Flashcards in CLP Final Lecture Exam Deck (275):
______ from the ear can be fixed to the slide with heat, making it thinner and easier to read
Always wear gloves when dealing with ear infections as _______ can cause chronic ear infections
What are 3 things that can cause Otitis Externa? (There are 10)
- foreign body
- hormonal imbalance
- anatomy of ear
- owner induced
Are ear polyps more common in cats or dogs?
Where in the ear does a polyp begin? In what direction does it grow? How is it removed
Begins in the middle ear and grows outward. Needs to be surgically removed.
True or false: All bacteria found in the ear is pathogenic
What are the 3 distinguishing factors of whether or not bacteria in the ear is pathogenic?
- Numbers (low vs high)
- Morphology (rods vs cocci)
- Neighbourhood (WBC's present or not)
Why is a culture and sensitivity so important?
Helps us identify the species and therefore choose the best treatment
What is the most common species of yeast found in ears?
Why is it important to specify if you see yeast and bacteria on ear cytology, or only one?
Some medications are specific to each
Which 2 WBC's are commonly found in ear cytology?
Neutrophils or macrophages
What does it mean if there is WBC's present on ear cytology with no bacteria?
INflammatory response due to environment or trauma
The definition of ______ is an abnormal change in structure of an organ or tissue due to injury or disease
True or false: Lesions do not include lumps and bumps
What are the main 4 types of Lesions we see?
Erosive, surface, fistulous tract and generalized
What is an example of an erosive lesion?
What is an example of a Surface lesion?
Papule, macule, scales, wheals
What is an example of a fistulous tract? What is the definition?
Open tract draining from one area to another such as an anal gland abscess
What is the definition of a Generalized lesion? Give an example
Covering the body and not just one area, any surface lesion can be a generalized lesion
Wheals in dogs can be compared to _____ in humans
What are 4 examples of fluid-filled lesions?
Cyst, pustule, vesicle, bulla
What is the difference between a papule and a pustule?
Papule - small raised skin lesion
Pustule - small raised skin lesion containing pus and are now infective
True or false: When a blister leaks, the fluid is normally not infectious
What 3 general types of sampling do we perform?
Organ, lesions and fluids
What 5 techniques for sampling do we use?
- skin scrape
Impression techniques are best used to determine if ____ or _____ is present
Bacterial or fungal infection
True or false: Impression smears work best for ulcerative superficial lesions with exudate
False. They work best without exudate but can be done on both
What are the 2 methods of impression smears?
1. Living superficial
2. Living surgical excised
Explain the process of Living Superficial Impression Smear (4 steps)
1. FNB to acquire deep cells
2. Press lesion against middle of glass slide
3. Clean lesion with saline and sterile gauze
4. Take a second imprint for a comparative sample
Explain the process of Living Surgical Excised Impression Smear (2 steps)
1. Cut the sample and blot it
2. Gently contact sample and slide
True or false: Skin scraping typically doesn't yield many cells
True or false: Skin scraping works well on exudative lesions
What is the general technique for skin scraping?
Hold the scalpel blade on a 90 degree angle and pull across tissue toward you, do this multiple times and smear onto clean slide
True or false: Mineral oil should be added to skin scraping smears
What 2 areas are typically sampled using swabs?
What is the difference between FNB and FNA
Aspirate: Negative pressure applied into syringe to project sample
Non-aspirate: No negative pressure is applied
Describe the process of a FNA (9 steps)
1. Sedate if needed.
2. Stabilize mass
3. Introduce needle to the MIDDLE of the mass
4. Withdraw the plunger to 3/4 the volume of syringe
5. Repeatedly pass needle through 2/3 the diameter of the mass
6. Release negative pressure before each redirect
7. Release negative pressure and remove needle
8. Remove needle from syringe, draw air into syringe, replace needle, and project sample to slide
9. Collect 2-3 samples from numerous places
When is a squash/sandwich prep indicated?
Solid tissue samples when clumps are present
When is a blood/wedge prep indicated?
Liquid samples with low cellularity and viscosity
When is a starfish prep indicated?
When is a tape preparation indicated?
