DNA Flashcards
(157 cards)
1
Q
The amino acids that correspond to three nucleotide codons of mRNA?
A
Genetic code
2
Q
The strand of DNA that is not used to transcribe mRNA; this strand is identical to the mRNA except that T nucleotides in the DNA are replaced by U nucleotides in the mRNA
A
Non-template strand
3
Q
The enzyme that catalyzes the joining of DNA fragments together
A
DNA ligase
4
Q
A form of RNA that carries the nucleotide sequence code for a protein sequence that is translated into a polypeptide sequence
A
mRNA
5
Q
The molecule shape of DNA in which two strands a nucleotides wind around each other in a spiral shape
A
Double helix
6
Q
Bond between the sugar and phosphate group that builds the backbone of DNA
A
Phosphodiester bond
7
Q
Connects the nitrogenous bases according to base pair rules : A-T, G-C, holding DNA into its 3D shape
A
Hydrogen bond
8
Q
Method used to amplify many copies of the DNA fragments in the process of DNA fingerprinting
A
Polymerase chain reaction
9
Q
Enzyme from Thermos Aquaticus, a thermophile, responsible for building the complementary strands of DNA during PCR; heat stable
A
Taq polymerase
10
Q
Molecular scissors that can cut DNA at specific locations
A
Restriction enzymes
11
Q
A short nucleic acid sequence that provides a starting point for DNA synthesis
A
Primer
12
Q
Specific equipment responsible for DNA sequencing, cloning, generation probes, quantification of DNA and more
A
Thermocycler
13
Q
The process of removing the DNA from the nucleus and the rest of the cellular material
A
DNA extraction
14
Q
The four nitrogenous bases of DNA
A
Adenine thyamine cytosine guanine (A,T,C,G)
15
Q
A simple machine that makes a small containers of liquid
A
Vortex
16
Q
If I have eight DNA nucleotides, how many DNA bases do I have? And how many base pairs?
A
Each nucleotide-regardless of whether it’s a DNA or RNA nucleotide-has a phosphate, sugar, and a base.
(So 8 DNA nucleotides would have 8 bases. DNA bases pair in twos which equal 4 DNA base pairs)
17
Q
What would be the complementary DNA bases for this strand?-
If one strand of DNA has the base pairs: A, T, T, G, A, C… can you complete what the complimentary DNA bases would be for the other DNA strand?
A
Remember the base pairing rules for DNA and the popular mnemonic “apple to tree” (A-T) and car to garage” (C-G). Answer: T, A, A, C, T, G
18
Q
In a process known as transcription, a complimentary RNA strand called Messenger RNA has to compliment the DNA. So if we still had the original portion of DNA: A,T,T,G,A,C… What would be the complementary RNA bases?
A
RNA= AU “apples under”, CG “car garage” Answer: U,A,A,C,U,G
19
Q
True or false: bases are read in 3’s, so a codon is how these bases will be read. (E.g, AUG, CCA, GUC, etc.)
A
True
20
Q
True or false: by reading a code on chart, you can determine the amino acids that will be brought in by the tRNAs. You can also determine the sequence of amino acids that make up a protein.
A
True
21
Q
True or false: The most common ways to read a chart are the rectangular codon chart and the circular codon charts
A
True
22
Q
True or false: codons are on the mRNA. The start mRNA is AUG.
A
True
23
Q
True or false: The tRNA anticodon will be UAC if the mRNA is AUG (because of the base pairing rule)
A
True
24
Q
True or false: when using a codon chart it is the mRNA that we look at.
A
True
25
True or false: In a rectangular codon chart, The left side of the chart is: first base, The top part is: second base, and the right side is: third base
True
26
True or false: The code mRNA for AUG stands for methionine.
True
27
True or false: methionine is commonly the starting amino acid for many polypeptide chains as AUG is a start codon.
True
28
True or false: when an mRNA reaches a STOP- It means it doesn't code for an amino acid And it's the end of a sequence for a polypeptide.
True
29
Who discovered relationships between DNA bases; A to T and G to C (the base pair rule)?
