Diagnosis and Management of Neurologic Disorders Flashcards
1
Q
Olfactory is what cranial nerve?
A
CN 1
2
Q
Olfactory is associated with what type of nerve?
A
Sensory
3
Q
The optic nerve is cranial what?
A
CN 2
4
Q
The optic nerve is for what?
A
vision
5
Q
The optic nerve is what type of nerve?
A
Sensory
6
Q
Oculomotor is what CN?
A
CN 3
7
Q
Oculomotor is what type of nerve?
A
Motor
8
Q
Oculomotor is used most with ____, opening ____, pupillary constriction
A
EOMs, eyelids
9
Q
The trochlear nerve is what CN ___?
A
CN 4
10
Q
Trochlear nerve major function is?
A
Down and inward eye movement
11
Q
The trochlear nerve is what type of nerve?
A
Motor
12
Q
The trigeminal nerve is what CN?
A
CN 5
13
Q
The major function of the trigeminal nerve is?
A
Muscles of mastication, the sensation of face, scalp, cornea, mucus membranes and nose
14
Q
The trigeminal nerve is what type?
A
both
15
Q
The abducens nerve major function is?
A
Lateral eye movement
16
Q
The abducens nerve is number what?
A
six
17
Q
The abducens nerve is what type?
A
motor
18
Q
The facial nerve is number what?
A
seven
19
Q
The major function of the facial nerve?
A
Move face, close mouth, and eyes, taste (anterior 2/3), saliva and tear secretion
20
Q
The type of facial nerve is?
A
both
21
Q
The acoustic is what nerve number?
A
8
22
Q
The major function of acoustic nerve is?
A
Hearing and equilibrium
23
Q
The type of acoustic nerve is?
A
sensory
24
Q
The glossopharyngeal is what nerve?
A
9
25
The glossopharyngeal function is what?
Phonation (one-third), gag reflex, carotid reflex swallowing, taste (posterior)
26
The glossopharyngeal nerve is what type of nerve?
both
27
The vagus nerve is number?
ten
28
The function of the vagus nerve is what?
Talking, swallowing, general sensation for the carotid body, carotid reflex
29
The vagus nerve is what type?
both
30
The spinal accessory nerve is what number?
11
31
The major function of the spinal accessory nerve is what?
movement of the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles (shrug shoulders)
32
The spinal accessory nerve is what type of nerve?
motor
33
The hypoglossal nerve is what CN?
12
34
The hypoglossal nerve major function is?
move the tongue
35
The hypoglossal nerve is what type?
motor
36
Components of Headache Evaluation
| Chronology is the _____ important history item
most
37
Components of Headache Evaluation
| Location, duration, and quality should be _____
evaluated
38
Components of Headache Evaluation
| Associated activity: ____, sleep, tension, relaxation
Exertion
39
Components of Headache Evaluation
| Timing of the ______ cycle
menstrual
40
Components of Headache Evaluation
| Presence of _____ symptoms
associated
41
Components of Headache Evaluation
| 6. Presence of "_____"
triggers
42
Signs/Symptoms
1. Vise-like or tight in quality
2. Usually generalized
3. Maybe most intense about the neck or back of the head 4. No associated focal neurological symptoms
5. Usually last for several hours
Tension Headaches Most common type of headache (90% of all headaches)
43
_____ Headaches Most common type of headache (90% of all headaches)
Tension
44
Laboratory/Diagnostics
| 1. _____specific for tension headache
None
45
Management tension headache:
1. Over the counter analgesics
2. _______
Relaxation
46
Migraine headaches are divided into two categories: _____ Migraine (migraine with aura) and
Classic
47
```
Migraine headaches are divided into two categories:
_______ migraine (migraine without aura).
```
common
48
Migraine:
| They have been related to dilation and excessive pulsation of branches of the external ____ artery
carotid
49
Migraine:
| Typically lasts ___ to __ hours following the trigeminal nerve pathway.
