Clinicals 2 Flashcards
(192 cards)
1
Q
what sterilization techniques clean, but does not sterilize?
A
disinfectant
2
Q
what bandage wrapping technique is used on a joint that requires movement?
A
figure-eight
3
Q
what type of drape has an opening on it allowing access to the surgery site?
A
fenestrated
4
Q
locking mechanisms located between the rings of the handles that are used for locking the instrument closed are known as?
A
ratchets
5
Q
the recommended temperature for effective sterilization in an autoclave is what?
A
270
6
Q
what is not considered a purpose of using a bandage?
A
helps stop bleeding
7
Q
what is the smallest suture size?
A
6-0
8
Q
what wound terms best describes an example of a closed wound?
A
contussion
9
Q
what is the most appropriate action when setting up a surgical tray?
A
set up the tray just prior to surgery
10
Q
what instrument is a long, slender instrument used to determine the size and shape of a hidden area to detect the presence of a foreign body?
A
sound
11
Q
what instrument is inserted into narrowed or constricted ducts and tubes for the purpose of gradually enlarging the opening?
A
dilator
12
Q
what best sterilizes equipment that is delicate or sensitive to heat?
A
cold sterilization
13
Q
which suture would be used on the face or neck?
A
6-0
14
Q
what best describes practices known as sterile technique?
A
surgical asepsis
15
Q
when loading the autoclave, what is the appropriate amount of space to have between packs and the autoclave wall?
A
1-3 inches
16
Q
what term best describes a procedure that creates an opening in the skin, such as a surgical incision, or inserting a urinary catheter?
A
invasive
17
Q
TRUE OR FALSE: all sterile items are to be at waist level
A
false
18
Q
TRUE OR FALSE: all sterile objects must be held in front of and away from the body
A
true
19
Q
which instrument is commonly used to clamp blood vessels?
A
hemostat
20
Q
what should be noted by the patient to observe for infection?
A
drainage, swelling, pain, redness, and heat
21
Q
fiber-optic endoscopes uses which type of sterilization?
A
chemical
22
Q
what terms best describes the result when a non-sterile item or surface comes in contact with a sterile item?
A
contamination
23
Q
how should articles for sterilization in the autoclave be wrapped?
A
double wrapped
24
Q
TRUE OR FALSE: do not cough, talk, or sneeze over a sterile field
A
true
25
what best describes sutures made from materials that dissolve when they encounter the tissue enzymes in the body?
absorbable
26
cryosurgery destroys tissues by what means?
freezing
27
TRUE OR FALSE: reach slowly and carefully over the sterile field
false
28
what is the primary purpose of surgical asepsis?
to prevent microorganisms from entering the body during invasive procedures
29
what is the most appropriate action when applying a sterile adhesive skin closure strip?
apply the first strip to the center of the incision
30
TRUE OR FALSE: if a sterile field that is not poly-lined gets wet, it is still considered sterile
false
31
what type of material is commonly used to wrap instruments when using an autoclave?
muslin
32
what is required when labeling packages for autoclaving?
providers name, name of the item, date of sterilization, your initials
33
device used to cut the skin
scalpel
34
pulls back edges of a wound
retractors
35
used in nose and ear procedures
bayonet forceps
36
lighted instrument used for viewing
scopes
37
used to probe into a body cavity or wound
probes
38
what does ABN stand for?
advanced beneficiary notice
39
What best describes normal daily self-care such as brushing teeth, getting dressed, and eating?
activities of daily living
40
what best defines the use of activities to help restore independent functioning after an illness?
occupational therapy
41
the instrument used to measure joint motion is called?
goniometer
42
a method of using electric current to stimulate fevers is known as what?
TENS
43
what is the most appropriate when transferring a patient?
use a gait belt around the patient's waist always
44
when instructing patients in the use of axillary crutches, what is the most important?
put all weight on hands
45
for what type of patient is the platform crutch used?
cannot bear weight on hands
46
which of the following best describes when the forearm or Canadian crutches are generally used?
for patients who need them long term
47
what is an appropriate step when transferring a patient from the wheelchair to the exam table?
place the wheelchair next to the examination table, place the gait belt snugly around the assistants waist, place the patient's feet flat on the floor, have the patient sit on the edge of the wheelchair
48
what is true when starting any heat or cold modality treatments?
infants and the elderly are particularly susceptible to burns, cover device with a cloth before applying
49
which type of assistive device provides maximum assistance with balance and coordination, as well as stability and support, when the patient is standing or walking?
walkers
50
what involves the process of recording muscle activities on a graph to determine how well muscles contract?
electromyography
51
paralysis of one side of the body resulting from a stroke, accident, or other condition is known as what?
hemiplegia
52
turning a body part on its axis
rotation
53
moving the hand to put the palm up
supination
54
pushing the foot downward towards the floor at the ankle joint
plantar flexion
55
movement of a body part in a circular motion
circumduction
56
moving the hand so the palm is down
pronation
57
straightening a body part
extension
58
moving the foot upward at the ankle joint
dorsiflexion
59
moving a body part towards the body
adduction
60
the medical term for "armpit"
axilla
61
the acronym ROM stands for
range of motion
62
describes a structure x-rays penetrate easily
radiolucent
63
what best describes why medical assistants need an understanding of diagnostic imaging?
