d) Single-group pre-post design

Answer 82

a) Pre-post design with control group

Question 83

After attending a project management course, Bob's project management skills were measured over a 2-month period. This level of training evaluation is known as: a) Reaction b) Learning c) Behaviour d) Results

Answer 83

c) Behaviour

Question 84

Which of the following is NOT one of the fundamental criteria for evaluating the effectiveness of training? a) Participant reactions b) Transfer of learning c) Program completion d) Bottom line results

Answer 84

c) Program completion

Question 85

Which of the following is the highest level of training evaluation? a) Reaction evaluation b) Learning evaluation c) Behavioural evaluation d) Results evaluation

Answer 85

d) Results evaluation

Question 86

Which of the following training evaluation methods is the most difficult to perform? a) Summative evaluation b) Formative evaluation c) Reaction evaluation d) Behaviour evaluation

Answer 86

a) Summative evaluation

Question 87

Andragogy learning designs differ from pedagogy learning designs in that: a) The learner is more open to change. b) The learner is more extrinsically motivated. c) The learner's experience is limited. d) The learner has a problem-centred orientation to learning.

Answer 87

d) The learner has a problem-centred orientation to learning.

Question 88

When determining a training program's design and content, which of the following is NOT applicable? a) Person analysis b) Organization analysis c) Resource analysis d) Evaluation analysis

Answer 88

d) Evaluation analysis

Question 89

One of the more difficult decisions trainers have to make concerns the amount of content to put into a course. The most effective way to determine the training content is to: a) Consult with subject-matter experts b) Review the research found in academic literature c) Establish a ratio of content per training hour d) Conduct a needs analysis

Answer 89

a) Consult with subject-matter experts

Question 90

Which of the following is an example of a management development method that helps managers learn how to analyze, synthesize, and improve their decision-making skills? a) Management games b) Case studies c) Role playing d) Behaviour modeling

Answer 90

b) Case studies

Question 91

After attending a seminar on project management best practices, you are asked to implement a project management training program for your manufacturing department. What is the first step you should take? a) Identify the content of the training program. b) Identify the best methodology for delivering the program. c) Put out a request for proposal to possible trainers in the field. d) Conduct a training needs analysis.

Answer 91

d) Conduct a training needs analysis.

Question 92

All of the following are indirect employment rewards EXCEPT: a) Commission b) Pension benefit c) Education reimbursement d) Paid leave of absence

Answer 92

a) Commission

Question 93

Advanced technology in the workplace has had which of the following impacts? a) Increased number of employees suffering from higher levels of stress b) A reduction in lower-skill jobs and an increase in those requiring higher skills c) Increased speed of work resulting in employees having less time to do their work d) Reduced requirement for employees to have excellent soft skills

Answer 93

b) A reduction in lower-skill jobs and an increase in those requiring higher skills

Question 94

Over the past 25 years the employment relationship between companies and employees has shifted from being relationship-based to being transaction-based. This has resulted in all of the following EXCEPT: a) Decreased employee retention b) Increased outsourcing c) Increased use of technology d) Increased number of freelance workers

Answer 94

c) Increased use of technology

Question 95

When organizations adopt principles and practices that focus on a disciplined, data-driven approach and methodology for eliminating defects, this is an example of: a) Six Sigma b) Business Process Re-engineering c) Quality Circles d) Managing performance through a balanced scorecard

Answer 95

a) Six Sigma

Question 96

Employee empowerment can be increased through the use of: a) Self-directed work teams b) Focus groups c) Employee socialization d) Employee suggestion programs

Answer 96

a) Self-directed work teams

Question 97

Which of the following is NOT a good strategy for managing diversity? a) Giving preference to minorities when promoting employees b) Linking diversity initiatives to business objectives c) Establishing quotas to ensure equal representation d) Establishing cross-functional teams

Answer 97

c) Establishing quotas to ensure equal representation

Question 98

Which of the following is NOT one of the behaviours that effective teams embrace? a) Consensus decision making b) Effective group-think c) Active listening d) Non-judgmental disagreement

Answer 98

b) Effective group-think

Question 99

One of the most important factors leading to a successful quality circle is: a) Comprehensive training in problem identification b) Attractive rewards for outcomes achieved c) The use of quality metrics d) Management control

Answer 99

a) Comprehensive training in problem identification

Question 100

Work teams at Madison Creative Group are made up of specialists from different areas in the company. This type of team would be referred to as: a) A task force b) A cross functional team c) A project team d) A self-directed work team

Answer 100

b) A cross functional team

Question 101

The introduction of some new processes on the plant floor has resulted in an increased number of minor accidents. Which of the following employee involvement groups would be best suited to this situation? a) A task force b) A process improvement team c) A project team d) A focus group

Answer 101

a) A task force

Question 102

Which of the following team characteristics does not strengthen team synergy? a) Non-judgmental disagreement b) Democratic decision making c) Listening and clarification d) Inclusion

Answer 102

b) Democratic decision making

Question 103

If you wanted to engage employees in reviewing the quality of your employee orientation program, you would use: a) A quality circle b) A focus group c) A task force d) A project team

Answer 103

b) A focus group

Question 104

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective employee involvement group? a) They are led by a leader with authority. b) They engage in disagreement. c) Decisions are based on consensus vs democracy. d) Members are recognized for their contributions.

Answer 104

a) They are led by a leader with authority.

Question 105

Which of the following is true about equity theory? a) Productivity is higher within diverse workforces. b) Unemployment is lower when organizations adopt an equal opportunity hiring strategy. c) Hierarchical organization structures contribute to employee alienation. d) Employee motivation is impacted by perceptions about input/output ratios.

Answer 105

d) Employee motivation is impacted by perceptions about input/output ratios.

Question 106

Expectance theory suggests that employee motivation depends on: a) Reward valence and probability b) A hierarchy of needs being met c) One's internal locus of control d) Distributive and procedural justice

Answer 106

a) Reward valence and probability

Question 107

Employees have greater motivation when they believe their effort will lead to desired outcomes. This is referred to as: a) Self-fulfilling prophecy b) Hawthorne effect c) Self-actualization d) Instrumentality

Answer 107

d) Instrumentality

Question 108

Which of the following is the most effective way to gather information about the cause of employee turnover? a) Focus groups b) Exit interviews c) Movement statistics d) Employee surveys

Answer 108

b) Exit interviews

Question 109

Cultures in which people are uncomfortable with uncertain and ambiguous situations can be described as: a) Strong ambiguity cultures b) Strong uncertainty avoidance cultures c) Weak ambiguity cultures d) Weak uncertainty avoidance cultures

Answer 109

b) Strong uncertainty avoidance cultures

Question 110

________________ is positively related to job performance, and ________________ is negatively related to job performance. a) Affective commitment; normative commitment b) Positive commitment; negative commitment c) Continuance commitment; normative commitment d) Affective commitment; continuance commitment

Answer 110

d) Affective commitment; continuance commitment

Question 111

Which of the following represents the correct relation among the variables? a) Belief + Value + Attitude --> Behaviour. b) Belief + Value = Attitude + Behaviour. c) Belief + Value = Attitude --> Behaviour. d) Belief + Attitude = Value --> Behaviour.

Answer 111

c) Belief + Value = Attitude --> Behaviour.

Question 112

According to cognitive dissonance theory, one way to change attitudes would be to first teach people: a) The relevant values that correspond with the desired behaviour b) The relevant beliefs that correspond with the desired behaviour c) The relevant attitudes that correspond with the desired behaviour d) The relevant behaviours that correspond with the desired attitude

Answer 112

d) The relevant behaviours that correspond with the desired attitude

Question 113

Research on employee attitudes that was the foundation for the Sear's Service Profit Model showed that employee satisfaction was related to: a) Absenteeism b) Organizational citizenship behaviour c) Job performance d) Customer satisfaction

Answer 113

d) Customer satisfaction

Question 114

Which job satisfaction facet is the best predictor of absenteeism? a) Pay b) Content of the work c) Advancement opportunities d) Considerate co-workers

Answer 114

b) Content of the work

Question 115

Studies indicate that employees can be engaged, actively dis-engaged, non-engaged, and indifferent. Which of the following statements is true about employee engagement? a) Studies show that employees of most organizations are engaged. b) Compensation often ranked the most important factor in employee engagement. c) Highly engaged workplaces experience greater profitability and higher shareholder value. d) Studies show no correlation between CSR and employee engagement.

Answer 115

c) Highly engaged workplaces experience greater profitability and higher shareholder value.

Question 116

One thing that is measured in an employee engagement survey that was not measured in traditional employee satisfaction surveys is: a) Frequency and quality of performance feedback b) Opportunity for training and development c) Relationship with supervisor d) Willingness to do more than what is required

Answer 116

d) Willingness to do more than what is required

Question 117

In what type of situations will personality have a strong influence on individual behaviour? a) Weak situations b) Strong situations c) Normative situations d) All situations

Answer 117

a) Weak situations

Question 118

According to behavioural plasticity theory, individuals with which of the following personality characteristics are more likely to be influenced by social cues and events in their environment? a) An internal locus of control b) An external locus of control c) A low self-esteem d) A high self-esteem

Answer 118

c) A low self-esteem

Question 119

According to equity theory, people are motivated to obtain or maintain an equitable and fair exchange relationship by: a) Attempting to receive more outcomes relative to others b) Assessing their outcome/input ratios relative to others c) Awarding "weaker" colleagues with higher outcome/input ratios d) Ignoring the outcomes and inputs of others

Answer 119

b) Assessing their outcome/input ratios relative to others

Question 120

What is the nature of the relationship between motivation and performance? a) Motivation is perfectly related to performance. b) Motivation and performance are unrelated. c) Motivation contributes to performance. d) Motivation and performance have a spurious relationship.

Answer 120

c) Motivation contributes to performance.

Question 121

What is the difference between content and process theories of motivation? a) Content theories focus on "what" motivates people, while process theories focus on "how" motivation occurs. b) Content theories focus on "what" motivation occurs", while process theories focus on "why" motivation occurs. c) Content theories focus on "why" motivation occurs", while process theories focus on "what" motivates people. d) Content theories focus on "why" motivation occurs, while process theories focus on "how" motivation occurs.

Answer 121

a) Content theories focus on "what" motivates people, while process theories focus on "how" motivation occurs.

Question 122

Which of the following is NOT a need in Maslow's hierarchy of needs? a) Physiological needs b) Growth needs c) Safety needs d) Esteem needs

Answer 122

b) Growth needs

Question 123

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a critical path analysis? a) It is used to categorize all the activities of a project in terms of their importance. b) It shows how much float time or flexibility there is for a particular project activity. c) It identifies the tasks of a project that, if delayed, will cause the project to be delayed. d) It is used to determine if a predetermined project end date can be met.

Answer 123

a) It is used to categorize all the activities of a project in terms of their importance.

Question 124

When the activities of a project are plotted against a timeline, this is referred to as: a) Value-stream mapping b) Critical path flowcharting c) Gantt chart d) Activity diagramming

Answer 124

c) Gantt chart

Question 125

The five-factor personality model that has been shown to have a strong predictive validity when selecting global leaders includes: a) Intelligence quotient (IQ), emotional intelligence (EQ), strategic insight, political acumen, and empathy b) Decision quality, assertiveness, communication skill, initiative, and persistence c) Aptitude, determination, interpersonal skills, perseverance, and flexibility d) Emotional stability, extraversion, openness, agreeableness, and conscientious

Answer 125

d) Emotional stability, extraversion, openness, agreeableness, and conscientious

Question 126

Surveying managers about the best method of sourcing candidates, summarizing their feedback, and presenting it back to them for comments is an example of what process? a) Trend analysis b) Delphi technique c) Impact analysis d) Forecasting

Answer 126

b) Delphi technique

Question 127

PIPEDA is the legislation that regulates: a) How we compensate our employees b) The way in which we store hazardous materials in the workplace c) The training we must provide to ensure safety in the workplace d) The information we can collect about employees

Answer 127

d) The information we can collect about employees

Question 128

Which of the following statements is false about privacy legislation? a) Employee files are the employer's property and do not need to be accessible to the employee. b) Information collected for the purpose of employment can only be used for the purpose for which it was collected. c) Organizations must obtain employees' consent to collect or disclose their personal information. d) Organizations must ensure employees that their information will be protected by adequate safeguards.

Answer 128

a) Employee files are the employer's property and do not need to be accessible to the employee.

Question 129

An employee who was hired on a 1-year contract continued to work for another year without the employer issuing a new contract. As a result, the employee now assumes he is permanently hired. The regime of employment law that would address this issue is: a) Statute law b) Human rights law c) Contract law d) Labour law

Answer 129

c) Contract law

Question 130

Which of the following statements is true about employment contracts? a) They provide employees with statutory rights. b) They are only legally binding if signed by both parties. c) They are unenforceable if changes are made without additional consideration. d) They only apply to workers who have a start and end date.

Answer 130

c) They are unenforceable if changes are made without additional consideration.

Question 131

A set of standards that govern acceptable practices and moral judgments when determining right or wrong behaviour is known as: a) Conflict of interest rules b) Corporate policies c) Code of ethics d) Guiding principles

Answer 131

c) Code of ethics

Question 132

The legislated program that ensures the same job, whether performed by a man or a woman, will have the same earning potential is referred to as: a) Duty to accommodate b) Employment equity c) Equal pay for equal work d) Equal pay for work of equal value

Answer 132

c) Equal pay for equal work

Question 133

A field of study concerned with analyzing work processes and recording the time required to complete each task is referred to as: a) Job analysis b) Total quality management c) Work re-engineering d) Industrial engineering

Answer 133

d) Industrial engineering

Question 134

As the HR manager for Royal Bank, a manager has come to you to enquire about the overtime entitlements for some non-management staff. Which legal framework will you consult? a) Canada Labour Code b) The employee's employment contract c) Employment Standards Act d) Pay equity legislation

Answer 134

a) Canada Labour Code

Question 135

Circumstances under which the Canadian Human Rights Commission can refuse to accept a complaint include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Too much time has passed between the incident and the complaint. b) There are no grounds for the complaint. c) There are no negative impacts arising from the incident. d) There are no monetary impacts arising from the incident.

Answer 135

d) There are no monetary impacts arising from the incident.

Question 136

A manufacturer of women's clothing has advertised for female only models. This is an example of: a) Adverse impact discrimination b) Reverse discrimination c) Gender-bias discrimination d) Bona fide occupational requirement

Answer 136

d) Bona fide occupational requirement

Question 137

Employment equity __________. a) Addresses pay inequality between men and women b) Provides for equal employment opportunities for designated groups c) Is the application of consistent employment practices for all employees d) Ensures an organization's compensation program is aligned with the marketplace

Answer 137

b) Provides for equal employment opportunities for designated groups

Question 138

An auto body shop that hires only male candidates because it has no female washroom is practising what kind of discrimination? a) Systemic discrimination b) Direct discrimination c) Indirect discrimination d) Justifiable discrimination

Answer 138

b) Direct discrimination

Question 139

The piece of legislation that would enable workers to avoid paying union dues while continuing to receive benefits negotiated by the union is: a) The Wagner Act b) Canada Labour Code c) Right to Work d) Provincial Labour Acts

Answer 139

c) Right to Work

Question 140

The police force's policy that stipulated minimum height and weight requirements is an example of: a) A bona fide occupational requirement b) Systemic discrimination c) Direct discrimination d) A business necessity

Answer 140

b) Systemic discrimination

Question 141

Which of the following practices could lead to adverse effect discrimination? a) Implementing an employee referral program b) Interviewing only candidates with English as a first language c) Requiring pre-employment medicals from people with disabilities d) Hiring only women into a female-dominant occupation class

Answer 141

a) Implementing an employee referral program

Question 142

Which of the following is the Supreme Court of Canada decision that set new legal standards for the duty to accommodate? a) Duke Case b) Keays Case c) Meiorin Case d) Wallace Case

Answer 142

c) Meiorin Case

Question 143

Drug testing of individuals who may have caused an accident while working in a safe-sensitive environment is: a) Prohibited by law b) Permitted by law c) Permitted with the agreement of the employee d) Permitted by law only in the case of injury

Answer 143

b) Permitted by law

Question 144

A group of employees have been convened to design a new employee orientation program. This would be an example of what type of employee group? a) Task force b) Process improvement team c) Focus group d) Project team

Answer 144

d) Project team

Question 145

In brainstorming, the _______________ of ideas generated is more important than the _______________ of the ideas. a) Quantity; quality b) Quality; quantity c) Evaluation; variation d) Nature; value

Answer 145

a) Quantity; quality

Question 146

Legislation that impacts direct and indirect compensation practices includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Employment Standards Act b) Employment Equity Act c) Pay Equity Act d) Workers' Compensation Act

Answer 146

b) Employment Equity Act

Question 147

In order to measure your organization’s programs against industry best practices, it is necessary to: a) Establish a baseline b) Use effectiveness metrics vs efficiency metrics c) Monitor trends d) Engage in benchmarking

Answer 147

d) Engage in benchmarking

Question 148

Which of the following diagram-based techniques would be helpful when brainstorming the design of a new management development program? a) Mind maps b) Cause and effect diagram c) Fishbone diagram d) Gantt chart

Answer 148

a) Mind maps

Question 149

Which of the following data gathering technique involves the brainstorming of ideas followed by individuals voting for the best idea? a) Delphi technique b) Nominal group technique c) SWOT analysis d) Flowcharting

Answer 149

b) Nominal group technique

Question 150

Which of the following leadership styles is effective with employee involvement groups? a) Democratic b) Laissez-faire c) Authoritarian d) Paternalistic

Answer 150

a) Democratic

Question 151

When Tim Horton's executives decided to operate in other countries, they asked the HR executives if this would be possible, given employee capabilities and competencies. This planning process is an example of: a) Contingency planning b) Scenario planning c) Concurrent strategy formulation d) Environmental scanning

Answer 151

c) Concurrent strategy formulation

Question 152

Which of the following occurs in a tight labour market? a) Decline in wage rates b) High unemployment c) Equal numbers of job applicants and job openings d) Rise in wages

Answer 152

d) Rise in wages

Question 153

As part of the organization's strategic planning exercise, the management wants to forecast future environmental challenges and opportunities. What process should they use? a) Nominal group technique b) Trend analysis c) Index analysis d) Regression prediction model

Answer 153

a) Nominal group technique

Question 154

As a result of your organization acquiring a former supplier, it is now necessary to re-evaluate critical business processes and rethink how work should be done, how technology and people should interact, and how the organization should be restructured. This is referred to as: a) Re-engineering b) Total quality management c) A six sigma evaluation d) A strategic human capital review

Answer 154

a) Re-engineering

Question 155

An organization's mission statement describes: a) The goals and metrics used to evaluate its performance b) Where the business sees itself sometime in the future c) The underpinning principles that guides the organization's operations d) The main focus of the business

Answer 155

d) The main focus of the business

Question 156

When an organization conducts an environmental scan as part of a strategic planning exercise, which of the following is NOT part of the scan? a) Economic trends b) Industry trends c) Technology trends d) Succession planning trends

Answer 156

d) Succession planning trends

Question 157

The growth of the global economy will result in all of the following EXCEPT: a) Increased competition for labour b) A more diverse employee population c) A decrease in demand for transformational leaders d) Increased need for employee training

Answer 157

c) A decrease in demand for transformational leaders

Question 158

When conducting an internal scan of the organization as part of the strategic planning process, in the context of HR Planning we focus on what is known as the 3 "C"s, which are: a) Capabilities, composition, and culture b) Competencies, compensation systems, and cost c) Competitive practices, customers, and core employees d) Core values, current staffing needs, and candidates

Answer 158

a) Capabilities, composition, and culture

Question 159

Which of the following statements best describes the role of Strategic HR Planning vis-à-vis Strategic Organization Planning? a) Strategic HR planning and strategic organization planning are two separate processes. b) Strategic HR planning follows strategic organization planning when plotted on a timeline. c) Strategic HR planning is conducted by the HR department in response to the organization’s strategic plan. d) Strategic HR planning and strategic organization planning are reciprocal in nature.

Answer 159

d) Strategic HR planning and strategic organization planning are reciprocal in nature.

Question 160

For the past five years, Quinn Industries, a custom wood furniture manufacturer, has been monitoring the softwood lumber issues in North America. This would be an example of: a) Organizational analysis b) Organizational scanning c) SWOT analysis d) Environmental scanning

Answer 160

d) Environmental scanning

Question 161

To benchmark your HR programs within your industry, you will do all of the following EXCEPT: a) Perform a cost-benefit analysis b) Conduct a self-audit c) Identify comparison companies d) Perform a gap analysis

Answer 161

a) Perform a cost-benefit analysis

Question 162

Which of the following is a qualitative approach to forecasting an organization's demand for employees? a) Management forecasts b) Trend analyses c) Markov analysis d) Labour productivity ratios

Answer 162

a) Management forecasts

Question 163

Environmental analysis examines all of the following EXCEPT: a) Economic factors b) Return on investment c) Legislative issues d) Social concerns

Answer 163

b) Return on investment

Question 164

Which of the following statements is false? a) The number of hours that Canadians work per week has been trending upwards. b) The labour force participation rate in Canada is likely to decline in the coming decade. c) The largest gains in employment have been in the service sector. d) The percentage of the workforce that works part-time has increased over the past two decades.

Answer 164

a) The number of hours that Canadians work per week has been trending upwards.

Question 165

When an organization's strategic focus is to compete on "value added" products or services, it is said to have: a) A low-cost strategy b) A best-cost strategy c) A differentiation strategy d) A market niche strategy

Answer 165

c) A differentiation strategy

Question 166

In HR, a balanced scorecard is most often used to: a) Build an HR metrics model b) Identify employee training needs c) Measure employee performance d) Support succession planning

Answer 166

a) Build an HR metrics model

Question 167

Horizontal fit ensures that: a) There is alignment between an organization's business objectives and HR initiatives. b) Different HR practices within an organization are aligned with one another. c) HR practices are implemented consistently throughout the organization across different departments. d) HR practices are implemented consistently for all career levels within the organization.

Answer 167

b) Different HR practices within an organization are aligned with one another.

Question 168

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a diverse workforce? a) Increased customer satisfaction b) Improved company reputation c) Improved productivity through an increase in innovation and creativity d) Increased employee engagement through the use of harmonized work teams

Answer 168

d) Increased employee engagement through the use of harmonized work teams

Question 169

________________ is often referred to as the cornerstone of human resources management. a) Job specification b) Job description c) Job analysis d) Job evaluation

Answer 169

c) Job analysis

Question 170

Your organization has joined with another to operate under a shared HR service model. As a result, your HR employees will move over to the shared service provider but reside in your offices and provide those services to you. This is an example of: a) Outsourcing b) Employee leasing c) Strategic service model d) Work sharing

Answer 170

b) Employee leasing

Question 171

Which of the following statements is false? a) The prevention of idea inbreeding is an advantage of hiring external candidates. b) Filling highly specialized positions is best done through internal hiring. c) Recruiting externally enables organizations to achieve their diversity goals. d) Enhanced creativity and innovation is an advantage of hiring external candidates.

Answer 171

b) Filling highly specialized positions is best done through internal hiring.

Question 172

Even though Mark has been paying into his pension plan for 32 years, he finds that the pension he will receive is not sufficient to enable him to retire. Which plan could result in this situation? a) Hybrid plan b) Defined benefits plan c) Defined contribution plan d) Contributory plan

Answer 172

c) Defined contribution plan

Question 173

Which of the following pension plans specifically sets forth the amount an employee is to receive on retirement? a) Defined benefit plan b) Defined contribution plan c) Non-contributory plan d) Contributory plan

Answer 173

a) Defined benefit plan

Question 174

Which of the following statements is false regarding a defined benefit pension plan? a) Employer costs are limited to the contributions they make to the plan. b) Employees make contributions into defined benefit pension plans. c) The pension benefits paid to employees do not depend on the investment performance of the plan. d) Underfunding of defined benefit plans becomes an issue in times of recession.