2 to 72 hours
50
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
| Onset usually in _______ or early adult years
adolescence
51
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
| Often there is a _____ history
family
52
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
| _____ more often affected than males
Females
53
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
A variety of "triggers" are associated with migraine: Emotional or physical _____, lack or excess sleep, missed meals, specific foods, alcoholic beverages, menstruation, use of oral contraceptives
stress
54
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
| ____ containing foods
Nitrate
55
Causes/Incidence Migraine:
| Changes in _____
weather
56
Symptoms Migraine:
| 1. Unilateral, lateralized throbbing headache that occurs _______
episodically
57
Symptoms Migraine:
| 2. May be dull or _______
throbbing
58
Symptoms Migraine:
| 3. Build _____ and last for several hours or longer
gradually
59
Symptoms Migraine:
| 4. Focal neurologic _______ may precede or accompany migraines
disturbances
60
Symptoms Migraine:
5. Visual disturbances occur commonly: Field defects, luminous visual _________ (i.e., stars, sparks or zigzag of lights)
hallucinations
61
Symptoms Migraine:
| 6. Aphasia, ________, tingling, clumsiness, or weakness may occur
numbness
62
Symptoms Migraine:
| 7. Nausea and ________
vomiting
63
Symptoms Migraine:
| 8. Photophobia and _________
phonophobia
64
Physical Exam Findings migraine:
| 1. Many times are normal although may see neuro _____as described above
deficits
65
Physical Exam Findings migraine:
| 2. Appears ____
ill
66
Physical Exam Findings migraine:
| 3. Careful neuro exam for focal deficits or findings supportive of ______
tumor
67
In patients with new migraine headaches, a variety of _________ studies must be done to rule out organic causes of the symptoms
baseline
68
```
Migraine/ Laboratory/Diagnostics
1. Blood chemistries, basic metabolic panel (BMP)
2. CBC
3. VDRL
4. ESR
5. ____ scan of the head
6. Other studies as indicated by the history and physical
exam
```
CT
69
Management Migraine:
| 1. Avoidance of ____ factors very important
trigger
70
Management Migraine:
| 2. Relaxation/stress ____ techniques
management
71
```
Management Migraine:
______ daily therapy if attacks occur more than 2 to 3 times per month, i.e.,
a. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
b. Divalproex (Depakote)
c. Propranolol (Inderal)
d. Imipramine (Tofranil)
e. Clonidine (Catapres)
f. Verapamil (Calan)
g. Topiramate (Topamax)
h. Gabapentin (Neuromin)
i. Methysergide (Sansert)
j. Magnesium
*This is not an all-inclusive list
```
Prophylactic
72
Management Migraine:
| a. _______ (Elavil)
Amitriptyline
73
Management Migraine:
| b. Divalproex (_______)
Depakote
74
Management Migraine:
| c. ______ (Inderal)
Propranolol
75
Management Migraine:
| d. Imipramine (_____)
Tofranil
76
Management Migraine:
| e. Clonidine (_____)
Catapres
77
Management Migraine:
| f. Verapamil (_____)
Calan
78
Management Migraine:
| g. ______ (Topamax)
Topiramate
79
Management Migraine:
| h. _______ (Neuromin)
Gabapentin
80
Management Migraine:
| i. Methysergide (______)
Sansert
81
Management Migraine:
| j. this is an electrolyte
Magnesium
82
Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:
| 1. ______ in a dark, quiet room
Rest
83
Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:
| 2. Simple analgesic (____) taken right away may provide some relief
ASA
84
Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:
| 3. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) ___ mg SQ at the onset, may repeat in 1 hour (total of 3 times per day)
6 mg
85
Management of Acute Attack with Migraine:
| 4. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) __ mg orally at the onset of headache
25 mg
86
Very painful syndromes, mostly affecting middle-aged men
Cluster Headaches
87
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
| 1. Often ___ family history of headache or migraine
no
88
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
| 2. Maybe precipitated by _____ ingestion
alcohol
89
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
| 3. Characterized by severe, unilateral, _____ pain occurring daily for several weeks
periorbital
90
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
| 4. Usually occur at ______t, awakening the client from sleep
night
91
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
| 5. Usually last less than ___ hours, pain-free months or weeks between attacks
2
92
Causes/Incidence of Cluster Headaches:
| 6. ______ nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and eye redness may occur
Ipsilateral
93
Physical Exam Findings/ Cluster Headaches:
| 1. The usual exam is _____; may see eye redness and rhinorrhea
normal
94
Management/ Cluster Headaches:
| 1. Treatment of individual attacks with oral drugs usually ________
unsatisfactory
95
Management/ Cluster Headaches:
| 2. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) 6 mg SQ maybe _______
effective
96
Management/ Cluster Headaches:
| 3. Inhalation of ____ 02 may help
100%
97
Management/ Cluster Headaches:
| 4. Ergotamine tartrate aerosol inhalation (____) may be effective
Ergostat
98
Periods of acute cerebral insufficiency lasting less than 24 hours without any residual deficits
Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
99
Causes/General Concepts of TIA:
| 1. ______ due to atherosclerosis, thrombus, arterial occlusion, embolus, intracerebral hemorrhage or
Ischemia
100
Causes/General Concepts of TIA:
| 2. _______ events (atrial fibrillation, acute MI, endocarditis, valve disease)
Cardio-embolic
101
Causes/General Concepts of TIA:
| 3. TIA is indicative of an impending _____
stroke
102
Causes/General Concepts of TIA:
| 4. Approximately 1/3 of patients with TIA will experience cerebral infarction within _____ years.
