Core

Question 1

TROJ028 has reported moderate windshear on final for the duty RWY. In addition to broadcasting this report on the ATIS, to which aircraft are directed transmissions required and for how long?

Answer 1

V58 MATS 3.1.3.3.1

Upon receipt of a pilot report and/or a forecast of moderate, strong or severe wind shear, alert all arriving and departing aircraft by ATIS broadcast, and directed transmission where the aircraft is not in receipt of the ATIS information. (1) … or the expiry of the forecast period, whichever is the later.

Question 2

“GIA728 has notified you that they are manoeuvring in response to a TCAS RA. a) What phrase do you use to acknowledge the report? b) What restrictions apply to issuing instructions to GIA728?”

Answer 2

V58 MATS 4.1.1.1 & GEN 3.4 p6.3.1 Resolution Advisory

“a) ROGER (1) b) Do not issue tracking or level instructions (1) to an aircraft that has reported responding to a ‘TCAS RA.’”

Question 3

GIA728 advices ‘CLEAR OF CONFLICT’ after having reported responding to a Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) Resolution Advisory (RA). You then issue instructions as necessary to re-establish separation. When does ATC resume responsibility for separation?

Answer 3

V58 MATS 4.1.1.3 Clear of conflict

“Resume responsibility for separation after the aircraft has complied with any tracking or level instructions (1) and a separation standard has been established (1). “

Question 4

“What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

a. TROJ10, a C130 on a low level NAVEX, has recorded a NOCOM time of 0710Z for cancellation on your frequency. It is now 0720Z and TROJ10 has not contacted you. You have commenced communication checks (include in answer by what time this phase should be declared).
b. BLHK106 is operating in the Low Flying Area with an Ops Normal time of 2300Z. At 2310Z, having commenced communication checks, there has still been no contact with BLHK106 (include in answer by what time this phase should be declared).
c. OYD, a VFR BE20 conducting circuits, has reported a hydraulic failure. The pilot reports the controls have become slow to respond however the pilot is confident of landing.
d. DPOT12, an F35 returning from the training areas, advises that they have insufficient fuel on board to reach a suitable landing runway.
e. You hear a continuous alarm on 243.0”

Answer 4

V58 MATS 4.2 Declaration of Emergency Phases and Time Sequence

a. Declare an INCERFA (1) when a pilot fails to report NOCOM cancellation at an appropriate time and no later than 30 minutes after the report is due - 0740Z. (1)
b. Declare an INCERFA (1) when a pilot fails to report OPS NORMAL at an appropriate time and no later than 30 minutes after the report is due - 2330Z. (1)
c. Declare an ALERFA (1) immediately when information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of an aircraft has been impaired to the extent that the safety of the aircraft may be affected. (1)
d. Declare a DETRESFA (1) immediately when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety (1) unless a SARTIME has been notified.
e. Declare a DETRESFA (1) immediately when a radio distress beacon has been activated for a period greater than 10 seconds. (1)

Question 5

“What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

a. HEL, a B06, is on the ground within your CTR ready to become airborne. You issued a clearance at 0100Z and instructed HEL to report airborne. At 0110Z you have not heard from HEL and have commenced communication checks (include in answer by what time this phase should be declared).
b. You receive a phone call from Mrs Farmer who is concerned because Mr Farmer has not yet returned from his Sunday flight in their R22 and he is normally home by now. No flight plan has been filed.
c. COQ, a VFR C310 on departure, reports inadvertently entering a bank of low cloud.
d. KIWA057 reports they have lost their engine and are putting the helicopter down in a nearby paddock.
e. You receive the following radio call: “MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY ALDN209, engine on fire, POB 2, ejecting 5 miles north of the airfield”.
f. You observe smoke trailing behind MOB, a VFR C210 in the circuit.”

Answer 5

“a. Declare an INCERFA (1) when a pilot fails to report DEPARTURE, after a call notifying readiness to take off at an appropriate time and no later than 30 minutes after the initial call - 0130Z. (1)

b. Declare an INCERFA (1) immediately when information is received that an aircraft, for which flight notification has not been lodged, is missing. (1)
c. Declare an ALERFA (1) immediately when a flight restricted to VMC is operating in IMC (1)
d. Declare a DETRESFA (1) immediately when information is received which indicates that a pilot is about to make a forced landing. (1) OR
d. Declare a DETRESFA (1) immediately when information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of an aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely. (1)
e. Declare a DETRESFA (1) immediately when a MAYDAY call… is received. (1) OR e. Declare a DETRESFA (1) immediately following any indications of fire in flight. (1)
f. Declare a DETRESFA (1) immediately following any indications of fire in flight. (1) “

Question 6

As the TWR controller, you receive the following transmission from a circuit aircraft: “PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, STAL207, high temperature indication, POB 4, returning to land”. How would you acknowledge this transmission?

Answer 6

V58 MATS 4.2.5.2

“STAL207 (1), (location) TOWER (1), ROGER PAN” (1)

Question 7

You have received emergency details from APR about an arriving B350, HDSN10, who has declared a PAN due to an electrical failure. What phrase would you use on first contact to indicate knowledge of the emergency?