Answer 174

a) Employer costs are limited to the contributions they make to the plan.

Question 175

All of the following statements about CPP/QPP are true EXCEPT: a) These plans cover almost all Canadian employees between the ages of 18 and 70. b) The contributions to the plan come from both employees and their employers. c) Governments subsidize these plans with contributions into the plan d) A contributor's rights to benefits under the plans are not affected by a change in employment

Answer 175

c) Governments subsidize these plans with contributions into the plan

Question 176

Which of the following statements about pay equity legislation is false? a) Pay equity legislation is designed to address the undervaluing of traditional female occupations. b) In order to comply with pay equity legislation, organizations must adopt a job evaluation process. c) The examination of pay equity involves a wage comparison of female and male dominant occupations. d) Pay equity awards are only given to women in jobs that have been under-valued.

Answer 176

d) Pay equity awards are only given to women in jobs that have been under-valued.

Question 177

Incentives, bonuses, and commissions are examples of: a) Strategic compensation b) Indirect compensation c) Mixed compensation d) Direct compensation

Answer 177

d) Direct compensation

Question 178

When employees believe that the wage rates for their jobs approximate the job's worth to the organization, compensation policies are considered to: a) Have procedural justice b) Be externally competitive c) Be an intrinsic motivator d) Be internally equitable

Answer 178

d) Be internally equitable

Question 179

The concept that applies when an organization is paying wages that are relatively equal to what other employers are paying for similar types of work is known as: a) External pay equity b) Comparable worth c) Internal pay equity d) Reward valence

Answer 179

a) External pay equity

Question 180

What theory talks about instrumentality and reward valence? a) Organization justice theory b) Equity theory of motivation c) Goal setting theory d) Expectancy theory of motivation

Answer 180

d) Expectancy theory of motivation

Question 181

Which of the following statements is false about having a broadbanding pay structure? a) There are fewer pay ranges. b) Job evaluation results are more important for determining pay. c) There is more flexibility compared to traditional pay structures. d) The risk of having inconsistent pay practices across department increases.

Answer 181

b) Job evaluation results are more important for determining pay.

Question 182

Due to inflation, compensation rates have been adjusted upward periodically to help employees maintain their a) Comparable worth b) Job evaluation level c) Purchasing power d) "fringe" benefits

Answer 182

c) Purchasing power

Question 183

The job evaluation system that evaluates jobs based on their impact to organization performance is called: a) Job ranking b) Work valuation c) Point factor d) Job classification

Answer 183

b) Work valuation

Question 184

Job evaluation when used in combination with ______ increases the likelihood of internal and external equity. a) Compensation strategy b) Wage-survey data c) Job descriptions d) Incumbent qualifications

Answer 184

b) Wage-survey data

Question 185

_______ encourages lateral skill building while addressing the need to pay employees performing multiple jobs with different skill level requirements. a) Broadbanding b) Point factor pay plans c) Job classification d) Job ranking

Answer 185

a) Broadbanding

Question 186

A wage curve is a scattergram representing the relationship between ___________ and __________. a) External wage rates; internal wage rates b) The relative worth of a job; internal wage rates c) The minimum point on the range; the maximum point on the range d) The cost of living; the pay scale adjustment

Answer 186

b) The relative worth of a job; internal wage rates

Question 187

For real wages to increase, which of the following must be true? a) An employee's wage increase must be greater than the increase in the CPI. b) A scale adjustment must be provided to all employees. c) An employee's wages must simply increase. d) The annual adjustments given to employees must be larger than the average market adjustment.

Answer 187

a) An employee's wage increase must be greater than the increase in the CPI.

Question 188

Salary compression occurs when: a) New employees are hired at salaries far below those of the current job-holder. b) A line worker earns more than his/her supervisor. c) There is very little variation in pay for employees in the same grade. d) An employee reaches the top of his/her pay grade.

Answer 188

b) A line worker earns more than his/her supervisor.

Question 189

Which of the following determines the relative worth of each job in an organization? a) Job analysis b) Job specification c) Job content d) Job evaluation

Answer 189

d) Job evaluation

Question 190

You have been asked to design a pay program that has a high degree of instrumentality. Which of the following features will you build into your program? a) A discretionary bonus program b) A job evaluation process c) A performance evaluation process d) A profit sharing plan

Answer 190

c) A performance evaluation process

Question 191

When designing a compensation program, all of the following issues are considered EXCEPT: a) The nature of the work b) The characteristics of the workforce c) Desired behaviours d) The current level of employee performance

Answer 191

d) The current level of employee performance

Question 192

Which of the following is a non-quantitative method of job evaluation? a) Factor comparison method b) Point factor method c) Job ranking method d) Statistical/Policy Capturing method

Answer 192

c) Job ranking method

Question 193

An employee is paid $18.50 an hour when the pay range for the assigned grade is $7 to $8 an hour. This is referred to as: a) Green circle rate b) Pay differential c) Red circle rate d) Compressed salary

Answer 193

c) Red circle rate

Question 194

Your non-union organization has expanded from Toronto to Saskatoon. In order to create a competitive wage structure for the new location, which of the following would NOT be considered? a) The profitability targets for the new branch office b) The local supply of labour c) The local cost of living d) Local competitor’s collective bargaining climate

Answer 194

a) The profitability targets for the new branch office

Question 195

Which of the following statements about an employment contract is true? a) If it is signed on the second day of employment, it is unenforceable. b) It must always have a start and end date. c) It needs to be witnessed to be enforceable. d) It must always be in writing.

Answer 195

a) If it is signed on the second day of employment, it is unenforceable.

Question 196

As the HR manager for a large professional services organization, you have been asked to recommend an initiative that will attract new MBA graduates from across Canada into your organization. Which of the following would you NOT recommend? a) Enhanced bonus program based on hours worked b) Monthly new grad employee group meetings with a key executive c) Relocation assistance and support services d) New grad training and development program

Answer 196

a) Enhanced bonus program based on hours worked

Question 197

Your organization must downsize by 20% in the next month. You have been asked to recommend an approach that will achieve this but also will have the least negative impact on employee morale. Which of the following initiatives would you NOT recommend? a) Voluntary separation b) Employee sabbaticals c) Work sharing d) Hiring freeze

Answer 197

d) Hiring freeze

Question 198

Organizations are facing a new challenge of tailoring their employment brand to suit a multi-generational workforce. According to generational research, which of the following ad campaigns would be attractive to Generation X applicants? a) We are loyal to our employees. b) We offer high salaries and perquisites. c) We grow our employees. d) We are socially responsible.

Answer 198

c) We grow our employees.

Question 199

An employee has reached the top of his/her career path with no more opportunities for promotions. This is an example of: a) A content career plateau b) A life career plateau c) An occupational career plateau d) A structural career plateau

Answer 199

d) A structural career plateau

Question 200

When a content career plateau occurs, it is usually because: a) You have mastered all aspects of your job. b) Your life outside of work has become more important than your career. c) You require higher-level skills to perform well in your job. d) You have reached a dead-end in your career path.

Answer 200

a) You have mastered all aspects of your job.

Question 201

The three types of career plateaus are: a) Structural, content, frictional b) Structural, content, life c) Structural, content, competency d) Structural, content, promotional

Answer 201

b) Structural, content, life

Question 202

An employee in the finance department with a boundaryless career profile has come to you for some advice on the training he should pursue. Which of the following would you NOT recommend? a) Pursue an advanced accreditation within the financial profession b) Attend a conference specific to your industry c) Transfer within your organization to learn about other areas of the company d) Network with people from other organizations

Answer 202

c) Transfer within your organization to learn about other areas of the company

Question 203

A recent employee survey suggests that employees are frustrated with their advancement opportunities. One comment indicated that “advancement is only possible if others retire or leave the organization”. What problem are you facing? a) The lack of dual career ladders b) Employees experiencing a life plateau c) Unrealistic inter-generational expectations d) Employees experiencing a structural plateau

Answer 203

d) Employees experiencing a structural plateau

Question 204

You have been asked for your insights on how to improve current employees’ perceptions about the internal job posting and placement program. Which of the following would you NOT recommend? a) Review past practices to assess the frequency of internal and external placements b) Ensure employees have access to information about job vacancies c) Reassure employees that priority is always given to internal candidates when filling all vacancies d) Adopt a standardized method for reviewing the qualifications of all internal applicants

Answer 204

c) Reassure employees that priority is always given to internal candidates when filling all vacancies

Question 205

In the ___________________ stage, a person may shift his or her focus from work to community and may become involved with charities. a) Early career b) Late career c) Organizational entry d) Mid-career

Answer 205

d) Mid-career

Question 206

In-basket exercises are best used to: a) Simulate a problem situation b) Assess leadership skills c) Practice a skill d) Examine a candidate's past performance

Answer 206

a) Simulate a problem situation

Question 207

Which of the following statements is false about diversity management? a) Diversity management is voluntary for all employers, including federal contractors. b) Diversity management addresses four groups: visible minorities, women, Aboriginals, and disabled. c) Diversity management enhances organization's ability to gain a strategic and competitive advantage. d) Diversity management should be a strategic initiative and not an HR initiative.

Answer 207

b) Diversity management addresses four groups: visible minorities, women, Aboriginals, and disabled.

Question 208

Which one of the following is NOT one of the Big Five Personality Dimensions? a) Extraversion b) Conscientiousness c) Agreeableness d) Ambition

Answer 208

d) Ambition

Question 209

Which of the following is an accurate description of the research findings of the Big Five Dimensions of Personality and job performance? a) Conscientiousness is related to employee retention. b) Extraversion is related to employee motivation. c) All dimensions are related to employee performance. d) Agreeableness is related to employee competency.

Answer 209

c) All dimensions are related to employee performance.

Question 210

Which of the following behaviour modification approaches reinforces positive performance? a) Negative reinforcement b) Punishment c) Extinction d) Behaviour replacement

Answer 210

a) Negative reinforcement

Question 211

Barriers to effective performance can be classified as being human, technical, informational, and structural. Which of the following can be solved with a training solution? a) Informational b) Human c) Technical d) Structural

Answer 211

b) Human

Question 212

Performance can be enhanced in a number of ways. Which of the following best describes contingency management? a) Examine the existing performance consequences and tailor them to reinforce effective performance. b) Examine employee skill deficiencies and identify training that will address the performance gap. c) Examine the task and identify ways in which it can be simplified in order to improve performance. d) Examine whether environmental obstacles exist from carrying out the task and remove them.

Answer 212

a) Examine the existing performance consequences and tailor them to reinforce effective performance.

Question 213

In order to determine the net HR requirements, an HR analyst looks at the following statistics: a workforce of 1,000, an annual historical replacement loss rate of 10%, and a growth rate of 7%. How many employees need to be hired next year to meet the demand? a) 70 b) 110 c) 170 d) 192

Answer 213

c) 170

Question 214

Which of the following statements is false? a) Replacement charts are used to estimate the supply of resources available. b) Trend analysis is used in HR Planning to forecast the supply of labour. c) Transition matrices describe the probabilities of how quickly a position turns over. d) Staffing tables are used to estimate the demand of human resources required.

Answer 214

b) Trend analysis is used in HR Planning to forecast the supply of labour.

Question 215

When forecasting the various patterns of movement to and from various jobs in an organization, the tool used is: a) Replacement charts b) Succession planning c) Movement analysis d) Markov models

Answer 215

d) Markov models

Question 216

A technique used to analyze the chain or ripple effect that promotions or job losses have on the movements of other personnel in an organization is known as: a) Movement analysis b) Linear programming c) Markov analysis d) Succession or readiness charts

Answer 216

a) Movement analysis

Question 217

The purpose of Movement Analysis is to: a) Define the demand requirement for labour across the organization b) Track the pattern of employee movement through their jobs c) Create skills inventories for the career management purposes d) Identify the ripple effect of promotions and job losses

Answer 217

d) Identify the ripple effect of promotions and job losses

Question 218

Via Rail needs to lay off 3,000 workers in order to reduce costs to remain competitive. The company could use all of the following workforce reduction strategies EXCEPT: a) Attrition b) Termination c) Contracting out d) Voluntary retirement

Answer 218

c) Contracting out

Question 219

Contracting out work that was formerly done by employees within the organization is known as: a) Outsourcing b) Outplacement c) Employee leasing d) Restructuring

Answer 219

a) Outsourcing

Question 220

A visible minority candidate who experienced systemic barriers to employment may have faced all of the following EXCEPT: a) Unsubstantiated language requirements b) Culturally biased aptitude tests c) Prejudiced attitudes of recruiters d) Lack of recognition of her foreign education or credentials

Answer 220

c) Prejudiced attitudes of recruiters

Question 221

All of the following are common methods of conducting job analysis EXCEPT: a) Critical incident method b) Position analysis questionnaire c) Task inventory analysis d) Whole-job classification method

Answer 221

d) Whole-job classification method

Question 222

The job specifications section of the job description covers which areas? a) Educational requirements b) KSAOs c) Job tasks and physical demands d) Performance metrics

Answer 222

b) KSAOs

Question 223

Which areas does a job description cover? a) Tasks, duties, and responsibilities of the job b) Knowledge, skills, abilities, physical demands c) Pay, work hours, other benefits d) Education requirements, performance metrics, pay scale

Answer 223

a) Tasks, duties, and responsibilities of the job

Question 224

Which of the following statements about the PAQ is false? a) It is a worker-oriented structured job analysis questionnaire. b) It requires a college-level reading ability to complete it. c) It is not considered valid unless used with a large number of incumbents. d) It is best suited to assessing lower-level jobs.

Answer 224

c) It is not considered valid unless used with a large number of incumbents.

Question 225

The purpose and objectives of job analysis include all of the following EXCEPT: a) To identify wage disparities between jobs b) To improve organization performance and productivity c) To develop job descriptions and job specifications d) To identify how work is done and how it should be divided

Answer 225

a) To identify wage disparities between jobs

Question 226

Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing employee stress? a) High eustress b) High demand c) Low control d) Low reward

Answer 226

a) High eustress

Question 227

Last night, after their shift was over, two long-term high-performing employees were caught racing their forklift vehicles from one end of the plant floor to the other. Which of the following actions is called for? a) Ignore it as it was outside of work hours b) Implement a practice of locking all forklifts so that they can’t be used outside of working hours c) Communicate to all employees that forklifts are not to be raced in the plant d) Give the employees a written warning

Answer 227

d) Give the employees a written warning

Question 228

After completing a hazard identification and assessment, a supervisor who does not pass on information about unsafe conditions to a responsible manager would be charged under: a) Workers' Compensation Act b) Industrial Disputes Act c) Occupational Health And Safety Act d) Canada Labour Code

Answer 228

c) Occupational Health And Safety Act

Question 229

Paper and wood could be classified as combustible materials. Which of the following symbols represents this class of fire? a) Green triangle b) Red square c) Blue circle d) Yellow star

Answer 229

a) Green triangle

Question 230

The four stages of fire include the incipient stage, which can be defined as: a) The first stage where the source of ignition and fuel come together b) The second stage where the fire begins to smoulder c) The third stage where the fire is free-burning d) The fourth stage where the fire is out of control

Answer 230

a) The first stage where the source of ignition and fuel come together

Question 231

Maintaining accurate safety records and documenting health and safety improvements can assist an employer in proving: a) Duties of the employer b) Due process c) Due diligence d) Duties of the organization

Answer 231

c) Due diligence

Question 232

Bridget is a laboratory employee at the Center for Disease Control scheduled to work with a particularly aggressive virus. She has refused to work on the project. Which of the following is true about this situation? a) Bridget is in a high-risk occupation and has ceded her rights to refuse unsafe work. b) Management can terminate Bridget for lack of work. c) Management can transfer Bridget and replace her with another researcher. d) Management can grant Bridget an unpaid leave of absence and hire another researcher to complete the project.

Answer 232

a) Bridget is in a high-risk occupation and has ceded her rights to refuse unsafe work.

Question 233

Ian has come across a spill on the shop floor. The spill is in his usual work area, but he is not sure of the source of the liquid. What should Ian do? a) Clean up the spill quickly to avoid an accident b) Seek an MSDS and locate the product source c) Contain the area and report the problem to his supervisor d) Leave it for the health and safety committee to investigate

Answer 233

c) Contain the area and report the problem to his supervisor

Question 234

The Ontario Occupational Health and Safety Act allows for two forms of stop work provisions. They include: a) Inspector's and joint committee's findings b) Bilateral and unilateral declaration c) Employee and union accusations d) Certified and uncertified rulings

Answer 234

b) Bilateral and unilateral declaration

Question 235

The legislation that could criminally charge those who are responsible for health and safety but fail to provide safe work environments pertains to: a) Bill C-45 b) Provincial Health and Safety Regulation c) Workplace Safety and Insurance Act d) Canada Labour Code

Answer 235

a) Bill C-45

Question 236

The goals of Return To Work (RTW) programs include all of the following EXCEPT: a) To return an injured worker to work as soon as possible b) To return an injured worker to his or her pre-injury earnings c) To limit management contact with the injured worker to ensure privacy d) To decrease the length of lost time claims

Answer 236

c) To limit management contact with the injured worker to ensure privacy

Question 237

An important component of a RTW program is the completion of: a) Physical competencies inventory b) Physical capabilities analysis c) Physical tasks inventory d) Physical demands analysis

Answer 237

d) Physical demands analysis

Question 238

Which of the following is an accident insurance premium pricing component in Workers' Compensation? a) Industry assessment b) Experience rating c) Time in job d) Employee occupation

Answer 238

b) Experience rating

Question 239

Workers' compensation payments are typically based on: a) A pre-existing schedule determined by the provincial government b) A percentage of an employee's pre-injury rates c) A flat benefit schedule based on the employee's tenure with the company d) A contractual agreement between the employer and employees

Answer 239

b) A percentage of an employee's pre-injury rates

Question 240

Safety severity ratios are calculated using which of the following factors? a) Days worked and number of lost-time injuries b) Days worked and number of accidents resulting in medical claims c) Hours worked and number of injuries d) Hours worked and number of days lost to injury

Answer 240

d) Hours worked and number of days lost to injury

Question 241

Due to an accident at work, John is unlikely to return to work. Which of the following statements about workers' compensation insurance is false? a) The amount paid depends on the industry in which he works and his employer's premiums. b) The amount paid depends on his earnings and the provincial legislation. c) The amount paid is non-taxable. d) The amount paid does not depend on the employer's financial status.

Answer 241

a) The amount paid depends on the industry in which he works and his employer's premiums.

Question 242

As a percentage of one work shift, which of the following would you use to measure a person's exposure to noise? a) Sound pressure level meter b) Octave band analyzer c) Hearing assessments d) Dosimeter

Answer 242

d) Dosimeter

Question 243

When assessing the noise hazards present in a heavy machinery manufacturing plant, one would most likely consider: a) Exposure periods, criterion levels, and exchange rates b) Risk probability, decibels, and personal protective equipment c) Risk severity, exposure periods, and engineering controls d) Job design, root cause analysis, and prevention measures

Answer 243

a) Exposure periods, criterion levels, and exchange rates

Question 244

What level of training evaluation provides data related to cost savings? a) Reaction evaluation b) Learning evaluation c) Behaviour evaluation d) Results evaluation

Answer 244

d) Results evaluation

Question 245

Which of the following statements illustrates the company's annual profit? a) The income statement b) The balance sheet c) The budget d) The variance report

Answer 245

a) The income statement

Question 246

The degree to which selection procedures yield comparable data over time is known as: a) Consistency b) Reliability c) Validity d) Conformity

Answer 246

b) Reliability

Question 247

Which of the following employment tests would require construct validity? a) Assistants with community college diplomas are evaluated against those without diplomas. b) Entry-level managers are tested for leadership and critical thinking skills. c) Computer programmers are asked to debug a section of the code. d) New hires are tested and their job performances are later compared to the test results.

Answer 247

b) Entry-level managers are tested for leadership and critical thinking skills.

Question 248

Bob was a sales rep who was responsible for the Province of Saskatchewan, and Sue was a sales rep for Ontario. Bob's sales potential and, therefore, earnings potential was lower than Sue. If Bob were to complain, he would claim: a) Criterion deficiency b) Criterion contamination c) Range restriction d) Validity

Answer 248

b) Criterion contamination

Question 249

Which of the following statements about employment testing is false? a) Ensuring that all candidates answer the same interview questions will increase assessment reliability. b) Range restriction is a requirement for establishing validity. c) A screening tool that tests for a skill that is not needed by the job lacks content validity. d) A recruitment process that does not assess the essential skills required for the job is criterion deficient.

Answer 249

b) Range restriction is a requirement for establishing validity.

Question 250

The appropriateness of measurement obtained by skill-based assessment test is determined by examining its: a) Construct validity b) Reliability c) Content validity d) Discriminant validity

Answer 250

c) Content validity

Question 251

You have used two different assessments to test candidates' communication skills. When both tests yield the same results, you can conclude that the assessments have: a) Construct validity b) Convergent validity c) Concurrent validity d) Predictive validity

Answer 251

b) Convergent validity

Question 252

Which of the following statements is true about the evaluation methods used to assess recruitment and selection processes? a) The success rate is the number of qualified candidates compared to the number of applicants. b) The base rate is the number of candidates hired compared to the number of applicants. c) The yield ratio is the number of positions filled compared to the number of positions vacant. d) The selection ratio is the number of hired compared to the number of candidates considered.

Answer 252

d) The selection ratio is the number of hired compared to the number of candidates considered.

Question 253

An organization received 150 applicants from an advertisement and interviewed 36 qualified applicants, 12 of whom are members of designated groups. The organization hired two applicants, one of whom is a visible minority. What is the yield ratio of qualified applicants to total applicants? a) 8% b) 24% c) 32% d) 33%

Answer 253

b) 24%

Question 254

The number of applicants who could potentially be hired because they meet all required qualifications is referred to as: a) The yield ratio b) The base rate c) The selection ratio d) The candidate pool

Answer 254

b) The base rate

Question 255

If we wanted to determine the relationship between test scores and criterion data, we would use: a) Cross-validation b) Validity coefficients c) Correlation d) Reliability measures

Answer 255

c) Correlation

Question 256

If, when conducting a salary survey, you do not want outliers to influence your recommendation, which central tendency measure would you use? a) The mean b) The weighted average c) The median d) The mode

Answer 256

c) The median

Question 257

If your organization sent a group of employees to an external training program that cost $10,000 and resulted in a 12% increase in productivity on a total payroll of $500,000 for the group, what would be the return on investment for the training program? a) 5% b) 10% c) 500% d) 50%

Answer 257

c) 500%

Question 258

Costs for maintaining classroom facilities year-round, or for the purchase of projectors, televisions, and VCRs for the training department, are examples of: a) Variable costs b) Direct costs c) Overhead costs d) Indirect costs

Answer 258

c) Overhead costs

Question 259

Which of the following is an indirect cost of training? a) Cost of trainer salaries b) Cost of training marketing materials c) Cost of travel to and from training site d) Cost of training facilities

Answer 259

b) Cost of training marketing materials

Question 260

RTJ Co. has found that for every $1 spent on training, $30 was returned to the company. This represents an example of: a) Cost-benefit evaluation b) Return on investment c) Yield ratio d) Cost analysis

Answer 260

b) Return on investment

Question 261

What are we measuring when we measure advertising cost per recruitment? a) A human capital metric b) A human resource metric c) A productivity metric d) A quality metric

Answer 261

b) A human resource metric

Question 262

When forecasting whether the introduction of a new training program will produce sufficient increased productivity to result in at least a "break-even" outcome, you would conduct: a) Utility analysis b) Cost-benefit analysis c) Direct to indirect cost analysis d) Fixed and variable cost analysis

Answer 262

b) Cost-benefit analysis

Question 263

Dysan, a manufacturer of plastic disc holders, held a training course for all clerical employees. Postage, shipping and telephone were charged as __________ cost, while the fringe benefits of the instructors were charged as __________ cost. a) Direct; overhead b) Direct; indirect c) Indirect; direct d) Indirect; overhead

Answer 263

c) Indirect; direct

Question 264

Which of the following represents a fixed cost? a) Rental costs b) Labour costs c) Material costs d) Energy costs

Answer 264

a) Rental costs

Question 265

In order to calculate the annual return on investment for the Sales Training Program delivered at ACME Software, the director of HR considered the following costs: one-time licensing fee for the training program, rental cost for the meetings rooms used at the local hotel, cost of the lunch for attendees, and the costs associated with reproducing the workshop materials for attendees. Which of these costs is a fixed cost? a) The costs associated with reproducing the workshop materials for attendees b) The rental cost for the meeting rooms used at the local hotel c) The cost of the lunch for the attendees d) The one-time licensing fee for the training program

Answer 265

d) The one-time licensing fee for the training program

Question 266

Which of the following will NOT increase the return on investment of a project? a) Increase the investment and profit b) Increase the investment without increasing the profit c) Decrease the investment without reducing the profit d) Increase the profit without increasing the investment

Answer 266

b) Increase the investment without increasing the profit

Question 267

You are hired as a consultant to recommend a measure that will determine if a training activity had any effect on creativity and subsequent product development. Which of the following research designs would be most appropriate? a) Post-only design b) Pre-post design with control group c) Single-group pre-post design d) Single-group design with control group

Answer 267

b) Pre-post design with control group

Question 268

Which of the following methods should be used to assess the clarity and relevance of a workshop's content? a) Formative evaluation b) Summative evaluation c) Descriptive evaluation d) Causal evaluation

Answer 268

a) Formative evaluation

Question 269

Canadian Engineering Inc. hires electricians who must be certified by the province. The company gives them an exam prep workshop designed to prepare them for the certification exam. What is the best training evaluation design in this case? a) Pre-post b) Post only c) Pre-post with control group d) Time series

Answer 269

a) Pre-post

Question 270

Half the carpenters of Fine Cabinetry went to a 1-day workshop. The selection of participants was made on a random basis. In order to evaluate the value of the workshop, the company conducted a performance assessment of all carpenters following the program. Which of the following evaluation designs would be LESS effective than this approach? a) Time-series design with comparison group b) Single-group post-test design c) Pre-post design with control group d) Single-group design with control group

Answer 270

b) Single-group post-test design

Question 271

During the certification process, a signed authorization card indicates that: a) The union will be certified. b) The employee is willing to be represented by the union. c) The negotiated agreement will be ratified. d) The employee's job will be in the bargaining unit.