five
103
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
| 1.Altered vision: Ipsilateral monocular blindness (___ _____)
amaurosis fugax
104
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
| 2. Altered speech: Transient _____
aphasia
105
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
| 3. Motor impairment: Paresthesias of the ______ arm, leg, or face
contralateral
106
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
| 4. ______ deficits
Sensory
107
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
| 5. Cognitive and behavioral _________
abnormalities
108
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
| 6. D_______
Dysphagia
109
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
| 7. V_____
Vertigo
110
Signs/Symptoms TIA:
| 8. N______
Nystagmus
111
TIA Classifications
| 1. _________: As a result of inadequate blood flow from vertebral arteries
Vertebrobasilar
112
TIA Vertebrobasilar Classifications
| a. Sign/ symptoms: Vertigo, ataxia, ______, visual field deficits, weakness, confusion, etc.
dizziness
113
TIA Classifications:
2. _____ : Due to carotid stenosis
a. Presentations include: Aphasia, dysarthria, altered LOC, weakness, numbness
Carotid
114
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
| 1. ____ is best for distinguishing between ischemia, hemorrhage, and tumor
CT
115
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
| 2. ____ is superior to CT in detecting ischemic infarcts
MRI
116
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
| 3. E_____________
Echocardiogram
117
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
| 4. _______ doppler/ultrasound
Carotid
118
Laboratory/Diagnostics: TIA
| 5. C_______ angiography
Cerebral
119
Seizure:
2. Generalized:
a. Absence (____ ____): Sudden arrest of motor
activity with a blank stare
petite mal
120
___ ____ is commonly discovered in children/adolescents; begin and end suddenly
Petite mal
121
This is another general seizure that isn't petite mal?
Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
122
May have aura
Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
123
Begins with tonic contractions (repetitive involuntary contractions of muscle), loss of consciousness, then clonic contractions (maintained involuntary contraction of the muscle)
Usually lasts 2-5 minutes
Incontinence may occur
Followed by a postictal period
Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
124
Status Epilepticus: Series of ___ ___ seizures of > 10 minutes duration
grand mal
125
Series of ___ ___ seizures of > 10 minutes duration
a. Medical emergency
b. May occur when the patient is awake or asleep, but the
patient never gains consciousness between attacks
c. Most uncommon, but most life-threatening
grand mal
126
Laboratory/Diagnostics
1: **Seizure assessment includes:
a. Presence of aura, onset, spread, type of movement, ____ parts involved, pupil changes, and reactivity, duration, loss/level of consciousness, incontinence, behavioral and neurological changes after cessation of seizure activity
body
127
2. ____: The most importer test in determining seizure classification
EEG
128
3. CT of the head: Indicated for all ___-onset seizures
new
129
1. _____ management is supportive as most seizures are self-limiting
Initial
130
Seizure:
| 2. Maintain ____ ____, protect the patient from injuries, administer oxygen if needed
open airway
131
Seizure:
| 3. Do not force _____ airways or objects between teeth
artificial
132
Seizure:
| 4. ________ anticonvulsants are used to stop convulsive seizures rapidly
Parenteral
133
Seizure medications:
| 5. Benzodiazepines: D_______ (Valium) 5-10 mg IV or
Diazepam
134
Seizure medications:
| 6. L_________ (Ativan) 2-4 mg IV at 1-2 mg/minute
Lorazepam
135
Seizure medications:
7. P______ (Dilantin): Loading dose 20 mg/kg @
50 mg/min continuous infusion
Phenytoin
136
Seizure medications:
| 8. F________(Cerebyx): Prodrug of Dilantin
Fosphenytoin
137
Seizure medications:
| 9. P_______ (Luminal): Administered if phenytoin is unresponsive
Phenobarbital
138
Seizure medications:
| 10. B______ coma or general anesthesia with neuromuscular blockade
Barbiturate
139
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
a. C________ (Tegretol)
Carbamazepine
140
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
b. P_____ (Dilantin)
Phenytoin
141
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
c. ________ (Luminal)
Phenobarbital
142
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
d. ____ ____ (Depakene)
Valproic acid
143
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
e. _______ (Mysoline)
Primidone
144
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
f. _______ (Klonopin).