Looking for bacteria or yeast on the skin or some ectoparasites
True or false: Punch biopsy is non-invasive and doesn't require sutures or staples
False, requires sedation and sutrues/staples
What is the term for retrieving a fluid sample from a joint capsule?
True or false: dogs have 1 hair in each skin follicle
False, they have bundles
How many layers of live cells make up dog skin?
True or false: In epithelial cytology, basal cells are basically baby keratinocytes.
Basal cell nuclei begin to change shape and become _____ as they transition to superficial cells
True or false: Keratinocytes are old cells and Basal cells are baby cells
What are the 4 main cells that make up the Epidermal layer?
Keratinocytes, melanocytes, merkel cells and langerhans cells
85% of skin cytology will be ______ cells which includes squamous, intermediate and basal
Keratinocytes produce ______ which is a protein that provides strength to skin, hair and nails
What % of skin cytology will be Melanocytes?
True or false: Keratinocytes provide antimicrobial properties, immune protection and UV protection
What type of skin cell provides pigment to hair?
Langerhans are essentially epidermal _______ cells
Merkel cells are responsible for attachment to sensory neurons so we can feel ________
True or false: Merkel cells are found in whiskers
Describe a Cholesterol crystal on skin cytology
The imprint left behind after keratin has dissolved
What 2 samples are likely to have Cholesterol crystals?
Sebaceous cyst aspirate, abdominal fluid
What are the 3 main Dermis cell types?
Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells
True or false: Some macrophages are specific to areas of the body
True or false: Mast cells are covered in azuraphilic granules
Fake news. They are covered in histamine granules
Why are Macrophages like Donald Trump?
MAKE THE BODY GREAT AGAIN
If there is numerous mast cells, there is like a _________
mast cell tumor
What MUST be administered to a patient before taking an FNA of a Mast Cell Tumor?
Give Benadryl! Disturbing the tumor can cause anaphylactic shock
True or false: Mast cell tumors are typically seen all over the body
False. Usually only 1
What type of cells are commonly seen on Hypodermis cytology?
Atipocytes (fat cells)
What are the 5 subclassifications of Inflammatory samples?
Purulent, pyogranulomatous, granulomatous, esoinophilic, lymphocytic
If a sample has bacteria and WBC's, it is a ________ response which is subclassified into what 3 groups?
infection, either bacterial, parasitic or mycotic
If a sample has WBC's but no bacteria, it is a ______ response
Inflammatory subcategories Purulent or Pyogranulomatous are further broken down into what 3 categories?
Degenerate (broken down neutrophils), Non-degenerate (normal neutrophils) and/or Septic/mycotic/parasitic (bacteria in neutrophils)
If an inflammatory samples has more than ____% neutrophils, it is considered Purulent. The rest of the cells will be _______
70, macrophages or eosinophils
True or false: Purulent inflammation is a sign of chronic inflammation
False. It is acute.
If an inflammatory sample has more than 50% macrophages, it is classified as:
True or false; Granulomatous inflammation is considered chronic
True, macrophages only come out once neutrophils begin to die
What are the criteria for an imflammatory sample to be considered Pyogranulomatous?
Less than 70% neutrophils and 15-50% macrophages
For an inflammatory response to be considered eosinophilic, there must be __-___% eos present
What is the most common cause of eosinophilic inflammation?
Allergic reaction or parasitic reaction
If there is no allergy or parasite present with eosinophilic inflammation, what is the likely cause?
Mast cell tumor
Eosinophilic granulomas can be treated with ________
True or false; Lymphocytic inflammation is quite common in cats
False, very uncommon in general
If there is lymphocytic inflammation, is it important to assess for _____ changes to rule out ______
If there is numerous lymphocytes or abnormal lymphocytes, or lymphocytes without plasma cells, you should consider _______
Describe Karyolysis of neutrophils
Nucleus begins to stretch, thin out and lose its shape and size. The cell can swell, often the nucleus is stuck to the side of the cytoplasm
Describe Pyknosis of neutrophils
Nucleus curled into a small, dark ball (dying)
Describe karyorrhexis of neutrophils
Nucleus has split into tiny ltitle pyknotic balls (more than 1, dead)
During estrus cycle, the _____ gland releases the follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) to tell the ovary to produce a follicle
The ____ releases estrogen
The brain sends out the ______ hormone which causes the follicle to burst and release an egg
Progesterone is released by the ovary to help:
Prpeare the uterus for fetal development
The canine proestrus cycle is _____ days in length
What clinical signs are seen during Proestrus?
