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DCNP Review > Dermatitis > Flashcards

Dermatitis Flashcards

1
Q

What drug classes precipitate mast cell degradation?

A

AsA, NSAIDS, opoiods, narcotics

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2
Q

What is 1st line treatment for atopic dermatitis?

A

Emollients

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3
Q

If a pediatric patient is being treated with a low potency TCS on the arms with minimal clearing, what should the next step be?

A

Change to moderate potency TCS

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4
Q

An absolute contraindication for using phototherapy include

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum, Lupus erythematous, basal cell nevus syndrome

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5
Q

What should be done prior to a phototherapy treatment?

A

Apply eye goggles/protection, covering genitals and face, apply non-medicated emollients

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6
Q

What is the mechanism action for phototherapy?

A

Suppression of DNA synthesis and generation of prostaglandins & cytokines

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7
Q

Most case reports of eosinophilic pustules folliculitis are from what country?

A

Japan

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8
Q

The lesions of eosinophilic pustular folliculitis include

A

Pustules, eruptive nature, recurrent

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9
Q

The first line therapy for eosinophilic pustular folliculitis is

A

Indomethacin

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10
Q

What medication class is most commonly associated with drug induced erythroderma?

A

Sulfonamides

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11
Q

Erythroderma is more common in

A

Adult males

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12
Q

The definition of erythroderma includes erythema and scale encompassing more than what body percentage?

A

90%

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13
Q

When the etiology of erythroderma is not clear, close examination of what may give clinical clues?

A

Nails

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14
Q

Mortality associated with erythrodermic conditions in the elderly population is most likely associated with

A

High output cardiac output failure

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15
Q

About 33% of erythroderm cases are due to

A

Idiopathic

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16
Q

The autoimmune disorder most closely associated with erythroderma is

A

Pemphigus foliaceous

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17
Q

Patients either asteoatotic eczema are how much more likely to develop Grover’s Disease?

A

5x more likely

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18
Q

Smooth papules of Grover’s Disease show acantholytoc cells patterned after which diseases

A

Hailey hailey, darier’s disease

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19
Q

What can trigger Grover’s Disease?

A

Ribavirin, UV exposure, heat, sweat

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20
Q

The potency of a corticosteroid in decreasing inflammation and controlling pruritis is based on:

A

Level of vasoconstrictive activity,vehicle, structure and concentration of the molecule

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21
Q

Vitamin D receptors have been identified in a number of skin cells including

A

Melanocytes and keratinocytes

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22
Q

First line treatment for intertrigo includes

A

Topical zinc

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23
Q

The medication of choice when treating intertrigo with a secondary fungal infection includes:

A

Ketoconazole

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24
Q

A wood’s lamp will fluoresce coral red if an area of intertrigo contained which organism?

A

Corynebacterium minutisssimun

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25
Q

Keratosis Polaris has the highest incidence in patients with

A

Icythyosis

26
Q

Which topical treatment of keratosis Polaris has demonstrated highest efficacy?

A

Lactic acid

27
Q

Cutaneous lichen planus is often described with what descriptors?

A

Pruritic, planar, polyangular, purple, papule, polished and plentiful

28
Q

Lichenoid drug eruptions are associated with what medications?

A

Thiazide diuretics

29
Q

Lichen simplex chronicus is most comm9nly seen in

A

Women over 20 years of age

30
Q

First line treatment strategy for lichen planus is

A

Topical corticosteroids

31
Q

Lichen simplex chronically is often described as

A

Papules with aggregation into plaques with excoriations and heightened skin lines

32
Q

True or false: Incidence of nummular eczema is increased in males

A

True

33
Q

The most common location of nummular eczema in males is

A

Lefs

34
Q

The appropriate first line treatment for flares of nummular eczema is

A

High potency TCS

35
Q

A pediatric patient presents to the office with the parent complaining of a white rash on the face. The lesions are small eith slight scale, other than appearance they are asymptomatic. The patient also has a history of atopic dermatitis. This condition is most likely:

A

Pityriasis alba

36
Q

Nail changes associated with pityriasis rural Polaris include:

A

Yellow brown discoloration

37
Q

A key clinical finding of pityriasis rubra pilaris includes:

A

Follicular hyperkeratosis

38
Q

Pityriasis rubra pilaris is often confused with what other dermatological condition?

A

Psoriasis

39
Q

The classic adult type 1 presentation of pityriasis rubra pilaris accounts for what percentage of cases?

A

55%

40
Q

PLEVA is which form of pityriasis lichenoides?

A

Acute

41
Q

Febrile ulceronecrotic Mucha-Habermann disease can involve

A

GI system

42
Q

First line therapy for pityriasis lichenoides includes

A

Doxycycline

43
Q

The etiology of pityriasis rosea is postulated to be

A

Viral

44
Q

PuPPP is more likely to occur in what trimester?

A

3rd

45
Q

PuPPP lesions start in which area?

A

Abdominal straie

46
Q

Which antihistamine therapy is generally considered safe to use in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?

A

Loratadine

47
Q

PUPPP is more likely to occur in

A

Primiparous women

48
Q

A 24-year-old pregnant female has been diagnosed with a severe case of PUPPP. She is on oral antihistamines and topical corticosteroids with no relief. Her OB/GYN has agreed a short course of oral corticosteroids is needed. The starting dose of prednisolone should not exceed:

A

35 mg/day

49
Q

A differential diagnosis for PUPPP is urticarial pemphigoid gestations. This condition can result in

A

Premature birth

50
Q

Comorbidities seen in psoriasis patients may include:

A

Depression, rheumatologic disorders, crohn’s disease

51
Q

Appropriate education prior to starting a patient on a biologic therapy include:

A

All appropriate live vaccines should be administered prior to the start of the biologic

52
Q

The most prevalent form of psoriasis is:

A

Plaque

53
Q

What is true regarding the skin of patients over the age of 60?

A

Decrease in stratum corneum lipids, decrease in intercellular lipids, decrease in ceramide production

54
Q

What acts as a humectant?

A

Urea

55
Q

Xerosis cutis initially starts in which body location?

A

Shins

56
Q

Results for patch testing are interpreted in which time frame?

A

48 hours, 72 hours and possibly a week

57
Q

Dermatitis conditions that occur due to exposure of the urushiol chemicals are termed:

A

Rhus dermatitis

58
Q

The type of dermatitis that occurs after exposure due to the fucocoumarin chemical followed by

A

Phytopytodermatitis

59
Q

What accurately describes the lesions found in contact dermatitis?

A

Lesions that have well defined lines of demarcation

60
Q

A hairdresser who develops a contact dermatitis on the hands most likely has developed an allergic reaction to

A

Phenylenadiamine

61
Q

The chronic phase of stasis dermatitis is characterized by

A

Thick skin

DCNP Review (12 decks)

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