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Flashcards in CLP Final Lecture Exam Deck (275):
1

______ from the ear can be fixed to the slide with heat, making it thinner and easier to read

Cerumen (wax)

2

Always wear gloves when dealing with ear infections as _______ can cause chronic ear infections

MRSA

3

What are 3 things that can cause Otitis Externa? (There are 10)

- allergies
- parasites
- microorganisms
- foreign body
- trauma
- hormonal imbalance
- anatomy of ear
- hereditary
- owner induced
- tumor/polyp

4

Are ear polyps more common in cats or dogs?

Cats

5

Where in the ear does a polyp begin? In what direction does it grow? How is it removed

Begins in the middle ear and grows outward. Needs to be surgically removed.

6

True or false: All bacteria found in the ear is pathogenic

False.

7

What are the 3 distinguishing factors of whether or not bacteria in the ear is pathogenic?

- Numbers (low vs high)
- Morphology (rods vs cocci)
- Neighbourhood (WBC's present or not)

8

Why is a culture and sensitivity so important?

Helps us identify the species and therefore choose the best treatment

9

What is the most common species of yeast found in ears?

Malassezia

10

Why is it important to specify if you see yeast and bacteria on ear cytology, or only one?

Some medications are specific to each

11

Which 2 WBC's are commonly found in ear cytology?

Neutrophils or macrophages

12

What does it mean if there is WBC's present on ear cytology with no bacteria?

INflammatory response due to environment or trauma

13

The definition of ______ is an abnormal change in structure of an organ or tissue due to injury or disease

lesion

14

True or false: Lesions do not include lumps and bumps

False

15

What are the main 4 types of Lesions we see?

Erosive, surface, fistulous tract and generalized

16

What is an example of an erosive lesion?

Decubital ulcer

17

What is an example of a Surface lesion?

Papule, macule, scales, wheals

18

What is an example of a fistulous tract? What is the definition?

Open tract draining from one area to another such as an anal gland abscess

19

What is the definition of a Generalized lesion? Give an example

Covering the body and not just one area, any surface lesion can be a generalized lesion

20

Wheals in dogs can be compared to _____ in humans

Hives

21

What are 4 examples of fluid-filled lesions?

Cyst, pustule, vesicle, bulla

22

What is the difference between a papule and a pustule?

Papule - small raised skin lesion
Pustule - small raised skin lesion containing pus and are now infective

23

True or false: When a blister leaks, the fluid is normally not infectious

False.

24

What 3 general types of sampling do we perform?

Organ, lesions and fluids

25

What 5 techniques for sampling do we use?

- skin scrape
- swab
- impression
- fnb
- fna

26

Impression techniques are best used to determine if ____ or _____ is present

Bacterial or fungal infection

27

True or false: Impression smears work best for ulcerative superficial lesions with exudate

False. They work best without exudate but can be done on both

28

What are the 2 methods of impression smears?

1. Living superficial
2. Living surgical excised

29

Explain the process of Living Superficial Impression Smear (4 steps)

1. FNB to acquire deep cells
2. Press lesion against middle of glass slide
3. Clean lesion with saline and sterile gauze
4. Take a second imprint for a comparative sample

30

Explain the process of Living Surgical Excised Impression Smear (2 steps)

1. Cut the sample and blot it
2. Gently contact sample and slide

31

True or false: Skin scraping typically doesn't yield many cells

False.

32

True or false: Skin scraping works well on exudative lesions

False

33

What is the general technique for skin scraping?

Hold the scalpel blade on a 90 degree angle and pull across tissue toward you, do this multiple times and smear onto clean slide

34

True or false: Mineral oil should be added to skin scraping smears

False.

35

What 2 areas are typically sampled using swabs?

Ears, vaginal

36

What is the difference between FNB and FNA

Aspirate: Negative pressure applied into syringe to project sample
Non-aspirate: No negative pressure is applied

37

Describe the process of a FNA (9 steps)

1. Sedate if needed.
2. Stabilize mass
3. Introduce needle to the MIDDLE of the mass
4. Withdraw the plunger to 3/4 the volume of syringe
5. Repeatedly pass needle through 2/3 the diameter of the mass
6. Release negative pressure before each redirect
7. Release negative pressure and remove needle
8. Remove needle from syringe, draw air into syringe, replace needle, and project sample to slide
9. Collect 2-3 samples from numerous places

38

When is a squash/sandwich prep indicated?