to instruct patients in preparation
64
which of the following refers to an x-ray directed from the front of the body to the back?
anteroposterior
65
noninvasive diagnostic method that uses ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures, including valves
echocardiogram
66
toxicity is most likely to occur with ___ because they are stored in tissues composed of lipids and in the liver and are not carried easily into the bloodstream
fat soluble vitamins
67
___ are ingested substances that help the body maintain a state of homeostasis
nutrients
68
what is the total of all changes, chemical and physical, that take place in the body?
metabolism
69
an ___ is a device that senses and corrects dangerous cardiac rhythms
implantable cardioverter defibrillator
70
what is true about the dosimeter?
records radiation exposure on a strip of film
71
___ counteract the damaging effects of oxidation
antioxidents
72
nutrients function is to build and repair tissue
protein
73
deficiency is mostly likely to occur with __ vitamins
water soluble
74
used to view the urinary bladder for lesions and stones
cystography
75
views internal organs in motion
fluroscopy
76
___ begins at the mouth with chewing and ends with the small intestines
digestion
77
toxicity is most likely to occur with ___ vitamins
fat soluble
78
basic structural unit used as a building block in all body tissues and cells
amino acids
79
ordered to study the gallbladder for diseases such as stones or inflammation
cholecystography
80
ingested substances that help the body maintain homeostasis
nutrients
81
what refers to an x-ray directed from one side to the opposite side?
lateral
82
what tests require injecting the patient with a radioactive substance?
thallium stress test
83
describes a structure that x-rays do not penetrate
radiopaque
84
a non-invasive screening tool to measure one's risk for fractures
bone densitometry
85
what are emergency situations that require first priority assessments?
poisoning, airway and breathing problems, head injuries, bleeding, allergic reaction
86
what is the first and most critical step in responding to an emergency in an ambulatory care emergency situation?
recognize when emergency measures should be taken
87
what statement pertaining to Good Samaritan law is false?
no matter what level of training, providers must do everything for the patient
88
what types of burns should be seen by the provider?
all burns involving very young or elderly, a burn involving an area larger than a child's hand, and any burns on the face, hands, feet, or genitals
89
what is NOT a characteristic of heat exhaustion?
pulse full, strong, and bounding
90
what is the main purpose of the crash cart in the ambulatory care setting?
all emergency supplies are together and available
91
what is NOT an appropriate response when caring for a person who is having a seizure?
hold patient in position and restrain from convulsing
92
what statement tis false regarding shock?
blood pressure increases
93
what body areas would be more suited to a spiral bandage for wounds or injuries?
arms or legs
94
what is the common term for the medical term syncope?
fainting
95
what types of shock might occur if a person who has a hypersensitivity to a sting is not seen by a physician immediately?
anaphylactic
96
what is the most applicable for symptoms of shivering, cool skin, listlessness, confusion, and slowed pulse and respirations?
hypothermia
97
what is the most applicable for skin that becomes off color, waxy, and numb?
frostbite
98
what is the most appropriate when dealing with poisonings?
identify the name and amount of poison taken
99
what statement is true regarding bleeding?
serious loss of blood and profound irreversible shock can happen quickly
100
what is a condition that occurs as a result of an inability of the body to properly convert sugar from food into energy?
diabetes
101
what condition occurs as a result of an excess of insulin and an insufficient amount of sugar circulating through the blood stream?
insulin shock
102
CPR plus automated external defibrillation (AED) can boost survival significantly if it is begun within how many minutes of collapse?
3-5 minutes
103
what is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant if a patient feels like fainting in the examining room?
lay the patient down or have the head down, level with the knees
104
what would be the most appropriate assessment for symptoms of exaggerated, air-hungry respirations and "fruity acetone breath"?
acidosis
105
a patient calls and states her husband is having some loss of vision, confusion, slurred speech, and nausea. What might be the possible assessment?
stroke
106
what is the most appropriate assessment for the symptoms of cold and clammy skin, profuse perspiration, pain radiating into the left shoulder or the jaw, and nausea?
heart attack
107
what is the most appropriate of the medical assistant in responding to an emergency situation?
act quickly and assess the nature of the situation
108
Jane, a patient in the clinic, comes in with a jagged 3-inch open laceration on her hand, which she calmly shows to you. What is your first priority for care?
minimize risk of infection
109
neurogenic
trauma to nervous system
110
cardiogenic
greatly inadequate cardiac output
111
septic
overwhelming infectious process
112
anaphylactic
massive hypersensitivity reaction
113
occurs with a sever twisting action, causes break to wind around bone
spiral
114
bone protrudes through the skin surface, creating the possibility of infection
compound
115
cracked bone, but the break is not all the way through; frequently seen children
greenstick
116
involves the distal end of the radius and results in displacement, causing a bulge at the wrist
colles
117
more than one fracture line with several bone fragments present
comminuted
118
complete break in bone in which there is no involvement with the skin surface
simple
119
occurs with severe head injuries in which a broken piece of skull is driven inward
depressed
120
broken ends are jammed into each other
impacted
121
what is not recommended choice for ingested poison?