Answer 7

V60 MATS 4.2.5.2.1

“HDSN10 (1), (location) TOWER (1), PAN [electrical failure] ACKNOWLEDGED” (1)

Question 8

“In accordance with what procedures shall controllers act upon receiving the following SSR codes?

a) 7400
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700”

Answer 8

a) RPAS Lost Link procedures (1)
b) Unlawful Interference procedures (1)
c) Aircraft Radio/Communications Failure procedures (1) d) Emergency procedures (1).

Question 9

“In the following scenarios, state whether a local standby or full emergency would be the correct AEP response. Full emergency level is not required:

a) An arriving aircraft stalls on short final and crashes on the threshold of the runway.
b) An arriving aircraft has declared a PAN due to issues with the flaps, but is anticipating making a flapless landing without any significant issues.
c) An arriving aircraft has declared a MAYDAY due to fire in flight.
d) An arriving aircraft has declared a PAN and advised that several passengers will require medical assistance after landing. Medical had earlier advised that their ambulance is unserviceable and they would not be able to respond to the crash alarm today.”

Answer 9

“a) Full emergency (1)

b) Local standby (1)
c) Full emergency (1)
d) Full emergency (1)”

Question 10

What full emergency level would a B738 (Medium) warrant?

Answer 10

Level II (1)

Question 11

What full emergency level would a C17 (Heavy) warrant?

Answer 11

Level III (1)

Question 12

What full emergency level would an aircraft with 15 seats warrant?

Answer 12

Level I (1)

Question 13

What full emergency level would an aircraft with 20 seats warrant?

Answer 13

Level II (1)

Question 14

What two phrases can you use to notify ARFF of an occurence where their attendance may be beneficial, but has not warranted activation of the AEP?

Answer 14

IRREGULAR OCCURRENCE’ (1) or ‘FOR INFORMATION ONLY’ (1)

Question 15

CLAS75, an F/A-18, transmits “CABLE, CABLE, CABLE” during the take-off roll. As the tower controller, what are your actions and response?

Answer 15

“A pilot of an aircraft suffering an emergency on the runway requiring the use of an arresting system will transmit the following, irrespective of any previous notification of the system’s position: Pilot: “CABLE, CABLE, CABLE or BARRIER, BARRIER, BARRIER”. Raise the appropriate departure end arresting systems if not already activated upon receiving the above transmission (1) and report: ATC: “DEPARTURE END CABLE (or BARRIER) UP (1)””

Question 16

MAPL10, an F35, is suffering a radio failure and has been cleared to land using a light signal. What is the correct position for the arrestor cables and how shall MAPL10 be notified of their status?

Answer 16

An arriving aircraft capable of utilising aircraft arrestor systems is suspected of having a radio failure, raise all arresting systems useable by that aircraft except the approach end barrier. [ie, all arrestor cables up (1) for MAPL10]
Assume the pilot can hear all transmissions and transmit the following before the aircraft lands:
“BOTH CABLES UP”(1)

Question 17

What methods are available for maintaining SARWATCH on an aircraft?

Answer 17

“Maintain SARWATCH via:

a. continuous visual (1) or surveillance (1) monitoring, or
b. a time nominated by ATS or a pilot (1) which may include:
1. an estimate (1)
2. a NOCOM time (1) or
3. a time to report (1), such as SKED or an operations normal time.”

Question 18

You hear a distress beacon on 243.0 for 25 seconds. What phase shall you declare and who shall you report this to?

Answer 18

“Declare a distress phase (1) when a distress beacon has been heard on 121.5, 243.0 and/or 406.0 MHz for a period in excess of 10 seconds. Report the phase to JRCC Australia (1)”

Question 19

APR contacts the TWR controller to pass the fact that CLAS75 is Minimum Fuel. How will this coordination be passed and how will the TWR respond?

Answer 19

“Advise receiving Controller details of the emergency. APR: “CLAS75 MINIMUM FUEL” (1); TWR: “CLAS75 MINIMUM FUEL ACKNOWLEDGED” (1).”

Question 20

APR contacts the TWR controller to relay information on a helicopter doing a pipe line survey. The helicopter’s tracking will infringe TWR’s airspace, however, TWR has no circuit aircraft airborne or planned for the rest of the day. TWR decides they do not require the aircraft on frequency and have no tracking or vertical restrictions. How will this coordination be passed and how will APR respond?

Answer 20

“TWR: “NO RESTRICTIONS”. (1) APR: A readback is not required. (1)”

Question 21

You observe a microburst that has rapidly developed in close proximity to your airfield such that you judge it has an immediate and detrimental effect on the safety of aircraft. The microburst is not forecast nor as yet advertised on the ATIS. What phrase should you prefix your transmission with in informing aircraft of the danger?

Answer 21

Prefix direct transmissions and broadcasts with HAZARD ALERT (1) when a sudden change to a component of FIS, not described in a current MET product or NOTAM, has an immediate and detrimental effect on the safety of aircraft.

Question 22

ABC, a C172, is on short final to land. The console wind instruments indicate crosswind of 9 kts. Is this crosswind significant for ABC?

Answer 22

Yes. (1) Consider crosswind to be significant when it equals or exceeds 8 KT for civil single engine aircraft.

Question 23

CHLE209, a military PC21, is on short final to land. The console wind instruments indicate crosswind of 9 kts. Is this crosswind significant for CHLE209?

Answer 23

No. (1) Consider crosswind to be significant when it equals or exceeds 10 KT for military aircraft.