Solid tissue samples when clumps are present

39

When is a blood/wedge prep indicated?

Liquid samples with low cellularity and viscosity

40

When is a starfish prep indicated?

Thick/chunky fluid

41

When is a tape preparation indicated?

Looking for bacteria or yeast on the skin or some ectoparasites

42

True or false: Punch biopsy is non-invasive and doesn't require sutures or staples

False, requires sedation and sutrues/staples

43

What is the term for retrieving a fluid sample from a joint capsule?

Arthrocentesis

44

True or false: dogs have 1 hair in each skin follicle

False, they have bundles

45

How many layers of live cells make up dog skin?

10-15

46

True or false: In epithelial cytology, basal cells are basically baby keratinocytes.

True

47

Basal cell nuclei begin to change shape and become _____ as they transition to superficial cells

pyknotic

48

True or false: Keratinocytes are old cells and Basal cells are baby cells

True

49

What are the 4 main cells that make up the Epidermal layer?

Keratinocytes, melanocytes, merkel cells and langerhans cells

50

85% of skin cytology will be ______ cells which includes squamous, intermediate and basal

Keratinocytes

51

Keratinocytes produce ______ which is a protein that provides strength to skin, hair and nails

Keratin

52

What % of skin cytology will be Melanocytes?

5%

53

True or false: Keratinocytes provide antimicrobial properties, immune protection and UV protection

True

54

What type of skin cell provides pigment to hair?

Melanocytes

55

Langerhans are essentially epidermal _______ cells

macrophage

56

Merkel cells are responsible for attachment to sensory neurons so we can feel ________

touch

57

True or false: Merkel cells are found in whiskers

True

58

Describe a Cholesterol crystal on skin cytology

The imprint left behind after keratin has dissolved

59

What 2 samples are likely to have Cholesterol crystals?

Sebaceous cyst aspirate, abdominal fluid

60

What are the 3 main Dermis cell types?

Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells

61

True or false: Some macrophages are specific to areas of the body

True

62

True or false: Mast cells are covered in azuraphilic granules

Fake news. They are covered in histamine granules

63

Why are Macrophages like Donald Trump?

MAKE THE BODY GREAT AGAIN

64

If there is numerous mast cells, there is like a _________

mast cell tumor

65

What MUST be administered to a patient before taking an FNA of a Mast Cell Tumor?

Give Benadryl! Disturbing the tumor can cause anaphylactic shock

66

True or false: Mast cell tumors are typically seen all over the body

False. Usually only 1

67

What type of cells are commonly seen on Hypodermis cytology?

Atipocytes (fat cells)

68

What are the 5 subclassifications of Inflammatory samples?

Purulent, pyogranulomatous, granulomatous, esoinophilic, lymphocytic

69

If a sample has bacteria and WBC's, it is a ________ response which is subclassified into what 3 groups?

infection, either bacterial, parasitic or mycotic

70

If a sample has WBC's but no bacteria, it is a ______ response

Inflammatory

71

Inflammatory subcategories Purulent or Pyogranulomatous are further broken down into what 3 categories?

Degenerate (broken down neutrophils), Non-degenerate (normal neutrophils) and/or Septic/mycotic/parasitic (bacteria in neutrophils)

72

If an inflammatory samples has more than ____% neutrophils, it is considered Purulent. The rest of the cells will be _______

70, macrophages or eosinophils

73

True or false: Purulent inflammation is a sign of chronic inflammation

False. It is acute.

74

If an inflammatory sample has more than 50% macrophages, it is classified as:

Granulomatous

75

True or false; Granulomatous inflammation is considered chronic

True, macrophages only come out once neutrophils begin to die

76

What are the criteria for an imflammatory sample to be considered Pyogranulomatous?

Less than 70% neutrophils and 15-50% macrophages

77

For an inflammatory response to be considered eosinophilic, there must be __-___% eos present

10-20

78

What is the most common cause of eosinophilic inflammation?