Answer 271

b) The employee is willing to be represented by the union.

Question 272

One of the plant managers has just terminated a non-union employee with notice and severance in accordance with statute and common law as a result of the employee not working fast enough in carrying out his duties. This is an example of: a) Dismissal with cause b) Constructive dismissal c) Dismissal without cause d) Wrongful dismissal

Answer 272

c) Dismissal without cause

Question 273

When there is a deadlock in collective bargaining that is to be settled by a binding third party, the process that is used is: a) Rights arbitration b) Interest arbitration c) Conciliation d) Mediation

Answer 273

b) Interest arbitration

Question 274

When faced with a bargaining deadlock, an arbitrator will do which of the following? a) Recommend conciliating negotiations b) Aim to improve communication between union and management c) Decide final terms of the agreement d) Recommend compromise solutions

Answer 274

c) Decide final terms of the agreement

Question 275

In final offer arbitration, what must the arbitrator do? a) The arbitrator must create an agreement based on the best of each side's final offers. b) The arbitrator must choose either the union or management's final offer. c) The arbitrator must craft his or her own terms to create an agreement. d) The arbitrator must engage an alternative dispute resolution process.

Answer 275

b) The arbitrator must choose either the union or management's final offer.

Question 276

Your employees are currently conducting an information picket outside your place of work. Which of the following dispute resolution processes will you engage? a) Grievance procedure b) Interest arbitration c) Expedited arbitration d) Rights arbitration

Answer 276

b) Interest arbitration

Question 277

Which of the following compensation programs are NOT found in unionized environments? a) Piece-work premiums b) Individual performance recognition programs c) Profit sharing programs d) Productivity gainsharing programs

Answer 277

b) Individual performance recognition programs

Question 278

The inability of parties to freely negotiate settlements without third-party assistance is referred to as: a) The narcotic or dependency effect b) The chilling effect c) Estoppel d) New model unionism

Answer 278

a) The narcotic or dependency effect

Question 279

The Rand Formula means: a) Employees have to join the union if their job is in the bargaining unit. b) Employees do not have to join the union but must pay dues if their job is in the bargaining unit. c) Employees must be union members before they can be employed by the employer. d) Employees can only opt out of joining the union if they have a religious or human rights objection.

Answer 279

b) Employees do not have to join the union but must pay dues if their job is in the bargaining unit.

Question 280

The central federation of unions in Canada is known as: a) The Trades and Labour Congress of Canada (TLC) b) The Canadian Labour Congress (CLC) c) The Canadian Federation of Labour (CFL) d) The Canadian National Federation of Independent Unions (CNFIU)

Answer 280

b) The Canadian Labour Congress (CLC)

Question 281

Which of the following is true about the Industrial Relations and Dispute Investigations Act (1948)? a) It specified the right of workers to join unions. b) It required both individual worker and management to negotiate in good faith. c) It created a three-stage compulsory conciliation process. d) It introduced the concept of strikes and lockouts.

Answer 281

a) It specified the right of workers to join unions.

Question 282

Which of the following is NOT one of the three characteristics common to all jurisdictions in Canada pertaining to Labour Relations? a) Only one union is to represent any individual bargaining unit. b) All individuals have the right to unionize. c) Labour Relations Boards have the power to administer the legislation. d) Unfair labour practices apply to both union and management.

Answer 282

b) All individuals have the right to unionize.

Question 283

As a result of experiencing higher profits than usual, a unionized employer made a surprise announcement at its annual town-hall meeting that all employees would receive a $500 bonus. Which of the following best describes this situation? a) An unfair labour practice b) An expression of management’s residual rights c) A voluntary recognition program d) A proactive compensation strategy

Answer 283

a) An unfair labour practice

Question 284

All of the following are unfair labour practices by the employer during a certification drive EXCEPT: a) Reviewing signed union authorization cards b) Disciplining union sympathizers c) Questioning employees about the content of a union meeting d) Introducing an enhanced benefit that had been announced before the certification drive

Answer 284

d) Introducing an enhanced benefit that had been announced before the certification drive

Question 285

When the employees at a mattress manufacturing plant go out on strike and, as a result, march in front of the retail stores that sell those mattresses with placards informing the public that they are on strike, this is an example of: a) Unlawful trespassing b) Primary picketing c) An illegal strike action d) Secondary Picketing

Answer 285

d) Secondary Picketing

Question 286

Which of the following differentiates expedited arbitration from general rights arbitration? a) It results in collective agreements being signed more quickly. b) It is only applied to essential services. c) It usually involves a sole arbitrator. d) It involves the courts.

Answer 286

c) It usually involves a sole arbitrator.

Question 287

A bargaining unit consists of: a) The union's collective agreement negotiating team b) Employees eligible to be represented by the union c) All employees in the location where the union has been certified d) All employees below the management level in a unionized environment

Answer 287

b) Employees eligible to be represented by the union

Question 288

Which of the following requires workers who do not join a union to pay the equivalent of union dues? a) Closed shop b) Voluntary dues check-off c) Rand formula d) Union shop

Answer 288

c) Rand formula

Question 289

What is a Rand Formula? a) The formula used to determine the appropriate representation of protected groups under employment equity legislation b) A form of productivity gainsharing that results in employees benefiting from increased productivity c) A union security clause indicating that union membership is not mandatory but that paying union dues is mandatory d) A clause that outlines the pay differential paid to men and women as a result of gender inequality

Answer 289

c) A union security clause indicating that union membership is not mandatory but that paying union dues is mandatory

Question 290

Which of the following would NOT be considered an unfair labour practice? a) The employer providing financial support to employees opposed to unionization b) The employer using a union-substitution strategy c) The union representing only union members at grievance hearings d) Employees going on strike before the collective agreement expires

Answer 290

b) The employer using a union-substitution strategy

Question 291

Distributive bargaining results in the union and management: a) Competing for limited resources b) Seeking mutual gains c) Focusing on high-priority interests d) Seeking to match industry practices

Answer 291

a) Competing for limited resources

Question 292

A ratification vote usually occurs: a) After the labour relations board has received an application for certification b) After the collective bargaining teams have reached agreement on a contract c) After a resolution has been reached as a result of an arbitration process d) After employees submit an application to decertify to the labour relations board

Answer 292

b) After the collective bargaining teams have reached agreement on a contract

Question 293

You need to temporarily lay off 3 unionized mechanics. What criteria will you use to determine who to lay off? a) Employee performance b) Employee seniority c) Employee skill sets d) Employee absence record

Answer 293

b) Employee seniority

Question 294

Physical fidelity is important to consider when using which method of training? a) Behaviour modelling b) Classroom workshops c) Simulations d) Case studies

Answer 294

c) Simulations

Question 295

As part of a workshop, participants watch a video on how to assemble a product and then attempt the task themselves. This is an example of: a) Behaviour modelling b) On-the-job training c) Role Playing d) Simulation

Answer 295

a) Behaviour modelling

Question 296

The most appropriate method for training senior management to handle critical decision-making is: a) Problem-solving workshops b) Self-study c) Action learning d) Behavior modelling

Answer 296

c) Action learning

Question 297

Compared to on-the-job training, off-the-job training: a) Costs less b) Uses more training methods c) Results in better transfer of training d) Allows for active participation

Answer 297

b) Uses more training methods

Question 298

Which of the following statements is true about mentoring? a) Mentoring is for career development only. b) A mentor is always older than a protégé. c) Mentoring is a two-way process. d) High profile people make the best mentors.

Answer 298

c) Mentoring is a two-way process.

Question 299

A(n) __________ differs from others because it is regulated through a partnership among government, labour, and industry. a) Apprenticeship program b) Internship program c) Co-operative program d) Certified professional program

Answer 299

a) Apprenticeship program

Question 300

When learning is occurring as a result of observing and modeling the behaviour of others, this is referred to as: a) On-the-job learning b) Experiential learning c) Social learning d) Expectancy learning

Answer 300

c) Social learning

Question 301

What is the first step to setting up an assessment centre for selecting internal candidates for entry-level management positions? a) Candidate assessment b) Management position job analysis c) Establishing program evaluation criteria d) Identifying assessment tools

Answer 301

b) Management position job analysis

Question 302

In which of the following on-the-job training methods might a seasoned employee assist a new employee in the development of technical, interpersonal, and communications skills? a) Mentoring/coaching b) Rotation/cross training c) Vestibule training d) Apprenticeship training

Answer 302

a) Mentoring/coaching

Question 303

George is invited to meet with a group of managers at the company's headquarters where the managers will be evaluated as they participate in a series of situations that resemble what they might be called upon to handle on the job. This is an example of: a) Management game b) Assessment centre c) Management development d) Simulation

Answer 303

b) Assessment centre

Question 304

Smith Brothers Ltd. wants to deliver an interactive session for its senior management team entitled "introduction to coaching". In order to reduce travel time, which of the following methods of delivery is the best option for delivering this program? a) Video-conferencing b) Webinar c) Vestibule training d) Programmed instruction

Answer 304

a) Video-conferencing

Question 305

Which of the following would NOT enhance the climate for training transfer? a) Peer support b) Positive recognition c) Discontinuance of old processes d) Programmed learning design

Answer 305

d) Programmed learning design

Question 306

As part of a supervisory development workshop, you have decided to enhance the participants’ motivation by applying what has been learned with the use of behaviour modification. Which of the following design features will be most effective in achieving this outcome? a) Use role playing exercises extensively during the workshop b) Link the participants with a mentor for follow-up coaching c) Provide performance rewards for those who effectively apply the learning d) Introduce learning contracts to reinforce the participant’s commitment to the training

Answer 306

c) Provide performance rewards for those who effectively apply the learning

Question 307

One week following your attendance at a training program, you are asked to complete a questionnaire asking whether you found the training to be worthwhile. Which of the following best describes this type of evaluation? a) Summative b) Formative c) Learning retention d) Smile sheet

Answer 307

d) Smile sheet

Question 308

One method of instruction that is particularly good for allowing individuals to work at their own pace is: a) Classroom b) Case study c) Programmed instruction d) On-the-job training

Answer 308

c) Programmed instruction

Question 309

Introducing demonstrations into a workshop's design is an example of: a) Video training b) Modelling c) Vestibule training d) Simulation

Answer 309

b) Modelling

Question 310

Which of the following will NOT enhance transfer of training? a) Ensure the training content reflects the workplace b) Ensure managers establish a climate for transfer c) Include relapse prevention strategies d) Assess participant learning styles and design the program accordingly

Answer 310

d) Assess participant learning styles and design the program accordingly

Question 311

In your training program, participants will answer up to 10 multiple-choice questions following each module of the program and receive immediate feedback. This would be considered a form of: a) Interactive learning b) Action learning c) Blended learning d) Programmed instruction

Answer 311

d) Programmed instruction

Question 312

Which of the following is true about training needs assessments? a) They are concerned with employee skill gaps, not attitudes. b) They are unnecessary if management knows what training is required. c) They serve as a baseline for evaluating training effectiveness. d) They do not need to consider the conditions under which training is conducted.

Answer 312

c) They serve as a baseline for evaluating training effectiveness.

Question 313

Which of the following describes the concept of programmed instruction? a) Breaking down the course content into logical sequences, each followed by a Q&A b) Combining school-based learning with experience on the job c) Classroom instruction followed by an exam d) Training on an actual piece of equipment that will be used on the job

Answer 313

a) Breaking down the course content into logical sequences, each followed by a Q&A

Question 314

Research has shown that training that increases an employee's self-efficacy is related to improved task performance. How can self-efficacy be enhanced in a training session? a) Use content designed to enhance one's self-confidence in his/her ability to learn the task b) Use "chaining" to reinforce the entire sequence of the task being learned c) Use "shaping" to reinforce each step in the task being learned d) Use declarative and procedural instruction methods to enhance one's understanding of the task

Answer 314

a) Use content designed to enhance one's self-confidence in his/her ability to learn the task

Question 315

When conducting a needs analysis, the principal advantage of __________ is cost savings, while the principal advantage of __________ is comparability. a) Interviews; observation b) Questionnaires; tests c) Work samples; group discussions d) Performance records; key consultation

Answer 315

b) Questionnaires; tests

Question 316

When conducting a training needs analysis, which of the following elements is involved in the process? a) Identifying the learning styles of the participants b) Identifying the estimated return on investment c) Establishing a budget and preferred delivery method d) Conducting an organization, task, and people analysis

Answer 316

d) Conducting an organization, task, and people analysis

Question 317

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a form of extrinsic motivation? a) Pay b) Fringe benefits c) Company policies d) Achievement

Answer 317

d) Achievement

Question 318

A nurse in an intensive care unit would experience: a) Role ambiguity b) Task identity c) Task significance d) Role conflict

Answer 318

c) Task significance

Question 319

If a group of managers do not fully discuss a controversial issue because of the desire to conform, this is an example of: a) Collusion b) Group consensus c) Harmonization d) Group think

Answer 319

d) Group think

Question 320

The three phases of Lewin's Change Management model are: a) Unfreeze, transition, refreeze b) Assess, recommend, implement c) Communicate, gain support, reinforce change d) Analyze, implement, evaluate

Answer 320

a) Unfreeze, transition, refreeze

Question 321

Which of the following will NOT increase extrinsic satisfaction among employees? a) Job design b) Benefit design c) Employee service awards program d) Physical working conditions

Answer 321

a) Job design

Question 322

Which of the following will increase the intrinsic rewards offered by a company to its workforce? a) Increased job security b) A profit-sharing reward program c) An employee involvement program d) Improved physical working conditions

Answer 322

c) An employee involvement program

Question 323

Research indicates that employees often disagree about the value of a job in terms of the inputs required to perform the work and the output resulting from the expended effort. Which motivation explains this concept? a) Expectancy theory b) Motivation-hygiene theory (or two-factor theory) c) Hierarchy of needs theory d) Equity Theory

Answer 323

d) Equity Theory

Question 324

Which of the following is an example of procedural justice? a) The manner in which merit pay is determined is fair. b) The amount of training provided to all employees is equal. c) The punishment for culpable behavior fits the infraction. d) Overall reward outcomes are perceived fair.

Answer 324

a) The manner in which merit pay is determined is fair.

Question 325

Expectancy theory suggests that: a) Pay is a "dissatisfier". b) The valance of rewards will influence motivation. c) Employees are motivated based on a hierarchy of needs. d) Procedural justice is essential when rewarding performance.

Answer 325

b) The valance of rewards will influence motivation.

Question 326

A manager using expectancy theory to increase motivation would: a) Decrease reward valence b) Increase perceived instrumentality c) Decrease negative reinforcement d) Increase distributive justice

Answer 326

b) Increase perceived instrumentality

Question 327

Sarah is unhappy in her administrative job as she would rather be pursuing a career in art. Her supervisor cannot understand why she does not work harder to achieve the performance bonus. Which aspect of expectancy theory is Sarah's behaviour linked to? a) Instrumentality b) Expectancy c) Valence d) Self-actualization

Answer 327

c) Valence

Question 328

Task significance is the extent to which a job: a) Offers workers freedom and autonomy b) Is meaningful and important to others c) Requires completion of a whole unit of work d) Requires clear and direct feedback

Answer 328

b) Is meaningful and important to others

Question 329

If one were to increase the level of difficulty and responsibility of a job, this would be an example of: a) Job enrichment b) Job enlargement c) Increased task identify d) Increased task significance

Answer 329

a) Job enrichment

Question 330

Sebastian's manager has restructured his work so that he now has more authority, more control over the work outcomes, and additional tasks that are more difficult. This process is known as: a) Re-engineering b) Job enrichment c) Job enlargement d) Employee involvement

Answer 330

b) Job enrichment

Question 331

When learners believe they can master the training material and that doing so will enhance their career opportunities, this can be best explained through which of the following motivation theories? a) Goal setting theory b) Maslow’s need hierarchy c) ERG theory d) Expectancy theory

Answer 331

d) Expectancy theory

Question 332

Your organization is about to embark on a major quality improvement initiative, and you have been asked to develop a change strategy that will help win the support of employees. Which of the following will you NOT emphasize? a) The link between the change and the new business strategy b) The quantifiable benefits arising from the change c) The removal of the resisting forces that may inhibit the change d) The importance of long-term wins over short-term wins

Answer 332

d) The importance of long-term wins over short-term wins

Question 333

Total quality management is: a) The delicate balance between timeline, budget, and quality when delivering a project b) A process for reducing defects, improving cycle time, and increasing customer satisfaction c) A practice of engaging employees in the re-design of your operations d) A set of principles and practices that is geared toward ensuring continuous improvement

Answer 333

d) A set of principles and practices that is geared toward ensuring continuous improvement

Question 334

An HR manager is concerned about finding union-organizing leaflets in the staff lounge of the plant workers. As a result, she begins to spend more time visiting the plant to learn of any concerns. Which of the following communication sources is she attempting to use? a) Downward communication channels b) Horizontal communication channels c) Informal communication channels d) Cross-occupational communication channels

Answer 334

c) Informal communication channels

Question 335

The organization design that would effectively serve the needs of a beverage company that distributes its products through grocery stores, restaurants, and movie theatres is: a) Product departmentalization b) Customer departmentalization c) Matrix departmentalization d) Functionalization departmentalization

Answer 335

b) Customer departmentalization

Question 336

When an individual has the right to advise but not directly supervise those who do not report directly to him or her, this is referred to as: a) A limited span of control b) Line authority c) Expert authority d) Staff authority

Answer 336

d) Staff authority

Question 337

Which of the following statements is true about mechanistic organizations? a) They involve a blend of functional and product departmentalization. b) They are characterized by specialized jobs, with a fairly rigid chain of command and centralized authority. c) They are characterized by highly technical but broadly defined jobs that are frequently changing. d) From an organization design perspective, they are focused on organization process vs organization structure.

Answer 337

b) They are characterized by specialized jobs, with a fairly rigid chain of command and centralized authority.

Question 338

When TELUS sends a sales person to your door to sell you fibre optics, who is followed by an installer to connect the physical hardware and then by a technician to hook up the service, this is referred to as: a) Pooled interdependence b) Sequential interdependence c) Reciprocal interdependence d) Interorganizational interdependence

Answer 338

b) Sequential interdependence

Question 339

All of the following are disadvantages of a strong culture EXCEPT: a) They can be pathological resulting in blind obedience. b) They can have a greater resistance to change. c) They can result in many conflicting sub-cultures. d) They can lead to the failure of a merger or acquisition.

Answer 339

c) They can result in many conflicting sub-cultures.

Question 340

When diagnosing an organization's culture, it is important to examine all of the following EXCEPT: a) Organization rituals b) Organization demographics c) Organization symbols d) Organization stories

Answer 340

b) Organization demographics

Question 341

The primary way in which employees can come to understand an organization's culture and its beliefs is through: a) Employee socialization b) Employee orientation c) Employment branding d) Employee engagement

Answer 341

a) Employee socialization

Question 342

Research indicates that all of the following are associated with leadership effectiveness EXCEPT: a) Intelligence b) Self-confidence c) Dominance d) Entrepreneurial spirit

Answer 342

d) Entrepreneurial spirit

Question 343

The notion that effective leadership is dependent on the situation being favourable to the exertion of influence is known as: a) Situational leadership theory b) Contingency theory c) Leader-member exchange theory d) Transactional leadership theory

Answer 343

b) Contingency theory

Question 344

When the president of SWATCH shifted the company's focus from manufacturing watches to include fashion, this was an example of: a) Strategic leadership b) Transactional leadership c) Transformational leadership d) Situational leadership

Answer 344

c) Transformational leadership

Question 345

For organization leaders to raise an awareness about the importance of ethical practices, which of the following strategies will NOT be effective? a) Communicate a clear commitment to ethical practices b) Introduce consequences for ethical and unethical practices c) Align rewards with organization performance d) Encourage employees to speak out about ethics

Answer 345

c) Align rewards with organization performance

Question 346

Authentic leadership involves all of the following behaviours EXCEPT: a) Focuses on control or self-interest rather than service b) Understands one's strengths and weaknesses c) Demonstrates an openness to share personal thoughts and feelings d) Illustrates behaviour that reflects their beliefs and values

Answer 346

a) Focuses on control or self-interest rather than service

Question 347

The leadership style preferred by Millennials is: a) Motivational, collaborative, and able to coach b) Direct, competent, and supportive of learning opportunities c) Treat employees as equals, purposeful, with a democratic approach d) Fair, consistent, direct and respectful

Answer 347

a) Motivational, collaborative, and able to coach

Question 348

Which of the following research methods by itself will NOT tell the causal relationship between two variables? a) Case study b) Experimentation c) Correlational methods d) Statistical research

Answer 348

c) Correlational methods

Question 349

The standard deviation of a question on an employee survey indicates: a) The difference between the lowest and highest answers provided b) The answer provided by most employees c) How much agreement there is among the employees' answers d) The level of confidence that the result accurately reflects the employees' opinions

Answer 349

c) How much agreement there is among the employees' answers

Question 350

Statistically speaking, variance is: a) The difference between the highest and lowest data points in a distribution b) The mid-point between the highest and lowest data points in a distribution c) The average squared difference between any one data point and the expected value of the mean for all data points d) The average of all the data points in a distribution

Answer 350

c) The average squared difference between any one data point and the expected value of the mean for all data points

Question 351

Which of the following actions is NOT recommended when conducting an employee survey? a) Ensuring multiple-choice questions are single barreled b) Ensuring survey participation is anonymous c) Using a standard 5-point Likert Scale d) Selecting respondents from a sample population to ensure good response rate

Answer 351

d) Selecting respondents from a sample population to ensure good response rate

Question 352

Acquiescence response in a survey results when: a) Respondents provide the same positive answer to every question. b) Respondents provide the answer they think you want to hear. c) Respondents skip over the questions they are reluctant to answer. d) Respondents respond more than once to the same survey.

