CPGS Flashcards

2021 Exam CPGs: DM, Lepto, KT and Donor

1
Q

Start of monitoring of Ca, phosphate, PTH, Alkphos

A

CKD G3a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

interval of monitoring of Ca and Phos

A

G3: q6-12
G4 q3-6
G5 Q1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PTH interval monitoring

A

G3 baseline
G4: q6-12 months
G5 - q3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

gold standard for the diagnosis and classification of renal osteodystrophy

A

bone biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when to do bone biopsy

A

unexplained fractures, refractory hypercalcemia, suspicion of osteomalacia, atypical response to standard therapies for elevated PTH, progressive decreases in BMD despite standard therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dialysate calcium should be

A

1.25-1.50 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PTH should be maintained in

A

2-9x of upper normal limit for the assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

severe hyperparathyroidism failing to respond to medical

A

parathyroidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

immediate post KT Ca and phos monitoring

A

weekly until stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when to reduce dose or discontinue ACEi/ARBs

A

symptomatic hypotension or uncontrolled hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Physical activity for DM

A

moderate intensity for at least 150 mins per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

First line therapy for Type 2 DM and CKD

A

Metformin and SGLT2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Weight loss, HF, high risk ASCVD

A

GL1P-RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Potent glucose lowering

A

GL1P-RA, insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

avoid hypoglycemia

A

GL1P
DPP4
TZD
AGI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Low cost

A

SU, TZD, aGI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

EGFR < 15 or with HD

A

DPP4, insulin TZD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When to adjust dose of Metformin

A

EGFR < 45-59

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

evaluation for KT should be done

A

at least 6-12 months before anticipated dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when to not recommend transplant

A

multiple myeloma unless curative tx and in remission;
AL amyloidosis with extrarenal involvement, decompensated cirrhosis; severe irreversible lung disease; uncorrectable and symptomatic cardiac disease; central neurodegenerative disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Delay transplant evaluation until properly managed

A

unstable psych, substance disorder, ongoing health compromising nonadherent behavior, active infection, malignancy, cardiac disease, peripheral arterial disease; recent stroke, gi disease, hepatitis; severe hpt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

exception of infection that may proceed with transplant evaluation

A

hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

exception in malignancies that can proceed with transplantation

A

low grade - prostate cancer (gleason score < 6) and renal tumors (<1 cm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pre-emptive transplantation with a living kidney donor as preferred treatment for transplant eligible CKD patients who