- Vulvar edema
- Bloody discharge
True or false; Proestrus is "true heat"
False. Estrus is.
During proestrus, there is a surge in ______ hormone
During Estrus, there is a surge in ______ hormone
Canine estrus lasts _____ days
True or false: Estrus stage can be accompanied by clear or straw coloured discharge
Canine diestrus lasts about _____ days
At what estrus stage is pyometra likely to occur?
Anestrus in the dog lasts about _______ months
Which cycle of estrus does pregnancy occur?
Instead of diestrus
What does "short day breeder" mean?
Species that breed when the days are mostly dark, such as in the fall and winter. This includes sheep, goats and deer
What does "long day breeder" mean?
Species that breed when the days are mostly light, in the spring and winter. This includes hamsters, rabbits, and gerbils
How long does the equine estrus cycle last?
When taking a sample of vaginal discharge - be sure to reduce the discharge with _____to decrease contamination
What are the 4 main types of cells seen on vaginal cytology? (PISA)
Parabasal, intermediate, superficial, anuclear
Describe the appearance of a parabasal cell
- Large, round, healthy nucleus
- More nucleus than cytoplasm
- Youngest cells
Intermediate cells are roughly _____ times the size of parabasal cells, with smaller nuclei
What is the difference between small and large intermediate cells?
Small - cell is less round, starting to change shape
Large - cell edges begin to fold and become angular
Superficial cells often have a ______ nucleus
Superficial cells are most abundant during _____ stage of estrus
A _________ cell is described as the end of keritinization/life of a parabasal cell
True or false: Anuclear cells have small, karyorrhectic nuclei
False. They have no nuclei.
Neutrophils are common during Diestrus, why?
To clean up
What is a Metestrus/Metestrum cell?
An intermediate cell with a neutrophil passing through it
What is the process of a neutrophil passing through an intermediate cell called?
When are metestrus cells seen?
A parabasal or an intermediate cell with vacuolated cytoplasm is called a ______ cell
During Proestrus, what 5 cells might be seen?
4. Neutrophils (in early stage)
During Estrus, you will see 90+% superficial cells, possible RBC's and possible bacteria, but NO ______
What does Diestrus generally look like under the microscope? What other stage can it be confused with and how would you differentiate?
50% superficial, 50% parabasals or intermediates. Can be confused with proestrus, clinical signs should be considered
The definition of _______ is any new abnormal growth, specifically one in which cell multiplication is uncontrolled and progrsssive; benign or malignant
True or false: Benign neoplasms typically do not destroy surrounding normal tissue function, but can impair tissue function by their presence
Give an example of a benign neoplasm
True or false: Malignant neoplasms display uncontrolled growth do destroy local tissue
______ is how cancer cells spread from the site of origin to secondary locations.
Give an example of a metastatic/malignant neoplasm
What are the 2 most common cytology samples taken when cancer is suspected?
FNA and Bone marrow aspirate
Biopsy or FNA or FNB are best for sampling tumors and lymph nodes
False. Biopsy is best for masses only - not for use on lymph nodes
When is Bone Marrow Aspirate/Core indicated?
When peripheral blood is showing suspect abnormalities and cancer is a rule out
_________ testing is necessary for definitive neoplastic diagnosis
Neoplastic samples are subclassified into what 3 categories?
1. Round cell
2. Epithelial cell
3. Mesenchymal/Spindle cell
Is epithelial neoplasia typically seen in clumps or alone?
Mesenchymal neoplasia is typically small to medium in size (T or F)
Epithelial tumors can involve what 3 parts of the skin?
1. Skin itself
2. Glands in the skin
3. Hair follicles
Epithelial tumors tend to be _____ in shape and the cells are attached to one another in sheets or clumps
Give 2 examples of Epitheliel tumors (there s 7)
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Basal cell tumor
- Sebaceous gland tumor
- Sweat gland tumor
- Perianal tumor
- Transitional cell carcinoma
Transitional cell carcinoma is typically related to what body system?