Answer 352

a) Respondents provide the same positive answer to every question.

Question 353

An employee survey is helpful in understanding how most employees feel about a particular issue, and the statistical concept that provides you with this information is: a) Variance b) Mean c) Standard Deviation d) Mode

Answer 353

d) Mode

Question 354

Unethical behaviours can be grouped into four categories. Which of the following categories describes "padding your timesheet"? a) Production deviance b) Property deviance c) Political deviance d) Personal aggression

Answer 354

b) Property deviance

Question 355

The degree of concern employees will have about an ethical issue will depend on all of the following EXCEPT: a) The harm it causes to others b) The individual who behaves unethically c) Social agreement that the behaviour is unethical d) The time between the behaviour and its impact

Answer 355

b) The individual who behaves unethically

Question 356

When faced with an unethical situation, a person decides to go through with the unethical act because the consequences are small, which level of moral development is that person in? a) Pre-conventional level of moral development b) Conventional level of moral development c) Post-conventional level of moral development d) Pro-conventional level of moral development

Answer 356

a) Pre-conventional level of moral development

Question 357

Barak believes one should never take action that harms the least among us. Which of the following principles of ethical decision-making does Barak hold? a) Principle of utilitarian benefits b) Principle of individual rights c) Principle of personal virtue d) Principle of distributive justice

Answer 357

d) Principle of distributive justice

Question 358

What does social responsibility mean for an organization? a) Ensuring the organization's culture and climate is positive b) Ensuring that employees are treated fairly c) Maintaining a work-life balance as part of a core value d) Pursuing policies that benefit external stakeholders

Answer 358

d) Pursuing policies that benefit external stakeholders

Question 359

An organization's secondary stakeholders includes: a) Suppliers b) Shareholders c) Distributors d) Special interest groups

Answer 359

d) Special interest groups

Question 360

Organizations can uphold their social responsibilities in four ways. An organization's _____________ responsibility stipulates that it will voluntarily benefit society. a) Economic b) Legal c) Ethical d) Discretionary

Answer 360

d) Discretionary

Question 361

When Gallop used data collected over a number of years to correlate engagement with HR practices and, therefore, predict things like employee retention, this was an example of: a) Cross-sectional research b) Longitudinal research c) Base-line research d) Benchmark research

Answer 361

b) Longitudinal research

Question 362

When assessing candidates using a battery of tests, one always needs to be aware of the standard error of measurement. The standard error of measurement refers to: a) The validity of the test b) The reliability of the test c) The correlation of the test with job performance d) The predictive ability of the test

Answer 362

b) The reliability of the test

Question 363

When we design interview questions to assess attributes that are unrelated to each other and then correlate the results of those tests, we are testing for __________ of the assessments. a) Divergent validity b) Construct validity c) Concurrent validity d) Convergent validity

Answer 363

a) Divergent validity

Question 364

When conducting 360 degree feedback, the HR department uses a popular response scale that includes labels such as never, sometimes, often, and always. This is an example of what kind of rating scale? a) Graphic rating scale b) Behaviour observation scale c) Behaviourally anchored rating scale d) Forced choice scale

Answer 364

b) Behaviour observation scale

Question 365

Forecasting that is concerned with changes in the external environment, such as the effects of Hurricane Katrina, is called: a) Transaction-based forecasting b) Process-based forecasting c) Event-based forecasting d) Short-run forecasting

Answer 365

c) Event-based forecasting

Question 366

The source of workers to meet demand requirements, obtained either internally or externally or from external agencies, is referred to as: a) Human resources supply b) Human resources demand c) Human resources projections d) Human resources deficit

Answer 366

a) Human resources supply

Question 367

The last step in the forecasting process is: a) Assess in-house skills and other internal supplied characteristics b) Develop plans to ensure the right people are in the right place c) Determine the net demand requirements that must be met from external supply d) Identify link with organizational goals, objective, and plans

Answer 367

b) Develop plans to ensure the right people are in the right place

Question 368

External factors affecting forecasting include: a) Organization industry and structure b) HR policies and practices c) Change in the value of the dollar d) Corporate strategy for creating shareholder value

Answer 368

c) Change in the value of the dollar

Question 369

Members of the organization workforce that can be retrained to fill other positions are known as: a) Projected human resources b) Future resources c) Internal supply d) External supply

Answer 369

c) Internal supply

Question 370

The first step in determining net HR requirements is to: a) Ascertain HR supply b) Ascertain HR demand c) Conduct a Markov analysis d) Ascertain forecasted attrition

Answer 370

b) Ascertain HR demand

Question 371

A single numerical estimate of HR requirements associated with a specific horizon and set of assumptions is: a) A prediction b) A projection c) A resource envelope d) A trend analysis

Answer 371

a) A prediction

Question 372

The following programs can be instituted to immediately address an HR surplus: a) Hiring retirees b) Job sharing c) Hiring freeze d) Furloughing

Answer 372

d) Furloughing

Question 373

When a leader has to make decisions based on imperfect information, this is referred to as: a) Irrational decision making b) Bounded rationality c) Information underload d) Tempered judgment

Answer 373

b) Bounded rationality

Question 374

A common decision-making error made by managers is to base the likelihood of an event's occurrence on previous events. This is referred to as: a) Availability bias b) Representative bias c) Anchoring and adjustment bias d) Overreliance on intuition

Answer 374

b) Representative bias

Question 375

Which of the following statements is false about change management? a) Force Field Analysis is an effective tool to use during the "unfreezing" stage of change management. b) The "transition" stage of change is the most challenging as people are unsure of what the future holds. c) The "re-freezing" stage of change is where the greatest resistance occurs as individuals are stuck in the present. d) It is important to provide employee training during the "transition" phase.

Answer 375

c) The "re-freezing" stage of change is where the greatest resistance occurs as individuals are stuck in the present.

Question 376

When evaluating a safety training program, which of the following data collection designs will you use? a) Single group with control b) Pre-post with control c) Single group post-only d) Single group pre-only

Answer 376

c) Single group post-only

Question 377

Famous Fabrics Limited has seen an opportunity to take small steps to move toward providing luxury fabrics for higher profits. This is an example of: a) Corporate strategy b) Intended strategy c) Emergent strategy d) Realized strategy

Answer 377

c) Emergent strategy

Question 378

Selling a business is an example of which strategy? a) Turnaround b) Divestiture c) Liquidation d) Bankruptcy

Answer 378

b) Divestiture

Question 379

A stability strategy is used: a) When economic times are stable b) During a recession c) In times of growth d) To maintain the status quo

Answer 379

d) To maintain the status quo

Question 380

"Should we be in business?" is a question suitable for a __________ strategy, while "How should we compete?" is a question suitable for a __________ strategy. a) Bankruptcy, differentiation b) Corporate, business c) Corporate, low cast d) Business, client-focused

Answer 380

b) Corporate, business

Question 381

"We aim to enhance our customers' quality of life." This is an example of: a) Vision statement b) Mission statement c) Value statement d) Value proposition

Answer 381

a) Vision statement

Question 382

When the manufacturer of skiboots introduced a boot that "plugged in" to warm the lining of the boot, this was the example of what type of competitive strategy? a) Enhanced value strategy b) Best-cost strategy c) Broad differentiation strategy d) Market niche strategy based on differentiation

Answer 382

d) Market niche strategy based on differentiation

Question 383

Balanced scorecards measure which four performance indicators? a) Financial, customer, employee, environmental b) Financial, customer, process, learning and growth c) Financial, technical, political, social d) Financial, people, environmental, legal

Answer 383

b) Financial, customer, process, learning and growth

Question 384

The benefits of strategy formulation included all of the following EXCEPT a) Clarity b) Differentiation c) Coordination d) Efficiency

Answer 384

b) Differentiation

Question 385

Strategic HRM is a set of practices, policies, and philosophies intended to: a) Ensure company compliance with all employment laws b) Improve the productivity of employees c) Enable the achievement of the organization's goals d) Improve overall employee engagement

Answer 385

c) Enable the achievement of the organization's goals

Question 386

The human capital perspective of human resources focuses on employee: a) Resources b) Behaviours c) Performance d) Knowledge and experience

Answer 386

d) Knowledge and experience

Question 387

BMW Canada has a differentiation strategy. The HR programs should focus on employees with which of the following attributes? a) Ability to be efficient and work in teams b) Ability to follow directions and work under supervision c) Ability to be creative and flexible d) Ability to be focused and work in short bursts of intense activity

Answer 387

c) Ability to be creative and flexible

Question 388

Which of the following is the result of increasing globalization? a) It has become easier to find workers through immigration. b) It has become easier to compete globally. c) The disparity between the poor and the wealthy has increased. d) Working conditions have improved in developing countries.

Answer 388

d) Working conditions have improved in developing countries.

Question 389

Which of the following approaches to HR strategy would be suitable for organizations that rely on high-value human capital? a) First, develop an organizational strategy; then align HR strategy. b) First, develop an HR strategy; then align organizational strategy. c) HR strategy and organizational strategies should be developed concurrently. d) It is the responsibility of the HR department to implement the HR strategy.

Answer 389

c) HR strategy and organizational strategies should be developed concurrently.

Question 390

An organization that has fully autonomous units operating in multiple countries is considered to be: a) An international corporation b) A multidomestic corporation c) A transnational corporation d) A global corporation

Answer 390

b) A multidomestic corporation

Question 391

An expatriate employee is: a) An employee from an organization's home country who is working in a foreign land b) An employee from a foreign land who is working in the organization's home country c) An employee from a foreign land working in his or her home country d) An employee from a foreign land who is working in another foreign land that is not the organization's home country

Answer 391

a) An employee from an organization's home country who is working in a foreign land

Question 392

Which of the following statements is false about international staffing? a) The trend is to send expatriates on longer-term assignments. b) The trend is to lean more toward hiring host-country nationals. c) Traditionally, expatriates receive generous compensation packages. d) Most customers prefer to do business with companies they perceive to be local versus foreign.

Answer 392

a) The trend is to send expatriates on longer-term assignments.

Question 393

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of selecting a home-country national over a host-country national to run the foreign office? a) The organization will have greater control over a home-country national. b) A home-country national brings company experience. c) A home-country national has greater mobility. d) A home-country national is less costly to employ.

Answer 393

d) A home-country national is less costly to employ.

Question 394

When compensating an expatriate, the balance-sheet approach provides: a) The employee with per-diem compensation to cover living expenses b) Pay that is equitable to that of employees in the host country c) A portion of pay in local currency and a portion in employee's home currency d) Pay that gives the employee the same purchasing power compared to the employee's home country

Answer 394

d) Pay that gives the employee the same purchasing power compared to the employee's home country

Question 395

An organization's competitive environment is impacted by five forces. Which of the following is NOT one of those forces? a) New entrants b) Suppliers c) Government regulators d) Customers

Answer 395

c) Government regulators

Question 396

Trends in the external labour market include all of the following EXCEPT: a) The labour force participation rate will decline in coming decades. b) The largest gains in employment are in the service sector. c) The number of part-time workers has drastically decreased in the last decade. d) The majority of Canadian workers have permanent jobs without end dates.

Answer 396

c) The number of part-time workers has drastically decreased in the last decade.

Question 397

To develop a fair and responsible compensation program, all of the following are required EXCEPT: a) Pay policies that accurately reflect the internal wage relationships among different jobs b) An evaluation system that provides a credible relationship between performance and pay adjustments c) Pay policies that are limited by earned profits and other financial resources available to the organization d) Pay range control points that align with the 50th percentile of the competitive marketplace

Answer 397

d) Pay range control points that align with the 50th percentile of the competitive marketplace

Question 398

The board of directors of Universal Mines has decided to motivate its senior management team to focus on long-term results. What type of incentive plans would accomplish this goal? a) Merit pay b) Bonus c) Stock options d) Productivity gainsharing programs

Answer 398

c) Stock options

Question 399

Which of the following job evaluations systems can only be used when evaluating a small number of jobs? a) Point factor system b) Job classification system c) Job ranking system d) Work valuation system

Answer 399

c) Job ranking system

Question 400

Lynn has just been assigned to a job evaluation committee and has been instructed to assign monetary rate of pay to each compensable factor for each key job. Which system is she using? a) Point system b) Factor comparison system c) Job classification system d) Job ranking system

Answer 400

b) Factor comparison system

Question 401

In translating the results of a salary survey into actual wage rates, what statistical technique would be most appropriate to use? a) Least squares method b) Dispersion method c) Correlation method d) Expected variance method

Answer 401

a) Least squares method

Question 402

A job evaluation system that groups jobs according to a series of predetermined grades is: a) Job classification system b) Job ranking system c) Factor comparison system d) Point factor system

Answer 402

a) Job classification system

Question 403

As a result of a newly negotiated collective agreement, the wage difference between union employees and their managers has narrowed. The resulting pay differential is known as: a) Bona fide pay differential b) Wage-rate compression c) Wage comparability d) Leapfrogging

Answer 403

b) Wage-rate compression

Question 404

Organizations that adopt a competency-based or skill-based pay system frequently use ________ as a means to structure their compensation payments to employees. a) Lock-step pay ranges b) Hierarchical pay grades c) Wage curves d) Broadbanding

Answer 404

d) Broadbanding

Question 405

Employee benefits constitute __________ form of compensation. a) A direct b) An indirect c) A total d) A partial

Answer 405

b) An indirect

Question 406

A recent salary survey indicated that organizations paying at the 50th percentile are paying purchasing staff $50,000 per year. What are organizations paying at the 25th percentile? a) $25,000.00 b) $75,000.00 c) Indeterminable with the information in the question d) $37,500.00

Answer 406

c) Indeterminable with the information in the question

Question 407

Which of the following statements about incentive plans is true? a) A family of measures plan is a gainsharing plan that uses a variety of measures to determine a bonus payout. b) Improshare plan is a stock-option plan that rewards shares to high performing individuals. c) Rucker plan is a profit sharing plan that delivers annual bonuses based on the organization's profits. d) Scanlon plan is a gainsharing plan that expresses labour costs as a percentage of value added.

Answer 407

a) A family of measures plan is a gainsharing plan that uses a variety of measures to determine a bonus payout.

Question 408

When employees believe that the amounts received in bonuses are fair and equitable, this is considered to be: a) Procedural justice b) Pay equity c) Reward valance d) Distributive justice

Answer 408

d) Distributive justice

Question 409

The type of gainsharing plans that is based on the number of labour hours worked per unit of output is: a) Scanlon plan b) Rucker plan c) Improshare d) Rand formula

Answer 409

c) Improshare

Question 410

The essence of gainsharing plans is that employees are rewarded for: a) Increasing revenues b) Increasing profits c) Reducing costs d) Increasing share price

Answer 410

c) Reducing costs

Question 411

Recent demographic trends, such as increased life expectancy, have caused employers to want to move away from__________. a) Defined contribution pension plans b) Defined benefit pension plans c) Deferred profit sharing plans d) Hybrid pension plans

Answer 411

b) Defined benefit pension plans

Question 412

Which of the following statements about pension plans is false? a) Defined benefit plans are more portable than defined contribution plans. b) Defined contribution plans place the risk related to future income onto the employees. c) Both defined contribution and defined benefit plans are contributory plans. d) Pension plans increase employee continuance commitment but not affective commitment.

Answer 412

a) Defined benefit plans are more portable than defined contribution plans.

Question 413

The responsibility for administration of funds held in trust, such as in pension plans, rests with: a) Pension and benefits department staff b) The organization's chief financial officer (CFO) c) Government regulators d) External trustee

Answer 413

d) External trustee

Question 414

Which of the following is NOT a required payroll deduction for employees? a) Employment Insurance b) Canada Pension Plan/Quebec Pension Plan c) Workers' Compensation premiums d) Income Tax

Answer 414

c) Workers' Compensation premiums

Question 415

Which of the following benefits would be considered favourable, in terms of taxes, for workers in Ontario? a) LTD plan paid for by the employer b) Group dental insurance paid for by the employer c) Stock options provided by the employer d) Life insurance premiums paid for by the employer

Answer 415

b) Group dental insurance paid for by the employer

Question 416

Which of the following statements regarding flexible benefit plans is false? a) Flexible benefit plans enable employers to contain benefit costs. b) Flexible benefit plans increase the cost of individual benefits. c) Flexible benefit plans are good for meeting employee needs. d) Flexible benefit plans are easy to communicate to employees.

Answer 416

d) Flexible benefit plans are easy to communicate to employees.

Question 417

Occupations that are typically paid by piece rates include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Hairstylists b) Journalists c) Physicians d) Clerical staff

Answer 417

d) Clerical staff

Question 418

Your organization wishes to introduce an executive long-term reward program. Which of the following will you recommend? a) Profit sharing plan b) Gain sharing plan c) Share purchase plan d) Stock option plan

Answer 418

d) Stock option plan

Question 419

Which of the following describes a hybrid compensation policy? a) A policy that targets the 75th percentile of the market for technical jobs and the 50th percentile for administrative jobs b) A policy that provides for seniority-based increases up to the control point of the pay scale and merit increases beyond the control-point c) A policy that enables employees to trade in a portion of their salary for increased vacation. d) A policy that provides for a split variable reward, which is determined by a blend of individual, team, and organization performance

Answer 419

a) A policy that targets the 75th percentile of the market for technical jobs and the 50th percentile for administrative jobs

Question 420

Which of the following HR processes is often referred to as the cornerstone of HR because it impacts so many HR functions? a) Recruitment and selection b) Job analysis c) Training and development d) Job evaluation

Answer 420

b) Job analysis

Question 421

All of the following techniques are used in the job analysis process EXCEPT: a) Questionnaires b) Interviews c) Nominal group technique d) Task inventories

Answer 421

c) Nominal group technique

Question 422

What is the 9-box grid associated with? a) Job evaluation b) Job analysis c) Performance management d) Balanced scorecard

Answer 422

c) Performance management

Question 423

Your organization’s employment equity program indicates that your workforce is not reflective of the local labour force. Which of the following recruitment methods will NOT solve this problem? a) Employee referral program b) Job fair c) Employment branding program d) Internet recruiting

Answer 423

a) Employee referral program

Question 424

Which of the following statements about executive search firms is true? a) Executive search firms based their fee for service on an hourly rate. b) Executive search firms are paid a commission only when a successful candidate is found. c) Executive search firms accept placement fees from candidates. d) Executive search firms do not rely on advertising to attract candidates.

Answer 424

d) Executive search firms do not rely on advertising to attract candidates.

Question 425

To locate qualified internal job candidates, an organization would include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Employee referrals b) Job posting c) Recall of laid-off employees d) Succession plans

Answer 425

c) Recall of laid-off employees

Question 426

When identifying the performance and potential of an internal candidate applying for a managerial position, one might implement: a) A 9-box grid b) A competency profile of the position c) A career planning program d) A peer review

Answer 426

a) A 9-box grid

Question 427

__________ occurs when an interviewer allows one strong point to overshadow all other information. a) Recency effect b) Negative emphasis c) Contrast error d) Halo error

Answer 427

d) Halo error

Question 428

Which of the following candidate assessments uses a competency-based approach? a) Interest inventory b) A work-sample test c) Job knowledge test d) Cognitive ability test

Answer 428

b) A work-sample test

Question 429

You recently learned that one of your hiring managers has been asking candidates different questions, even though these candidates were being interviewed for the same job. Which of the following concepts will you want to explain to that hiring manager? a) The reliability of the interview process b) The standard error of measurement resulting from the interview process c) The validity generalization across candidates d) The validity of the interview process

Answer 429

a) The reliability of the interview process

Question 430

Which of the following interviews is most likely to result in higher reliability, faster selection decisions, and greater acceptance of results by the candidates? a) The behavioural description interview b) The non-directive interview c) The situational interview d) The panel interview

Answer 430

d) The panel interview

Question 431

The manager of the hiring department wishes to make a decision based on the feedback and recommendations made by individuals who have worked with these candidates previously and who are familiar with the strengths and weaknesses required to perform in the role. Which of the following assessment technique best describes this approach? a) Clinical approach b) Statistical approach c) Multiple cutoff model d) Nominal group technique

Answer 431

a) Clinical approach

Question 432

What assessment tool should be used to assess managerial judgment? a) Targeted situational interview b) Role play exercises c) Leaderless group discussion d) In-basket exercises

Answer 432

d) In-basket exercises

Question 433

Which of the following statements is false about Weighted Application Blanks (WABs) and Biographical Information Blank (BIBs)? a) A WAB focuses on more limited, factual, and verifiable information, while a BIB covers an array of less-verifiable information. b) A WAB results in a qualitative measure that predicts candidate success in terms of personal accomplishments and hobbies. c) The questions on a BIB may request personally sensitive information that borders on violating human rights legislation. d) A BIB provides greater insights into the individuals experience, preferences, and academic standing.

Answer 433

b) A WAB results in a qualitative measure that predicts candidate success in terms of personal accomplishments and hobbies.

Question 434

Which of the following is an example of a well-written performance standard? a) Desk clerks are expected to check out approximately fifteen customers every half hour. b) Customer service representatives need to be energetic and ready to please customers. c) Resident dorm advisors should be available to students 7/24. d) Police must respond to a call in a relatively short period of time.

Answer 434

a) Desk clerks are expected to check out approximately fifteen customers every half hour.

Question 435

Which of the following is NOT true of 360 degree feedback? a) The process recognizes the complexity of management. b) Feedback is used to create developmental activities. c) The manager's feedback is most important feedback. d) The process allows for input from external and internal customers.

Answer 435

c) The manager's feedback is most important feedback.

Question 436

One major advantage of a behaviourally anchored rating scale is that: a) It requires a great deal of employee participation, which leads to acceptance. b) The rating scale can be used across many jobs. c) It takes a relatively short time to develop. d) The rating scale is tightly linked to organizational objectives.

Answer 436

a) It requires a great deal of employee participation, which leads to acceptance.

Question 437

Which of the following statements is false about the validity of selection tests? a) When there is validity generalization, the assessment will predict successful applicants for many different situations. b) Restriction of range limits an organization's ability to be confident in the predictive validity of a selection test. c) Concurrent validity will show that selection test scores of existing employees positively correlate with their performance. d) If the reliability of a test can be strengthened, then the validity of the test will also be strengthened.

Answer 437

d) If the reliability of a test can be strengthened, then the validity of the test will also be strengthened.

