E145 System Test Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

The ignition selector should be ON prior to engine start below __ degrees Celsius when the engine has not run in the past __ minutes.

A

5 degrees C, 90 minutes

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2
Q

What hydraulic fluid temperature will cause a “HYD SYS 1(2). OVHT” EICAS caution message to be presented?

A

90 degree C

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3
Q

When are all electrically heated sensors except for the TATs heated?

A

When one engine running above 56.4% N2

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4
Q

The Emergency Light Batteries are charged by what electrical bus?

A

Essential DC Bus 2

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5
Q

What electrical bus powers the Taxi Lights?

A

Shed Bus 2

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6
Q

Above what wheel speeds is Locked Wheel Protection activated?

A

30 kts.

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7
Q

What are the functions of the Central DC Bus?

A

To connect the APU generator or the GPU to the load buses/To provide bus interconnections in case of generator failures or engine shutdown

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8
Q

With the Ice Detection Override Knob in the ENG position and the aircraft on the ground, when are the horizontal stabilizer and wing anti-icing subsystems automatically inhibited?

A

Wheel speed below 25 kts.

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9
Q

When are the TAT probes heated?

A

Thrust lever in the Thrust Set position or in flight

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10
Q

In what mode can the dedicated batteries for the Emergency lighting system be charged?

A

Arm

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11
Q

Will the guarded Pressurization Dump Button function if the Pressurization System is being operated in the manual mode? What will the cabin altitude depressurize to if the Pressurization Dump Button is pressed?

A

No/14,500 ft.

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12
Q

How many minutes of power can both batteries provide for essential loads in case of failure of all generators in flight?

A

40

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13
Q

At what engine speed will the PMA provide power to both of the engine FADECs? What about the Ignition system?

A

50% N2 / 10% N2

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14
Q

What hydraulic fluid temperature will cause a “HYD SYS 1(2) OVHT” EICAS caution message to be presented?

A

90 degree C

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15
Q

What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed with the flight deck oxygen masks not stowed?

A

Stops flow of oxygen.

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16
Q

When does the FDR begin to record operational data?

A

When the Red Beacon switch is ON or when the aircraft is airborne

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17
Q

Which side is the roll trim actuator and the artificial feel unit located on the disconnection device?

A

Right

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18
Q

How many knots between ADC 1 and 2 will cause the Airspeed Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?

A

5 KIAS

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19
Q

How much altitude difference between ADC 1 and 2 will cause the Altitude Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?

A

200 ft.

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20
Q

If the “FUEL IMBALANCE” caution message is presented on the EICAS, how can it be extinguished?

A

Use the fuel crossfeed to decrease the difference in fuel quantity to less than 100 lbs.

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21
Q

Which side of the Pneumatic System supplies bleed air to the horizontal stabilizer anti-icing subsystem?

A

The left side

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22
Q

What electrical bus powers the Taxi Lights?

A

Shed Bus 2

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23
Q

How long does the PBE provide protection from smoke or toxic gas inhalation?

A

15 minutes

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24
Q

ON which side of the elevator disconnect device is the autopilot elevator servo and the stick pusher servo located?