Erwin Chargaff
30
Who took X-ray crystallography DNA image number 51?
Rosalind Franklin, Raymond Gosling, Maurice Wilkins
31
Long, double helix, deoxyribose, nucleus only-guanine, cytozine, adamine, thymine=
DNA Structure
32
Short, single strand, ribose, nucleus or cytoplasm- juanine, cytozine, adenine, uracil
RNA structure
33
5' prime carbon - 3' prime carbon (DNA runs anti parallel)
Anti-parallel configuration
34
The three parts of a nucleotide
Neutrogynous base, pentose sugar, phosphate group
35
What are the two nitrogenous bases
Purines and pyrimidines
36
Double ring, guanine, adenine
Purine
37
Single ring, thiamine (uracell in RNA), cytosine
Pyrimidine
38
Forms between pento sugars and phosphate groups; creates backbone of DNA
Phosphodiester bonds
39
Nucleotides attached two ways
Phosphodiester bonds and hydrogen bonds
40
Form between complimentary nitrogenous base pairs; holds two DNA strands together; forms rungs of a ladder
Hydrogen bonds
41
DNA: A to T, G to C
RNA: A to U, G to C
Chargoffs base pairing rule
42
Occurs in "S" synthesis phase of interphase; 1) double helix unwinds and unzips (replication fork), 2) each parent strand of double helix serves as a template, 3) free floating DNA nucleotides are assembled according to base pair rules to form complementary daughter strand 5'-3'
DNA replication basics
43
What are the 5 bonds
Ionic, covalent (polar and nonpolar), hydrogen, peptide, phosphodiester
44
Forms between pentose sugars and phosphate groups; creates backbone of DNA
Phosphodiester bond
45
True or false: The Human genome contains 3 billion base pairs
True
46
True or false: DNA replication results in two double stranded DNA molecules identical to original DNA
True
47
Discontinuous synthesis on the lagging strand produces DNA segments
Okazaki fragment
48
Discontinuous synthesis occurs 5'-3' (away from replication fork) and runs out of DNA
Lagging strand
49
True or false: leading and lagging strands are daughter strands
True
50
Searches DNA for initiation site
DNA promoter
51
Region from promoter to Terminator
Coding sequence
52
Detects termination signal and releases primary mRNA
Terminator
53
What are the 3 stages of transcription
DNA promoter, coding sequence, terminator
54
Sequence of three nucleotides in DNA or RNA that codes for specific amino acids; signals beginning or end of protein synthesis
Codon
55
Keratin, muscles, enzymes, hemoglobin, antibodies, JETRAT (junction, enzyme, transport, recognition, attachment, transduction), ribosomes, hair and nails
Types of proteins
56
Assemble according to base pair rules: U-A, C-A
Free floating RNA nucleotides
57
Bond between amino acids of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another
Peptide bonds
58
True or false: There are more variation at RNA sequences
True
59
Original DNA is split and each half is used as template to assemble new
Semi-conservative replication
60
What are the five enzymes
DNA helicase, RNA primase, DNA polymerase 3, DNA polymerase 1, DNA ligase
61
Unwinds and unzips double helix of DNA; two parent strands
DNA helicases
62
Creates RNA primer; attaches to end
RNA primase
63
Builds daughter strand in 5'-3' direction; requires primer, must move in 5'-3' direction; proofreads as it builds daughter strand
DNA polymerase 3
64
Degrades RNA primer and replicates it with DNA nucleotide
DNA polymerase 1
65
Seals gaps in DNA backbone on lagging strand
DNA ligase
66
5'-3'
Lagging strand
67
3'-5'
Leading strand
68
Two stages of making proteins
Transcriptions and translation
69
Flow of information from gene or DNA nucleotide sequence to protein production (DNA- RNA to protein)
Central dogma of biology
70
Happens in nucleus; short (1) strand segment of original DNA; creates complimentary messenger RNA strand
Transcription DNA to RNA
71
True or false: translation is RNA to protein that creates a polypeptide
True
72
Enzyme that controls transcription; assigns promoter; unwinds Helix and detects termination
RNA polymerase
73
Transcribes messenger and DNA and carries out ribosome for protein synthesis
mRNA processing
74
Needs to get ready and dressed
Pre mRNA
75
Three steps of mRNA processing
5' cap, 3' cap and splicing
76
Coding regions