Allergic reaction or parasitic reaction

79

If there is no allergy or parasite present with eosinophilic inflammation, what is the likely cause?

Mast cell tumor

80

Eosinophilic granulomas can be treated with ________

prednisone

81

True or false; Lymphocytic inflammation is quite common in cats

False, very uncommon in general

82

If there is lymphocytic inflammation, is it important to assess for _____ changes to rule out ______

Malignant, lymphosarcoma

83

If there is numerous lymphocytes or abnormal lymphocytes, or lymphocytes without plasma cells, you should consider _______

lymphoma

84

Describe Karyolysis of neutrophils

Nucleus begins to stretch, thin out and lose its shape and size. The cell can swell, often the nucleus is stuck to the side of the cytoplasm

85

Describe Pyknosis of neutrophils

Nucleus curled into a small, dark ball (dying)

86

Describe karyorrhexis of neutrophils

Nucleus has split into tiny ltitle pyknotic balls (more than 1, dead)

87

During estrus cycle, the _____ gland releases the follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) to tell the ovary to produce a follicle

Pituitary gland

88

The ____ releases estrogen

Ovary

89

The brain sends out the ______ hormone which causes the follicle to burst and release an egg

Luteinizing

90

Progesterone is released by the ovary to help:

Prpeare the uterus for fetal development

91

The canine proestrus cycle is _____ days in length

9

92

What clinical signs are seen during Proestrus?

- Vulvar edema
- Bloody discharge

93

True or false; Proestrus is "true heat"

False. Estrus is.

94

During proestrus, there is a surge in ______ hormone

Estrogen

95

During Estrus, there is a surge in ______ hormone

Luteinizing (LH)

96

Canine estrus lasts _____ days

9

97

True or false: Estrus stage can be accompanied by clear or straw coloured discharge

True

98

Canine diestrus lasts about _____ days

60

99

At what estrus stage is pyometra likely to occur?

Diestrus

100

Anestrus in the dog lasts about _______ months

4.5

101

Which cycle of estrus does pregnancy occur?

Instead of diestrus

102

What does "short day breeder" mean?

Species that breed when the days are mostly dark, such as in the fall and winter. This includes sheep, goats and deer

103

What does "long day breeder" mean?

Species that breed when the days are mostly light, in the spring and winter. This includes hamsters, rabbits, and gerbils

104

How long does the equine estrus cycle last?

5-7 days

105

When taking a sample of vaginal discharge - be sure to reduce the discharge with _____to decrease contamination

saline

106

What are the 4 main types of cells seen on vaginal cytology? (PISA)

Parabasal, intermediate, superficial, anuclear

107

Describe the appearance of a parabasal cell

- Small
- Round
- Large, round, healthy nucleus
- More nucleus than cytoplasm
- Youngest cells

108

Intermediate cells are roughly _____ times the size of parabasal cells, with smaller nuclei

2x

109

What is the difference between small and large intermediate cells?

Small - cell is less round, starting to change shape
Large - cell edges begin to fold and become angular

110

Superficial cells often have a ______ nucleus

Pyknotic

111

Superficial cells are most abundant during _____ stage of estrus

Estrus

112

A _________ cell is described as the end of keritinization/life of a parabasal cell

Anuclear

113

True or false: Anuclear cells have small, karyorrhectic nuclei

False. They have no nuclei.

114

Neutrophils are common during Diestrus, why?

To clean up

115

What is a Metestrus/Metestrum cell?

An intermediate cell with a neutrophil passing through it

116

What is the process of a neutrophil passing through an intermediate cell called?

Emperiopolesis

117

When are metestrus cells seen?

Diestrus

118

A parabasal or an intermediate cell with vacuolated cytoplasm is called a ______ cell

Foam

119

During Proestrus, what 5 cells might be seen?

1. Parabasals
2. Intermediate
3. Superficial
4. Neutrophils (in early stage)
5. RBC's

120

During Estrus, you will see 90+% superficial cells, possible RBC's and possible bacteria, but NO ______

neutrophils

121

What does Diestrus generally look like under the microscope? What other stage can it be confused with and how would you differentiate?

