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conditions and differentials summary Flashcards

1
Q

What is Rapid Sequence Intubation?

A

A controlled intubation using sedation and paralytics to facilitate airway management.

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2
Q

What does FiO2 stand for?

A

Fraction of inspired oxygen, estimate of the oxygen inhaled

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3
Q

What is EtCO2 used for?

A

the level of carbon dioxide that is released at the end of an exhaled breath

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4
Q

What dose Capnography show?

A

how much CO2 is present at each phase of the respiratory cycle

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5
Q

Define Hyperthermia.

A

Core temperature >40°C due to heat exposure or metabolic causes, requiring cooling measures.

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6
Q

Define Hypothermia.

A

Core temperature <35°C, leading to metabolic depression and cardiac instability.

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7
Q

What is a Stroke?

A

An interruption of cerebral blood flow, leading to neuronal injury, inflammation, and loss of function.

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8
Q

What is a TIA?

A

A transient ischemic attack occurs due to a temporary reduction in cerebral blood flow.

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9
Q

What characterizes a Minor Allergy?

A

Mild hypersensitivity reaction with localized symptoms.

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10
Q

What is Anaphylaxis?

A

A severe, systemic hypersensitivity reaction caused by massive release of histamine.

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11
Q

Define Hypovolemia.

A

Reduced circulating blood volume causing inadequate perfusion, managed with fluid resuscitation.

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12
Q

What is Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A

A sudden, excessive sympathetic response to stimuli below a spinal cord injury.

below the injury: Uncontrolled sympathetic activation causes widespread vasoconstriction, leading to severe hypertension.

Above the injury: The body attempts to compensate with parasympathetic activation, causing bradycardia, flushing, sweating, and headache.

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13
Q

What occurs below the injury in Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A

Uncontrolled sympathetic activation causes widespread vasoconstriction, leading to severe hypertension.

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14
Q

What occurs above the injury in Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A

The body attempts to compensate with parasympathetic activation, causing bradycardia and flushing.

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15
Q

What is a UTI?

A

A bacterial infection of the urinary tract causing dysuria, frequency, and systemic symptoms.

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16
Q

Define Antepartum Hemorrhage.

A

Vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks gestation, associated with placenta previa or abruption.

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17
Q

What is Postpartum Hemorrhage?

A

Excessive bleeding (>500 mL) within 24 hours postpartum, requiring fluid resuscitation.

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18
Q

What is Breech Birth?

A

Delivery where the fetus presents buttocks or feet first, requiring specialized management.

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19
Q

What is Cord Prolapse?

A

Umbilical cord descent before fetal head, leading to compression and fetal hypoxia.

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20
Q

What is Shoulder Dystocia?

A

A birth emergency where the fetal head delivers, but the shoulders remain trapped.

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21
Q

What characterizes a Spinal Cord Injury?

A

Damage to the spinal cord causing sensory and motor deficits, with potential autonomic dysregulation.

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22
Q

Define Tension Pneumothorax.

A

Air enters the pleural space but cannot escape, causing lung collapse and impaired venous return.

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23
Q

What is Meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges, often bacterial or viral, causing fever and altered mental status.

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24
Q

What is Meningococcal Septicemia?

A

A rapidly progressing bacterial infection leading to sepsis and multi-organ failure.