Clonazepam
145
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
2. Dosages should be ______
titrated
146
Subsequent Seizure Prevention
1. Maintenance doses of long-acting anticonvulsants:
3. Discontinuance should be tapered and never abruptly _________
withdrawn
147
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| a. _______ (Neurontin)
Gabapentin
148
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| b. _________ (Vimpat)
Lacosamide
149
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| c. ________ (Lamictal)
Lamotrigine
150
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| d. ________ (Keppra)
Levetiracetam
151
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| e. _________ (Trileptal)
Oxcarbazepine
152
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| f. _______ (Lyrica)
Pregabalin
153
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| g. ________ (Banzel)
Rufinamide
154
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| h. ______ (Gabitril)
Tiagabine
155
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| Dosages should be _______
titrated
156
Additional antiepileptic drugs
| Discontinuance should be tapered and never abruptly __________
withdrawn
157
_____ _______
| A degenerative disorder as a result of insufficient amounts of dopamine in the body
Parkinson's Disease
158
Parkinson's Disease
Causes/Incidence
1. Occurs in all _____ groups
ethnic
159
Parkinson's Disease
Causes/Incidence
2. Approximately equal _____ distribution
gender
160
Parkinson's Disease
Causes/Incidence
3. Onset usually between ____ and ___ years of age
45 and 65
161
Parkinson's Disease
Causes/Incidence
4. Most commonly is _______
idiopathic
162
Parkinson's Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Tremor: Slow, most conspicuous at rest; may be enhanced by ______
stress
163
Parkinson's Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
B__________
Bradykinesia
164
Parkinson's Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Wooden _______
facies
165
Parkinson's Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Impaired ________
swallowing
166
Parkinson's Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
______ may be observed
Drooling
167
Parkinson's Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
Decreased b_____
blinking
168
Parkinson's Disease
Signs/Symptoms:
________ sign: repetitive tapping over the bridge of the nose produces a sustained blink response (glabellar reflex)
Myerson's
169
Parkinson's Disease
Laboratory/Diagnostics
1. ______ specific to Parkinsonism Management
None
170
Anticholinergics are helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
a. __________ (Cogentin)
Benztropine
171
Anticholinergics are helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
b. ________ (Artane)
Trihexyphenidyl
172
________ (Eldepryl) or L-deprenyl; controversial but conserves amounts of dopamine
Selegiline
173
Parkinson's Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
a. Carbidopa-Levodopa (_____)
Sinemet
174
Parkinson's Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
b. _________ (Symmetrel)
Amantadine
175
Parkinson's Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
c. Tolcapone (_____)
Tasmar
176
Parkinson's Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
d. _________ (Mirapex)
Pramipexole
177
Parkinson's Disease
Management:
1. Increasing available dopamine
e. Ropinirole hydrochlide (____)
Requip
178
Parkinson's Disease
Management
2. Anticholinergic helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
a. Benztropine (______)
Cogentin
179
Parkinson's Disease
Management
2. Anticholinergic helpful in alleviating tremor and rigidity
b. _________ (Artane)
Trihexyphenidyl
180
Parkinson's Disease
Management:
__________ (Eldepryl) or L- deprenyl; controversial but conserves amounts of dopamine
Selegiline
181
_____ ______
1. An autoimmune disorder resulting in the reduction of the number of acetylcholine receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction
2. Weakness is typically worse, after exercise and better after rest
3. Variable clinical course with remissions and exacerbations
Myasthenia Gravis
182
Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:
| 1. Affects __ to ___ million people in the United States/year
2 to 5
183
Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:
| 2. Predominant age: __ to ___ years but may occur at any age
20 to 40
184
Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:
| 3. Incidence peaks in the 3rd decade for females; in the ____ and ___ decades for males
5th and 6th
185
Incidence of Myasthenia Gravis is:
| 4. Occurs more commonly in ______
women
186
AKA blepharoptosis or drooping upper eyelid is commonly seen in Myasthenia Gravis another name for this is what?