50% superficial, 50% parabasals or intermediates. Can be confused with proestrus, clinical signs should be considered

122

The definition of _______ is any new abnormal growth, specifically one in which cell multiplication is uncontrolled and progrsssive; benign or malignant

neoplasm

123

True or false: Benign neoplasms typically do not destroy surrounding normal tissue function, but can impair tissue function by their presence

True

124

Give an example of a benign neoplasm

Lipoma

125

True or false: Malignant neoplasms display uncontrolled growth do destroy local tissue

True

126

______ is how cancer cells spread from the site of origin to secondary locations.

Metastasis

127

Give an example of a metastatic/malignant neoplasm

Lymphosarcoma

128

What are the 2 most common cytology samples taken when cancer is suspected?

FNA and Bone marrow aspirate

129

Biopsy or FNA or FNB are best for sampling tumors and lymph nodes

False. Biopsy is best for masses only - not for use on lymph nodes

130

When is Bone Marrow Aspirate/Core indicated?

When peripheral blood is showing suspect abnormalities and cancer is a rule out

131

_________ testing is necessary for definitive neoplastic diagnosis

Histopathology

132

Neoplastic samples are subclassified into what 3 categories?

1. Round cell
2. Epithelial cell
3. Mesenchymal/Spindle cell

133

Is epithelial neoplasia typically seen in clumps or alone?

Clumps

134

Mesenchymal neoplasia is typically small to medium in size (T or F)

True

135

Epithelial tumors can involve what 3 parts of the skin?

1. Skin itself
2. Glands in the skin
3. Hair follicles

136

Epithelial tumors tend to be _____ in shape and the cells are attached to one another in sheets or clumps

round

137

Give 2 examples of Epitheliel tumors (there s 7)

- Papilloma
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Basal cell tumor
- Sebaceous gland tumor
- Sweat gland tumor
- Perianal tumor
- Transitional cell carcinoma

138

Transitional cell carcinoma is typically related to what body system?

Urinary

139

Changes in shape/size of nuclei or nucleoli upon cytology are indicative of:

malignancy

140

Mesenchymal tumors begin from cells that surround or support the skin, such as: (4)

Fat, connective tissue, blood vessels, nerves

141

Mesenchymal tumors often have poorly-defined ______ when compared to epithelial tumors

Cellular membranes

142

Mesenchymal tumor cells are often _____ shaped and are loose, not in clumps/sheets (with the exception of Lipomas)

spindle

143

What are 3 examples of Mesenchymal tumors?

Fibroma, lipoma, hemangiosarcoma

144

Give 3 examples of round cell tumors: (6)

- mast cell
- lymphoma/lymphosarcoma
- histiocytoma
- melanoma
- plasmacytoma
- transmissible venereal tumor

145

Melanomas are considered round cell tumors, however they are an exception to the rules because:

They can be any shape and therefore fall under any category

146

True or false: Mast cell tumors are graded by degree of malignancy and range from Grade 1 to Grade 5

False - they only range from Grade 1-3

147

Transmissible veneral tumor is not actually transmisslbe

False. It is contagious

148

Histiocytic lesions can look like _______ and are hairless

buttons

149

Naked nuclei happen because:

the cell ruptures due to being fragile

150

True or false: naked nuclei are indicative of malignancy

False. Cannot be diagnostic and sample should be re-taken if there is many

151

Why do carcinomas have high chances of mets developing?

They spread through both the lymphatic system and blood stream

152

Tumor grading of "well diffeentiated tissue structure, slow cell division and minimal tissue invasion" is classified as:

Low grade

153

What are some of the 9 clinical signs of early cancer?

- Abnormal swelling that persists/grows
- Sores that dont heal
- Weight loss
- Loss of appetite/dysphagia
- Bleeding/discharge from openings
- Bad odor
- Persistent lameness
- Hesitation to exercise
- Difficulty urinating, breathing or defecating

154

Criteria of malignancy can be divided into what 2 types?

Nuclear and general

155

Malignancy requires ______ nuclear criteria before commenting on malignant or benign

3-5

156

Nucleoli that are more than 5um are called:

Macronucleoli

157

What is nuclear molding?