A

Left

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25
How many control channels does the Horizontal Stabilizer Control Unit have?
2
26
What is the required ANP value on the UNS-1LW?
Less than or equal to the RNP
27
With the Electric Hydraulic Pump Control Knob in AUTO, what system pressure will trigger the electric hydraulic pump to turn on, or below what associated N2 value would cause the electric hydraulic pump to turn on?
1600 psi / 56.4% N2
28
Which EICAS message is NOT presented during the Ice Protection Test (electrical)?
NO ICE-A/ICE ON
29
Which side of the Pneumatic System supplies bleed air to the horizontal stabilizer anti-icing subsystem?
The left side
30
What triggers Emergency Light activation if they are in the ARM position and how long will they last?
Electrical Emergency / Approximately 15 minutes
31
If the Emergency Lights are turned on with the Flight Attendant's Control Panel, will the Cockpit Emergency Lighting Switch turn off the Emergency Lights?
No
32
What conditions will cause the High Stage Valve to open?
Low engine thrust, Crossbleed engine start, Anti-ice operation
33
Windshear escape guidance will be automatically canceled when the RA is greater than:
1500'
34
Which side is the roll trim actuator and the artificial feel unit located on the disconnection device?
Right
35
Which side of the Pneumatic System supplies bleed air to the horizontal stabilizer anti-icing subsystem?
The left side
36
Is the bleed air for the Engine Air Inlet Anti-icing System tapped upstream or downstream of the High Stage Valve?
Upstream
37
Terrain more than ____ ft. below the aircraft will not show up on the MFD.
2000'
38
When is the APU starter generator available to provide power to the electrical system?
7 seconds after achieving 95% RPM
39
The ignition selector should be ON prior to engine start below ___ degrees Celsius when the engine has not run in the past ___ minutes.
5 degrees C, 90 minutes
40
Which of the following is NOT an indication of smoke in the lavatory smoke detector?
Aural message "LAV Smoke"
41
Which side is the roll trim actuator and the artificial feel unit located on the disconnection device?
Right
42
How long does the PBE provide protection from smoke or toxic gas inhalation?
15 minutes
43
Where is the Lavatory Smoke Detector Panel located?
Forward galley wall
44
Which side of the Pneumatic System supplies bleed air to the horizontal stabilizer anti-icing subsystem?
The left side
45
In what mode can the dedicated batteries for the Emergency lighting system be charged?
Arm
46
Which has priority if pressed simultaneously, the Steering Handwheel or the Steering Disengage Button?
The Steering Handwheel
47
How many weight-on-wheels proximity switches are installed in the Air/Ground Indication System?
5
48
What system pressure will cause the "OXYGEN LO PRESS" EICAS caution message to be presented? How many minutes will that be sufficient for?
400 psi, 12 minutes
49
When does the Stall Protection Test Button NOT illuminate?
After Stick Shaker Activation
50
How is the Windshear Escape Guidance Mode "ROL-WSHR" NOT activated is a windshear condition is detected?
Selecting present heading and higher altitude
51
How are the Flaps actuated?
Electrically
52
When does the Gust Lock indicator lights on the glare shield panel illuminate from the following?
When a system failure occurs
53
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180-degree turn in an Embraer 145?
70 ft.
54
With the Courtesy Lights Control know in AUTO and the aircraft is powered down, will the Cockpit Dome light operate?
Yes
55
How many Landing Lights are available?
3
56
The ELT will automatically activate when the switch is in the ARM position and:
The impact switch senses a deceleration of more than 5 Gs.
57
What provides AC power to the aircraft?
One inverter
58
Which of the following is one of the three conditions which must occur simultaneously in order for the Rudder Electronic Circuit to shut off both rudder hydraulic systems for Rudder Hardover Protection?
Rudder deflected above 5 degrees plus or minus 1 degree
59
In what mode can the dedicated batteries for the Emergency lighting system be charged?
Arm
60
When the courtesy light knob is in the AUTO position, the courtesy lights will extinguish when:
The main door is closed
61
What is the initial pitch up guidance of the Go Around Submode "ROL-GA"?
10 degrees
62
With the Passenger Oxygen Selector Knob set to the "AUTO" position, the system will automatically be activated when the cabin pressure altitude is above ___ ft.
14,000
63
Windshear escape guidance will be automatically canceled when the RA is greater than:
1500'
64
What temperature will cause a BATT 1(2) OVTEMP warning message to be displayed on the EICAS?
Above 70 C
65
Which of the following is one of the three conditions which must occur simultaneously in order for the Rudder Electronic Circuit to shut off both rudder hydraulic systems for Rudder Hardover Protection?
Rudder deflected above 5 degrees plus or minus 1 degree
66
Can the autopilot be engaged during a Single Engine go-around?
No
67
During an APU start, which battery is isolated from the load buses?
Battery #1
68
All TAs are inhibited below what altitude?
500 ft. AGL
69