Question 24

TWI, a civil BE20, is taxiing for departure. The console wind instruments indicate crosswind of 11 kts. Is this crosswind significant for TWI?

Answer 24

No. (1) Consider crosswind to be significant when it equals or exceeds 12 KT for civil multi-engine aircraft.

Question 25

Under what circumstances shall a safety alert be issued?

Answer 25

"Unless the pilot has advised that action is being taken to resolve the situation or that the other aircraft is in sight, issue a Safety Alert prefixed by the phrase 'SAFETY ALERT' when you become aware that an aircraft is in a situation that places it in unsafe proximity to (1): a. terrain; (1) b. obstruction; (1) c. active restricted or prohibited areas; (1) or d. other aircraft. (1)"

Question 26

OMG, a civil R22, is maintaining downwind for separation with QFA385 arriving via the ILS. You subsequently observe OMG turning base, which in your judgment puts them at risk of a collision with QFA385. With which phrase do you prefix your control instruction to OMG?

Answer 26

"AVOIDING ACTION' (1)

Question 27

What shall be contained in a clearance?

Answer 27

Include the following when issuing a clearance: a. aircraft identification (1); b. destination (1), area of operation (1), position (1) or clearance limit (1); c. route of flight (1); and d. cleared level (1).

Question 28

Until what time, point or event shall a clearance, and its amendments during flight, apply?

Answer 28

The clearance, and its amendments during the flight only apply: a. to the first point at which the aircraft leaves controlled airspace (1); b. to the first landing point if the flight is wholly within controlled airspace; (1) c. to the clearance limit if issued (1); d. until the expiration of a clearance void time (1); or e. until cancelled by a controller (1).

Question 29

TEST123, a VFR PC21 is cleared to Salter’s Point via WUNEG at A090 and is taxiing for departure. PLNR then coordinates a changed route of “Salter’s Point direct” for you to pass to TEST123. What phraseology will you use to issue this altered clearance?

Answer 29

9.2.2.5.1 9.2.2.5.3 “TEST123 RECLEARED (1) Salter’s Point direct A090 (1)” Assign a level with all clearance changes regardless of whether a change has been made to the cleared level.

Question 30

When cancelling a clearance limit what must be given to the aircraft?

Answer 30

9.2.2.12 When a clearance limit is cancelled issue an onwards clearance specifying the level (1) and route to be flown from that point (1).

Question 31

Can you issue a Special VFR clearance in the following scenarios? VMC does not exist. * a. STAL35 (C17) conducting low level operations within R358 which is under your control, at night on NVGs? * b. RSCU24 (civil A139) conducting a search operation in your CTA by day, remaining outside your CTR? * c. OTLW11 (TIGR) requests SVFR in your CTR to conduct circuits by day? * d. ALDN201, an unaided (No NVG/NVD) PC21 is conducting night circuits?

Answer 31

ENR 1.2 1.2.1.1 & MATS 9.2.7.1 * a. Yes (1) * b. No (1) * c. Yes (1) * d. No (1)

Question 32

Under what conditions may a pilot be assigned a level below the LSALT?

Answer 32

9.4.2.1 You may assign a pilot a level below the applicable LSALT provided that: a. by day, the IFR pilot has reported 'VISUAL' (1) and 'VISUAL' is appended to the level assigned (1); or b. by night: i) for VFR aircraft the clearance is issued by use of the phrase 'WHEN ESTABLISHED WITHIN THREE MILES, DESCEND TO (level); (1) or ii) for IFR aircraft, the pilot has reported 'VISUAL' (1), and the clearance is issued by use of the phrase 'WHEN ESTABLISHED IN THE CIRCLING AREA, DESCEND TO (level) VISUAL'. (1)

Question 33

DAV, a departing IFR C208, has received an airways clearance of 'Hansen's Farm DCT, A070, R20 x 5D, VSD.' Following departure co-ordination with APR, you issue the aircraft 'Climb to A040, RWY 03 cleared for take-off, make left turn.' Is DAV still required to reach A020 by 5DME? Explain.

Answer 33

9.4.4.2 No. (1) Repeat level restrictions issued by ATC in air-ground communications in conjunction with subsequent level clearances in order for them to remain in effect. (1)

Question 34

You visually observe BARN03 upwind in the CIRA and you observe a radar position symbol on upwind. Is BARN03 identified? Why/why not?

Answer 34

9.7.2.6 Yes (1). Establish identification by correlating a particular radar position symbol to the position of an aircraft observed visually (1).

Question 35

Answer the following questions with the information below: a. QFA757 (B737) is tracking towards your aerodrome from the south west, the SDD label shows the aircraft descending through A056. What is the last level QFA757 vacated on descent? b. TIM is cleared to operate to the south west of your aerodrome at A030, the label from TIM displays A032 steady. Is TIM complying with the clearance? c. JIM has just departed from an aerodrome within your airspace and the label indicates A017 on climb. What level has JIM passed? d. How do you determine that an aircraft has reached a level?

Answer 35

9. 7.5.2 a. A060 (1) b. Yes (1) c. A013 (1) d. An aircraft PADL remains within +/- 200 FT (1) of the assigned level for the greater of three consecutive updates or 15 seconds (1).

Question 36

When shall pressure altitude-derived level information be verified?