2 nuclei in the same cell, morphing together

158

What are the 3 best criteria of malignancy to look for:

1. Nucleoli are different sizes in the same cell
2. Multi-nucleation
3. Striking cellular anisokaryosis

159

What are 4 indications that nasal cytology should be done?

Nasal discharge, patient discomfort, changing in breath sounds, visible masses or lesions

160

____________ provides a specific sampling of the bronchioles and alveoli

Bronchoalveolar lavage

161

Collecting samples for pulmonary cytology should be placed into a _____ tube

LTT

162

Collecting samples for pulmonary culture and sensitivity testing should be placed in a ______ tube

RTT

163

What are some cells you may see upon viewing pulmonary cytology?

Epithalial, neutrophils, macrophage, lymphocyte, rbc's

164

When assessing the pulmonary/nasal tracts for abnormalities, the _____ should also be checked as it relates to the nasopharynx and oropharynx

mouth

165

What are 3 of 7 clinical signs that may cause us to look in the mouth?

- Smell
- discharge
- excessive drooling
- difficulties eatnig
- painful
- changes in behaviour
- excessive or unusual tongue movement

166

What 7 characteritics do we evaluate effusions for?

1. Physical
2. Protein
3. Nucleated cell count
4. Cytology
5. PCV
6. Clinical chemistry
7. Culture and sensitivity

167

If uroperitoneum is suspected, ________ testing should be performed

Clinical chemistry

168

If uroperitoneum was present, clinical chemistry would reveal increased levels of what 4 things?

Bilirubin, BUN/CREA, Triglycerides Cholestrol

169

What are 3 types of effusions?

Transudates, modified transudates and exudates

170

An effusion that is described as "an abnormal volume of normal fluid" is classified as:

Transudate

171

Transudates typically have _____ protein and cellularity (high, moderate or low)

low

172

A modified transudate can be described as:

Fluid that was once transudate but now has mild inflammatory reaction due to length of presence

173

Modified transudate effusions typically have _____ protein and cellularity (high, low, moderate)

moderate

174

In the beginning stages of modified transudates, the fluid will have a ______-like appearance

milk

175

Congestive heart failure re-routes fluids in the lymphatic system and other places. Therefore, cats will get _____ effusion and dogs will get ______ effusion

Pleural, abdominal

176

Chylothorax is fluid that looks like ______

milk

177

Chylous fluid is a derivative of ____ fluid/tissues

lymphatic

178

What are 2 criteria of Exudate effusions?

Abnormal fluid with high protein and/or nucleated cell count

179

In normal bodily fluid, expect to find what 2 cells?

Mesothelial cells and occasional leukocytes

180

Why is abdominal fluid from FIP so high in protein?

Protein from the blood is moving into the cavity

181

What type of inflammation classification is abdominal fluid from FIP?

Pyogranulomatous, typically non-degenerate

182

What 2 rule outs should be done when Chylothorax is present?

Mediastinal tumor or congenital heart failure

183

Hemorrhagic fluid is made of macrophages with ________ inside the cytoplasm (product of erythrophagocytosis)

Hemosiderin/Hemotoidin

184

The breakdown of Hemoglobin creates what 2 products?

Hematoidin or Hemosiderin

185

What does Hematoidin look like?

Yellow crystals

186

What does Hemosiderin look like?

Black or blue-green granules

187

Upon viewing Hemorrhagic effusions under the microscope, activated macrophages can be seen displaying _____________

erythrophagocytosis

188

Why don't mesenchymal tumors show evidence upon Effusion analysis?

They dissolve in fluid

189

Bilious effusions are often classified as ______

Exudative

190

What colour are bilious effusions?

Green/yellow/orange

191

How does bilious effusion occur? What can cause this?

Bile moving into the abdomen. This can be caused by gallbladder rupture or trauma to the abdomen.

192

How would you know if bilious effusion is present via clinical chemistry?

Fluid bilirubin will be 2x serum bilirubin

193

What are the 3 main components of the Endocrine system?

Pancreas, Thyroid and Adrenal

194

What does the pancreas regulate?

Insulin and blood glucose

195

What does the thyroid regulate?

Regulates metabolism

196

What does the adrenal gland regulate?