Changes in shape/size of nuclei or nucleoli upon cytology are indicative of:
Mesenchymal tumors begin from cells that surround or support the skin, such as: (4)
Fat, connective tissue, blood vessels, nerves
Mesenchymal tumors often have poorly-defined ______ when compared to epithelial tumors
Mesenchymal tumor cells are often _____ shaped and are loose, not in clumps/sheets (with the exception of Lipomas)
What are 3 examples of Mesenchymal tumors?
Fibroma, lipoma, hemangiosarcoma
Give 3 examples of round cell tumors: (6)
- mast cell
- transmissible venereal tumor
Melanomas are considered round cell tumors, however they are an exception to the rules because:
They can be any shape and therefore fall under any category
True or false: Mast cell tumors are graded by degree of malignancy and range from Grade 1 to Grade 5
False - they only range from Grade 1-3
Transmissible veneral tumor is not actually transmisslbe
False. It is contagious
Histiocytic lesions can look like _______ and are hairless
Naked nuclei happen because:
the cell ruptures due to being fragile
True or false: naked nuclei are indicative of malignancy
False. Cannot be diagnostic and sample should be re-taken if there is many
Why do carcinomas have high chances of mets developing?
They spread through both the lymphatic system and blood stream
Tumor grading of "well diffeentiated tissue structure, slow cell division and minimal tissue invasion" is classified as:
What are some of the 9 clinical signs of early cancer?
- Abnormal swelling that persists/grows
- Sores that dont heal
- Weight loss
- Loss of appetite/dysphagia
- Bleeding/discharge from openings
- Bad odor
- Persistent lameness
- Hesitation to exercise
- Difficulty urinating, breathing or defecating
Criteria of malignancy can be divided into what 2 types?
Nuclear and general
Malignancy requires ______ nuclear criteria before commenting on malignant or benign
Nucleoli that are more than 5um are called:
What is nuclear molding?
2 nuclei in the same cell, morphing together
What are the 3 best criteria of malignancy to look for:
1. Nucleoli are different sizes in the same cell
3. Striking cellular anisokaryosis
What are 4 indications that nasal cytology should be done?
Nasal discharge, patient discomfort, changing in breath sounds, visible masses or lesions
____________ provides a specific sampling of the bronchioles and alveoli
Collecting samples for pulmonary cytology should be placed into a _____ tube
Collecting samples for pulmonary culture and sensitivity testing should be placed in a ______ tube
What are some cells you may see upon viewing pulmonary cytology?
Epithalial, neutrophils, macrophage, lymphocyte, rbc's
When assessing the pulmonary/nasal tracts for abnormalities, the _____ should also be checked as it relates to the nasopharynx and oropharynx
What are 3 of 7 clinical signs that may cause us to look in the mouth?
- excessive drooling
- difficulties eatnig
- changes in behaviour
- excessive or unusual tongue movement
What 7 characteritics do we evaluate effusions for?
3. Nucleated cell count
6. Clinical chemistry
7. Culture and sensitivity
If uroperitoneum is suspected, ________ testing should be performed
If uroperitoneum was present, clinical chemistry would reveal increased levels of what 4 things?
Bilirubin, BUN/CREA, Triglycerides Cholestrol
What are 3 types of effusions?
Transudates, modified transudates and exudates
An effusion that is described as "an abnormal volume of normal fluid" is classified as:
Transudates typically have _____ protein and cellularity (high, moderate or low)
A modified transudate can be described as:
Fluid that was once transudate but now has mild inflammatory reaction due to length of presence
Modified transudate effusions typically have _____ protein and cellularity (high, low, moderate)
In the beginning stages of modified transudates, the fluid will have a ______-like appearance
Congestive heart failure re-routes fluids in the lymphatic system and other places. Therefore, cats will get _____ effusion and dogs will get ______ effusion
Chylothorax is fluid that looks like ______
Chylous fluid is a derivative of ____ fluid/tissues
What are 2 criteria of Exudate effusions?