Answer 36

9.7.5.3 Verify the accuracy of displayed pressure altitude-derived level information: a. as soon as possible after initial contact with an aircraft (1) and prior to use (1); and b. where continuous monitoring has not been carried out (1).

Question 37

How shall pressure altitude-derived level information accuracy be verified?

Answer 37

9.7.5.4 Verify by simultaneous comparison with (1): a. altimeter-derived level information received from the same aircraft by radiotelephony (1); or b. the aerodrome elevation during the take-off roll (1), provided that the level information subsequently indicates a positive climb after take-off (1).

Question 38

ASY120, a C17, has been assigned A020 and has reported maintaining this level. The pressure altitude-derived level information indicates A023. Is this value within tolerances? Why/why not?

Answer 38

9.7.5.5 No. (1) The tolerance for pressure altitude-derived level information displayed to the controller is +/- 200 FT. (1)

Question 39

How shall a controller relay identification of an aircraft when transfer of control is not effected? How shall the receiving controller respond?

Answer 39

9.7.6.1 When relaying the identification of an aircraft from one controller to another, and transfer of control is not effected, the relaying Controller advises that the aircraft is FOR IDENT (1). The receiving Controller acknowledges identification by replying with the callsign for the aircraft. (1)

Question 40

If during an emergency situation, such as a radar failure, it was not possible to ensure that the applicable procedural separation minima would be maintained, what emergency separation standard may you temporarily apply? State any requirements/conditions.

Answer 40

10.1.6.1 10.1.6.1.1 If during an emergency situation, such as a radar failure, it is not possible to ensure that the applicable procedural separation minima will be maintained, you may temporarily use half the applicable vertical separation minima. (1) Issue traffic information to affected aircraft. (1)

Question 41

A VFR Kiowa is conducting circuits not above 500 FT AMSL. An inbound IFR PC21 is requesting descent. What is the lowest level you may assign the PC21 with vertical separation still provided? Include any other requirements.

Answer 41

10.5.3.1 A010 (1). Traffic to the PC21 unless impracticable (1)

Question 42

A VFR PC21 is conducting circuits at A010. An inbound IFR PA31 is requesting descent. What is the lowest level you can assign the PA31 with vertical separation still provided? Include any requirements.

Answer 42

10.5.3.1 A015. (1) Traffic to the PA31 unless impracticable. (1)

Question 43

A SVFR (cloud) PA28 is conducting circuits at A020. An inbound SVFR (cloud) PC21 is requesting descent. What is the lowest level the PC21 may descend to?

Answer 43

10.5.3.1 Any level (1)

Question 44

A SVFR (visibility) PA28 is conducting circuits at A020. An inbound SVFR (visibility) PC21 is requesting descent. What is the lowest level the PC21 may be assigned with vertical separation still provided? Include any requirements.

Answer 44

10.5.3.1 A025 (1).

Question 45

A SVFR (visibility) DH8B is conducting circuits at A020. An inbound IFR PC21 is requesting descent. What is the lowest level the PC21 may be assigned with vertical separation still provided? Include any requirements.

Answer 45

10.5.3.2 A030 (1).

Question 46

A VFR C130 is conducting circuits at A015. An inbound IFR PC21 is requesting descent. What is the lowest level the PC21 may descend to with vertical separation still provided? Include any requirements.

Answer 46

10.5.3.2 A025 (1)

Question 47

A SVFR C130 (visibility) is conducting circuits at A025. An inbound SVFR (visibility) S76 is requesting descent. What is the lowest level the S76 may be assigned with vertical separation still provided? Include any requirements.

Answer 47

10.5.3.2 A035 (1)

Question 48

What time and/or distance wake turbulence separation is required in the following situations (assume aircraft involved are operating under IFR)? a. PC21 (MTOW≈4250KG) landing behind C17 (MTOW≈265000KG) b. B737 (MTOW≈70,000KG) landing behind A330 (MTOW≈230,000KG) c. PC21 (MTOW≈4250KG) landing behind HAWK (MTOW≈9100KG) d. BE20 (MTOW≈5600KG) landing behind F18-F (MTOW≈29500KG) e. B763 (MTOW≈185000KG) landing behind C17 (MTOW≈265000KG) f. PC21 (MTOW≈4250KG) landing behind H47 (MTOW≈22680KG)

Answer 48

10. 6.1.1.1 10.6.1.4 10.6.4.1 a. 3 minutes (1) / 6 NM (1) b. 2 minutes (1) / 5 NM (1) c. No wake turbulence separation necessary (1) d. 3 min (1) / 5 NM (1) e. 4 NM (1) f. 3 minutes (1) / 6 NM (1)

Question 49

What time and/or distance wake turbulence separation is required in the following situations? a. PC21 (MTOW≈4250KG) departing behind a F18-F (MTOW≈29500KG) (full length)? b. BE20 (MTOW≈5600KG) departing behind a HAWK (MTOW≈9100KG) (full length)? c. P3 (MTOW≈64000KG) departing behind C17 (MTOW≈265000KG) (intermediate departure)? d. B767 (MTOW≈185000KG) departing behind KC10 (MTOW≈267000KG) (full length)? e. C172 (MTOW≈1100KG) departing behind P3 (MTOW≈64000KG) (intermediate departure)?

