Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Uworld > Deck 101: Incorrect > Flashcards

Deck 101: Incorrect Flashcards

1
Q

role of IL-2

A

stimulate: T and B cells
Natural killer cells
monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MOA of Latanoprost on eye

A

increase outflow of aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when does loss of cardiomyocyte contractility occur after the onset of total ischemia

A

within 60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pick’s disease another name

A

frontotemperoal dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe pick’s disease

A
  • changes in personality, social behavior, and language that progress over time to a more global dementia with obvious neurocognitive deficits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Role of parietal cortex

A
  • integrating sensory information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What enzyme has been linked to forms of colon adenocarcinoma

A

cyclooxygenase -2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what phases secrete gastric acid secretion

A
  • caphalic and gastric phases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what phase reduces gastric acid secretion

A

intestinal influences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what type of cells regenerate alveolar lining following injury and surfactant production

A

Type II pneumocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cephalosporin resistant organisms

A
  • listeria
  • MRSA
  • enterococci
  • atypicals ( mycoplasma, chlamydia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for listeria

A

Ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For the negative predictive value graph on page 33. area under graph represents what

A

TN, FN, FP, TP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tRINA contain what modified bases

A
  • dihydrouridine
  • ribothymidine
  • pseudouridine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is at the 3’ end of tRNA

A

CCA ( Can Carry Amino acids)

- amino acid binding site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

role of T loops for tRNA

A

binds to ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Decreased lung volumes and increased lung elastic recoil is

A

interstitial lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

increased elastic recoil results in what in restrictive lung disease

A
  • increase radial traction ( outward pulling) on airways

- increase expiratory flow rates when corrected for low lung volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pleiotropy

A

multiple phenotypic manifestations result from a single genetic mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Skeletal abnormalities, lens dislocation, intellectual deficits, vascular thromboses, and a genetic defect in cystathionine beta-synthase enzyme

A

homocytsinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

segration

A
  • offspring inherits only half of each parent’s genetic composition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

polyploidy

A

2 complete sets of homologous chromosomes exist within an organism
69XXX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

locus heterogeneity

A

ability of one disease or trait to be caused by mutations in multiple different genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

genetic linkage

A

tendency of alleles located near one another on the same chromosomes to be inherited jointly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Patient who has new-onset neurologic symptoms, anemia with schixtocytes, thrombocytopenia and acute kidney injury likely has what
thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
26
TTP , what goes wrong
impaired function of ADAMTS13, von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease
27
symptoms for thrombotic thrombocytipenic purpora
``` FAT RN Fever Anemia ( hemolytic) Thrombocytopenia renal symptoms neurologic ```
28
physical signs of stimulant intoxication inlcude
``` tachycardia hypertension hyperthermia diaphoresis mydriasis ```
29
Schizophreniform disorder
- 2 or more psychotic symptoms lasting 1-6 months
30
aneurysmal compression of CN III has what symptoms
- mydriasis - ptosis - "down and out" deviation
31
what lies immediately deep to the tip of the 12th rib
left kidney
32
Leads I and aVL correspond to what part of the heart and supplied by
- lateral aspect of left ventricle | - left cirumflex artery
33
Pulsus paradoxus
decrease in systolic blood pressure of less than 10 mm Hg with inspiration
34
When can pulses paradoxes occur
- cardiac tomponade - asthma - COPD - constrictive pericarditis
35
explain pulses paradoxes in cardiac tamponde
- inspire - increase preload - increase RV filling - interventricular septum shifts into LV - decrease LVEDV - decrease systolic blood pressure
36
Most common causes of pulses paradoxes in the absence of significant pericardial disease
asthma | COPD
37
what type of beta drugs are used for asthma and COPD
beta-adrenergic agonists | - increase cAMP
38
What causes accumulation of androgens during pregnancy, resulting in ambiguous external genitalia in female infants and maternal virilization
placental aromatase deficiency
39
gonadal artery arises from what artery
abdominal aorta
40
St. John's wort does what to P450
induces cytochrome P450
41
Name the CYP 450 inhibitos
CRACK AMIGOS - Ciprofloxacin - Ritonavir - Amiodarne - Cimetidine - Keoconazole - Acute EtOH - Macrolide - INH - Grapefruit - Omeprazole - Sulfonamides
42
Name the CYP 450 inhibitors
Guiness, Coronas, PBR cause Chronic Alcoholism - Griseofulvin - Carbamazepine - Phenytion - Barbituates - Rifampin - St. John Wart - Chronic Etoh
43
why is carbidopa added to levodopa
reduce peripheral side effects of levodopa - behavioral changes from levodopa can actually worsen with addition of carbidopa because dopamine becomes available to the brain
44
Rifampin, phenobarbital, and phenytoin CYP450 what
enhancers
45
Irritability, dystonia, poor feeding, and a "maple syrup" scent to the patient's urine within the first few days of life
maple syrup urine disease
46
dietary restriction of maple syrup urine
restrict branched- chain amino acids | leucine, isoluecine and valine
47
1st pharyngeal arch
- trigeminal nerve ( 2/3) - mandible - maxilla - zygoma - incus - malleus
48
second pharyngeal arh
- facial nerve - stapes - styloid process - lesser horn of hyoid
49
muscular derivatives of 2nd pharyngeal arch
muscles of facial expression
50
muscular derivatives of 1st pharyngeal arch
- muscles of mastication
51
Treacher-Collins syndrome
abnormal development of first and 2nd arch
52
glossopharyngeal nerve is derived from what arch
third
53
lesser hyoid bone derived from
2nd arch
54
greater horn of hyoid derived from
3rd arch
55
microcytic anemia and increased hemoglobin A2 concentration. Peripheral blood smear shows hypochromia and poikilocytes, including spherocytes and target cells. In asymptomatic adult of Italian american patient
beta-thalassemia minor
56
alpha thalassemia in common in who
southeast Asia
57
Beta-thalassemia is caused by what process
- caused by a variety of DNA mutations affecting the transcription, processing and translation of beta-globin mRNA
58
Drug continuous infusion of a drug metabolized by first-order kinetics, the steady state concentration is reach when
4 to 5 half lives
59
Propionyl CoA is derived from what amino acids
``` Valine Ile Met The - odd numbered fatty acids - cholesterol side chains ```
60
what does propionyl CoA carboxylase convert
propionyl CoA to methylmalonyl CoA | - develops propionic acidemia
61
chronic kidney disease with mineral bone disease what have levels of phosphate, PTH, calcitriol
- phosphate increased - hyperparathyroidism - decrease calcitriol
62
circulating IgG4 antibodies to phospholipase A2 receptor ( transmembrane protein abundant on podocytes)
membranous nephropathy
63
Patients who experience major depressive and hypomanic episodes are diagnosed with what
bipolar II disorder
64
in contrast to manic epidsodes, hypomanic episodes are
- less severe - do not involve psychosis - lesser degree of functional impairment
65
patient with recurrent vaginal Candida infections, weight loss, diarrhea, generalized lymphadenopathy and thrush likely has
HIV
66
BK virus causes
nephropathy
67
sunlight exposure catalyses conversation of what for vitamin D
7-dehydrocholesterol to cholecalciferol in skin

Uworld (63 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions