DASH 1 Sec 1: Description and Operation Flashcards
(128 cards)
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The aircraft uses AC power to run most of the electrical systems.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>F</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The battery feeder protection unit provides over/under voltage protection for the battery.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>F</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>List the three indicators you should get with a good test of the fire detection system (using the Master Test switch)</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>L or R engine fire light, fire warning tone, Go light</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The emergency bus powers the ______.
A. Left fire warning switchlight
B. Right fire warning switchlight
C. Fire warning tone</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>C</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>A popped fuel circuit breaker may be reset _____ times</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>0</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>What makes the landing gear horn sound</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>1)Flaps 0 gear not down and locked and at least 1 throttle less the 70%N2
2) flaps 10, gear not down and locked and at least 1 throttle below 70%N2
3) flaps are extended beyond 10 and gear not down and locked</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Name the 3 modes of braking in the T-1</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>manual, power, anti-skid</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>What powers the brake system - Nitrogen, gravity, hydraulics, battery</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>hydraualics</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>After testing the anti-skid system, normal braking with anti-skid will not be available for ____ seconds</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>4</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Maximum ant-skid braking effectiveness can be obtained by landing with brakes applied</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Manual mode is just as effective as power brake mode but requires more brake pedal pressure.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>With normal hydraulic pressure and the anti-skid switch in OFF, you will be usijng the _____ mode of braking</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Power</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>With the ANTI-SKID FAIL annunciator illuminated anti-skid braking is still available but at a reduced rate.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>FALSE</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>________ is used to power the emergency brake system.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Nitrogen</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>_______ brake applications are available during emergency braking</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>7 to 10</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Anti-skid protection is not available during emergency braking</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Name three times or ways the parking brake should not be set.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>1) hot brakes
2) with low temperatures and moisture is present
3) using the copilot’s pedals</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The flap asymmetric detector senses any difference of more than _____ degrees between ____ flaps.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>7 : main</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The flap indicator reports the position of the ______flap</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>right main</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The FLAP ASYM annunciator indicates an asymmetric situation for the ______ flaps.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>main</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>List the primary flight controls for the T-1A</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>spoilers, rudders, elevators</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>List the secondary flight controls for the T-1A.</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>Flaps, speedbrakes, trim</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>The rudder boost system is not designed to fully compensate for the loss of thrust in an asymmetric condition</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>It is possible to discharge the left engine fire bottle into the right engine</p>
<p class=”large” style=”text-align:center”;>TRUE</p>
Which of the following components are driven by the accessory gear box? A. Oil pump B. DC starter generator C. Hydraulic pump D. All of the above
```D
A popped circoit breaker in the fuel system can be reset ____ times
0
During crossfeed operations, the fuel system will supply fuel to a single engine from both wing tanks simultaneously.
FALSE
The boost pumps serve which purpose (s)
engine start, a backup for the primary jet pumps, crossfeed
Fully fueled takeoff weight for the T-1A is typically ______lbs
16100
Which of the following components is not driven by the accessory gear box? A. oil pump B. DC starter generator C. hydraulic pump D. engine bleed air regulating valves
D
EFC OFF or failed ground idle RPM will be _____ EFC ON values
below
If the engine will not start with the ignition switch in STBY, the manual mode should be used
F
The engine synchronization system will adjust the fuel flow schedule of the _____ engine to synchronize the rpm's
right
The zero fuel weight of the T-1A is approximately ____lbs
11000
The typical fully fueled takeoff weight of the T-1A is ______ lbs
16100
At sea level and up to 27C, the engine will develop ______ pounds of takeoff rated thrust.
2900
The access gearbox drivews the?
starter-generator, N2 speed sensors, oil and fuel pump, hydro-mechanical metering unit, hydraulic pump
Each oil tank has a capacity of _____ gallons.
2.03
The OIL PRESS LO annunciator will illuminate when oil pressure decreases below
40
If the oil press-to-test indicator light system does not work, we can check the oil level by
using the dipstick
The oil press-to-test indicator light system is the only means of checking the oil level in the T-1A.