Answer 49

10. 6.1.4 10.6.2.1 10.6.2.2 a. 2 min (1) / 5 NM (1) b. no wake turbulence separation required (1) c. 3 min (1) d. 4 NM (1) e. 3 min (1)

Question 50

Is wake turbulence separation required in the following situations? a. a C210 landing behind a departing C17 on the same runway? b. a VFR PC21 landing behind a VFR C130? c. an IFR C402 landing behind a VFR C130? d. an IFR C402 landing behind a B737 where the pilot of the C402 has reported sighting B737 and is instructed to follow it?

Answer 50

10. 6.1.3 10.6.1.4 10.6.4.1 a. No (1) b. No (1) c. Yes (1) d. No (1) Wake turbulence separation is not required: a. when a Light aircraft will enter the wake turbulence envelope of a Medium fixed wing aircraft of less than 25000 KG MTOW; b. between an aircraft landing behind an aircraft taking off on the same runway; c. for VFR flights except when required in accordance with 10.6.1.3 d. if a pilot has initiated a waiver of the relevant departure wake turbulence separation standard; or e. when the pilot of an IFR aircraft in flight has reported the preceding aircraft in sight and has accepted responsibility for visual separation with that aircraft. If it is determined by the flight crew that additional spacing is required, the flight crew may state their requirements to ATC.

Question 51

Except as specified in MATS 10.6.1.4 ‘When not required’, when shall wake turbulence separation minima be applied?

Answer 51

10.6.1.2.1 Apply wake turbulence separation minima when: a. an aircraft is directly behind and within 760m laterally of another aircraft (1) ; or b. both aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760m (1).

Question 52

What conditions apply to a wake turbulence waiver for civil aircraft? When shall a waiver not be applied?

Answer 52

10.6.1.5 10.6.1.5.1 Only apply a wake turbulence waiver to a departing aircraft (1): a. when initiated by the pilot (1); and b. in VMC (1) by day (1). Do not apply a waiver when a Light or Medium aircraft (1) will commence take off on the same runway behind (1), or in the reciprocal direction to (1), a Heavy or Super aircraft that has rotated (1) or made a low or missed approach (1).

Question 53

A wake turbulence caution shall be provided when opposite direction aircraft have passed using separation standards T7 a through d, and D8b, and the lighter category aircraft will enter the wake turbulence envelope of the heavier category aircraft, except when the heavier category aircraft is a medium fixed wing aircraft less than 25000kg MTOW. When else shall ATC issue a wake turbulence caution?

Answer 53

10.6.1.6 Issue a wake turbulence caution in any of the following circumstances: a. less than the applicable wake turbulence separation minima may exist (1); b. the applied wake turbulence separation minima may be infringed (1); c. the pilot initiates a waiver (1); d. when wake turbulence separation is not provided in circumstances described in 10.6.1.4 c) and e) and you consider that wake turbulence may have an adverse affect on the aircraft (1). or f. To an air taxiing helicopter that will operate in the wake turbulence envelope of a heavier category aircraft.(1)

Question 54

When can wake turbulence separation determined by distance be used in lieu of the time minima?

Answer 54

10.6.5.1 Where you can determine the required separation by distance using an aircraft report or ATS surveillance system, you do not need to apply the time standard (1), unless the aircraft is departing from an intermediate point (1) as described in Clause 10.6.2.2.

Question 55

How can the TWR controller separate two approaching aircraft while the second approaching aircraft is beyond the tower view? (Assume the second aircraft is NOT on a DME or GPS arrival)

Answer 55

10.7.2.9 Consider two approaching aircraft to be separated while the second approaching aircraft is on final approach beyond view of the Tower Controller if, before commencing such final approach (1), the first approaching aircraft: a) has been sighted by the Tower Controller (1), there is reasonable assurance that a landing can be accomplished (1), and it is clear that no conflict will occur (1); or b) has reported commencing a missed approach (1), and is proceeding from a point and on a clearance which will permit separation to be maintained should the second aircraft miss its approach (1).

Question 56

Under what circumstances may the responsibility for visual separation be assigned to a pilot?

Answer 56

10.8.1.1 You may only assign responsibility for visual separation to a pilot when: a. aircraft are operating at or below 10 000 FT (1); and b. the pilot of one aircraft: 1. reports sighting the other aircraft (1); and 2. accepts responsibility to maintain own separation with (1) or follow (1) that aircraft.

Question 57

When an aircraft has been instructed to maintain own separation from an IFR aircraft, what information and advice shall be given to the IFR aircraft?

Answer 57

10.8.1.4.1 Issue traffic information to the IFR aircraft (1), including advice of assignment of responsibility for separation to other aircraft (1).

Question 58

When is lateral separation said to exist between an arriving aircraft and a departing aircraft? Include any requirements and definitions in your answer.

Answer 58

10.9.2.1 Lateral separation exists between an arriving aircraft and a departing aircraft cleared on a segregated flight path (1) provided the departing aircraft commences take-off before the arriving aircraft commences final approach (1). A segregated flight path exists when the departing aircraft will not be manoeuvring within 45 degrees (1) either side of the final approach path of the arriving aircraft (1).

Question 59

VOZ532 has commenced ILS final approach and is at 5NM from the threshold. TEST28 has been cleared on a segregated flight path and has called ‘ready’ at the holding point. You cannot see VOZ532 and use the TAR to determine the position of the aircraft. What conditions are required to be met to enable TEST28 to depart ahead of VOZ532 landing and when would any appropriate distances used be increased?