ipecac
122
ml
milliliter
123
ab lib
as desired
124
qh
every hour
125
tbsp
tablespoon
126
tsp
teaspoon
127
NPO
nothing by mouth
128
bid
twice a day
129
gtt
drops
130
mg
milligram
131
IV
intravenous
132
in
inches
133
ac
before meals
134
pc
after meals
135
gm
gram
136
kg
kilogram
137
sig
signature
138
IM
intramuscular
139
what is not considered to be parenteral?
ingestion
140
what is the recommended maximum volume of fluid introduced to the dorsogluteal site?
3ml
141
when is the medication label to be read?
when the medication is taken from the storage area, just before removing it from its container, and when returning the medication to the storage area
142
what is the measure of volume?
milliliter
143
the hazards associated with parenteral medications
allergic reaction, injury to the bone, nerve or blood vessel, injecting into a vessel instead of the tissue
144
what is a long-lasting insulin preparation?
lantus
145
subscription
this gives directions to the pharmacist for filling the prescription
146
inscription
states the names and quantities of ingredients to be included in the medication
147
signature
gives directions to the patient
148
superscription
includes Rx, which means take thou
149
what angle is used when giving an intradermal injection?
10-15 degrees
150
what is the most commonly used syringe?
1, 3, and 5cc
151
the amount of medication that is prescribed for administration
dosage
152
type of injection given on the anterior forearm
intradermal
153
a route other than the alimentary canal for injection of a liquid
parenteral
154
the absence of breathing
apnea
155
a lack of oxygen in the blood
hypoxemia
156
type of injection that would be given into the deltoid
intramuscular
157
type of injection in the abdomen or on the posterior aspect of the upper arm
subcutaneous
158
the hollow core of the needle
lumen
159
a dosage of insulin is measured in
units
160
a small sterile prefilled glass bottle with a rubber stopper containing a hypodermic solution
vial
161
when a provider writes a prescription for controlled substances, what must be on the prescription?
date, DEA number, full address of the patient
162
what best describes grams?
weight
163
what is the most appropriate action when locating the ventrogluteal site?
use palm of hand against trochanter with tip of finger on anterior iliac spine
164
what types of injections requires you to pull the skin to the side before the needle insertion?
z-track
165
a small, sterile, prefilled glass container that usually holds a single dose of hypodermic solution is known as what?
ampule
166
what is the number of pills needed per day for the Allegra 60mg BID?
two
167
in children 2 years or older, what is the correct angle of injection into the vastus lateralis?
90 degrees
168
why is choosing the proper site for injections important?
ensures the medication is delivered to the correct tissue type
169
the gentle pulling back on the plunger of the syringe to ensure the needle tip is not in a blood vessel is
aspiration
170
what is the correct interpretation of a prescription that reads penicillin V 500 mg po qid #50?
dispense 50 tablets of penicillin 500mg each and have the patient take one tablet four times a day
171
what is equal to 5ml
1 tsp
172
what does not require aspiration with giving an injection?
intradermal
173
how many grams is equal to 1,000 milligrams?
1
174
what syringe type is most frequently used to inject minute amounts for allergy testing and allergy injections?
tuberculin
175
what is the preferred site for infant and children intramuscular injections?
vastus lateralis
176
what injections do not require massage after administration?
z-track and intradermal
177
list the 6 rights of administering a medication
patient, dose, route, documentation, time, medication
178
when administering a TB test, always remember __ up so you're able to create a __
bevel, wheal
179
what best describes an electrocardiogram?
graphic representation of the heart's electrical activity
180
where is the lead for a V6 reading placed?
horizontal to V4 at left midaxillary line
181
why should the ECG tracing be performed in a quiet, warm, exam room away from electrical equipment?
artifacts are reduced
182
what indicates ventricular depolarization?
QRS complex
183
what is the name of the body's natural pacemaker?
SA node
184
where does deoxygenated blood enter the heart?
right atrium
185
what occurs if the metal tip of a lead wire becomes detached from an electrode?
interrupted baseline
186
what does the cardiac cycle represent?
one heartbeat
187
what best describes the electrical conduction system of the heart?
SA node to Purkinje fibers
188
what best describes what the P wave represents?
atrial depolarization
189
the standard electrocardiogram shows the heart's electrical activity from different angles through "leads" How many leads are recorded?
12
190
what procedure involves taking a portion of a vein and transplanting it into one or more of the hearts' coronary arteries?
coronary artery bypass
191
what is the term used to refer to an ECG reading that is within normal limits?
normal sinus rhythm
192
what is an example of an artifact caused by electrical interference?
AC interference