Abnormal fluid with high protein and/or nucleated cell count
In normal bodily fluid, expect to find what 2 cells?
Mesothelial cells and occasional leukocytes
Why is abdominal fluid from FIP so high in protein?
Protein from the blood is moving into the cavity
What type of inflammation classification is abdominal fluid from FIP?
Pyogranulomatous, typically non-degenerate
What 2 rule outs should be done when Chylothorax is present?
Mediastinal tumor or congenital heart failure
Hemorrhagic fluid is made of macrophages with ________ inside the cytoplasm (product of erythrophagocytosis)
The breakdown of Hemoglobin creates what 2 products?
Hematoidin or Hemosiderin
What does Hematoidin look like?
What does Hemosiderin look like?
Black or blue-green granules
Upon viewing Hemorrhagic effusions under the microscope, activated macrophages can be seen displaying _____________
Why don't mesenchymal tumors show evidence upon Effusion analysis?
They dissolve in fluid
Bilious effusions are often classified as ______
What colour are bilious effusions?
How does bilious effusion occur? What can cause this?
Bile moving into the abdomen. This can be caused by gallbladder rupture or trauma to the abdomen.
How would you know if bilious effusion is present via clinical chemistry?
Fluid bilirubin will be 2x serum bilirubin
What are the 3 main components of the Endocrine system?
Pancreas, Thyroid and Adrenal
What does the pancreas regulate?
Insulin and blood glucose
What does the thyroid regulate?
What does the adrenal gland regulate?
What are the 2 main diseases of the Thyroid?
Hypothyroid or Hyperthyroid
What are the 2 main diseases of the adrenal system?
What is meant by the term Euthyroid?
Normal functioning thyroid
What does Myxedema mean?
swelling of the face, associated with hypothyroidism
True or false: Doberman and Schnauzers are predisposed to hypothyroidism
When should regular T4 checks begin after beginning ThyroTabs for hypothyroidism?
What are 3 other conditions than can cause decrease in thyroid function, but is not hypothyroidism? (There is 8)
- protein-energy malnutrition
- severe trauma
- myocardial infarction
- chronic kidney disease
- diabetic ketoacidosis
- thermal injury
_____ is a drug that can interfere with the thyroid and decrease it's function
What is the #1 most common thyroid condition in cats?
What are 5 clinical signs of cats with hyperthyroidism?
- dramatic weight loss
- increased HR
- increased hunger
Why might a change in voice tone be seen in hyperthyroid cats?
CHange in voice due to compression of the larynx
True or false: Diagnosis relies on only 1 result of elevated T4
False - consistently elevated T4
Besides medications, what are 3 other treatments that could help hyperthyroidism?
Radioactive iodine, thyroidectomy, diet
What is the technical term for Cushing's disease?
Pendulous abdomen, hairloss and increased pigmentation of skin are all clinical signs of what disease?
What are 2 increases in blood chemistries that are indicative of Cushing's disease?
What are 2 common types of Hyperadrenocorticism?
Pituitary Dependent (PDH) and Functional Adrenal Tumor (FAT)
What is the technical term for Addison's disease? What does this mean?
Hypoadrenocorticism, not producing cortisol
What are the 2 main reasons we collect sperm?
Artificial insemination analysis or check for infection/cancer
What are the 3 portions to each sperm sample?
3. Prostatic fraction
True or false: For bulls, rams and bucks, all 3 portions of sperm should be collected
What are 5 criteria for sperm assessment?
What does green sperm colour indicate?
What does red sperm colour indicate?
What does it mean if sperm is clear?
Asospermia - lack or no sperm present
What is specifically measured with sperm Motility?
Percentage of progressively motile sperm
Which part of the sperm body contains DNA and enzymes needed to penetrate the egg?
Which part of the sperm body contains Mitochondria?
What are 6 abnormal morphology that can be seen in the head of the sperm?
1. double head
2. small head
3. large head
4. pear-shaped head
5. elongated head
6. round head
What are 5 abnormal morphology that can be seen in the midpiece of the sperm?
1. swollen midpiece
2. coiled midpiece and tail
3. bent midpiece
4. double midpiece
5. abaxial midpiece
What are 5 abnormal morphology that can be seen in the tail of the sperm?