Answer 59

10.9.2.2.1 10.9.2.3 Where an ATS surveillance system described in Clause 10.2.2.2 is used to determine the position of the arriving aircraft, ensure it is not closer than 3 NM from the landing threshold (1) at the time a departing aircraft: i. commences take-off on the runway to be used by the landing aircraft; (1) or ii. crosses the intersection of the runway to be used by the landing aircraft. (1) Increase distances contained in MATS 10.9.2.1 and 10.9.2.2.1 as appropriate to ensure that separation will be maintained: a. when missed approaches are likely (1); b. if a tailwind component exists on final approach (1); or c. a faster type aircraft is approaching in respect of a slower type aircraft taking off (1)

Question 60

What runway separation is required for a C-130 departing behind a departing FA-18?

Answer 60

10.9.3.1 Preceding FA-18 i. has crossed the up-wind end of the runway-in-use (1); ii. has commenced a turn (1); or; iii. is airborne and has reached a point at least 1800m (6000FT) ahead of the following aircraft (1), provided the runway is longer then 1800m (6000FT) and the distance can be readily determined (1).

Question 61

What runway standard is required for an MRH-90 departing behind a Cessna 152? The MRH-90 is departing from the same runway and requests a take-off roll.

Answer 61

10.9.3.5 Where a helicopter requires a take-off roll and uses a runway prior to becoming airborne, you may clear the helicopter for take-off when: a. the preceding aircraft is airborne and visual separation is applied (1)

Question 62

What runway separation is required for a FA-18F landing behind BE20 departing?

Answer 62

10.9.4.3 FA-18F shall not be permitted to cross the landing threshold until the BE20 is airborne and a) has commenced a turn (1); or b) is beyond the point on the runway at which the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its landing roll (1); and there is sufficient distance to enable the landing aircraft to manoeuvre safely in the event of a missed approach (1)

Question 63

What runway separation is required for a HAWK landing behind landing C130?

Answer 63

10.9.4.1 C130 has vacated and is taxiing away from the runway (1).

Question 64

What runway separation is required for a C172 (MTOW≈1100KG) departing behind another C172?

Answer 64

10.9.3.1 The departing aircraft must not be permitted to commence take-off unless the preceding C172 is airborne (1) and reached a point at least 600 M (2000ft) ahead of the following aircraft,(1) (both aircraft below 2000kg MTOW)

Question 65

What runway separation is required for a PA28 (CAT A / MTOW≈1000KG) landing behind E110 (MTOW≈5900KG) departing?

Answer 65

10.9.4.2 In the opinion of the Tower Controller, no collision risk exists (1), and the E110 is at least 1000m from the runway threshold (1) and has commenced its take-off run. (1) Apply the 'landing behind preceding departing or landing' standard to fixed-wing aircraft, provided you do not permit a landing aircraft to cross the runway threshold unless: a) the landing aircraft has an MTOW below 3000 kg and is a Performance Category A aircraft; and b) the preceding aircraft has an MTOW of 7000 kg or less, is at least 1000 m from the threshold of the runway and: i) if landing, will vacate the runway without backtracking; or ii) if departing, has commenced its take-off run.

Question 66

What runway separation is required for a BBJ departing behind a C172 landing on a crossing runway?

Answer 66

10.9.3.3 C172 has either crossed the intersection or stopped short. (1)

Question 67

VIPR23, a PC21 (MTOW≈4250KG), has landed and ABC, a C152 (MTOW≈760KG), is on short final. What is the minimum standard that is required when ABC crosses the threshold in order for you to issue a landing clearance? Include all conditions.

Answer 67

10.9.4.1.1 Apply the ‘landing behind a preceding landing aircraft’ standard to fixed-wing aircraft, provided that you do not permit a landing aircraft to cross the runway threshold until the preceding aircraft has landed and has passed a point at least 600 m from the threshold of the runway (1), is in motion (1) and will vacate the runway without backtracking (1) and: a. the preceding aircraft has an MTOW of less than 7000 KG (1) and b. the following aircraft has an MTOW of 2000 KG or less (1).

Question 68

What runway separation is required for a PC21 departing RWY 18 behind a BE20 departing RWY 36?

Answer 68

10.9.3.4 BE20 has crossed the point at which the PC21 will commence take-off. (1)

Question 69

What runway separation is required for a Kiowa departing from a HLS behind a previous departing AS32?

Answer 69

10.9.3.6 AS32 has departed the HLS (1)

Question 70

What runway separation is required for a F18 landing behind a Hawk departing on the crossing runway?

Answer 70

10.9.4.4 Hawk has crossed the intersection (1)

Question 71

What runway separation is required for a Kiowa landing on an HLS behind a departing AS32?

Answer 71

10.9.4.5 AS32 has left the HLS (1)

Question 72

What runway separation is required for a Kiowa landing behind a departing C17?

Answer 72

10.9.4.6 C17 is at least 300M down the runway from the landing threshold (1)

Question 73

A civilian Spitfire and Mustang are operating as an in-company flight to land at your aerodrome. They call you on base, ready to land. Who is responsible for runway separation between the aircraft on landing?