Exons
77
Non-coding regions
Introns
78
Mature RNA
Splicing
79
True or false: translation process occurs in ribosomes
True
80
3 RNA types
mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
81
Carries genetic code information from DNA to ribosome
mRNA (messenger)
82
Three nucleotides in DNA are RNA that correspond to specific amino acids; signal start or end of protein synthesis
Codon
83
True or false: There are 64 codons
True
84
Transports amino acids to ribosomes
tRNA (transfer)
85
Complementary to mRNA; found on bottom of transfer RNA
Anticodons
86
Where amino acids attach- "shuttle"
Amino acid attachment site (AAA site)
87
Forms ribosome with protein; polypeptide is built; has large and small subunits; A acceptor site, P peptide site, E exit site
rRNA (ribosomal)
88
What are the 3 tRNA building sites
A- acceptor, P- peptide, E- exit
89
Considered redundant but not ambiguous; very specific, universal to all life on Earth
Genetic code
90
3 types of RNA
Messenger (mRNA), transfer (tRNA), ribosomal (rRNA)
91
What are the 3 stages of transcription
Initiation, elongation, termination
92
First step; RNA polymerase binds to DNA and promoter; initiating unwinding of double helix to access template strand (promoter)
Initiation transcription
93
RNA polymerase moves a long DNA template strand; adding nucleotides to RNA by base pairing rules with DNA sequence; (coding sequence)
Elongation transcription
94
Final stage; RNA polymerase reaches termination sequence on DNA; causing RNA to detach and transcription process ends (Terminator)
Termination transcription
95
3 stages of translation?
Initiation, elongation, termination
96
Starting translation by assembling ribosome, mRNA and first tRNA molecule at start codon (start codon)
Initiation translation
97
Sequential addition of amino acids to growing polypeptide chain as ribosome moves along mRNA (mRNA codone)
Elongation translation
98
Final stage where polypeptide chain is released from ribosome when a stop codon is reached (stop codon releasing factor)
Termination translation
99
What are the different categories of mutations you can see in DNA (genetic changes)?
Point mutations, frame shift, chromosomal
100
Insertions or deletions that shift reading frame
Frame shift mutations
101
Large scale changes like deletions, duplications, inversions and translocations
Chromosomal mutations
102
Study of how environmental factors and behaviors can alter gene function without changing DNA sequence; changes can: affect how a body reads DNA sequences
Epigenetics
103
Effects how body reads DNA sequences; impact production of protein in cells; influence risk of disease; passed from parents to children
Changes in Epigenetics
104
Diet, exercise, sleep, smoking, alcohol, stress,, toxin exposure (pollution, cigarette smoke), chemicals (BPA, lead), RX
Changes in epigenetics that are caused by these
105
True or false: Epigenetics can be reversible and are different from genetic changes
True
106
What does CRISPR stand for?
Clustered, regularly, interspace, short, palindromic, repeats
107
Genetic sequence found in bacteria that acts as defense mechanism against viruses; scientists have adapted this system to create a powerful tool for gene editing in the lab
CRISPR
108
DNA sequence that read the same forwards and backwards
Palindromic
109
What are the three types of stem cells?
Totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent
110
Derived from early embryo and have potential to develop into any cell type in the body
Embryonic stem cell
111
Found in various tissues throughout the body; can differ into limited range of cell type specific to their tissue origin
Adult stem cells
112
Adult cells reprogram to behave like embryonic stem cells, allowing them to differentiate into various cell types
Induced pluripotent stem cell
113
What are the three base substitutions/point mutations?
Silent, nonsense, missense mutations
114
What are the two frameshift mutations?
Insertions and deletions
115
True or false: an insertion or deletion of one or two bases is generally worse than an insertion or deletion of 3, 6 or 9 bases because it can shift the reading frame of the genetic message causing major impact.