Corticosteroids

197

What are the 2 main diseases of the Thyroid?

Hypothyroid or Hyperthyroid

198

What are the 2 main diseases of the adrenal system?

Hyper/hypoadrenocorticism

199

What is meant by the term Euthyroid?

Normal functioning thyroid

200

What does Myxedema mean?

swelling of the face, associated with hypothyroidism

201

True or false: Doberman and Schnauzers are predisposed to hypothyroidism

True

202

When should regular T4 checks begin after beginning ThyroTabs for hypothyroidism?

1 month

203

What are 3 other conditions than can cause decrease in thyroid function, but is not hypothyroidism? (There is 8)

- starvation
- protein-energy malnutrition
- severe trauma
- myocardial infarction
- chronic kidney disease
- diabetic ketoacidosis
- thermal injury
- sepsis

204

_____ is a drug that can interfere with the thyroid and decrease it's function

Phenobarbital

205

What is the #1 most common thyroid condition in cats?

Hyperthyroidism

206

What are 5 clinical signs of cats with hyperthyroidism?

- dramatic weight loss
- increased HR
- increased hunger
- PU/PD
- hyperactivity

207

Why might a change in voice tone be seen in hyperthyroid cats?

CHange in voice due to compression of the larynx

208

True or false: Diagnosis relies on only 1 result of elevated T4

False - consistently elevated T4

209

Besides medications, what are 3 other treatments that could help hyperthyroidism?

Radioactive iodine, thyroidectomy, diet

210

What is the technical term for Cushing's disease?

Hyperadrenocorticism

211

Pendulous abdomen, hairloss and increased pigmentation of skin are all clinical signs of what disease?

Hyperadrenocorticism

212

What are 2 increases in blood chemistries that are indicative of Cushing's disease?

ALKPHOS

213

What are 2 common types of Hyperadrenocorticism?

Pituitary Dependent (PDH) and Functional Adrenal Tumor (FAT)

214

What is the technical term for Addison's disease? What does this mean?

Hypoadrenocorticism, not producing cortisol

215

What are the 2 main reasons we collect sperm?

Artificial insemination analysis or check for infection/cancer

216

What are the 3 portions to each sperm sample?

1. Pre-sperm
2. Sperm-rich
3. Prostatic fraction

217

True or false: For bulls, rams and bucks, all 3 portions of sperm should be collected

True

218

What are 5 criteria for sperm assessment?

1. Volume
2. Concentration
3. Colour
4. Morphology
5. Motility

219

What does green sperm colour indicate?

Infection

220

What does red sperm colour indicate?

Typically blood

221

What does it mean if sperm is clear?

Asospermia - lack or no sperm present

222

What is specifically measured with sperm Motility?

Percentage of progressively motile sperm

223

Which part of the sperm body contains DNA and enzymes needed to penetrate the egg?

Head

224

Which part of the sperm body contains Mitochondria?

Midpiece

225

What are 6 abnormal morphology that can be seen in the head of the sperm?

1. double head
2. small head
3. large head
4. pear-shaped head
5. elongated head
6. round head

226

What are 5 abnormal morphology that can be seen in the midpiece of the sperm?

1. swollen midpiece
2. coiled midpiece and tail
3. bent midpiece
4. double midpiece
5. abaxial midpiece

227

What are 5 abnormal morphology that can be seen in the tail of the sperm?

1. Tailless
2. Headless tail
3. Distal protoplasmic droplet (ball on midpiece)
4. Proximal protoplasmic droplet (ball near the head)
5. Bent tail

228

True or false: Azoospermia means maximum fertility

False, it means infertile

229

What are 3 examples of Non-inflammatory, Non-neoplastic lesions? (There is 7)

1. hyperplasia
2. cystic mass
3. seroma
4. epidermal inclusion cyst
5. follicular cyst
6. mucocele
7. hematoma

230

"A condition in which there is an increase in the number of normal cells in a tissue or organ" is the definition of:

Hyperplasia

231

What are 2 main causes of hyperplasia?

Injury or hormone imbalance

232

What is the main difference between Hyperplasia and Neoplasia?