Question 438

Using what candidate assessment method would result in applicants having to pass a minimum score on each predictor before being assessed on the next predictor? a) Multiple hurdle b) Multiple regression c) Multiple serial assessment d) Multiple cutoff

Answer 438

a) Multiple hurdle

Question 439

Top-down selection involves: a) Multiple cutoff b) Candidate ranking c) 360 degree interviews d) Recruitment decisions not being delegated

Answer 439

b) Candidate ranking

Question 440

The combination decision-making models for candidate assessment include: a) Multiple regression and profile matching b) Profile matching and multiple cutoff c) Multiple cutoff and multiple hurdle d) Multiple regression and multiple cutoff

Answer 440

d) Multiple regression and multiple cutoff

Question 441

In order to ensure the quality of one of your recruitment tests, you have decided to split the test in two and measure the correlation between the two halves. By doing this, you are measuring: a) Predictive validity b) Concurrent criterion-related validity c) Test-retest stability d) Internal consistency

Answer 441

d) Internal consistency

Question 442

__________ tests are generally paper-and-pencil tests, while __________ tests involve individual testing on a specialized piece of equipment. a) Psychomotor, cognitive ability b) Psychomotor, physical ability c) Medical examination, cognitive ability d) Cognitive ability, psychomotor

Answer 442

d) Cognitive ability, psychomotor

Question 443

As part of your recruitment process for receptionists, you have included an in-basket exercise involving candidates performing a word-processing exercise. Which of the following should you do to ensure the exercise has criterion-related validity? a) Ensure that all candidates are required to input the same document b) Ensure the document contains the same content as what would typically be assigned on the job c) Ensure that the document used for each candidate would require the same set of skills to complete. d) Ensure that all candidates use the same computer during the assessment process

Answer 443

b) Ensure the document contains the same content as what would typically be assigned on the job

Question 444

__________ is frequently used to assess adverse impact in the selection process. a) Two-thirds rule b) Five-quarters rule c) Four-fifths rule d) Three-fourths rule

Answer 444

c) Four-fifths rule

Question 445

When a recruiter makes a decision to discriminate against an applicant for legitimate business reasons of safety or effectiveness, this is known as: a) Acceptable systemic discrimination b) Reverse discrimination c) A bona fide occupational qualification or requirement d) Disparate treatment for valid reasons

Answer 445

c) A bona fide occupational qualification or requirement

Question 446

Assessing only the sales results of a sales person when evaluating performance is an example of: a) Criterion contamination b) Criterion deficiency c) Insufficient behaviourally anchored factors d) Co-dependent correlation deficiency

Answer 446

b) Criterion deficiency

Question 447

Common applicant screening procedures include biodata, résumés, and _______________. a) Reference and background checks b) Ability tests c) Aptitude tests d) Integrity tests

Answer 447

a) Reference and background checks

Question 448

Which of the following describes the process for divulging both positive and negative aspects of a position to a candidate? a) Situational interview b) Stress interview c) Multiple hurdle disclosure d) Realistic job preview

Answer 448

d) Realistic job preview

Question 449

Which of the following metrics is used to describe the number of applicants hired compared to the total number of applicants? a) Cutoff ratio b) Selection ratio c) Base rate ratio d) Screening yield ratio

Answer 449

b) Selection ratio

Question 450

If an organization hired an uncertified electrician and assigned him or her duties that only a certified electrician should perform, this would be an example of: a) Criterion contamination hiring b) Negligent hiring c) False negative hiring d) False positive hiring

Answer 450

b) Negligent hiring

Question 451

Which of the following statements is true about eustress? a) Eustress increases the potential for employee accidents. b) Eustress results from a psychological breakdown. c) Eustress is caused by having little control over your environment. d) Eustress helps employees overcome obstacles.

Answer 451

d) Eustress helps employees overcome obstacles.

Question 452

It has come to your attention that employees in your plant are suffering from sore joints, white fingers due to restricted blood circulation, and decalcification. Which of the following is likely the cause of these symptoms? a) Poor ergonomics b) Prolonged physical stress c) Exposure to toxic substances d) Segmental vibration

Answer 452

d) Segmental vibration

Question 453

Employees in your plant are being exposed to loud noises, off and on, over a period of eight hours. In order to assess the exact amount of time individuals will be exposed to noise, which of the following assessment tool should you use? a) Octave band analyzer b) Audiometer c) Dosimeter d) Sound pressure level meter

Answer 453

c) Dosimeter

Question 454

Carolyn Hume has been working in a loud manufacturing environment since she graduated from high school and is now having trouble hearing. What instrument would be used to measure her hearing loss? a) Sound pressure level meter b) Octave band analyzer c) Dosimeter d) Audiometer

Answer 454

d) Audiometer

Question 455

A health and safety frequency rate is calculated as: a) Number of accidents per employee divided by number of employees working b) Number of accidents divided by number of employees working c) Number of accidents divided by total number of hours worked d) Number of lost-time injuries divided by number of accidents

Answer 455

c) Number of accidents divided by total number of hours worked

Question 456

To increase the effectiveness of medical surveillance programs, it is important to: a) Limit the amount of exposure to workplace hazards b) Establish baseline and ongoing records of employee health c) Conduct a pre-employment medical examination d) Conduct annual physical examinations for employees at risk

Answer 456

b) Establish baseline and ongoing records of employee health

Question 457

The degree to which a substance can cause harm to human skin or tissue is measured in terms of: a) Toxicity b) Hazard exposure frequency c) Hazard exposure severity d) Chemical and environmental properties

Answer 457

a) Toxicity

Question 458

The employee survey you conducted two years ago, and again 6 months ago, shows high job insecurity among your unskilled workers. Which of the following most likely describes the stress they are experiencing? a) Daily stress b) Chronic stress c) Psychosocial stress d) Acute stress

Answer 458

b) Chronic stress

Question 459

The transactional model of stress indicates that: a) Stress can be both positive and negative. b) Risk factors can be both acute and chronic. c) Different employees will respond differently to the same stressors. d) Stress can be categorized as psychological, physical, behavioural, and organizational.

Answer 459

c) Different employees will respond differently to the same stressors.

Question 460

When applying the psychosocial model of health to assess the health risks of your employee population, which of the following factors would you LEAST likely assess? a) Employee’s physical strength b) Employee’s level of self-esteem c) Employee’s exposure to violence d) Employee’s family situation

Answer 460

a) Employee’s physical strength

Question 461

Which of the following best describes the impacts of stress? a) Too little stress enhances performance. b) When stress occurs, performance increases and then decreases. c) Acute stress leads to chronic stress. d) Prolonged eustress can result in health problems.

Answer 461

b) When stress occurs, performance increases and then decreases.

Question 462

Which of the following is defined as an unwanted event that causes harm to people, property or processes? a) Incident b) Near miss c) Hazard d) Dangerous occurrence

Answer 462

a) Incident

Question 463

If safety hazards are caused by human factors, environmental factors, and situational factors, which of the following is a situational factor? a) Cold temperatures in a meat storage facility b) Loud noises in a metal fabrication plant c) The improper use of equipment d) Equipment with inadequate warning signals

Answer 463

d) Equipment with inadequate warning signals

Question 464

When a worker or another person causes an accident by commission, poor judgment, or omission, the cause is labelled as which of the following? a) Environmental Factor b) Human factor c) Situational factor d) Ergonomic Factor

Answer 464

b) Human factor

Question 465

Cedric is planning to perform an annual maintenance check on his electrical metal cutter. Which of the following is the proper safety procedure? a) Lockout b) Machine guarding c) Hazard analysis d) Consulting MSDS's

Answer 465

a) Lockout

Question 466

Organizations manage hazards through engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment. Which of the following statements is false about these hazard controls? a) Using personal protective equipment is more effective than engineering controls. b) Administrative controls are more effective than using personal protective equipment. c) Engineering controls are more effective than administrative controls. d) Engineering controls includes ergonomics.

Answer 466

a) Using personal protective equipment is more effective than engineering controls.

Question 467

Which of the following statements about workplace safety is false? a) A "walk-through survey" is used to determine the types and possible exposures to hazards in the workplace. b) A "safety audit" is used to ensure compliance with safety policy and safe work practices. c) A "hazard analysis" process is used to assess hazards and risk in the workplace. d) An "ergonomic review" is an after-the-fact investigation focused on the cause of a musculoskeletal injury.

Answer 467

d) An "ergonomic review" is an after-the-fact investigation focused on the cause of a musculoskeletal injury.

Question 468

To facilitate post-injury medical attention, employers may do which of the following? a) Hire an on-site nurse b) Provide health and safety training to employees c) Establish a relationship with a local physician d) Establish a relationship with a local emergency care centre

Answer 468

b) Provide health and safety training to employees

Question 469

Simplex Ltd. is holding a training session and has determined that it will cost $5,000 for course materials and $2,000 for overtime wages of replacement workers. These two costs represent: a) Indirect and direct costs b) Direct and indirect costs c) Direct and overhead costs d) Indirect and overhead costs

Answer 469

b) Direct and indirect costs

Question 470

Which of the following is a direct cost of training? a) The fee charged by an outsourced trainer to deliver the training. b) Wages of employees who attended the training c) Lower productivity costs associated with applying a new skill d) Marketing costs required to advertise the training

Answer 470

a) The fee charged by an outsourced trainer to deliver the training.

Question 471

In order to assess the worthiness of a training workshop, one should use: a) Reaction Evaluation b) Summative Evaluation c) Formative Evaluation d) Learning Evaluation

Answer 471

b) Summative Evaluation

Question 472

Sally Smith is a job applicant and has completed a cognitive ability test for a position as an analyst. If hired, her test scores will be checked against her performance six months into her employment. If you were to do this comparison, what would you be checking for? a) Predictive validity b) Construct validity c) Concurrent validity d) Cross-validation

Answer 472

a) Predictive validity

Question 473

A group of current employees have been asked to take the newly developed cognitive ability test for applicants. The HR department will use the results to create a benchmark score. The HR department has just administered a process of __________ for the test. a) Predictive validation b) Construct validation c) Concurrent validation d) Cross-validation

Answer 473

d) Cross-validation

Question 474

To ensure the efficacy of a mechanical comprehension test, which test of validity should be applied? a) Content validity b) Criterion-related validity c) Construct validity d) Consistency validity

Answer 474

c) Construct validity

Question 475

Which of the following financial tools shows an organization's total profit and loss over a period of time? a) Balance sheet b) Budget c) Statement of cash flows d) Income statement

Answer 475

d) Income statement

Question 476

The formula for estimating the value added by human capital is: a) Gross Profit / (Operating costs - Total compensation costs) b) (Net Profit - Total compensation costs) / Operating costs c) (Recruitment costs - Turnover costs) / Total compensation costs d) [Total revenue - (Operating expenses - Total compensation costs)] / Total compensation costs

Answer 476

d) [Total revenue - (Operating expenses - Total compensation costs)] / Total compensation costs

Question 477

When we take action as a result of conducting human resources research, we are usually trying to: a) Have an impact on an independent variable b) Have an impact on a dependent variable c) Have an impact on a hypothesis d) Have an impact on a correlation

Answer 477

b) Have an impact on a dependent variable

Question 478

As part of your recruitment strategy, your organization has decided to use a highly recognized standard battery of assessments to determine candidate intelligence and temperament. When choosing these assessments, which of the following will be most important to ensure? a) High correlation coefficients between intelligence and temperament b) Validity generalization c) Reliability measures d) Standard error of measurement

Answer 478

b) Validity generalization

Question 479

When we applied yield ratios to the recruitment process, they tell us: a) The average number of days it takes to recruit for and fill a position b) The average cost of the recruitment and selection process c) The percentage of candidates that progress through each step in the recruitment process d) The validity and reliability of the assessment tools used in the recruitment process

Answer 479

c) The percentage of candidates that progress through each step in the recruitment process

Question 480

After examining your organization's exit interviews over a period of four years, you discover that turnover goes down when unemployment goes up. Which of the following best describes this relationship? a) The independent variable "turnover" has a positive correlation with the dependent variable "unemployment". b) The dependent variable "turnover" has a positive correlation with the independent variable "unemployment". c) The independent variable "turnover" has a negative correlation with the dependent variable "unemployment". d) The dependent variable "turnover" has a negative correlation with the independent variable "unemployment".

Answer 480

d) The dependent variable "turnover" has a negative correlation with the independent variable "unemployment".

Question 481

The purpose of “managerial accounting”, as opposed to “financial accounting”, is to provide information that managers inside the organization can use to make decisions about current and future operations. Which of the following reports falls within the scope of managerial accounting? a) Sales Reports b) Statement of Financial Position c) Income Statement d) Cash Flow Statement

Answer 481

a) Sales Reports

Question 482

When building a metrics model based on the balanced scorecard, you would include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Financial metrics b) Customer metrics c) People metrics d) Environmental metrics

Answer 482

d) Environmental metrics

Question 483

Using historical data to forecast future outcomes is an example of: a) Trend analysis b) Utility analysis c) Scenario planning d) Regression analysis

Answer 483

a) Trend analysis

Question 484

The "service-profit chain" shows a relationship between: a) Net profit per customer served b) Customer satisfaction and customer retention c) Profitability and employee satisfaction d) Customer service and cost of service

Answer 484

c) Profitability and employee satisfaction

Question 485

Which of the following events would lead to an increase in an organization's average compa-ratio from one year to the next? a) Employees are being overpaid. b) Salary ranges were adjusted upward. c) Labour costs as a percentage of revenue has decreased. d) There was a layoff of employees based on seniority.

Answer 485

d) There was a layoff of employees based on seniority.

Question 486

Which of the following is a main focus of labour relations metrics? a) Incidence and duration of strikes b) Labour force participation rates c) Costs associated with collective agreement clauses d) Characteristics of grievances

Answer 486

d) Characteristics of grievances

Question 487

The effectiveness of training on employees is measured through: a) Number of dollars invested in training b) Participation rate of employees in training c) Number of hours of training provided per head count d) Change in performance following training

Answer 487

d) Change in performance following training

Question 488

The most common method of training is: a) On-the-job training b) Computer-based training c) Classroom workshops d) Self-directed learning

Answer 488

a) On-the-job training

Question 489

Which of the following would be an accurate calculation of absenteeism? a) Workdays missed / FTE b) Workdays missed / Headcount c) All paid time-off / Headcount d) (All paid time-off + all unpaid time-off) / FTE

Answer 489

a) Workdays missed / FTE

Question 490

When conducting HR research, the process begins with: a) Formulating a hypothesis b) Assessing the methods of analyzing the information c) Identifying a problem d) Examining best practices

Answer 490

c) Identifying a problem

Question 491

When conducting an employee survey, using a stratified sampling technique ensures that: a) Employees invited to participate are representative of the employees in the whole organization. b) Every employee has the opportunity to participate in the survey. c) Survey questions adequately cover the topics intended to be assessed. d) The survey is first administered as a pilot to test the validity of the questions.

Answer 491

a) Employees invited to participate are representative of the employees in the whole organization.

Question 492

Which of the following statements about surveys is false? a) On a survey, open-ended questions are easier to analyze as they express true opinions. b) On a survey, closed-ended questions are easier to analyze as they are standardized. c) On a survey, sampling error occurs if the access to the survey is flawed. d) Surveys are a good way to assess long-term trends.

Answer 492

a) On a survey, open-ended questions are easier to analyze as they express true opinions.

Question 493

When evaluating the effectiveness of a new sales training program, it is best to use which of the following approaches? a) Pre-test design b) Pre-test, post-test design c) Pre-test, control group, post-test design d) Post-test design

Answer 493

c) Pre-test, control group, post-test design

Question 494

All of the following is true about the implementation of HRIS's EXCEPT: a) They are transformational, changing the way HR processes are designed and executed. b) They have a positive impact on the HR department's operational efficiencies. c) They connect people with each other and are, therefore, relational in nature. d) They are most cost effective when they are fully customized to meet the needs of the organization.

Answer 494

d) They are most cost effective when they are fully customized to meet the needs of the organization.

Question 495

The main purpose of the financial accounting system of an organization is to: a) Ensure the effective delivery of internal accounting processes b) Provide forecasting information for making decisions about the future c) Prepare financial accounting reports for stakeholders d) Generate financial analyses comparing budgets with expenditures

Answer 495

c) Prepare financial accounting reports for stakeholders

Question 496

Unions seek greater participation in management decisions that involve such issues as productivity standards and job content because of concerns over: a) Job security b) Management rights c) Bargaining power d) Union security

Answer 496

b) Management rights

Question 497

Except those given expressly away in the collective agreement, which management-rights concept expresses management's authority on all issues? a) Acquired rights b) Deferred rights c) Agreed rights d) Residual rights

Answer 497

d) Residual rights

Question 498

Which of the following is NOT a union security provision? a) Agency shop b) Super seniority c) Union shop d) Dues check-off

Answer 498

b) Super seniority

Question 499

Mohammed believes that he has the "residual right" to introduce anything that is not addressed in the collective agreement. If the union wants to challenge his claim, it is likely based on which group of the following provisions in the collective agreement? a) The rights of parties b) The organization of work c) Labour relations process d) Working conditions

Answer 499

a) The rights of parties

Question 500

The union security clause in the collective agreement pertains to: a) Employees' seniority status based on years of service b) The rights of union employees to "bump" in the event of layoff c) The union's responsibility to represent all bargaining unit members d) Union membership and collection of dues

Answer 500

d) Union membership and collection of dues

Question 501

Typical grievance procedures include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Time limits for submission of initial grievance b) Specific procedures in the event of non-settlement of grievance c) Statements describing goals of the grievance process d) Specified remedies for different categories of grievances

Answer 501

d) Specified remedies for different categories of grievances

Question 502

Policy grievances are brought forward by: a) Union leadership b) A grieved employee c) Management when needing to change a policy d) A group of employees

Answer 502

a) Union leadership

Question 503

A wildcat strike is: a) An unplanned strike that occurs as a result of negotiation breakdown b) A strategy involving employees performing only the minimum standard required c) A sympathy strike by workers who won't cross a picket line d) An illegal strike during the term of the collective agreement

Answer 503

d) An illegal strike during the term of the collective agreement

Question 504

If an arbitrator is limited to adopting either the union's position or the management's position, it is most likely he or she is engaged in: a) A policy grievance b) Rights arbitration c) Expedited arbitration d) Final-offer arbitration

Answer 504

d) Final-offer arbitration

Question 505

One step in the bargaining process is to obtain authorization cards from employees. By signing these cards, employees are stating that: a) They wish to vote in the certification of a union. b) They are willing to be represented by the union. c) They are employees in the bargaining unit going through certification. mark d) They authorize the union to vote on their behalf in a certification vote.

Answer 505

b) They are willing to be represented by the union.

Question 506

Which of the following statements is false about labour relations boards? a) They are bipartite in nature, consisting of union and management representation. b) Their purpose is to provide a faster alternative to the court process. c) They oversee the certification and decertification of unions. d) They make declarations of illegal strikes or lockouts.

Answer 506

a) They are bipartite in nature, consisting of union and management representation.

Question 507

All of the following would be considered as unfair labour practices EXCEPT: a) An employer inquiring employees if they signed a union card b) A union advising members to walk off the job during the term of a collective agreement c) A union representative meeting with employees secretly on company premises during a certification drive d) An employer locking-out employees following the expiration of the collective agreement but during negotiations

Answer 507

d) An employer locking-out employees following the expiration of the collective agreement but during negotiations

Question 508

An application for decertification must be made to: a) The union b) The employer c) The ministry of labour d) The labour relations board

Answer 508

d) The labour relations board

Question 509

The term "community of interest" is used when: a) Determining an occupation classification for job evaluation b) Creating a cross-functional process improvement team c) Determining the bargaining unit within an organization d) Establishing corporate social responsibility policies

Answer 509

c) Determining the bargaining unit within an organization

Question 510

Employers can engage in which of the following actions during a union certification drive? a) Make a case that the employees have a right to not join the union b) Make a promise to enhance benefits or working conditions c) Express uncertainty to continue operations d) Ask individual employees about their views of unionization

Answer 510

a) Make a case that the employees have a right to not join the union

Question 511

Which of the following describes an interest-based bargaining strategy? a) An approach that pushes hard to achieve self-interest b) An approach that leads to a win-lose outcome c) An approach that results in giving something up that was negotiated previously d) An approach that uses problem-solving to achieve a win-win outcome

Answer 511

d) An approach that uses problem-solving to achieve a win-win outcome

Question 512

Which of the following statements is false about dispute resolutions? a) Arbitration leads to binding decisions. b) Interest arbitration is used to settle employee grievances. c) Conciliation is a voluntary process leading to non-binding decisions. d) The process of med-arb uses a mediator as an arbitrator.

Answer 512

b) Interest arbitration is used to settle employee grievances.

Question 513

When parties to a collective bargaining negotiations inflate their issues, they are using: a) An integrative bargaining approach b) A distributive bargaining approach c) An interest-based bargaining approach d) A concessionary bargaining approach

Answer 513

b) A distributive bargaining approach

Question 514

Which form of union security allows only union members to be hired? a) Closed shop b) Union Shop c) Dues shop d) Rand shop

Answer 514

a) Closed shop

Question 515

Which of the following is true about union density and union coverage? a) Union density illustrates the percentage of workplaces that are unionized in Canada. b) Union coverage refers to the number of workers with signed union membership in Canada c) More workers fall under the definition of union coverage than union density. d) Union coverage measures whether the growth in union membership has kept pace with the growth in the labour force.

Answer 515

c) More workers fall under the definition of union coverage than union density.

Question 516

Management recently purchased a new machine that requires only three workers instead of four to complete the same task. The union filed a grievance with the labour relations board. Prior to making her decision, the arbitrator will consider all of the following EXCEPT: a) Management rights clauses b) Employment rights/security clauses c) Organization of work clauses d) Union security clauses

Answer 516

d) Union security clauses

Question 517

The purpose of the Rand formula is to: a) Ensure no salary compression between management and non-management employees b) Provide employees with choice about joining their company union c) Quantify the return on investment of qualitative programs d) The formula for calculating industry classification when determining workers' compensation premiums

Answer 517

b) Provide employees with choice about joining their company union

Question 518

Each of the following is a distinct type of grievance EXCEPT a) Policy grievance b) Individual grievance c) Group grievance d) Process grievance

Answer 518

d) Process grievance

Question 519

After an analysis of all your HR metrics, you have come to the conclusion that the transfer climate within your organization needs to be improved. Which of the following initiatives will help to improve the transfer climate? a) Update your succession planning program b) Introduce a program for job rotation c) Give priority to internal applicants when filling positions d) Introduce performance contracts between employees and managers

Answer 519

d) Introduce performance contracts between employees and managers

Question 520

Which of the following is NOT one of the five disciplines to becoming a learning organization? a) Working with mental models b) Adopting team learning c) Engaging in systems thinking d) Recognizing outstanding performers

Answer 520

d) Recognizing outstanding performers

Question 521

Which of the following helps to evaluate the impact of training and provide information for further needs assessment? a) Benchmarking and utility analysis b) Reaction and learning assessments c) Transfer climate assessments and time-series evaluations d) Pre- and post- training employee surveys

Answer 521

a) Benchmarking and utility analysis

Question 522

In order to strengthen training transfer, what might the curriculum designer insert within the workshop? a) Booster sessions b) Upward feedback c) Relapse prevention exercises d) Formative evaluation exercises

Answer 522

c) Relapse prevention exercises

Question 523

Cheryl, a trainer for a medium-sized computer software company, has just delivered a workshop on advanced troubleshooting techniques. She is delivering it again to another group of staff and is concerned about the effectiveness of some of the break-out sessions. Cheryl would be wise to: a) Deliver the same program to ensure consistency of materials across multiple sessions b) Assess the reaction evaluation results to identify areas for improvement c) Assess the behaviour level evaluation results to identify areas for improvement d) Augment the program with booster sessions to improve training transfer

Answer 523

c) Assess the behaviour level evaluation results to identify areas for improvement

Question 524

The metrics that are commonly used when evaluating training are: a) Participant reactions; # of employees trained; resulting change in behaviour; # of training programs delivered b) Training cost/benefit; participant acquisition of knowledge; results arising from the training; resulting change in behaviour c) Cost of the training; frequency of the training; positive test results following the training; # of employees trained d) Participant reactions; results arising from the training; cost of the training; the organization's training climate

Answer 524

b) Training cost/benefit; participant acquisition of knowledge; results arising from the training; resulting change in behaviour

Question 525

At the end of a one-day training session, which is the highest level of evaluation that can take place? a) Behaviour b) Learning c) Results d) Reaction

Answer 525

b) Learning

Question 526

Which of the following would NOT be used to evaluate a health and safety training program? a) Single group, pre-post design b) Pre-post design with control group c) Post-only design d) Time-series design

Answer 526

b) Pre-post design with control group

Question 527

In order to evaluate a recent training program implemented in your organization, it has been recommended that you use a time-series design for collecting the necessary information. As a result of collecting this information, what level of evaluation will be achieved? a) Assimilation b) Behaviour c) Results d) Reaction

Answer 527

b) Behaviour

Question 528

When validating a training program, a control group is a group of employees who: a) Receive extra training b) Do not receive the training c) Receive the same training d) Receive different training

Answer 528

b) Do not receive the training

Question 529

When training programs require an evaluation process to assess knowledge transfer, transfer of learning, participant motivation to learn, and participant confidence in using the new skills, which of the following evaluation techniques should be used? a) COMA model b) Pre-test, post-test control group methodology c) Internal referencing strategy d) Kirkpatrick’s hierarchical model

Answer 529

a) COMA model

Question 530

Which of the following is an advantage of distributed learning? a) It allows for tasks to be broken down so that learning can happen one step at a time. b) It results in faster learning and longer retention because the training is spaced out over time. c) It engages a process of active participation and repetition so that behaviours can become second nature. d) It ensures that individuals’ differences and learning styles are taken into consideration when designing the training.