Answer 73

10.10.5.2 ATC (1). For each aircraft element of in-company flights…provide runway separation.

Question 74

When may a visual departure be issued in lieu of a SID for civil aircraft?

Answer 74

11.2.2.7 You may issue a visual departure in lieu of a SID: a. by day (1); b. in VMC (1); and c. provided that the cloud base is such that the pilot can maintain flight in VMC (1) below the applicable LSALT (1).

Question 75

When aircraft are using the same runway for departure, or when you issue multiple line up or simultaneous backtrack instructions, what considerations must you be cognisant of?

Answer 75

12.3.2.2.2 12.3.2.2.3 When utilising the same runway for departure, or simultaneous backtracking, flight crew must be able to maintain visual reference (1) to any other aircraft they are following (1). Do not issue multiple line up or simultaneous backtrack instructions unless the controller can continuously observe all relevant aircraft (1).

Question 76

As TWR, you have received departure instructions of “right 340 visual unrestricted” for VIPR34 a VFR PC21 that is ready at the runway-holding position. A preceding arrival is still on the runway so you elect to provide the departure instructions to VIPR34 with a clearance to line up. What phraseology will you use to achieve this?

Answer 76

12.3.2.5 “VIPR34 turn right heading 340 visual, (1) line up and wait.” (1)

Question 77

What crosswind and tailwind limits are placed on the selection of a particular runway if an alternative runway is available?

Answer 77

12.2.1.3 Do not nominate a runway for use when: 1. for runway conditions that are DRY: 1. the cross–wind component, including gusts, exceeds 20 KT (1); 2. the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds 5 KT (1). 2. for runway conditions that are WET or CONTAMINATED; 1. the cross–wind component, including gusts, exceeds 20 KT (1) 2. there is a tailwind component (1).

Question 78

When must the runway number be included in the line up clearance?

Answer 78

12.3.2.7 Include the runway number in the line up clearance whenever more than one runway is in use (1) or when aircraft are authorised to line up on the same runway (1).

Question 79

As the ADC you offer an aircraft an intersection departure. Under what circumstances must you pass the remaining take-off distance to the pilot?

Answer 79

12.3.2.10 When a pilot is offered an intersection departure, include the take-off distance remaining if this information is not readily available to the pilot. (1)

Question 80

When must visual checks of the take-off or landing path be made, in order to ensure no obstructions exist?

Answer 80

12.3.2.11 12.3.2.11.1 12.5.3.1 12.5.3.1.3 A visual check of the take-off or landing path shall be made to ensure no obstructions exist: before clearing an aircraft for take-off (1); and immediately before the take-off is commenced (1); and before clearing an aircraft to land (1); and immediately before the aircraft crosses the threshold (1).

Question 81

When shall the runway number be included in a take-off or landing clearance?

Answer 81

12.3.2.11.2 12.5.3.6 Whenever more than one runway is in use, (1) include the runway number in the landing/take-off clearance.

Question 82

In a take-off clearance what are the only words that can follow the words “TAKE-OFF”?

Answer 82

12.3.2.12.1 Use the words TAKE-OFF as the last words of the take-off clearance, except when the following information must be added: a. an instruction specifying a turn or circuit direction (1); or b. when required, the state of the arrestor system (1).

Question 83

Where installed, when must the position of the arrestor system be included with landing and take-off clearances?

Answer 83

12.3.2.12.2 12.5.3.1.4 Where installed, the position of the arrestor system must be included with the take-off/landing clearance when: a) it is not in the normal operating position for that aircraft type (1); or b) requested by the pilot (1).

Question 84

Under only what circumstances should a take-off clearance be cancelled, once the aircraft has commenced the take-off roll? What phraseology should be used? What additional information shall be provided to the pilot?

Answer 84

12.3.2.16 Only cancel a take-off clearance once an aircraft has commenced take-off roll in circumstances when an aircraft is in imminent danger (1), e.g. "STOP IMMEDIATELY (repeat aircraft callsign) STOP IMMEDIATELY (reason)" (1). Accompany any instruction to cancel take-off with a description of the nature of the emergency. (1)

Question 85

You have issued the Take-off clearance for EVY33 and prior to the aircraft rolling, you observe a group of kangaroos move into the centre of the runway. What phraseology should you use to cancel EVY33’s take-off clearance and alert the pilot to the danger?

Answer 85

GEN 3.4 6.16.6.4 “EVY33 hold position (1), cancel, I say again, cancel take-off (1), kangaroos on the runway (1)”

Question 86

You have issued the Take-off clearance for EVY33 and the aircraft has commenced rolling. You then observe a group of kangaroos move into the centre of the runway such that the aircraft is in imminent danger should it continue. What phraseology should you use to cancel EVY33’s take-off clearance and alert the pilot to the danger?

Answer 86

GEN 3.4 6.16.6.4 “EVY33 stop immediately, EVY33 stop immediately (1), kangaroos on the runway (1)”

Question 87

In what conditions, and at what intervals, shall ATC request braking characteristics from pilots?

Answer 87

12.2.2.3 When the RWY is not dry (1) request pilot reports on braking characteristics at intervals dependant on factors such as the drainage characteristics of the RWY and the intensity of the rain (1).

Question 88

What conditions are required to be met to issue a landing clearance?