FALSE
The maximum thrust loss due to EFC failure could be ____%
40
_______ contols engine fuel flow from engine start to approximately 38% N2.
HMU
Operation of the engines with the EFC off can result in
Fuel coking on the fuel nozzles
The purpose of the engine safety shutoff valve is to
Shut down the engine when sensing a rotor shaft failure
You know a turbine rotor shaft has failed if
You hear a loud bang
You cannot restart an engine with a failed turbine rotor shaft
TRUE
With the ignition switches in STBY, the engine ignitors will automatically turn of if_____,_____ or _____.
engine anti-ice on, stick shaker is activated, engine start switch is pressed
The normal range for starter drop out during engine start is ____ to ____ %N2.
35 to 40
The _______ engine is the master in the synchronization system
Left
The synchronization actuators have a limited range of approximately ____ RPM
1.50%
The engine sync should be turned on for takeoff and landing.
FALSE
The synchronization system will not work if _____ is inoperative
EFC
Which engine sync mode (Fan or Turbine) is more effective for eliminating sonic whine?
Fan
The _______ bus powers the left engine fan indicator (N1).
emergency
The ______ bus powers the left ITT.
standby
During engine start, if light off does not occur within ______ seconds, you should _____
10, throttle to cutoff and motor the engine
During engine start, the ITT should not normally exceed ______ (ITT)
550C
In the event of a hung start, do not advance the throttle beyond _______
IDLE
List the three indicators you should get with a good test of the fire detection system (using the Master Test switch)
L or R engine fire light, fire warning tone, Go light
What extinguishing agent is contained in the extinguisher bottles
Halon
All available chemical agent in the fire-extinguishing bottle is dispensed when the switchlight is pushed.
TRUE
The red disc located on the left aft fuselage indicates (if missing) one or both fire extinguishing bottles have been discharged _____.
Overboard
List the four things that happen when the engine fire switchlight is pressed
fuel valve closes/hydraulic valve closes/generator is disconned/extinguisher system armed
The fuel system is designed to operate up the ______feet
41000
The fuel system is designed to operate between ____C and ___C
-40 to 50
A popped fuel circuit breaker may be reset _____ times
0
In order for the TCAS to display traffic information on the MFD, what must be activated.
your transponder and other a/c's transponder must be active
Only vertical flight path collision avoidance alerts are issued by the TCAS.
TRUE
The TCAS will issue both vertical and navigational flight path collision avoidance alerts.
FALSE
Pilots do not need to visually clear as long as the TCAS is operational.
FALSE
Power is applied to the TCAS when the _____ are set to the on position.
radio master switches
The TCAS system will not provide resolution advisories below ____ feet AGL.
1000
Aural annunciation of traffic advisories is provided at altitudes above ____ feet AGL.
500
Should you make evasive manuevers if you get a TA on the TCAS.
No. unless visually acquired and a threat
An advisory that recommends maintaining the current vertical flight path is a _______ RA.
preventive
Compliance with a TCAS II resolution advisory (RA) is necessary unless the pilot considers it unsafe to do so
TRUE
Compliance with a TCAS II resolution advisory (RA) is mandatory at all times.
FALSE
Following a TCAS II 'clear of conflict" advisory, the pilot should return to the original altitude/heading they were on prior to initiating evasive maneuvers unless otherwise directed by ATC.
TRUE
If both aircraft are TCAS equipped, the TCAS systems will "talk" to each other and coordinate evasive actions.
TRUE
The red resolution advisory lights on the VSI indicate the recommended vertical rate in collision avoidance.
FALSE
The green resolution advisory lights on the VSI indicate the recommended vertical rate for collision avoidance.
trur
If the TCAS issues a "monitor vertical speed" advisory, you should.
maintain your current rate of climb/descent
If the TCAS issues a "climb, crossing climb", advisory, you should.
climb at the rate shown by the green arc on the VSI
The maximum range available to be displayed on the MFD TCAS page is ____ NM.