Answer 530

b) It results in faster learning and longer retention because the training is spaced out over time.

Question 531

As part of your management development program, managers work in teams to carry out special projects for the purpose of enhancing their judgment and problem-solving skills. What type of knowledge are they gaining by doing this? a) Explicit knowledge b) Declarative knowledge c) Tacit knowledge d) Procedural knowledge

Answer 531

c) Tacit knowledge

Question 532

Which of the following types of learners will appreciate a workshop that includes the provision of theoretical content and discussion, followed by a documentary illustrating the application of the theory? a) Assimilating learners b) Accommodating learners c) Diverging learners d) Converging learners

Answer 532

a) Assimilating learners

Question 533

Which of the following is NOT typical of adult learning? a) Learners like to know why they are learning. b) Learners should have inputs into the needs assessment. c) Learners can learn independently. d) Learners prefer subject-centred learning.

Answer 533

d) Learners prefer subject-centred learning.

Question 534

Which of the following statements is false about declarative and procedural knowledge? a) Cooperative education programs support procedural knowledge. b) Vestibule training is an excellent way to strengthen procedural knowledge. c) Lecture is an excellent way to strengthen declarative knowledge. d) Declarative knowledge involves abstract conceptualization and reflective observation.

Answer 534

d) Declarative knowledge involves abstract conceptualization and reflective observation.

Question 535

Learners who like to think about what they've learned and then apply it though experimentation are: a) Convergent learner b) Divergent learner c) Assimilation learner d) Accommodative learner

Answer 535

a) Convergent learner

Question 536

A workshop that involves the presentation and discussion of theory followed by a video illustrating the theory will appeal to what type of learner? a) Assimilation learner b) Convergent learner c) Accommodative learner d) Divergent learner

Answer 536

a) Assimilation learner

Question 537

At the end of the first day of a sales training seminar, a representative is able to list the five steps in the selling skills model. This is evidence of which level of learning? a) Procedural knowledge b) Tacit knowledge c) Declarative knowledge d) Kinesthetic knowledge

Answer 537

c) Declarative knowledge

Question 538

If a negotiation workshop included lecture, a role-play exercise involving participants negotiating with a customer about price, and a second role-play exercise involving participants negotiating with a colleague about work process, this would be an example of: a) Chaining b) Generalization c) Conditioning d) Shaping

Answer 538

b) Generalization

Question 539

It’s been two weeks since the employees in the shipping department attended the training on how to use the new shipping computer system. The transfer of knowledge has been good, and finally they are using it without hesitation. Which of the following best describes this final stage of learning? a) Declarative knowledge b) Knowledge compilation c) Socratic knowledge d) Procedural knowledge

Answer 539

d) Procedural knowledge

Question 540

When a trainer conducts needs analysis and is able to determine what a trainee already knows, what has the trainer established? a) Learning objectives b) Base-line performance c) Formative evaluation criteria d) Time-series evaluation design

Answer 540

b) Base-line performance

Question 541

A training needs analysis serves all of the following purposes EXCEPT: a) The identification of root causes for a performance problem b) The identification of measures for training evaluation c) The determination of whether training is a good solution d) The determination of training content

Answer 541

d) The determination of training content

Question 542

The organization structure that is most likely to lead to some conflict is: a) Functional departmentalization b) Customer departmentalization c) Geographic departmentalization d) Matrix departmentalization

Answer 542

d) Matrix departmentalization

Question 543

Research indicates that all of the following are associated with leadership effectiveness EXCEPT: a) Motivation to lead b) Honesty and integrity c) Need for achievement d) Functional expertise

Answer 543

d) Functional expertise

Question 544

The notion that effective leadership is dependent on the relationship that develops between a leader and an employee is known as: a) Situational leadership theory b) Contingency theory c) Leader-member exchange theory d) Transactional leadership theory

Answer 544

c) Leader-member exchange theory

Question 545

Servant leadership involves all of the following behaviours EXCEPT: a) Focuses on service rather than control or self-interest b) Seeks the contributions of others c) Ensures people know what is expected of them d) Engages in a straight forward exchange using a participatory style

Answer 545

d) Engages in a straight forward exchange using a participatory style

Question 546

The leadership style preferred by Generation X is: a) Motivational, collaborative, and able to coach b) Direct, competent, and supportive of learning opportunities c) Treat employees as equals, purposeful, with a democratic approach d) Fair, consistent, direct, and respectful

Answer 546

b) Direct, competent, and supportive of learning opportunities

Question 547

Which of the following statements describes the advantages of the critical incident method of job analysis? a) It identifies the importance and frequency of job tasks. b) It is most effective for organizations working in a dynamic environment. c) It results in the analysis focusing on behaviours vs tasks. d) The results are quantifiable and can be subjected to statistical analysis.

Answer 547

c) It results in the analysis focusing on behaviours vs tasks.

Question 548

A person's cultural context impacts effective communication. Which of the following is false about communicating with individuals from high-context cultures? a) People from high-context cultures need to know great detail about the company. b) People from high-context cultures want you to get to the point quickly. c) People from high-context cultures give careful consideration to age and rank when communicating. d) People from high-context cultures rely more on nonverbal elements in communication.

Answer 548

b) People from high-context cultures want you to get to the point quickly.

Question 549

All of the following are symptoms of groupthink EXCEPT: a) Self-censorship b) Illusion of unanimity c) Process conflict d) Stereotypes of outsiders

Answer 549

c) Process conflict

Question 550

Which of the following is NOT indicative of group conflict? a) Each side becomes more cohesive. b) Contact with the opposite side is discouraged. c) The parties begin to conceal information. d) Individuals are integrative in their negotiations.

Answer 550

d) Individuals are integrative in their negotiations.

Question 551

When communicating with men and women, it is important to know that: a) Men are more likely to ask questions than women. b) Women spend more time communicating their achievements with their superiors. c) Women are more likely to be indirect when giving orders. d) Women tend to be more direct when asked for critical feedback.

Answer 551

c) Women are more likely to be indirect when giving orders.

Question 552

__________ is concerned with layers of authority, while __________ is concerned with the organization of tasks. a) Task significance; task identity b) Vertical division of labour, horizontal division of labour c) Hierarchical organization structure; matrix departmentalization d) Command and control management style; delegation

Answer 552

b) Vertical division of labour, horizontal division of labour

Question 553

Which of the following statements is false about "span of control"? a) The larger the span, the less potential there is for direct supervision. b) Processes are a substitute for supervision when there is a large span of control. c) Spans of control at higher occupational levels are larger than at the lower levels. d) Spans of control are smaller when the work is more complex.

Answer 553

c) Spans of control at higher occupational levels are larger than at the lower levels.

Question 554

An organization that can simultaneously engage in innovation by exploring emerging opportunities while getting things done according to plan by exploiting current competencies is known as: a) A boundaryless organization b) A matrix organization c) A networked organization d) An ambidextrous organization

Answer 554

d) An ambidextrous organization

Question 555

Which of the following was NOT identified as one of the four pillars of a learning organization by the Conference Board of Canada? a) A clear vision of the organization's mission, vision and goals b) Expectations that employees manage their own learning and development c) Systems are in place to acquire and distribute important information d) A shared believe that learning is important so that risks don't have to be taken

Answer 555

d) A shared believe that learning is important so that risks don't have to be taken

Question 556

An approach to job design that is congruent with cultures that support a high level of collectivism and high level of power distance is: a) Job characteristics model b) Socio-technical systems c) Quality control circles d) Scientific management

Answer 556

c) Quality control circles

Question 557

According to equity theory, employees can feel that they have been inequitably treated because of: a) Distorted views of inputs and outputs b) A clash in values with their supervisor c) Unrealistic expectations d) Personal temperament

Answer 557

a) Distorted views of inputs and outputs

Question 558

What aspects of an organization do managers focus on when introducing organizational change? a) People, technology, structure b) Employee motivation, reward systems, performance goals c) Labour environment, financial environment, operational environment d) Time, resources, cost

Answer 558

a) People, technology, structure

Question 559

Which of the following is false when comparing organic and mechanistic organization structures? a) Organic structures have less specialization than mechanistic structures. b) The specificity of job goals is lower in mechanistic structures. c) Organic structures have wider spans of control than mechanistic structures. d) Mechanistic structures tend to be taller than organic structures.

Answer 559

b) The specificity of job goals is lower in mechanistic structures.

Question 560

According to Lewin, which of the following is the objective of refreezing? a) To direct behaviour away from the status quo b) To eliminate the need for future change c) To stabilize the new situation d) To increase employee support for the change

Answer 560

c) To stabilize the new situation

Question 561

Increasing loyalty and shared pride that employees feel toward their organization is a sign of: a) In-group collectivism b) Intergroup development c) Attitudinal attenuation d) Employee socialization

Answer 561

a) In-group collectivism

Question 562

The impact of an HR program on overall customer satisfaction is: a) An operational metric b) A strategic metric c) A quality metric d) A performance metric

Answer 562

b) A strategic metric

Question 563

Which of the following statements is true about organization behaviour? a) Adopting a homogeneous behaviour for all company locations results in greater company affiliation. b) North American organizational behaviour theories do not translate well to other societies. c) People of all cultures have the same underlying beliefs about leadership and authority. d) All cultures recognize the importance of giving workers independence to achieve.

Answer 563

b) North American organizational behaviour theories do not translate well to other societies.

Question 564

When individuals feel they have received respectful and informative communication about their organization's performance, this is referred to as: a) Procedural fairness b) Distributive fairness c) Communicative fairness d) Interactional fairness

Answer 564

d) Interactional fairness

Question 565

As a result of the organization paying for Bob's son's university tuition, Bob now feels obligated to stay with the organization. This is an example of: a) Organizational commitment b) Affective commitment c) Continuance commitment d) Normative commitment

Answer 565

d) Normative commitment

Question 566

Alderfer's ERG motivational theory streamlines Maslow's hierarchy into three categories. Which of the following is NOT one of those categories? a) Relatedness needs b) Spiritual needs c) Existence needs d) Growth needs

Answer 566

b) Spiritual needs

Question 567

Employee socialization is an important activity that will support employee engagement. Which of the following statements is true about socialization? a) Employee socialization begins with the interview process and ends with employee orientation. b) Institutionalized socialization involves more formal programs than individualized socialization. c) Individualized socialization leads to greater organizational loyalty. d) Organizations are best served by adopting either an institutional or an individualized approach.

Answer 567

b) Institutionalized socialization involves more formal programs than individualized socialization.

Question 568

The path-goal leadership theory is concerned with which of the following four kinds of leader behaviour? a) Telling behaviour, selling behaviour, coaching behaviour, rewarding behaviour b) Strategic behaviour, operational behaviour, short-term behaviour, long-term behaviour c) Goal setting behaviour, organizing behaviour, controlling behaviour, and evaluating behaviour d) Directive behaviour, supportive behaviour, participative behaviour, achievement-oriented behaviour

Answer 568

d) Directive behaviour, supportive behaviour, participative behaviour, achievement-oriented behaviour

Question 569

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of participative leadership? a) Employees might not be receptive to participative leadership. b) Some leaders believe it reduces their power and influence. c) It can result in employees solving problems without checking with their boss. d) It is not suitable to situations that require quick decisions.

Answer 569

c) It can result in employees solving problems without checking with their boss.

Question 570

When an employee's supervisor treats them with respect and generosity, they are more likely to respond in the same way. This is referred to as: a) Leader-member exchange theory b) Social exchange theory c) Behavioural reinforcement theory d) Employee engagement theory

Answer 570

b) Social exchange theory

Question 571

Which of the following job analysis methods is accommodating to organizations where the way work is performed is constantly changing? a) Competency-based analysis b) Task inventory analysis c) Critical incident analysis d) Position analysis questionnaire

Answer 571

a) Competency-based analysis

Question 572

The leadership style preferred by Baby Boomers is: a) Motivational, collaborative, and able to coach b) Direct, competent, and supportive of learning opportunities c) Treat employees as equals, purposeful, with a democratic approach d) Fair, consistent, direct, and respectful

Answer 572

c) Treat employees as equals, purposeful, with a democratic approach

Question 573

When an organization competes by adding value, what strategy has it adopted? a) Low-cost provider strategy b) Differentiation strategy c) Diversification strategy d) Market niche strategy

Answer 573

b) Differentiation strategy

Question 574

A strategic plan that changes incrementally in response to environmental changes is referred to as: a) An emergent strategy b) An intended strategy c) A transformational strategy d) A transactional strategy

Answer 574

a) An emergent strategy

Question 575

When ABC Company realized its profits with one product were down, they decided to discontinue that product. This is referred to as: a) Liquidation strategy b) Divestiture strategy c) Turnaround strategy d) Re-engineering strategy

Answer 575

c) Turnaround strategy

Question 576

Business strategies are concerned about all of the following questions EXCEPT: a) How should we compete? b) What customer markets should we target? c) What business should we be in? d) What are our competitors doing?

Answer 576

c) What business should we be in?

Question 577

When a call centre uses a balance scorecard for mapping performance and strategy, an increase in customer response times would appear in what quadrant? a) Financial quadrant b) Customer quadrant c) Internal processes quadrant d) Learning and growth quadrant

Answer 577

c) Internal processes quadrant

Question 578

Which of the following statements would be true if an organization's competitive advantage was dependent on innovation, and the reward systems discouraged risk taking? a) There is no horizontal fit between HR programs and the company's strategy. b) There is no vertical fit between HR programs and the company's strategy. c) There is no interdependence between strategy and rewards. d) HR programs offset the inherent strategic risks

Answer 578

b) There is no vertical fit between HR programs and the company's strategy.

Question 579

Responding strategically to the marketplace may include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Implementing a six sigma program b) Undergoing a re-engineering of operations c) Re-instilling the strategies that have resulted in the organization's success d) Adopting a change management approach

Answer 579

c) Re-instilling the strategies that have resulted in the organization's success

Question 580

Globalization has resulted in more manufacturing jobs leaving North America. Up until 2015, the fastest growing economy that was absorbing these jobs was: a) Germany b) India c) China d) Brazil

Answer 580

c) China

Question 581

With the advancement of technology, the occupational sector that will continue to see the most employment growth is: a) Industrial sector b) Service sector c) Natural resource sector d) Manufacturing sector

Answer 581

b) Service sector

Question 582

Which of the following statements is true about the global challenges facing organizations? a) Approximately 30% of the Canadian economy today is affected by international competition. b) Free trade agreements have led to recession in some countries and an overall slowing of production globally. c) Increased globalization has led to a reduction in the quality of life for developing countries. d) Organizations are reluctant to open facilities in some countries due to bribery and corruption.

Answer 582

d) Organizations are reluctant to open facilities in some countries due to bribery and corruption.

Question 583

Advanced technology has shifted the Canadian workforce from: a) Touch labour to knowledge workers b) White collar workers to pink collar workers c) Operational focus to strategic focus d) Service sector to resource sector

Answer 583

a) Touch labour to knowledge workers

Question 584

Moving jobs from China to Mexico is an example of: a) Offshoring b) Nearshoring c) Outsourcing d) Employee leasing

Answer 584

b) Nearshoring

Question 585

Which of the following is among the most significant challenges facing HR practitioners today? a) Bullying in the workplace b) Shifts in the value of currency c) Demographic changes in the workforce d) Compliance with evolving common-law precedents

Answer 585

c) Demographic changes in the workforce

Question 586

The millennial generation have good technical know-how and are interested in meaningful work. They are also known as: a) The echo boom generation b) The X generation c) The Y generation d) The Z generation

Answer 586

c) The Y generation

Question 587

Which of the following statements is false about Canada's labour force? a) The majority of university graduates are women. b) There is a growing shortage of "certified" workers like mechanics. c) The skills gap between the educated an uneducated is shrinking. d) The degree of diversity in the labour force is increasing.

Answer 587

c) The skills gap between the educated an uneducated is shrinking.

Question 588

HR managers may play all of the following roles EXCEPT: a) Chief ethics officer b) HR policy creator c) HR service provider d) HR strategy owner

Answer 588

d) HR strategy owner

Question 589

Which of the following describes an organization with several subsidiaries operating independently in multiple countries? a) Global b) International c) Transnational d) Multidomestic

Answer 589

d) Multidomestic

Question 590

Which of the following statements is false about appraising performance in foreign countries? a) Evaluating the performance of a manager in a foreign country can be challenging due to cultural differences. b) Superiors in host and foreign countries often have different views on what constitutes good performance. c) Performance appraisals for expatriates should only be based on host country expectations. d) Domestic managers are often unable to understand and appreciate expatriate performance.

Answer 590

c) Performance appraisals for expatriates should only be based on host country expectations.

Question 591

Which of the following statements is false about international labour relations? a) In developing countries, government representatives are often present during collective bargaining. b) Compared to developed countries, developing countries focus more on wages vs working conditions during bargaining. c) In Germany, labour representation on boards of directors is mandated by law. d) In the United Kingdom, the government's role in collective bargaining is similar to that found in North America.

Answer 591

d) In the United Kingdom, the government's role in collective bargaining is similar to that found in North America.

Question 592

Through the process of environmental scanning, the HR professionals can engage in all of the following EXCEPT: a) Evaluating their organization's performance against their strategic plan b) Monitor economic indicators that may impact sales and profits c) Identify early signals of changes in employment standards legislation d) Assess the impact of social media on recruitment and the probability of it impacting the quality of hires

Answer 592

a) Evaluating their organization's performance against their strategic plan

Question 593

Which of the following describes a horizontal fit? a) Teamwork is reinforced through recruitment and promotions. b) The organization's value of customer service is used when screening candidates. c) There is alignment across departments when it comes to distributing rewards. d) The organization structure and management style are aligned.

Answer 593

a) Teamwork is reinforced through recruitment and promotions.

Question 594

Which of the following statements is false about business and corporate strategy? a) An organization can have multiple business strategies. b) Corporate strategy is concerned about the long-term success of the organization. c) Business strategy examines the best way to compete in a line of business. d) Corporate strategy establishes the operational performance targets.

Answer 594

d) Corporate strategy establishes the operational performance targets.

Question 595

Which of the following is NOT a "whole-job" method of job evaluation? a) Classification/grading method b) Factor comparison method c) Pair comparison method d) Job ranking method

Answer 595

b) Factor comparison method

Question 596

The two principal criteria for determining/selecting the best candidates for promotions are: a) Seniority and salary b) Knowledge and skills c) Seniority and knowledge d) Merit and seniority

Answer 596

b) Knowledge and skills

Question 597

The concept of broadbanding was developed to: a) Increase the homogeneity of wages b) Increase wage control with a more structured pay scale c) Increase flexibility and reduce the number of pay ranges d) Increase the number of pay ranges for greater job level differentiation

Answer 597

c) Increase flexibility and reduce the number of pay ranges

Question 598

Which of the following statements about third-party surveys is false? a) Third-party compensation surveys provide easy access to data. b) An advantage of participating in third-party compensation surveys is cost. c) Third-party compensation surveys provide good data for unique positions. d) The aggregation of data in third-party surveys makes it difficult to separate out specific industry comparators.

Answer 598

c) Third-party compensation surveys provide good data for unique positions.

Question 599

Maria's salary is $45,000 per year. The minimum of the salary range is $30,000; the midpoint is $47,000; and the maximum is $52,000. Maria's compa-ratio is: a) 0.67 b) 0.96 c) 0.57 d) 1.05

Answer 599

b) 0.96

Question 600

__________ is an example of how a company combines seniority and performance in determining pay increases. a) Pay rate b) Compa-ratio c) Pay grade d) Split pay range

Answer 600

d) Split pay range

Question 601

Which of the following would most likely result in the average compa-ratio for the finance department to go down? a) Expand the department and hire 10 new people b) Provide increases to employees in other departments but not to employees in the finance department c) Implement an employee layoff based on seniority d) Provide all employees with a salary adjustment equivalent to the scale adjustment

Answer 601

a) Expand the department and hire 10 new people

Question 602

Which of the following evaluation methods would NOT be perceived by employees as ensuring procedural justice? a) A valid performance evaluation plan b) A valid job evaluation plan c) A valid hybrid-compensation plan d) A valid merit pay system

Answer 602

c) A valid hybrid-compensation plan

Question 603

When determining whether commission is an appropriate reward for a given job, all of the following are considered EXCEPT: a) Value of the product being sold b) The salesperson's degree of independence c) The length of the sales cycle d) The degree of persuasive skills required

Answer 603

a) Value of the product being sold

Question 604

When conducting a compensation survey, the first two steps are: a) List the job titles to be surveyed; source surveys with the same job titles b) Identify the geographic regions to be included; establish a pay philosophy to guide market matching c) Review the currency of the survey data; select the survey vendor d) Identify the jobs to be surveyed; identify the information to be collected

Answer 604

d) Identify the jobs to be surveyed; identify the information to be collected

Question 605

An example of a psychological contract violation would be: a) Harassing behaviour towards an employee by a colleague b) Not paying a merit bonus that was promised when performance warranted it c) Not providing a displaced employee with sufficient notice or pay in lieu d) Employee dissatisfaction as a result of their relationship with their supervisor

Answer 605

b) Not paying a merit bonus that was promised when performance warranted it

Question 606

Intrinsic rewards do not arise from: a) A generous benefit package b) Job enrichment c) A delegation of authority d) Temporary acting assignments

Answer 606

a) A generous benefit package

Question 607

When creating a compensation strategy, one would consider all of the following EXCEPT: a) Establishing a competitive market target b) Determining the mix of compensation c) Identifying desired employee behaviour d) Assessing employee performance

Answer 607

d) Assessing employee performance

Question 608

When an organization sets different compensation philosophies for its professional and administrative staff, this is known as: a) A hybrid pay plan b) A split pay plan c) A mixed pay plan d) A two-tiered pay plan

Answer 608

a) A hybrid pay plan

Question 609

When creating your compensation strategy, the first thing that is necessary is to: a) Assess your organization's current practices relative to the marketplace b) Identify the legal constraints that govern your compensation practices c) Ensure that job descriptions are up-to-date for competitiveness comparison purposes d) Understand your organization's strategy and the work it oversees

Answer 609

d) Understand your organization's strategy and the work it oversees

Question 610

An organization's reward system includes: a) Salary, performance pay, and all other forms of direct compensation b) All forms of direct and indirect compensation c) The mix of monetary and non-monetary rewards d) The blend of intrinsic and extrinsic rewards employees receive

Answer 610

d) The blend of intrinsic and extrinsic rewards employees receive

Question 611

Which of the following is false about merit pay? a) Merit pay can result in a raise in salary. b) Merit pay can result in a bonus. c) Merit bonuses support the concept of distributive justice. d) Employers can be more generous when giving merit bonus vs raises.

Answer 611

c) Merit bonuses support the concept of distributive justice.

Question 612

When organizations use a "forced distribution", they are doing so to: a) Analyze the results of the employee survey b) Ensure multiple methods of attracting candidates c) Ensure employees in the same work shift share overtime hours d) Distribute a pay-for-performance bonus pool

Answer 612

d) Distribute a pay-for-performance bonus pool

Question 613

The method of job evaluation that combines elements of factor comparison and point factor methods is referred to as: a) Job ranking method b) Whole job grading method c) Profile Method d) Job classification method

Answer 613

c) Profile Method

Question 614

Which of the following statements about compa-ratio is false? a) It is possible for an individual's compa-ratio to go up when he or she gets a pay raise. b) It is possible for payroll costs to go down but the average compa-ratio for the company to go up. c) The average compa-ratio for a department with long-term employees will likely go up with retirements. d) When a pay scale increases more than salary increases, compa-ratio will go down.