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25
What is Cellulitis?
A bacterial skin infection causing localized redness, swelling, and systemic symptoms.
26
Define Viral Illness.
Generalized term for infections caused by viruses, often self-limiting.
27
What is Bacterial Illness?
Infections caused by bacteria requiring targeted antibiotic therapy.
28
What is Cardiac Arrest?
Sudden loss of effective cardiac output leading to cessation of circulation and hypoxia.
29
What does ROSC stand for?
Return of spontaneous circulation post-cardiac arrest.
30
What is Acute Behavioural Disturbance?
Conditions like agitated delirium/excited delirium or hyperactive delirium, characterized by abnormal increase in motor activity, causing risk to the pateint or sorrounding personal
31
What are Seizures?
Transient neurological disturbances due to excessive electrical activity in the brain.
32
What is a Dislocation?
Joint displacement requiring reduction and immobilization.
33
Define Compound Fracture.
An open fracture with bone protrusion, requiring bleeding control and infection prevention.
34
What is a Closed Fracture?
A fracture without skin breach, managed with immobilization and analgesia.
35
What is Spinal Shock?
Temporary loss of spinal reflexes following spinal cord injury.
36
Define Ventricular Tachycardia.
entricular tachycardia (VT) occurs due to reentrant circuits or abnormal automaticity in the ventricles, leading to rapid and uncoordinated electrical activity that results in ineffective ventricular contraction, impaired cardiac output, and potential hemodynamic collapse.
37
What is SVT?
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) arises from abnormal electrical activity above the ventricles, typically due to reentrant circuits (like AV nodal reentrant tachycardia), enhanced automaticity, or triggered activity, often precipitated by conditions like atrioventricular nodal reentry, accessory pathways (as in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome) SVT is characterized by a rapid, regular heart rate (150-250 bpm), narrow QRS complexes, and often absent or hidden P waves, with sudden onset and termination.
38
What characterizes Atrial Fibrillation?
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is caused by disorganized electrical activity in the atria, leading to irregular and rapid atrial contractions, which impair atrial filling and cause an irregularly irregular ventricular response. ECG characteristics include absent P waves, an irregularly irregular rhythm, with a narrow QRS complex.
39
What is Atrial Flutter?
A reentrant atrial arrhythmia with a characteristic sawtooth ECG pattern.
40
Define Bradycardia.
A slow heart rate (<40 bpm) with symptoms, often caused by SA node dysfunction.
41
What is Hyperkalemia?
Elevated serum potassium levels causing cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness.
42
Define Cardiogenic pulmoary odema .
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema occurs when left ventricular dysfunction leads to elevated left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures, causing fluid to leak into the alveoli, impairing gas exchange and resulting in respiratory distress.
43
What is STEMI?
A full-thickness myocardial infarction with ST-segment elevation on ECG.
44
What is NSTEMI?
A myocardial infarction without ST-elevation, diagnosed via cardiac biomarkers.
45
What causes Angina?
Chest pain due to transient myocardial ischemia, relieved by rest or nitrates.
46
Define Unstable Angina.
Chest pain occurring unpredictably, indicating imminent infarction risk.
47
What is Cardiogenic Pulmonary Edema?
Occurs when left ventricular dysfunction leads to fluid leaking into the alveoli.
48
What is Pneumonia?
A lower respiratory tract infection causing alveolar inflammation and impaired gas exchange.
49
Define Cardiac Compromise.
Condition in which the heart's ability to pump blood effectively is impaired.
50
What is Defibrillation?
An unsynchronized electrical shock delivered to terminate life-threatening arrhythmias.
51
Define Asthma.
Asthma is characterized by chronic reversible inflammation and hyperreactivity of the airways, leading to episodic bronchoconstriction, airflow obstruction, and symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and coughing, often triggered by allergens or irritants.
52
What is COPD?
A progressive lung disease, characterised by irreversible airway remodelling , causing airflow limitation, hypoxia, and hypercapnia due to alveolar damage and mucus hypersecretion.
53
What is Stridor?
A high-pitched respiratory sound indicative of upper airway obstruction.
54
Define Angioedema.
Rapid swelling of the dermis and mucosal tissues due to histamine release.
55
What is Croup?
A viral upper respiratory tract infection causing subglottic inflammation.
56
What is Myocardial Ischemia?
Insufficient blood supply to the myocardium, often due to coronary artery disease.
57
Define Oropharyngeal Airway.
A rigid airway adjunct used to prevent airway obstruction in unconscious patients.
58
What does PEEP stand for?
Positive end-expiratory pressure, a mechanical ventilation strategy.
59
outline peep
Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is a mechanical ventilation strategy that maintains elevated pressure in the lungs at the end of expiration, preventing alveolar collapse and improving gas exchange. PEEP increases functional residual capacity (FRC), helps recruit collapsed alveoli, reduces shunting, and improves oxygenation
60
What is an Arterial Tourniquet?
A device applied to prevent exsanguination from severe limb hemorrhage.
61
Define Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP).
Maintains constant positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle.
62
outline CPAP
ontinuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) maintains a constant positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle, preventing airway collapse and improving oxygenation by keeping alveoli and small airways open during exhalation. This increases functional residual capacity (FRC), reduces the work of breathing, and enhances gas exchange by counteracting negative intrathoracic pressures during inspiration.
63
What is IGEL?
A supraglottic airway device providing a secure airway without endotracheal intubation.
64
What is a Laryngoscope used for?
A tool for direct laryngoscopy to visualize the vocal cords during intubation.
65
What is a Nasopharyngeal Airway?
A flexible airway adjunct used to maintain an open airway in semi-conscious patients.
66
What is Sync Cardioversion?
Synchronized cardioversion is a procedure used to restore normal sinus rhythm in patients with certain arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia, by delivering a timed electrical shock synchronized with the R wave of the QRS complex. The shock depolarizes the myocardial cells, temporarily stopping abnormal electrical activity and allowing the heart's natural pacemaker to re-establish a normal rhythm
67
What is Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
Localized dilation of the abdominal aorta, leading to increased risk of rupture.
68
What is Bowel Perforation?
Rupture of a section of the gastrointestinal tract, causing peritonitis.
69
What is Gastroenteritis?
Inflammation of the stomach and intestines, commonly caused by infections.
70
Define Ectopic Pregnancy.
Occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterine cavity.
71
What is Peritonitis?
Inflammation of the peritoneum, usually caused by infection or perforation.
72
What is Testicular/Ovarian Torsion?
Twisting of the spermatic cord or ovarian ligament, cutting off blood supply.
73
What is Uncontrolled Gastrointestinal Hemorrhage?
Significant blood loss from the gastrointestinal tract requiring urgent intervention.
74
What is Acute Bowel Obstruction?
A physical blockage in the intestines impairing normal digestion.
75
What is Acute Pancreatitis?
Inflammation of the pancreas, often caused by gallstones or alcohol use.
76
What is Appendicitis?
Inflammation of the appendix, often caused by obstruction.
77
What is Renal Colic?
Severe pain due to the passage of kidney stones.
78
What is Biliary Colic?
Temporary obstruction of the gallbladder or bile ducts by gallstones.
79
What is Pericarditis?
Inflammation of the pericardium, often due to viral infections or autoimmune diseases.
80
What characterizes Angina?
Chest pain caused by transient myocardial ischemia due to atherosclerotic plaque.
81
What is Myocarditis?
Inflammation of the myocardium, often triggered by viral infections.
82
What is Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?
Occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid retention.
83
What is Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)?
CHF occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid retention, pulmonary congestion, and systemic edema due to impaired cardiac contractility or filling.
84
What are common presentations of Congestive Heart Failure?
Patients typically present with dyspnea, orthopnea, and peripheral edema, with abnormal vital signs including elevated heart rate, elevated blood pressure or hypotension in severe cases, and increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) due to pulmonary congestion.
85
What is the pathophysiology of Arrhythmia?
Arrhythmias occur when the electrical conduction system of the heart becomes disrupted, resulting in abnormal heart rhythms that can lead to ineffective cardiac output and hemodynamic instability.
86
What are symptoms of Arrhythmia?
Symptoms may include palpitations, dizziness, syncope, or chest pain, with vital signs showing irregular heart rate (either tachycardia or bradycardia), and abnormal blood pressure or signs of shock in severe arrhythmias.
87
What causes Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
Pulmonary embolism is caused by a thrombus, often originating from the deep veins of the legs (DVT), that travels to the lungs, blocking pulmonary arteries and causing ventilation-perfusion mismatch and reduced oxygenation.
88
What are the common presentations of Pulmonary Embolism?
It presents with sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, and hypoxia, often accompanied by tachycardia and hypotension, particularly in massive PE.
89
What is the pathophysiology of Aortic Dissection?
Aortic dissection occurs when a tear in the aortic intima allows blood to enter the aortic wall, leading to a separation of the layers, which can disrupt blood flow and cause rupture.
90
What are the typical presentations of Aortic Dissection?
Patients typically present with sudden, severe, tearing chest or back pain, along with a difference in blood pressure between the arms (BP discrepancy) and signs of shock (tachycardia, hypotension) in severe cases.
91
Fill in the blank: CHF leads to _______ due to impaired cardiac contractility or filling.
[fluid retention, pulmonary congestion, systemic edema]
92
True or False: Patients with Arrhythmia may experience syncope.
True
93
Fill in the blank: Aortic Dissection can lead to _______ of the layers of the aortic wall.
[separation]
94
What vital signs may indicate severe Congestive Heart Failure?
Elevated heart rate, elevated blood pressure or hypotension, increased respiratory rate (tachypnea)
95
What is a common cause of Pulmonary Embolism?
Thrombus originating from the deep veins of the legs (DVT)
96
What vital signs may be observed in severe Arrhythmias?
Irregular heart rate (tachycardia or bradycardia), abnormal blood pressure, signs of shock
97
What symptoms are associated with Pulmonary Embolism?
Pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, hypoxia, tachycardia, hypotension

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