Answer 88

12.5.3.1 Only issue a clearance to land after: a. the aircraft has commenced final approach of a straight-in instrument approach (1) or has been sighted by the Tower Controller (1): 1. on the late downwind leg of the circuit pattern (1) 2. on base leg (1); or 3. on final in the case of a straight-in visual approach (1); b. a visual check of the landing path has been completed (1); and c. no obstructions or collision risk exists (1).

Question 89

What else does a clearance to land authorise a pilot to do?

Answer 89

12.5.3.1 A clearance to land also authorises a pilot to go-around (1) or carry out a missed approach (1).

Question 90

When should a check gear call be made with a landing clearance for civil, military and general aviation aircraft?

Answer 90

12.5.5.1 Confirm that an aircraft’s undercarriage is down when: a. doubt exists as to whether an aircraft's gear is fully extended (1) b. issuing a landing clearance to a general aviation aircraft with retractable undercarriage that has experienced abnormal operation (1); or c. for a military aircraft, the pilot indicates the undercarriage is down and locked (1), when issuing the clearance to go-around or for any type of landing (1).

Question 91

What are the five critical initial actions with respect to In Flight Emergency Response?

Answer 91

IFER Critical Initial Actions Acknowledge (1), Assess (1), Separate (1), Coordinate (1), Phase (1).

Question 92

ALDN11 has joined the aerodrome circuit and has been instructed “ALDN11, TRAFFIC C172 MID DOWNWIND SEQUENCE NUMBER TWO’. How shall ALDN11 act in response to this instruction?

Answer 92

ENR 1.1 2.13.1.4 When issued with a sequencing instruction, a pilot must follow the preceding aircraft (1) and continue to do so unless otherwise instructed by ATC (1).

Question 93

EVY33 is on a VSA and is in receipt of a landing clearance. At the minima the pilot elects to go-around as a safe landing cannot be accomplished. Describe EVY33’s expected actions?

Answer 93

ENR 1.1 2.14.1 Except as specified in ERSA for specific locations, an aircraft that is required to go around from a visual approach in VMC must initially climb on runway track (1), remain visual (1) and await instructions from ATC (1). If the aircraft can not clear obstacles on runway track, the aircraft may turn (1).

Question 94

When shall a pilot advise ATC of a minimum fuel state?

Answer 94

ENR 1.1 10.9.2.1 The pilot in command shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring MINIMUM FUEL when, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome (1) the pilot in command calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than fixed fuel reserve (1).

Question 95

EVY33 is conducting an instrument approach, but prior to the MAPT elects to conduct a missed approach. Describe EVY33’s expected actions?

Answer 95

ENR 1.5 1.9.2 In executing a missed approach, pilots must follow the missed approach procedure specified for the instrument approach flown. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPT, pilots must fly to the MAPT (1) and then follow the missed approach procedure (1).

Question 96

What must 44WG controllers possess prior to vectoring an aircraft in TWR?

Answer 96

44WG SI (OPS) 03-08 Issue 01/21 para 7 A current APR or CENR endorsement at that location (1).

Question 97

Is wake turbulence separation required in the following situations? All involved aircraft are Australian Military aircraft. Explain your answer. a. a EC-135 (MTOW≈2,910KG) departing behind a departing C130 (MTOW≈56,337KG) on the same runway? b. an MRH-90 (MTOW≈10,600KG) departing behind a departing C17 (MTOW≈265000KG) on the same runway? c. an MRH-90 (MTOW≈10,600KG) departing behind a CH47 (MTOW≈20,865KG)?

Answer 97

AC SI(OPS) 03-16 Vol 1 AL 04/21 Annex D para 2 a. No (1). ATC is not required to apply wake turbulence separation standards, including for runway operations, to a following military helicopter provided the lead aircraft is not a fixed wing Heavy or Super category. (1) b. Yes (1). In this case the lead aircraft is a fixed wing Heavy aircraft (1) c. No (1). ATC is not required to apply wake turbulence separation standards, including for runway operations, to a following military helicopter provided the lead aircraft is not a fixed wing Heavy or Super category. (1)

Question 98

Consider the following scenarios to determine if Pilot Responsibility for Separation (PRS) can be used. If not, explain why. Assume all aircraft are IFR within military controlled airspace. a. CANN11 (F18F) is being vectored for a straight-in instrument approach behind TROJ05 (C130) who is already established on final. CANN11 requests PRS with reference to TROJ05, can ATC approve this? b. PHNX12 (Hawk) is on descent to A030 in IMC for arrival to your aerodrome. VIPR20 (PC21) is inbound on the same track maintaining A020, approximately 12NM ahead of PHNX12. Can ATC offer PHNX12 PRS with respect to VIPR20?

Answer 98

AC SI(OPS) 03-16 Vol 1 AL 04/21 Annex F para 4 Annex F para 7 a. Yes (1) b. No (1) Hawk may only be active PRS via use of visual separation only, at any altitude (1)

Question 99

TWR initiates the following cross coordination with SMC: TWR: "Behind the PC21 on final, C172 on Charlie cross RWY 27 behind" How shall SMC respond?

Answer 99

44WG SI(OPS) 03-08 Issue 01/21 para 5 When TWR initiates cross or enter runway coordination, SMC shall respond with a full read back. SMC: "Behind the PC21 on final (1), C172 on Charlie cross RWY 27 behind (1)"