300
An aircraft that is not considered to be a collision threat is indicated as a _____ by the TCAS. (shape and color)
cyan open diamond
An aircraft that is nearby but not close enough to be considered advisory traffic is indicated as a _____ by (shape and color)
cyan solid diamond
An aircraft that is a potential collision threat is indicated as a ____ by TCAS.(color and shape)
red solid square
An aircraft that is a potential collision threat is indicated as a _____ by TCAS.(color and shape)
yellow solid circle
If the "ABOVE/BELOW" altitude protection window is selected, TCAS will monitor _____feet above and below the aircraft.
9900
You can not turn off the anti-collision light in clouds, even if experiencing vertigo.
FALSE
Where are the anti-collision strobe lights located on the T-1
on the wing tips and on the vertical stabilizer
The anti-collision beacon is installed ____ on the T-1A
on top of the vertical stabilizer
Why does the T-1 have wing inspection lights.
to aid in ice formation detection on the wings
After retractiong the landing gear, you must position the landing light switch to Retract/Off in order to turn off the landing lights.
FALSE
To prevent damage due to overheating, landing lights should be extinguished as soon as possible after landing.
TRUE
What happens to the flourescent cabin lights when the passenger oxygen masks are deployed.
they automatically illuminate at full intensity
The aft fuselage compartment light will automatically extinguish when the aft fuselage doors are closed.
TRUE
The circuit breaker panel will not be illuminated at night
false (you must turn on the lights)
Which oxygen subsystem can operate independently. (crew, passenger, or standby)
crew
The T-1's high pressure oxygen cylinder is located _______.
in the nose compartment
The passenger emergency oxygen masks automatically deploy when a cabin pressure of ____ is sensed.
12,500' +/- 500'
Which type of oxygen system is used for the crew maks. A. variable flow B. constant flow C. diluter-demand D. manual contol
```C
A ______ type oxygen system is used for the passenger oxygen mask. A. variable flow B. constant flow C. diluter-demand D. manual contol
```B
The oxygen supplied to the passengers is a mix of 100% oxygen and ambient air.
FALSE
A temperature drop of ____ degrees F will reduce the oxygen pressure by _____ percent.
100;20
The crew oxygen mask postion ____ provides 100% oxygen under positive mask pressure. (normal, 100%, or emergency)
emergency
When the oxygen system blowout disk is missing, it indicates.
the entire oxygen supply has been vented overboard
The primary use for the Emergency Escape Breathing Cevice (EEBD) is.
emergency gound egress
The EEBDS should be operable for a minimum of _____ minutes.
15
The handheld fire extinguishers on board the T-1 will expel all the Halon agent in one application.
TRUE
The ELT is located where on the T-1
in the aft fuselage
The ELT will automatically activate after a ____ G impact (5,6,7,or 8)
5
The ELT may be tested
within the first 5 minutes of the hour
Where is the cabin smoke detector located.
in the aft cabin
The maximum cabin floor loading is ______ pounds per square foot.
100
When the audio mute switch is set to override the audio mute function is what.
disabled
The ________switch allows the pilot to hear radio communications if the select switch is set to UHF/VHF and the received audio switch is set to off.
automatic communications
The _____ switch provides a radio communication override.
audio mute
The ______ switch provides an emergency mode of operation of the UHF radio for the respective audio subsystem.
audio normal/emergency
The interphone system allows communication between personnel on the ground.
TRUE
In order for the interphone system to work on the ground with only battery power available the ground comm switch must be pressed to ON.
TRUE
The GPWS continuously monitors the aricraft flight path at altitudes between approximately _____ and ______ feet AGL.
30' AGL;2450' AGL
The typical GPWS warning time is ____ to ____ seconds prior to ground impact if no crew action is taken.
15;20
A GPWS self-test may be accomplished while airborne if the radio altitude is above _____ feet AGL.
200
The glideslope mode of the GPWS may not be silenced by the pilot.
FALSE
The excessive descent mod of the GPWS can be silenced by the pilot.
FALSE
What provides the GPWS information for decision height.
the radio altimeter