A

eGFR < 10 ml/min or earlier with symptoms; EgFR < 15 ml/min for children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
abstain from tobacco use at a minimum of ___ prior to waitlisting or living donor
1 month
26
screening for current or former heavy tobacco smokers (>= 30 pack years)
chest CT scan
27
antiplatelets except aspirin should be stopped ____ days prior to living donor transplantation
5 days
28
contraindication to transplant in terms of anticoagulation
on direct acting oral anticoagulants (apixaban, rivaroxaban)
29
management for symptomatic PCKD (pain, infection, malignancy, insufficient room for transplant)
staged or simultaneous native nephrectomy
30
primary hyperoxaluria type 1
combined or sequential liver-kidney transplantation
31
strategies to lower total body oxalate burden
intensive dialysis | diet modification and pyridoxine treatment
32
HCV and compensated cirrhosis (without portal hypertension)
isolated kidney transplantation
33
HCV and decompensated cirrhosis
combined liver-kidney transplantation and deferring HCV treatment until after transplantation
34
monitoring of hbsag and hbv dna post transplant for hbsag negative, anti-hbc positive patients for
min of 1 year
35
vaccination for varicella and MMR for seronegative candidates should be done
at least 4 weeks prior to transplantation
36
live vaccines
MMR, VZV, shingles, yellow fever, oral typhoid, polio
37
splenectomized patients
pneumococcal, hemophilus and meningococcal vaccination
38
screening for bladder cancer
high level cyclophosphamide, heavy smoking of 30 pack years
39
screening for bladder ca
cystoscopy
40
screening for hcc
ultrasound, a-fetoprotein
41
no waiting time for candidates with surgically curatively treated
``` nonmetastatic basal cell ca melanoma in situ small renal cell Ca < 3 cm prostate Ca gleason score < 6 carcinoma in situ (ductal, cervical) thyroid ca, follicular, papillarry < 3 cm superficial bladder cancer ```
42
acute leukemia and high grade lymphoma
avoid transplant unless curative and remission and cancer free
43
noninvasive CAD screening
asymptomatic candidates at high risk for CAD (DM, previous CAD) with poor functional capacity
44
asymptomatic advanced triple vessel coronary disease
excluded
45
asymptomatic candidates on dialysis for at least 2 years, risk factors for pulmonary hypertension
2d echo
46
cut off for pulmonary artery systolic pressure
>45 or > 60 (R heart catheterization)
47
exclude from transplant
uncorrectable CLass 3/4, severe CAD, EF < 30%, severe valvular disease
48
cardiac amyloidosis
exclude
49
clinically apparent PAD + abnormal noninvasive testing or prior vascular procedure
noncontrast CT imaging of the abdomen/pelvis
50
at least ____ after a stroke or after a TIA before a KT
6 months after stroke | 3 months after TIA
51
screen candidates with ADPKD disease for
intracranial aneurysms (high risk)
52
if symptoms suggestive of PUD
EGD and Hpylori testing
53
acute pancreatitis, should delay KT
minimum of 3 months after symptoms have resolved
54
major complications of leptospiroris, marker of severity and indication for hospitalization
AKI (poorer prognosis)
55
Features of leptospirosis associated AKI
sterile pyuria, tea colored urine, mild proteinuria to severe anuric acute renal failure, nonoliguric renal failure with mild hypokalemia, oliguria with hyperkalemia (severity of AKI)
56
oliguria with hyperkalemia
poor prognosis
57
pathology of leptospirosis associated AKI
acute tubular damage and tubulointerstitial nephritis
58
lab findings associated with increase ind eath
neutrophilia and thrombocytopenia
59
predictors of mortality in severe leptospirosis
crea > 3, age > 40, oliguria, platelet < 70k and pulmonary involvement
60
Tubular dysfunction
hyponatremia and hypokalemia
61
responsible for non-oliguria
vasopressin resistance
62
urine output < 0.5 ml/kg/hr or M 400 ml/day or report decrease or no urine output with the last 12 hours
oligura
63
predictors of oliguria
> 40 years, crackles, low arterial pH, hyponatremia, increased crea, elevated DB and AST, low platelet and low alkphos
64
recommended map in leptospirosis
65-70 mmhg
65
initial fluid resuscitation in shock
ballanced crystalloids
66
If K is in the high normal value or with hyperkalemia
isotonic saline
67
initial rate
20 ml/kg.hr or 500 ml within 15-30 minutes
68
indications for acute rrt
uremic symptoms; pH <7.2, fluid overload, oliguria despite adequate hydration, crea > 3, K > 5 in an oliguric patient, ARDS, pulmo hemorrhage
69
frequency of dialysis in leptospirosis
daily dialysis
70
hemodynamically unstable dialysis modality
CRRT
71
indications for pulse therapy
AKI plus one of the ff: platelet < 100k, MAP < 65, inotropes, ards, prolonged PT/PTT
72
dose of pulse therapy
3 doses of MPPT 500 mg+ 1 dose of cyclophosphamide 60 mk IV
73
Donors should stop smoking
at least 4 weeks before donation and life long abstinence
74
evaluation of GFR
serum creatinine
75
confirmation of GFR
measured GFR using inulin measured CrCl eGFR using crea and cystatin C repeated estimated GFR from serum crea
76
acceptable GFR
> 90 ml/min
77
GFR that should not donate
GFR < 60 ml/min
78
acceptable AER
< 30 mg/day
79
AER that should not donate
> 100 mg/day
80
IgA nephropathy
do not donate
81
evaluation for persistent microscopic hematuria
urinalysis and urine CS; cystoscopy and imaging, 24h urine stone panel, kidney biopsy
82
elevated FBS, gestational DM or family history of DM in a first degree relative
2h OGTT or Hba1c
83
repeat testing of HIV, HBC and HCV
within 28 days
84
Genetic kidney disease that can cause kidney failure and APKD; pregnant
do not donate