True
116
What is an example of a missense mutation?
Sickle cell anemia
117
True or false: most mutations result from unrepared DNA polymerase errors during DNA replication (spontaneous mutations)
True
118
True or false: non-ionizing radiation (UV light), results in thymine dimmers, which lead to skin cancer.
True
119
True or false: for every second exposed to the sun, a skin cell accumulates 50 to 100 thymine dimmers
True
120
True or false: Gene expression takes place differently in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
True
121
True or false: prokaryotes have OPERONS
True
122
Functionally related genes group together on chromosome, switched on or off together
OPERON
123
Dissaccharide made of glucose and galactose
LAC= lactose
124
Bacteria can use lactose for energy; glucose is favorite energy source when both glucose and lactose are present; enzymes to digest lactose are only needed when lactose is present (positive control) and glucose is low
LAC OPERON
125
The production of enzymes that break down lactose
LAC OPERON
126
When the DNA is uncoiled and loosened from nucleosomes to bind transcription factors
Epigenetic level
127
When the RNA is transcribed
Transcriptional level
128
When the RNA is processed and exported to the cytoplasm after it is transcribed
Post transcriptional level
129
When tRNA is translated into protein
Translational level
130
After the protein has been made
Post translational level
131
True or false: eukaryotes don't have operons
True
132
True or false: in eukaryotic gene expression, functionally related genes are not necessarily grouped spatially
True
133
True or false: In eukaryotic gene expression, coordinated expression is achieved by multiple similar control regions associated with functionally related genes
True
134
True or false: Eukaryotic gene expression, coordinate control of genes via similar control elements, rather than operons
True
135
A few specific methods for Eukaryotic gene expressions:
Chromatin modifications- (histone acetylation and DNA methylation); DNA control sequences (enhancers in silencers); regulator proteins (activators and repressors); transcription factors; alternative splicing of mRNA; degradation of mRNA; blockage of translation; proteasomes
136
Non-genetic influences on gene expression or phenotype changes without genotype changes
Epi genetics
137
True or false: maternal exposure to famine in early pregnancy increases the child's risk of coronary heart disease, obesity and schizophrenia as an adult
True
138
True or false: all the information needed to build a new individual is encoded in the DNA sequence of the bases ATGC
True
139
Part of a DNA base sequence that codes for a specific protein
Gene
140
More primitive organisms, no nucleus, transcription and translation occurs simultaneously and regulation primarily at transcription level, archaebacteria and eubacteria
Prokaryote
141
Membrane-bound organelles (specialize in function-nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast), transcription occurs first in nucleus then translation occurs in the cytoplasm, many levels regulation, protist, fungi, plants and animals
Eukaryot es
142
True or false: only prokaryotes have operons
True
143
True or false: coordinated expression is achieved by multiple similar control regions associated with functionally related genes
True
144
True or false: epigenetics can be changed by environment and lifestyle. These can affect gene expression for you and generations of your offspring
True
145
True or false: nucleosomes can slide along DNA. When nucleosomes are condensed (top), from methylation of DNA, transcription factors cannot bind and gene expression is (turned off).
True
146
True or false: when the nucleosomes are spaced far apart (bottom), from acetylation of histones, the DNA is exposed. Transcription factors can bind, allowing gene expression to occur. (Turns on)
True
147
True or false: cAMP levels increase only when glucose levels are low
True
148
Red blood cells
Erythrocytes
149
White blood cells
Leukocytes
150
Platelets
Thrombocytes
151
Protein that transports oxygen to all parts of the body
Hemoglobin
152
The transparent, yellowish fluid portion of blood
Plasma
153
Type of shock that results from significant blood loss
Hypovolemic shock
154
Proteins on the surface of B cells that are secreted into the blood due to exposure to an antigen
Antibodies
155
Universal blood donor
O negative
156
Universal recipient
Type O, A B positive
157
When red blood cells with A or B antigens mixed with anti-a or anti-B antibodies and cause red blood cell clumping
Agglutinate