Ptosis
187
This means double vision?
Diplopia
188
____ occurs when the muscles you use for speech are weak or you have difficulty controlling them. ____ often causes slurred or slow speech that can be difficult to understand.
Dysarthria
189
_____ medical term for swallowing difficulties
Dysphagia
190
Myasthenia Gravis signs and symptoms:
1. Ptosis
2. Diplopia
3. Dysarthria
4. Dysphagia
5. Extremity ______
6. Fatigue
7. Respiratory difficulty
8. Sensory modalities and DTRs are normal
weakness
191
Laboratory/ diagnostics for Myasthenia Gravis include:
| 1. Antibodies to _______ receptors (AChR-ab) are found in the serum in ____% of patients
acetylcholine
| 85%
192
Laboratory/ diagnostics for Myasthenia Gravis include:
2. ____________ (Tensilon) test may be used to differentiate a myasthenic vs.
cholinergic crisis
Edrophonium
193
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
| 1. No specific protocol: ________ referral
Neurology
194
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
2. Anticholinesterase drugs block the hydrolysis of acetylcholine and are used for symptomatic improvement [(e.g., ____ _____ (Prostigmin)]
pyridostigmine bromide
195
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
| 3. I__________
Immunosuppressives
196
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
| 4. P___________
Plasmapheresis
197
Management of Myasthenia Gravis:
| 5. _______ support may be needed during a crisis
Ventilator
198
_____ ______
1. An autoimmune disease marked by numbness, weakness, loss of muscle coordination, mad problems with vision, sleep and bladder control
2. The body's immune system attacks a key substance that serves as a nerve insulator and helps in the transmission of nerve signals.
3. Variable clinical course with remissions and exacerbations
Multiple Sclerosis
199
Incidence of M.S:
| 1. The greatest incidence is in young adults: Usually between _____ and ____ years of age.
20 and 50
200
Multiple Sclerosis
| More common in persons of _____ ____ descent, living in temperate zones
Western European
201
Multiple Sclerosis:
1. Weakness, numbness, _______ or unsteadiness in a limb: may progress to all limbs
2. Spastic paraparesis
3. Diplopia
4. Disequilibrium
5. Urinary urgency or hesitancy
6. Optic atrophy
7. Nystagmus
tingling
202
Laboratory/ Diagnostics of M.S.:
1. Definitive diagnosis can never be based solely on laboratory findings
2. Mild lymphocytosis common
3. Slightly elevated protein in CSF
4. Elevated CSF _____
5. MRI of the brain
IgG
203
Multiple Sclerosis:
1. ____ ______ to prevent progression of the disease; neurology referral
2. Recovery from acute relapses hastened by steroids, but extent/recovery not improved
3. Antispasmodics
4. Interferon therapy
5. Immunosuppressive therapy
6. Plasmapheresis
No treatment
204
_____ ____
| Characterized by a facial paresis, frequently resolving completely without treatment
Bell's Palsy
205
Causes/Incidence of Bell's Palsy:
| 1. _______ reaction involving file facial nerve
Inflammatory
206
Causes/Incidence of Bell's Palsy:
| 2. Idiopathic cause; relationship to reactivation of ____ _____ has been suggested
herpes simplex
207
Signs/Symptoms Bell's Palsy:
| 1. Abrupt onset of ____ paresis
facial
208
Signs/Symptoms Bell's Palsy:
| 2. Pain about the _____ may accompany the weakness
eye
209
Signs/Symptoms Bell's Palsy:
3. Face feels stiff and pulled to one side; unable to move forehead
a. ______ restriction of eye closure
b. Difficulty with eating and fine facial movements
c. Maybe a disturbance of taste
Ipsilateral
210
Laboratory/Diagnostics Bell's Palsy:
| 1. ______
None
211
Management Bell's Palsy:
1. ________ 60 mg divided in 4 to 5 doses daily and
tapered over 7 to 10 days
Prednisone
212
Management Bell's Palsy:
2. ______ [when facial palsy caused by varicella-zoster
infection (Ramsey Hunt syndrome)]
Acyclovir