2. Headless tail
3. Distal protoplasmic droplet (ball on midpiece)
4. Proximal protoplasmic droplet (ball near the head)
5. Bent tail
True or false: Azoospermia means maximum fertility
False, it means infertile
What are 3 examples of Non-inflammatory, Non-neoplastic lesions? (There is 7)
2. cystic mass
4. epidermal inclusion cyst
5. follicular cyst
"A condition in which there is an increase in the number of normal cells in a tissue or organ" is the definition of:
What are 2 main causes of hyperplasia?
Injury or hormone imbalance
What is the main difference between Hyperplasia and Neoplasia?
Hyperplasia is a response to a stimulus and Neoplasia is unresponsive to stimuli and proliferates on its own
What is the best way to distinguish between Hyperplasia and Benign Neoplasia?
Histopathology is the only way
Cystic masses are masses that are _______ filled
What are 3 examples of Cystic masses?
Seroma, hematoma, sebaceous cyst
What is a seroma?
Pocket of serum that resembles a tumor
What is the main cause of seromas?
Post-surgical fluid filling
Seromas have ______ cellularity (high, low)
What is the common term for an Epidermal Inclusion Cyst?
When smearing, sebaceous cysts appear ______ in texture
What 3 things are you most likely to see under cytological examination of sebaceous cyst fluid?
Squamous cells, keratin flakes and cholestrol crystals
What is a mucocele?
Enlargement of a hollow organ or sac that is filling with mucous
A pocket or collection of blood outside of the blood vessels is called a:
Where are hematomas most commonly seen?
Pinna or venipuncture site
What are 5 main functions of electrolytes in the body?
1. Maintain osmotic pressure
2. Water balance
3. Muscular and nervous function
4. Acid-base balance
5. Blood clotting
Imbalanced electrolytes most often effect the ____ system
What are the 6 main electrolytes we look at?
Avoid tubes that contain _______ when testing for electrolyes
The most abundant extracellular cation of electrolytes is _______
The most common cause of hypernatremia is:
DO we need serum or plasma for Sodium level testing?
In renal disease, due to continuous dehydration potassium levels will be ______ and sodium levels will be ______ (increased or decreased)
Usually sodium is not measured on its own but rather in a ratio with what other electrolyte?
Potassium is primarily found _____, which means serum potassium gives little information about potassium in the body
_____ electrolyte is important for normal cardiac, muscular and nervous function
Severaly dehydrated patients or patients with an imbalance in their sodium:potassium have a high risk of:
True or false: Serum is the sample of choice for Potassium testing
False - plasma is best
Why couldn't we use whole blood to test Potassium levels?
Platelets release potassium during clotting, would render results invalid
Why do we want to avoid Hemolysis at all costs when looking at Potassium numbers?
Potassium is higher intracellularly, if RBC's rupture the reading will be invalid
What is the safest method to add Potassium to a patient's IV bag and why?
Ensure line is clamped and not running, potassium is put into IV bag and bag is inverted several times to avoid giving an accidental bolus of Potassium, likely stopping the heart
It is important to measure _____ levels as related to Diabetic ketoacidosis, renal failure and Addison's disease along with Sodium and Potassium levels
What is the term for increased potassium in the blood?
Calcium has an inverse relationship with ______. What does this mean?
phosphorus. If one goes up, other goes down
What is Eclampsia?
Low calcium levels in post-partum animals due to litter feeding off mom's supply
True or false: Eclampsia is not an emergency
How can we treat Eclampsia?
What are 3 clinical signs of Eclampsia?
Panting, vomiting, "drunk" due to muscle weakness/stiffness
True or false: For calcium testing, plasma should be put into a LTT
Fake news. EDTA will decrease plasma calcium levels
Serum calcium is affected by serum _______, if those levels are abnormal the serum calcium level needs to be adjusted/recalculated
What is the term for increased Phosphorus in the blood?
Phosphorus and ______ have an inverse relationship
Phosphorus is regulated by the _______ system
Growing animals will have _______ serum phosphorus (high or low)
Hypophosphatemia is often seen during what 2 conditions?
Hyperthyroid and renal failure