Answer 614

c) The average compa-ratio for a department with long-term employees will likely go up with retirements.

Question 615

Which of the following statements about executive pay is false? a) The nature of executive pay can reduce the performance of other employees. b) Bonuses link executives to the long-term success of the company. c) Stock options link executives to shareholder value. d) Executive pay signals what the organization values

Answer 615

b) Bonuses link executives to the long-term success of the company.

Question 616

What type of benefit plan provides all employees with the same benefits with the option of adding additional coverage? a) Flexible benefit plan b) Semi-flexible benefit plan c) Cafeteria style benefit plan d) Health spending account plan

Answer 616

b) Semi-flexible benefit plan

Question 617

Procedural justice occurs when: a) Employees trust the job evaluation plan. b) Employees are happy with the size of their bonus. c) Employees believe their pay is fair. d) Employees believe their pay is competitive.

Answer 617

a) Employees trust the job evaluation plan.

Question 618

Which of the following statements about selection errors is true? a) Managers are more aware of false positives than false negatives. b) False negatives result in higher performance evaluation ratings than expected. c) Managers would rather experience false positives than false negatives. d) False positives occur when employee performance influences job evaluation scores.

Answer 618

a) Managers are more aware of false positives than false negatives.

Question 619

__________ interviews appear to be best suited to the selection of candidates who have had prior work experience or engaged in relevant voluntary activities or hobbies. a) Unstructured b) Serial c) Situational d) Behavioural

Answer 619

d) Behavioural

Question 620

When the selection rate for a protected group is lower than that for the relevant comparison group, this is referred to as: a) Direct discrimination b) Indirect discrimination c) Systemic discrimination d) Adverse impact

Answer 620

d) Adverse impact

Question 621

During an employment interview, a candidate is asked the question "Describe a time when you had to terminate an employee." This is an example of what type of interview question? a) Situational specific b) Serial descriptive c) Behavioural descriptive d) Combination

Answer 621

c) Behavioural descriptive

Question 622

A candidate is asked "How would you motivate an unmotivated employee?" in an interview. What type of interview question is this? a) Behavioural b) Semi-structured c) Situational d) Reflective

Answer 622

c) Situational

Question 623

__________ is the process of examining the methods employed to do a job and the time it takes to complete a task. a) Job analysis b) Industrial engineering c) Job factoring d) Productivity scanning

Answer 623

b) Industrial engineering

Question 624

A succession planning strategy could include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Long-term service awards b) Internal transfers c) External secondments d) Replacement charts

Answer 624

a) Long-term service awards

Question 625

If an organization must quickly implement a permanent downsizing, what method should it use? a) Attrition b) Work sharing c) Furloughing d) Lay offs

Answer 625

d) Lay offs

Question 626

The advantage of dual career paths within an organization is that: a) They allow individuals to advance in their field without having to go into management. b) They provide individuals who would otherwise be downsized with the opportunity to retrain into another position. c) They facilitate employee relocation as a result of also employing the employee's spouse. d) They allow employees to pursue two careers simultaneously, working part-time in each role,

Answer 626

a) They allow individuals to advance in their field without having to go into management.

Question 627

What recruitment scoring method involves rating candidates separately on their interviews, qualifications, and reference checks and adding the scores together for a final score? a) Trait rating approach b) Judgmental composite c) Statistical composite d) Pure statistical approach

Answer 627

a) Trait rating approach

Question 628

Which of the following statements is false about various career management models? a) Holland's self-directed search involves six career preferences: realistic, investigative, conventional, artistic, enterprising, and social. b) Schein's career anchors suggest that individuals fall into five career disciplines: technical/functional, managerial, creativity, autonomy, security. c) Super's three-stage career cycle consists of growth, exploration, and maintenance. d) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator includes sixteen different personality types organized across four dimensions.

Answer 628

c) Super's three-stage career cycle consists of growth, exploration, and maintenance.

Question 629

When it is necessary to cover the travel costs of candidates to a second interview, which of the following assessment models should be used? a) Multiple cutoff model b) Multiple hurdle model c) Multiple regression model d) Profile matching model

Answer 629

b) Multiple hurdle model

Question 630

Realistic job previews are used in what HR process? a) Job evaluation b) Recruitment c) Compensation d) Performance evaluation

Answer 630

b) Recruitment

Question 631

Which of the following job analysis methods focuses on assessing the behaviours involved in performing a job? a) A work-oriented job analysis method b) A worker-oriented job analysis method c) The task-inventory job analysis method d) The functional job analysis method

Answer 631

b) A worker-oriented job analysis method

Question 632

What type of tests measures a candidate's dexterity, hand-eye coordination, arm-hand steadiness? a) Skills test b) Cognitive test c) Physical abilities d) Psychomotor test

Answer 632

d) Psychomotor test

Question 633

Goals are most motivational when they are: a) Shared by the team and short-term in nature b) Challenging and feedback on progress is provided c) Accompanied by specific process instructions and immediate rewards d) Broad and with direct impact on organizational success

Answer 633

b) Challenging and feedback on progress is provided

Question 634

Freedom from criterion deficiency of performance evaluations refers to: a) The degree to which performance standards outside the employee's control impact performance b) The degree to which the evaluation tool predicts consistent ratings over time c) The degree to which performance standards represent the employee's whole job d) The absence of performance criteria that are unmeasurable

Answer 634

c) The degree to which performance standards represent the employee's whole job

Question 635

Which of the following is an effective means of forecasting labour requirements? a) Nominal group technique b) Vacancy model c) Markov model d) Linear programming

Answer 635

a) Nominal group technique

Question 636

Which of the following concepts is based on job applicants interpreting their recruitment experiences as cues about unknown characteristics of the organization? a) Realistic job preview b) Signalling theory c) Employment branding d) Employee referral programs

Answer 636

b) Signalling theory

Question 637

Interviewers are experiencing __________ when they allow the attributes of the last candidate interviewed to impact their views of the next candidate to be interviewed. a) Contrast Error b) Recency Error c) Attribution Error d) First Impression Error

Answer 637

a) Contrast Error

Question 638

Managers who have emotional intelligence exhibit all of the following interrelated skills EXCEPT: a) Expressing their emotions freely to strengthen clarity of communication b) Using emotions to influence others' thinking and decision making c) Anticipating the emotional consequences of various situations d) Perceiving emotions accurately in themselves and others

Answer 638

a) Expressing their emotions freely to strengthen clarity of communication

Question 639

As part of your organization's performance management system, it has been decided that everyone should have one goal that requires the collaboration of others. Which of the following statements is true about this situation? a) To evaluate performance, a 360 degree approach is required. b) This reflects a management by objectives approach. c) A joint goal that requires collaboration is a superordinate goal. d) Individual contribution to the goal is not possible to assess.

Answer 639

c) A joint goal that requires collaboration is a superordinate goal.

Question 640

Applicants who look for and find employment through a referral by a current employee tend to: a) Remain longer with the organization b) Perform at higher rates c) Are more likely to be hired d) Are often under qualified

Answer 640

a) Remain longer with the organization

Question 641

In recruiting a new supervisor for its manufacturing plant, the manager explained to potential candidates that there was a lot of stress on the job due to the pressures to produce on time and on budget. What type of recruiting techniques is the manager using? a) Traditional job preview b) Realistic job preview c) Structured interview d) Stress interview

Answer 641

b) Realistic job preview

Question 642

An employee whose promotions have leveled off and who will now have to leave the organization to find new opportunities and challenges is at the __________ plateau. a) Content b) Structural c) Life d) Career

Answer 642

b) Structural

Question 643

All of the following should be included in your application form EXCEPT FOR: a) Application date b) Experience c) Educational background and graduation dates d) Names of references

Answer 643

c) Educational background and graduation dates

Question 644

Stella was applying for a six-month training program as a financial analyst. She was given a test to determine if she would succeed on the program. This test would be an example of: a) An interest test b) An achievement test c) An aptitude test d) A work sample test

Answer 644

c) An aptitude test

Question 645

Renita was given a keyboarding test by the human resources department prior to being hired as an administrative assistant. Six months later, at the end of her probationary period, her performance was assessed by her immediate supervisor. The supervisor’s ratings were compared to pre-employment test scores. This comparison will help assess the __________ of the pre-hire test. a) Predictive validity b) Concurrent validity c) Criterion validity d) Construct validity

Answer 645

a) Predictive validity

Question 646

The most valid means of selecting from a group of external candidates is through: a) Preliminary Interview b) Reference checking c) Employee referral d) Employment testing

Answer 646

d) Employment testing

Question 647

Management inventories can be used in succession planning because they include: a) A detailed profile of all current managers b) A list of competencies required of each management job c) A list of all management positions in the organization d) Career maps for each management position

Answer 647

a) A detailed profile of all current managers

Question 648

An employee experiences a content career plateau when: a) They are no longer able to do their job. b) They have reached the top of their career ladder. c) They know their job so well it has become boring. d) They no longer enjoy what they are doing and need a change.

Answer 648

c) They know their job so well it has become boring.

Question 649

Which of the following measures explains the relationship between two variables? a) Range b) Multiple regression c) Correlation d) inter-rater reliability

Answer 649

c) Correlation

Question 650

What unethical behaviour category would "wasting resources" belong to? a) Production deviance b) Property deviance c) Political deviance d) Personal aggression

Answer 650

a) Production deviance

Question 651

When faced with an unethical situation, behaviours can be categorized into three levels of moral development. At what moral development stage is a person who will make his or her decision based on internal principles? a) Pre-conventional level of moral development b) Conventional level of moral development c) Post-conventional level of moral development d) Pro-conventional level of moral development

Answer 651

c) Post-conventional level of moral development

Question 652

Which of the following principles of ethical decision is held by someone who believes one should never take any action that does not result in greater good for society? a) Principle of utilitarian benefits b) Principle of individual rights c) Principle of personal virtue d) Principle of distributive justice

Answer 652

a) Principle of utilitarian benefits

Question 653

Organizations can uphold their social responsibilities in four ways. An organization's __________ responsibility stipulates that it will not violate principles of right and wrong. a) Economic b) Legal c) Ethical d) Discretionary

Answer 653

c) Ethical

Question 654

When we design interview questions and in-basket exercises to measure qualities that predict leadership ability, correlating those results measures the ________________ of the assessments. a) Divergent validity b) Discriminant validity c) Concurrent validity d) Convergent validity

Answer 654

d) Convergent validity

Question 655

Privacy legislation restricts the sharing of employee personal information. Which of the following acts would be allowed for business reasons? a) Provision of employee medical information to third-party benefits providers b) Allowing supervisors to check the health records of employees to assess absence abuse c) Allowing only HR staff to access individual's usage of the employee assistance program d) Allowing supervisors to access employee records to see historical performance data

Answer 655

d) Allowing supervisors to access employee records to see historical performance data

Question 656

To ensure the protection of information, you should do all of the following EXCEPT: a) Ensure that personal email communication at work is not monitored b) Ensure candidates provide written consent to contact their references c) Communicate to employees that any violation of the privacy policy could result in their termination d) Do not provide references without the consent of the employee involved

Answer 656

a) Ensure that personal email communication at work is not monitored

Question 657

The responsibility of a company to act in the best interest of the people and communities it serves is: a) Ethical responsibility b) Customer and stakeholder responsibility c) Corporate social responsibility d) Moral responsibility

Answer 657

c) Corporate social responsibility

Question 658

One of the biggest advantages to HR professionals that technology has brought is: a) Lower operating costs b) Faster recruiting cycles c) Greater levels of overall productivity d) More time for strategic activities vs routine tasks

Answer 658

d) More time for strategic activities vs routine tasks

Question 659

The process of a service provider hiring your employees and contracting those services back to you is: a) Employee leasing b) Employee furloughing c) Employee re-engineering d) Employee contracting

Answer 659

a) Employee leasing

Question 660

In Canada, the strongest trends affecting labour force participation are: a) The growing participation of women in the workforce and the shift to a knowledge workforce b) Immigrants as a key source of new employees and the aging workforce c) The demand by employees for flexible work arrangements and the use of contract workers d) The multi-generational workforce and baby boomers retiring

Answer 660

b) Immigrants as a key source of new employees and the aging workforce

Question 661

Experts estimate that the value of a college or university degree over the course of one's career is: a) 100000 b) 200000 c) 500000 d) 1000000

Answer 661

d) 1000000

Question 662

Which of the following describes an organization's statement of financial position? a) Balance sheet b) General ledger c) Income statement d) Budget

Answer 662

a) Balance sheet

Question 663

When an organization decides to self-fund its dental plan, this is an example of: a) Risk retention b) Risk avoidance c) Risk control d) Risk transfer

Answer 663

a) Risk retention

Question 664

Instead of eliminating one position during a temporary economic downturn, employees have agreed to reduce their work to a 4-day workweek. This is an example of: (updated on October 29, 2018) a) Work sharing b) Furloughing c) Job sharing d) Work shifting

Answer 664

a) Work sharing

Question 665

When BMW designed an electric car made of lighter metals and recyclable materials in a factory using windmills and emitting less gas, they were practising: a) Corporate social responsibility b) Lean manufacturing c) Sustainability d) Production re-engineering

Answer 665

c) Sustainability

Question 666

Which of the following is a financial control mechanism? a) Budgets b) Financial statements c) Variance statements d) Cash-flow statements

Answer 666

a) Budgets

Question 667

When engaging an executive search firm and creating a critical path for the recruitment of a new president, the critical path will: a) Indicate critical inputs and outputs regarding the search b) Indicate the longest time required to secure a candidate c) Identify all the value-added and non–value-added activities d) Align the search with the schedule of payment for services

Answer 667

b) Indicate the longest time required to secure a candidate

Question 668

Which of the following statements about offers of employment is false? a) For an offer of employment to be legally binding, it must include consideration. b) For an offer of employment to be binding, it must be in writing. c) An employment contract may include restrictive covenants that only protect the employer. d) Employment contracts are more detailed than job offer letters.

Answer 668

b) For an offer of employment to be binding, it must be in writing.

Question 669

Which of the following is NOT one of the three regimes that govern employment law? a) Common law b) Tort law c) Statutory regulation d) Collective bargaining legislation

Answer 669

b) Tort law

Question 670

The implied practice permitting an employer to terminate an employee by giving reasonable notice does not apply to: a) Contract employees b) Unionized employees c) Employees on long-term disability d) Management employees

Answer 670

b) Unionized employees

Question 671

In order for an employee to claim constructive dismissal, the employee must: a) Have been terminated without cause by the employer b) Have been terminated with cause by the employer c) Have been wrongfully dismissed by the employer d) Resign from the position and claim a breach of contract

Answer 671

d) Resign from the position and claim a breach of contract

Question 672

Which of the following statements about the supply and demand of labour is false? a) When demand for labour changes very little with an increase in wages, it is considered to have high elasticity. b) When the supply of labour increases significantly with a wage increase, it is considered to have high elasticity. c) The elasticity of labour demand is positively correlated with the elasticity of labour supply. d) If the demand for labour is inelastic, it will not change with a change in wage rates.

Answer 672

a) When demand for labour changes very little with an increase in wages, it is considered to have high elasticity.

Question 673

In 2013, a poll of Canadians indicated that the majority: a) Are in favor of unions b) Support politicians who try to limit collective bargaining c) Believe that public sector workers should have the right to strike d) Are in favour of the "right to work" legislation

Answer 673

a) Are in favor of unions

Question 674

Which of the following is NOT true about privacy legislation? a) Organizations must obtain an individual's consent to collect, use, or disclose his or her personal information. b) Employees have the right to access their personnel files held by the employer. c) Employees have the right to challenge the accuracy of information held in their personnel files. d) Employees have the right to determine how the information collected about them is secured.

Answer 674

d) Employees have the right to determine how the information collected about them is secured.

Question 675

Which of the following legislation has been designed to alleviate the inequity for four designated groups? a) Human rights legislation b) Pay equity legislation c) Employment equity legislation d) Canada Labour Code

Answer 675

c) Employment equity legislation

Question 676

The governance of an organization focuses on: a) Authority and control b) Legislative compliance c) Organization structure d) Ownerships and partnerships

Answer 676

a) Authority and control The governance of an organization includes all the processes and delegated authority focused on providing proper controls while balancing the various interests of different stakeholders.

Question 677

When a call centre sets up operations in India and hires locally, these employees are: a) Host Country Nationals b) Home Country Nationals c) Third Country Nationals d) Parent Country Nationals

Answer 677

a) Host Country Nationals Host country nationals are hired from and work within their home countries, while home country nationals are 'expatriates' on international assignment.

Question 678

The impact of unemployment rates on HR strategy falls under which category of enviornmental factors? a) Legislative Factors b) Economic Factors c) Demographic Factors d) Social and Cultural Factors

Answer 678

b) Economic Factors Employment statistics are directly related to our economic environment. High unemployment is a sign of a weak economy.

Question 679

The purpose of an organization is expressed in its: a) Strategic Plan b) Corporate Objectives c) Mission Statement d) Brand Identification

Answer 679

c) Mission Statement The mission statement articulates the organization's purpose. It carries this mission out by establishing a strategic plan with corporate objectives.

Question 680

Which of the following is not an input into the production of goods? a) Land b) Capital c) Time d) Labour

Answer 680

c) Time When we talk about the inputs that go into production, we are talking about 'tangible' inputs. These are: land, capital (or investments) and labour.

Question 681

Environmental factors that influence an organization's strategy include all of the following except: a) Globalization b) Technology Factors c) Demographic Factors d) Organization Size

Answer 681

d) Organization Size Environmental factors are the factors that are external to an organization and that must be considered when creating strategies. While size may influence an organization's strategy, it is not considered to be an "environmental" factor. Rather, it is an operational reality.

Question 682

The merger of two companies is an example of what type of strategy? a) Growth Strategy b) Change Strategy c) Restructuring Strategy d) Stabilizing Strategy

Answer 682

a) Growth Strategy Growth strategies include initiatives that result in incremental growth, international growth, acquisitions and mergers.

Question 683

An organization like Apple, that provides somewhat unique products to a wide range of customers, has likely adopted which of the following competitive strategies? a) Market-niche strategy based on differentiation b) Best-cost strategy c) Broad differentiation strategy d) Low-cost leaders strategy

Answer 683

c) Broad differentiation strategy Organizations that adopt a broad differentiation strategy deliver products and services that appeal to a broad range of buyers, and that are different in some way compared to the products offered by their rivals.

Question 684

When McDonald's says it wants to be known for providing "the best quick service restaurant experience," it is referring to its: a) Mission b) Vision c) Values d) Strategic Objective

Answer 684

b) Vision Vision statements describe what the organization wants to be known for in the future. Strategic Objectives will break this vision down and identify various tactics for achieving it.

Question 685

What does the "S" stand for in SWOT analysis? a) Strategy b) Services c) Substitutes d) Strengths

Answer 685

d) Strengths A SWOT analysis is conducted as part of a strategic planning process and stands for: Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats

Question 686

When managing risks associated with HR practices, which of the following is not a risk management strategy? a) Avoid b) Accept c) Transfer d) Escalate

Answer 686

d) Escalate Risks are either avoided through safeguards, transferred to a third party (for example an insurance company through the purchase of insurance), or accepted as a result of them being minor.

Question 687

A "RACI" responsibility matrix can be used to help manage risks. RACI stands for: a) Required, Accepted, Communicated, Implemented b) Relevant, Accessible, Controlled, Inspected c) Recorded, Affirmed, Classified, Improved d) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

Answer 687

d) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed The RACI matrix addresses who is responsible and accountable for various tasks, as well as who is consulted and informed along the way.

Question 688

Professional Rules of Conduct mandated by provincial acts when the profession is regulated, include regulations related to: Code of Ethics, Scope of Practice, Duty to various stakeholders and: a) Education requirements b) Reporting of income c) Relationship with the Professional Association d) Professional volunterism

Answer 688

c) Relationship with the Professional Association All certified professionals must maintain an active membership in the professional association that governs their designation.

Question 689

The foundational law that governs the ability of people to participate in all aspects of society, including employment in Canada is: a) Employment Equity b) Charter of Rights and Freedoms c) Human Rights d) Employment Standards

Answer 689

b) Charter of Rights and Freedoms As part of the Canadian Constitution, The Charter of Rights and Freedoms is a law that underpins all other laws in Canada.

Question 690

An internal HR professional awarding a contract to an external provider in return for a confidential commission would be an example of: a) Immoral behaviour b) Entrepreneurialism c) Conflict of Interest d) Violation of Privacy Laws

Answer 690

c) Conflict of Interest A conflict of interest occurs when a person who is making a decision on behalf of his or her employer is influenced as a result of receiving a personal gain.

Question 691

Which of the following statements is true about risk management? a) It is important to involve a variety of stakeholders in the identification of risks. b) Few activities within organizations have inherent risks. c) Absorbing risks is the ethical thing to do. d) Risks can not be avoided.

Answer 691

a) It is important to involve a variety of stakeholders in the identification of risks. Involving multiple stakeholders in the identificaiton of risks will ensure that all perspectives are considered.

Question 692

Which of the following statements is false about an HR Consultant's professional responsibility. a) Competing with other HR Consultants is not acceptable. b) Being guided by greed is not acceptable. c) Intervening in the personal matters of clients on issues that are not related to the profession is not acceptable. d) Prohibiting a client from consulting with another HR consultant is not acceptable.

Answer 692

a) Competing with other HR Consultants is not acceptable HR Consultants often compete with each other when they bid for projects.

Question 693

HR professionals are responsible for: a) Serving the interests of their employers b) Serving the interests of their employees c) Serving the interests of their profession d) Serving the the interests of multiple stakeholders

Answer 693

d) Serving the the interests of multiple stakeholders One of the challenges HR professionals face is balancing the interests of both their organization and its employees, while also building productive relationships with other external stakeholders.

Question 694

Which of the following statements is true about handling confidential information? a) HR professionals must divulge all confidential information about the organization's employees to senior management. b) The information collected about employees throughout the normal course of their employment is not confidential. c) Confidential information must be divulged if doing so could prevent serious harm. d) Human Rights legislation in Canada governs the handling of confidential information.

Answer 694

c) Confidential information must be divulged if doing so could prevent serious harm. HR professionals must hold in strict confidence all confidential information acquired in the course of the performance of their duties, unless divulging this information is required by law or where serious harm is imminent if the information is not shared.

Question 695

Having a risk management process enables your organization to do all of the following except: a) Understand what can go wrong b) Reduce the liabilities arising from risks that are realized c) Identify what can be done to prevent risk d) Reinforce the importance of risk management

Answer 695

b) Reduce the liabilities arising from risks that are realized The goal of a risk management program is to reduce or eliminate risk. If a risk was realized, any resulting liability would not be impacted by whether a risk management process was implemented.

Question 696

What project management tool tracks project tasks against a calendar timeline? a) Gantt Chart b) PERT Chart c) Critical Path d) Project Plan

Answer 696

a) Gantt Chart The typical Gantt Chart lists tasks vertically with a timeline shown horizontally. This resuls in a multiple bar chart indicating when each task will be completed.

Question 697

Beliefs, symbols, artifacts, and rituals all represent an organization's: a) Mood b) Climate c) Values d) Culture

Answer 697

d) Culture Organization culture represents the norms of an organization that are impacted by organizational values, beliefs, symbols and rituals.

Question 698

An organization that has a functional structure, is bottom-line driven, and focuses on providing excellent customer service is said to have what kind of culture? a) Clan culture b) Market culture c) Hierarchical culture d) Adhocracy culture

Answer 698

b) Market culture A Market culture is characterized as having a stable structure with an external focus.

Question 699

Which of the following is not one of the factors that defines 'employee engagement'? a) Empowerment b) Motivation c) Satisfaction d) Commitment

Answer 699

a) Empowerment Engagement is an intrinsic motivation. Engaged employees are motivated to do their best, have high levels of job satisfaction, and are committed to an organization. Empowerment may contribute to employees being engaged, but it does not define the intrinsic state of engagement.