213
Management Bell's Palsy:
| 4. ______ referral as needed
Neurology
214
Management Bell's Palsy:
3. ________ eye drops and patch at night if unable to
close
Lubricating
215
___ _____
| Nerve disorder that causes a stabbing or electric shock-like pain in parts of the face
Trigeminal Neuralgia
216
Causes Trigeminal Neuralgia:
| 1. ____ _____
Multiple sclerosis
217
Causes Trigeminal Neuralgia:
| 2. Pressure on the _________ nerve from a swollen blood vessel or tumor
trigeminal
218
Trigeminal Neuralgia:
Signs/Symptoms:
1. Very painful, sharp ______ that last a few seconds or minutes, can become constant
spasms
219
Trigeminal Neuralgia:
Signs/Symptoms:
2. Pain is usually localized on ____ side of the face
one
220
Laboratory/Diagnostics Trigeminal Neuralgia:
1. Neurological examination
2. ____
3. Trigeminal reflex testing
MRI
221
Management Trigeminal Neuralgia:
1. Anti-seizure drugs
2. Muscle ________
3. Tricyclic antidepressants
relaxants
222
```
Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
a. Decrease the number of _____ and
neurotransmitters
```
neurons
223
```
Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
b. Modifications in cerebral______, glial support
cells, synapses
```
dendrites
224
Gerontology Considerations
Nervous System
1. Physiologic changes
c. ___________ thermoregulation
Compromised
225
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
aa. Decreased ______ responses
baroreflex
226
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
bb. Decreased ____ ______ responsiveness,
decreased receptors
beta-adrenergic
227
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
cc. Decreased signal ______
transduction
228
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
dd. Decreased ______ parasympathetic
responses
muscarinic
229
Gerontology Considerations
d. Peripheral nervous system
ee. Preserved _____ responses
alpha
230
Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
aa. Decreased _______ receptors
dopamine
231
Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
bb. Increased ______ responses
alpha
232
Gerontology Considerations
e. Central nervous system
cc. Increased ______ parasympathetic responses
muscarinic
233
Gerontology Considerations
| f. Decreased sense of ______
touch
234
Gerontology Considerations
| g. Increase in _____ tolerance
pain
235
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
aa. Diminished general muscle ______
strength
236
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
bb. Diminished deep-tendon ______
reflexes
237
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
a. impairments:
cc. _____ nerve conduction velocity
Slower
238
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
b. Slowed _____ skills
motor
239
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
c. Deficits in _____ and coordination
balance
240
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
d. Decreased _______ sensitivity
temperature
241
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
e. Blunted or absent _____ response
fever
242
```
Gerontology Considerations
Possible findings/results
f. Slowed speed of cognitive processing
aa. Some cognitive decline is _____ but not
universal.
```
common
243
Gerontology Considerations
f. Slowed speed of cognitive processing
bb. Most memory functions are _____ for normal
life
adequate
244
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
aa. _____ disorders
Sleep
245
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
bb. ______ / mental status
Delirium
246
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
cc. Neuro_____ diseases
Neurodegenerative
247
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
dd. ___/ common injury in elderly
Falls
248
Gerontology Considerations
g. Increased risk of:
ee. Inability to carry out physical normal activities of
____ ____
daily living