Hyperplasia is a response to a stimulus and Neoplasia is unresponsive to stimuli and proliferates on its own

233

What is the best way to distinguish between Hyperplasia and Benign Neoplasia?

Histopathology is the only way

234

Cystic masses are masses that are _______ filled

liquid

235

What are 3 examples of Cystic masses?

Seroma, hematoma, sebaceous cyst

236

What is a seroma?

Pocket of serum that resembles a tumor

237

What is the main cause of seromas?

Post-surgical fluid filling

238

Seromas have ______ cellularity (high, low)

low

239

What is the common term for an Epidermal Inclusion Cyst?

Sebaceous cyst

240

When smearing, sebaceous cysts appear ______ in texture

gritty

241

What 3 things are you most likely to see under cytological examination of sebaceous cyst fluid?

Squamous cells, keratin flakes and cholestrol crystals

242

What is a mucocele?

Enlargement of a hollow organ or sac that is filling with mucous

243

A pocket or collection of blood outside of the blood vessels is called a:

Hematoma

244

Where are hematomas most commonly seen?

Pinna or venipuncture site

245

What are 5 main functions of electrolytes in the body?

1. Maintain osmotic pressure
2. Water balance
3. Muscular and nervous function
4. Acid-base balance
5. Blood clotting

246

Imbalanced electrolytes most often effect the ____ system

cardiac

247

What are the 6 main electrolytes we look at?

- Sodium
- Potassium
- Chloride
- Calcium
- Phosphorus
- Magnesium

248

Avoid tubes that contain _______ when testing for electrolyes

anticoagulant

249

The most abundant extracellular cation of electrolytes is _______

Sodium

250

The most common cause of hypernatremia is:

dehydration

251

DO we need serum or plasma for Sodium level testing?

Serum

252

In renal disease, due to continuous dehydration potassium levels will be ______ and sodium levels will be ______ (increased or decreased)

decreased, increased

253

Usually sodium is not measured on its own but rather in a ratio with what other electrolyte?

Potassium

254

Potassium is primarily found _____, which means serum potassium gives little information about potassium in the body

Intracellular

255

_____ electrolyte is important for normal cardiac, muscular and nervous function

Potassium

256

Severaly dehydrated patients or patients with an imbalance in their sodium:potassium have a high risk of:

cardiac arrhythmias

257

True or false: Serum is the sample of choice for Potassium testing

False - plasma is best

258

Why couldn't we use whole blood to test Potassium levels?

Platelets release potassium during clotting, would render results invalid

259

Why do we want to avoid Hemolysis at all costs when looking at Potassium numbers?

Potassium is higher intracellularly, if RBC's rupture the reading will be invalid

260

What is the safest method to add Potassium to a patient's IV bag and why?

Ensure line is clamped and not running, potassium is put into IV bag and bag is inverted several times to avoid giving an accidental bolus of Potassium, likely stopping the heart

261

It is important to measure _____ levels as related to Diabetic ketoacidosis, renal failure and Addison's disease along with Sodium and Potassium levels

Chloride

262

What is the term for increased potassium in the blood?

Hyperkalemia

263

Calcium has an inverse relationship with ______. What does this mean?

phosphorus. If one goes up, other goes down

264

What is Eclampsia?

Low calcium levels in post-partum animals due to litter feeding off mom's supply

265

True or false: Eclampsia is not an emergency

False!!

266

How can we treat Eclampsia?

IV Calcium

267

What are 3 clinical signs of Eclampsia?

Panting, vomiting, "drunk" due to muscle weakness/stiffness

268

True or false: For calcium testing, plasma should be put into a LTT

Fake news. EDTA will decrease plasma calcium levels

269

Serum calcium is affected by serum _______, if those levels are abnormal the serum calcium level needs to be adjusted/recalculated

Albumin

270

What is the term for increased Phosphorus in the blood?

hyperphosphatemia

271

Phosphorus and ______ have an inverse relationship

Calcium

272

Phosphorus is regulated by the _______ system

renal

273

Growing animals will have _______ serum phosphorus (high or low)

high

274

Hypophosphatemia is often seen during what 2 conditions?

Hyperthyroid and renal failure

275

Anticoagulants will cause a false decrease in ________

magnesium