Question 700

What type of team can make decisions and solve problems related to daily operations, but needs to request approval for scheduling vacation or implementing training? a) Employee Involvement team b) Self-managed team c) Semi-autonomous team d) Traditional work team

Answer 700

c) Semi-autonomous team Semi-autonomous teams are empowered to make decisions, however their authority is not complete when compared to self-managed teams that have complete authority over all aspects of their work, training, budgeting, and performance appraisal.

Question 701

The four stages of team development are: a) Plan, Implement, Revise, Evaluate b) Form, Storm, Norm, Perform c) Initiate, Execute, Evaluate, Conclude d) Create, Delegate, Implement, Review

Answer 701

b) Form, Storm, Norm, Perform The stages of team development describe the social dynamics that teams move through as they tackle challenges related to working together.

Question 702

Which of the following describes a cognitive conflict within a team? a) The overlap of responsibilities between team members b) Lack of trust between individuals c) The perception that one member has taken over the group d) A disagreement about the interpretation of a policy

Answer 702

d) A disagreement about the interpretation of a policy Cognitive conflict focuses on issue-related differences, whereas affective conflict focuses on differences of a personal nature that undermines trust and respect.

Question 703

If a soft-drink supplier had three different divisions focused on supplying fast-food restaurants, grocery stores, and vending, this would be an example of what type of organization structure? a) Customer Departmentalization b) Product Departmentalization c) Matric Departmentalization d) Functional Departmentalization

Answer 703

a) Customer Departmentalization This organization's customers include fast-food restaurants, grocery stores and vending operators. Because they have different needs and distribution channels, the supplier in question has structured itself to service those specific needs.

Question 704

Which of the following is true about a matrix organization structure? a) Employees can receive conflicting directions. b) It is easy to manage. c) Resources are shared across boundaries. d) Functional experts work closely together.

Answer 704

a) Employees can receive conflicting directions. Dual reporting relationships are characteristic of a matrix organization, often resulting in confusion or conflict.

Question 705

What is the typical first response to an unpopular change? a) Resistance b) Exploration c) Denial d) Acceptance

Answer 705

c) Denial The first response to change is typically denial - in other words - a belief that it won't happen. Once there is a realization that the change is being implemented, resistance sets in.

Question 706

Exit interviews are used for all of the following except: a) Collecting company property b) Receiving feedback c) Providing information about benefit termination d) Determining severance obligations

Answer 706

d) Determining severance obligations Exit interviews are most often held with employees that have resigned for the purposes of concluding the employment relationship, receiving feedback, and collecting any company property that the employee has in their possession.

Question 707

The main purpose of Human Resource planning is to: a) Determine human capital needs b) Develop HR programs c) Identify recruitment strategies d) Enable company growth

Answer 707

a) Determine human capital needs Through HR Planning, the supply and demand of human capital is determined so that appropriate initiatives can be implemented to address gaps in talent.

Question 708

Programs that would effectively address a Human Resource deficit would include: a) Job Sharing b) Worksharing program c) Re-hiring retirees d) Hiring frreeze

Answer 708

c) Re-hiring retirees An HR deficit results in a shortage of workers. All options except for re-hiring retirees address a Human Resource surplus.

Question 709

Which of the following interview methods is used to assess a managerial applicant's problem solving skills? a) Situational Interview b) Case-based Interviews c) Stress Interviews d) Serial Interviews

Answer 709

b) Case-based Interviews Business cases that present challenging situations are used to assess problem solving and analytical skills.

Question 710

What assessment method is used to assess an applicant's ability to repair jewelry? a) Aptitude test b) Physical Fitness test c) Polograph test d) Psychomotor test

Answer 710

d) Psychomotor test Psychomotor tests are designed to assess manual dexterity.

Question 711

What type of rating scale is used to assess an employees behaviour frequency? a) Critical Incident Method b) Behaviour Observation c) Behavioural Checklist d) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale

Answer 711

b) Behaviour Observation A behaviour observation scale includes a behavioural statement and a scale indicating the frequency with which the employee engages in that behaviour (for example, never, sometimes, often, or always).

Question 712

Which of the following statements is true about a 'management by objectives' style of performance evaluation process? a) It does a good job of assessing employee skills. b) It provides a balanced approach to evaluating the lead and lag indicators of performance success. c) It focuses on the achievement of results d) It includes multiple raters in the process

Answer 712

c) It focuses on the achievement of results Management by Objectives, or MBO, evaluates employees against pre-established SMART goals. It does not necessarily evaluate the skills required to achieve those goals.

Question 713

An HR program that increases the talent pool of promotable employees is: a) Job skill training b) Succession Management c) Performance Management d) Diversity Management

Answer 713

b) Succession Management The main purpose of succession management is to identify high performing individuals and prepare them for future career growth in line with the organization's needs.

Question 714

A job-based approach to succession management examines all of the following except: a) Job responsibilities b) Employee attributes correlated with high performance c) Skills required to perform the job d) Experience required to perform the job

Answer 714

b) Employee attributes correlated with high performance A job-based approach to succession management focuses on the requirements of the job, while a competency-based approach focuses on the attributes that differentiates successful employees from less successful ones

Question 715

Which of the following metrics is not used to assess the success of succession management initiatives? a) An increased ratio of internal to external hires b) A reduced number of positions without identified successors c) The increased retention of key talent d) The increased attraction of competitor's high performers

Answer 715

d) The increased attraction of competitor's high performers Succession management focuses on the development and retention of internal talent. An increased attraction of a competitor's high performers would indicate that the organization's external recruitment program was effective.

Question 716

The direct employer-employee relationship is referred to as: a) Employee relations b) Labour relations c) Industrial Relations d) Employee-management relations

Answer 716

a) Employee relations The field of industrial relations includes all relationships governing the workplace, including the relationship between the employer and the union (which is referred to as Labour Relations) and the direct relationship an organization has with its employees (referred to as employee relations).

Question 717

Which of the following policies is applied differently for union and non-union employees? a) The method of calculating seniority b) Termination remedies c) The application of minimum employment standards d) Pre-employment qualifications

Answer 717

b) Termination remedies Arbitrators can require the employer to re-instate unionized employees if the termination was wrongful while non-union employees would receive monetary compensation awarded by the courts for wrongful dismissal.

Question 718

All of the following is regulated by employment standards except: a) Hours of work b) Parental leave c) Notice of termination d) Union dues

Answer 718

d) Union dues Union dues are negotiated as part of the collective bargaining process and stipulated in the collective agreement.

Question 719

When is it acceptable to discriminate against a protected group outlined in provincial human rights legislation? a) When customer preferences justify it. b) When a Canadian operation is American owned and the American law is different. c) When hiring the protected individual would disrupt the workplace. d) When a physical characteristic is required to ensure a safe work environment

Answer 719

d) When a physical characteristic is required to ensure a safe work environment Discrimination is illegal unless there is a Bona Fide Occupational Qualification that is essential to perform the job particularly if safety is a concern. For example, an organization would not hire a blind pilot.

Question 720

Which of the following statements is true about Pay Equity legislation? a) The wage gaps experienced by women, visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples, and persons with disabilities are addressed in pay equity legislation. b) A break in service is not a valid factor contributing to wage differences. c) Pay equity addresses systemic gender discrimination. d) It is not acceptable for men and women performing the same job to be earn different salaries.

Answer 720

c) Pay equity addresses systemic gender discrimination. Pay equity addresses the wage gap between men and women that have not been caused by legitimate reasons, such as work experience, education level, hours worked, unionization, and family responsibilities.

Question 721

Which of the following statements about unionization is false? a) Organizations can decertify their union if the union has violated the collective agreement. b) Organizations must not intimidate employees who are union supporters. c) Labour Relations Boards oversee the certification process. d) Employees unionize in order to have a collective voice.

Answer 721

a) Organizations can decertify their union if the union has violated the collective agreement. Organization's can not decertify a union. Only employees can decertify the union that is representing them, and their organization must in no way be involved in that process.

Question 722

Which of the following statements is false about Employment Equity legislation? a) Employment equity addresses age discrimination. b) Employment equity addresses gender discrimination. c) Employment equity addresses discrimination of disabled persons. d) Employment equity addresses discrimination against people of colour.

Answer 722

a) Employment equity addresses age discrimination. Employment equity does not address age discrimination, its purpose is to ensure that women, visible minorities, Aboriginal peoples and persons with disabilities have the opportunity to participate in the workforce to the extent that they are qualified and available.

Question 723

What style of union-management negotiation is characterized by tough negotiating, with each side trying to win greater benefits than the other? a) Mutual Gains Bargaining b) Interest-based Bargaining c) Integrative Bargaining d) Positional Bargaining

Answer 723

d) Positional Bargaining Positional, or Distributive Bargaining, involves an adversarial approach where each side focuses on achieving as much as possible through the negotiation. The other styles mentioned are more collaborative in nature, focusing on a win-win solution.

Question 724

What is the bargaining zone? a) It is the difference between the employer's lowest and highest wage offer. b) It defines the list of collective agreement clauses that the union and management agree are to be covered by the negotiations. c) It is the difference between the union's lowest demand and the employer's highest offer. d) It is the difference between the union's and management's highest wage offer.

Answer 724

c) It is the difference between the union's lowest demand and the employer's highest offer. The Bargaining Zone defines the overlap between the union's and management's bargaining positions. If management's highest wage offer is higher than the lowest offer the union is willing to accept, then there is a zone within which successful bargaining can occur.

Question 725

What union security clause requires a candidate to be a member of the union before being hired? a) Union Shop b) Closed Shop c) Agency Shop d) Restricted Shop

Answer 725

b) Closed Shop An example of a closed shop security clause is the requirement of an electrician to be a member of the electrician's union before he or she can be employed at a construction site that employs only union members.

Question 726

When employees are motivated to support the success of the organization, they are considered to have high: a) Membership Behaviour b) Task Behaviour c) Performance Behaviour d) Organization Citizenship Behaviour

Answer 726

d) Organization Citizenship Behaviour The goal of compensation is to increase Membership, Task, and Organization Citizenship behaviour. Increased membership behaviour occurs when more candidates want to join the organization, and task behaviour occurs when employees focus on performing the tasks assigned to them. When an employee wants to contribute to the success of their employer, this is referred to as Organization Citizenship behaviour.

Question 727

When an organization takes steps to ensure a job is designed to have high task identity, this results in: a) Job Enlargement b) Job Enrichment c) Job Autonomy d) Job Burnout

Answer 727

b) Job Enrichment Task identity is the degree to which a job requires the completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. This results in the work being more meaningful, which is a form of Job Enrichment. Job Enrichment should not be confused with Job Enlargement which is simply the addition of more tasks, but not necessarily meaningful tasks. Job Enlargement can lead to job burnout.

Question 728

Which of the following is an indirect pay strategy? a) Time off with Pay b) Short-term Incentives c) Base Pay d) Long-term Incentives

Answer 728

a) Time off with Pay Cash compensation, such as base pay and short- and long-term performance pay, are considered to be "direct" compensation. Time off with or without pay, such as vacation or leaves of absense, are considered to be "in-direct" pay as it doesn't add more cash value to one's total annual compensation.

Question 729

The job analysis approach that focuses on job responsibilities and the processes for carrying out the work is called: a) Functional job analysis b) Competency-based job analysis c) Critical Incident job analysis d) Task inventory job analysis

Answer 729

a) Functional job analysis Functional job analysis focuses on the following components: who performs what; with what tools, equipment or processes; to achieve what outcome.

Question 730

When establishing job worth through compensable factor job evaluation, which of the following factors is not considered? a) Skill b) Effort c) Career Level d) Working Conditions

Answer 730

c) Career Level Skill, effort, responsibility, and working conditions are the factors commonly considered in compensable factor job evaluation. In many job evaluation plans, they can be further broken into sub-factors as well.

Question 731

Which of the following statements is false about salary surveys? a) The timing of the survey may require an aging of the data. b) Data collection needs to consider organization industry, size, and location. c) The survey will report market averages and percentiles. d) Job matches need to be made based on job title.

Answer 731

d) Job matches need to be made based on job title. It is important to match jobs based on job descriptions and not based on titles, as different organizations may inflate job titles.

Question 732

Which of the following is false about salary survey data? a) The median is the salary value where 50% of companies fall below and above. b) The salary at the 75th percentile of the marketplace is 25% higher than the salary at the 50th percentile. c) The mean competitive salary can be skewed by unusually high or low data. d) The weighted average market salary considers the number of employees within each company.

Answer 732

b) The salary at the 75th percentile of the marketplace is 25% higher than the salary at the 50th percentile. The 75th percentile is the value under which 75% of companies pay. The 50th percentile is the value under with 50% of the companies pay. They could be 10% apart, 5% apart, or any percentage value apart - it will depend on the value paid at the 75th and 50th percentile.

Question 733

What shows the relationship between target pay and the pay structure? a) Pay Bands b) Pay Grades c) Wage Curve d) Market Compa-ratio

Answer 733

c) Wage Curve The Wage Curve shows the minimum, target, and maximum rates of pay for successive pay bands or grades.

Question 734

Which of the following is a long-term incentive plan? a) Profit-sharing b) Piece rate c) Commission d) Stock options

Answer 734

d) Stock options Stock options are equity plans that vest over time. They can be a good retention strategy that encourage employees to take a long-term focus on bottom-line performance.

Question 735

The policy to remove a reprimand from an employee file after six months as a result of good behaviour is an example of: a) Positive reinforcement b) Negative reinforcement c) Extinction d) Natural justice

Answer 735

b) Negative reinforcement Negative reinforcement occurs when negative outcomes are removed as a result of positive behaviour. Another example would be if a supervisor stopped nagging an employee when he/she met deadlines.

Question 736

What is andragogy? a) A type of training evaluation b) Simulation training c) An approach to executive development d) Adult-oriented training

Answer 736

d) Adult-oriented training Andragogy is an adult-oriented approach to learning and development that recognizes that adults are goal oriented, want to participate in their learning, draw upon their experiences, and prefer to learn independently.

Question 737

When one is learning about a concept through the delivery of lectures, they are gaining: a) Declarative knowledge b) Procedural knowledge c) Tacit knowledge d) Experiential knowledge

Answer 737

a) Declarative knowledge Declarative knowledge focuses on learning facts and informaton, where as the others mentioned include some element of experience.

Question 738

An exercise that engages learning participants in a videotaped role-play that is later reviewed and debriefed by the participants would appeal to which type of learning style? a) Converging b) Diverging c) Assimilating d) Accommodating

Answer 738

b) Diverging Individuals with a diverging learning style like to learn through concrete experiences and reflective observation.

Question 739

Which of the following statements is false about learning organizations? a) They encourage systems thinking. b) They support team learning. c) They learn through formal training. d) They promote the understanding of mental models.

Answer 739

c) They learn through formal training. A learning organization is an organization that encourages learning through every day operations and interactions in addition to a variety of other ways.

Question 740

The instructional systems design model starts with: a) Establishing training objectives b) Designing training content c) Identifying learning methods d) Conducting a needs anlaysis

Answer 740

d) Conducting a needs anlaysis Training needs analysis includes an organization, task and person analysis, and identifies what and whether training is required.

Question 741

Information for a training needs analysis can be collected through all of the following methods except: a) Pre-post training assessment b) Questionnaires c) Tests d) Work Samples

Answer 741

a) Pre-post training assessment A pre-post training assessment is an evaluation tool, not a needs analysis tool.

Question 742

When a training program includes repetitive exercises with a goal to reinforce automatic behaviour, this is referred to as: a) An overlearning strategy b) A massed practice strategy c) A whole learning strategy d) A distributed practice strategy

Answer 742

a) An overlearning strategy Overlearning is particularly desirable when it is important for employees to react quickly without even thinking. For example, this is desired when responding to a machinery malfunction where safety is at risk.

Question 743

When training evaluation indicates that there has been zero transfer, this means that the training is: a) Applied and employee performance improves b) Applied and employee performance does not improve c) Not applied and employee performance does not change d) Not applied and employee performance worsens

Answer 743

c) Not applied and employee performance does not change Zero transfer occurs when the training is not applied and employee performance does not change. Negative transfer occurs when training is applied and employee performance worsens, and positive transfer occurs when training is applied and employee performance improves.

Question 744

When a training program is said to have "horizontal transfer," this means that: a) The training can be applied to new and different situations. b) The training can be applied in different settings. c) The training has impacted the performance of the organization. d) Employees who did not attend the training are able to learn from those who did.

Answer 744

b) The training can be applied in different settings. The transfer of training refers to the ability of the participant to apply the learning outside the classroom. Three types of trainng transfer include far transfer, horizontal transfer, and vertical transfer.

Question 745

10. What type of training evaluation involves employees receiving an evaluation questionnaire after the training to ask their opinions about the training? a) Learning evaluation b) Behaviour evaluation c) Results evaluation d) Reaction evaluation

Answer 745

d) Reaction evaluation The "reaction questionaire" is the first level of training evaluation. It asks for opinions only and does not evaluate whether the employee's knowledge, skill, or behaviour has changed. It also does not measure the impact the training has had on the organization.

Question 746

The prime purpose of health and safety legislation is to: a) Insure the lost wages of injured and/or ill workers b) Identify and classify safety risks in the workplace c) Hold employers responsible for providing safe working conditions d) Prevent work-related accidents and illness

Answer 746

d) Prevent work-related accidents and illness The prime purpose of heath and safety legislation is to prevent work-related accidents and illnesses through a number of strategies, including regulations, education, and penalties.

Question 747

Bill C-45 is an important health and safety legislation that: a) Regulates the provision of regular safety training to employees b) Enables the criminal prosecution of organizations whose negligence results in employee injury, illness, or death. c) Provides wage insurance for workers who experience wage loss due to work-related accidents or illness d) Regulates the transportation of dangerous goods and materials

Answer 747

b) Enables the criminal prosecution of organizations whose negligence results in employee injury, illness, or death. Bill C-45 is an amendment to the Criminal Code of Canada arising from the Westray Mine fatalities.

Question 748

A Health and Safety Representative's responsiblities include all of the following except: a) Investigating work refusals b) Identifying workplace hazards c) Approving safety policy d) Inspecting the workplace

Answer 748

c) Approving safety policy Health and Safety representatives recommend policy but management is accountable for approving company policies.

Question 749

Which of the following is false about Worker's Compensation? a) Employers pay all of the premiums. b) An industry rating impacts the value of the premium owing. c) It is a fault-based insurance. d) Benefits include survivor benefits.

Answer 749

c) It is a fault-based insurance. Worker's Compensation is a no-fault insurance. In other words, blame or fault does not need to be assigned in order for an employee to receive Worker's Compensation for lost wages resulting from a workplace injury.

Question 750

Which of the following does not impact an employer's Worker's Compensation Premium? a) The size of the payroll. b) The type of injury being insured. c) Their industry rating. d) The employer's experience rating.

Answer 750

b) The type of injury being insured. Employers pay a premium based on the size of their payroll, their own accident experience rating, and an industry rating. Industries that have higher safety risks, such as mining or construction, pay higher premiums.

Question 751

If the total number of hours worked in an organization is 600,000, and the company had 6 injuries with no lost time, and 15 injuries with 5 days lost, and 3 major injuries with 55 days lost, what would be their accident frequency rating? a) 4 b) 24 c) 8 d) 12

Answer 751

c) 8 This organization had a total of 24 accidents. (24 accidents X 200,000) / 600,000 = 8

Question 752

Hazards are caused by human, environmental, and situational factors. What category would poor lighting resulting from a manfunctioning lighting system fall into? a) A situational factor b) An environmental Factor c) A human Factor d) An operational Factor

Answer 752

a) A situational factor Situational factors include operations, equipment, or materials that contributed to accident situations.

Question 753

Engineering Hazard Controls would include: a) Barriers and shields b) Training and rotating shifts c) Masks and gloves d) Policies and processes

Answer 753

a) Barriers and shields Three methods for controling hazards are engineering controls, administrative controls, and the provision of personal protective equipment. Engineering controls include "hard" tangible protection, like metal guards, shields, and barriers. Environmental Factors are those things that are an accepted condition of the work itself (for example, the cold temperature in a cold storage facility would be an environmental factor as would be the loud noises in a metal fabrication plant).

Question 754

What instrument would you use if you wanted to determine the exposure employees have to loud noises as a percentage of work hours? a) Audiometer b) Dosimeter c) Octive Band Analyser d) Sound Pressure Level Meter

Answer 754

b) Dosimeter An audiometer measures employee hearing sensitivity; an octive band analyser measures noise frequency range; and sound pressure level meter measures gross noise in decibels.

Question 755

Which of the following is not included on the labels required under WHMIS? a) A product identifier b) The supplier identity c) The harmful ingredients d) Any hazard Symbols

Answer 755

c) The harmful ingredients Labels must include a reference to the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) which include the harmful ingredients and the guidelines for use, storage, disposal, and treatment.

Question 756

What is the formula for determining the return on investment? a) Benefits minus cost b) Benefits minus cost divided by the benefits c) Benefits minus cost divided by the cost d) Benefits minus cost divided by the budget

Answer 756

c) Benefits minus cost divided by the cost The benefits minus the cost indicates the monetary value of the program. In order to express the value as a percentage of the cost, it is then divided by the cost. A positive return on investment should result in a number greater than .1 or 100%

Question 757

Which of the following is not a web-based HRIS solution? a) Employee self-serve b) HR Portals c) Manager self-serve d) Stand alone systems

Answer 757

d) Stand alone systems Stand alone systems can reside on a single computer with no connectivity to any other device.

Question 758

Legislation addresses all of the following regarding the collection of employee information except: a) What is collected b) How it is stored c) Where it is stored d) Who has access

Answer 758

c) Where it is stored The location of storage is not regulated. The nature and security of the information, access, and retention time frame are all addressed in legislation.

Question 759

Human Capital metrics include all of the following except: a) Skills inventories b) Performance scores c) Service dates d) Process efficiency metrics

Answer 759

d) Process efficiency metrics HR Metrics include process efficiency and effectiveness metrics, however Human Capital metrics track employee characteristics.

Question 760

A process designed to improve the HR department's efficiency, effectiveness, customer satisfaction and legal compliance is called: a) An employee engagement survey b) An HR dashboard c) An HR audit d) An HR scorecard

Answer 760

c) An HR audit While an HR dashboard or scorecard can be used to report various process data, an HR Audit is the process used to capture the data.

Question 761

When we want to compare current practice with past practice we use: a) Benchmarking b) HR Audits c) Baselines d) Forecasting

Answer 761

c) Baselines Baselines are used to assess the changes in the efficiency or effectiveness of an HR program at different points in time.

Question 762

Which of the following is not an employee productivity metric? a) Absenteeism measures b) Overtime measures c) Human Capital return on investment d) Training participation rates

Answer 762

d) Training participation rates Training participation rates measure the attendance at training programs. This is not a productivity metric.

Question 763

What is the formula for employee turnover? a) (Resignations + retirements + involundary terminations) divided by headcount b) The headcount at the beginning of the year minus the headcount at the end of the year c) FTE at the beginning of the year minus FTE at the end of the year d) (# of employees at the beginning of the year minus # employees at the end of the year) divided by # employees at the beginning of the year

Answer 763

a) (Resignations + retirements + involundary terminations) divided by headcount It is necessary to track every incident of an employee exiting the company in order to measure turnover.

Question 764

An acquiescence response on an employee survey occurs when: a) An employee gives the same favorable response to every question. b) An employee gives the answer they think the employer wants to receive. c) An employee has to guess the answer. d) A significant number of employees give the same response.

Answer 764

a) An employee gives the same favorable response to every question. When an employee indicates they strongly agree with every statement on an employee survey, it is likely that they are not answering truthfully.

Question 765

If, on a benefit survey, you wanted to ask employees to select from a list of benefits those that were most important to them, what rating scale would you use? a) Ordinal scale b) Interval scale c) Ratio scale d) Nominal Scale

Answer 765

d) Nominal Scale A nominal scale includes a list of variables that have no value; in this case, a list of benefits.