A table of aircraft altitudes, cabin altitudes and pressure differentials that can be used as a ballpark comparison to check for normal cabin pressurization is contained in the:
QRH
70
During an APU start, which electrical bus provies power to the APU starter generator?
The Central DC Bus
71
What is the bank angle limited to when Low Bank Mode is selected?
14 degrees
72
Where does the Standby Airspeed, Standby Altimeter, and CPAM get static information from?
Pitot/Static tube 3
73
What is the Portable Oxygen Cylinder used for?
Therapeutic first aid
74
The total quantity of dry ice that can be shipped on Envoy aircraft cannot exceed?
70 lbs per aircraft
75
What amount of load on an engine driven generator will cause a GEN 1(2, 3, 4) OVLD caution message to display on the EICAS?
Greater than 400 amps
76
What is the engine oil tank capacity?
12 quarts
77
On which side of the elevator disconnect device is the autopilot elevator servo and the stick pusher servo located?
Left
78
Will the landing gear extend normally if the #2 Hydraulic System fails?
Yes
79
What temperature does the Windshield Temperature Controller maintain while in Defog mode? What about Anti-ice mode?
26 degree C / 43 degree C
80
How many Taxi Lights are available?
2
81
What does it mean if the Grab-n-go kit has a blue seal on it?
The flex cuffs are in the kit
82
What position must the Pressurization Manual Control Know be in when operating in AUTO Mode?
To the DN position
83
What is the normal system pressure provided by the electric motor driven hydraulic pump?
2,900 psi
84
With 4 engine driven generators on, will the left and right electrical networks be interconnected or isolated?
Isolated
85
When does the CVR begin to operate?
When Essential DC Bus 2 is energized.
86
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180-degree turn in an Embraer 145?
70 ft.
87
When cant he aural message "Bank Angle, Bank Angle" be heard?
When the aircraft bank angle is too high and the aircraft roll rate exceeds 1 degree per second
88
Which side is the roll trim actuator and the artificial feel unit located on the disconnection device?
Right
89
At what fuel quantity will the Fuel Quantity Indication on the EICAS turn amber and boxed?
880 lbs.
90
How many landing lights are available?
3
91
How many infant life vests are on board the EMB-145??
5
92
How many locking systems are incorporated in the thrust reversers to avoid inadvertent in flight deployment?
3
93
After the Ice Detectors detect ice, how long does the icing signal remain active and what message is presented on the EICAS?
60 seconds / ICE CONDITION
94
How many taxi lights are available?
2
95
At what airspeed is Rudder System #1 is automatically shut off through the Rudder Electronic Circut?
135 KIAS
96
If the current rate of acceleration is maintained, the magenta Airspeed Trend Vector would represent the speed attained by the aircraft in how many seconds?
10 seconds
97
Which electrical network does the APU is normally connect in parallel to?
Right Network
98
What is the required ANP value on the UNS-1LW?
Less than or equal to the RNP
99
What triggers Emergency Light activation if they are in the ARM position and how long will they last?
Electrical Emergency / Approximately 15 minutes
100
Is the bleed air for the Engine Air lnlet Anti-icing System tapped upstream or downstream of the High Stage Valve?
Upstream
101
How many minutes of power can both batteries provide for essential loads in case of failure of all generators in flight?
40
102
With the Electric Hydraulic Pump Control Know in AUTO, what system pressure will trigger the electric hydraulic pump to turn on, or below what associated N2 value would cause the electric hydraulic pump to turn on?
1600 psi / 56.4% N2
103
Which fuel tank normally provides fuel to the APU?
Tank 2
104
What is the EMB-145 Maximum Structural Landing Weight?
43,651 lbs
105
What system pressure will cause the "OXYGEN LO PRESS" EICAS caution message to be presented? How many minutes will that be sufficient for?
400 psi, 12 minutes
106
What is the pitch up guidance of the Takeoff Submode "ROL-TO" with the Flaps at 9 degrees? 22 degrees? 18 degrees?
Flaps 09- 14 degrees/Flaps 22 degrees- 12 degrees/Flaps 18 degrees- 13 degrees
107
Which of the following is one of the three conditions which must occur simultaneously in order for the Rudder Electronic Circuit to shut off both rudder hydraulic systems for Rudder Hardover Protection?
Rudder deflected above 5 degrees plus or minus 1 degree.
108
Windshear escape guidance will automatically canceled when the RA is greater than:
1500'
109
An EICAS "FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL" warning message will occur when:
The respective fuel low level sensor senses less than 584 lb remaining.
110
How long can the engines operate with the Oil Pressure at 116 psi?
Up to 2 minutes
111
With the Passenger Oxygen Selector in AUTO, what cabin altitude will cause the Passenger Oxygen masks to automatically deploy?
14,000 MSL.
112
Terrain more than ______ ft. below the aircraft will not show up on the MFD.
2000'
113
When does the Gust Lock indicator lights on the glare shield panel illuminate from the following?
When a system failure occurs.
114
With the Passenger Oxygen Selector Knob set to the "AUTO" position, the system will automatically be activated when the cabin pressure altitude is above _____ ft.
14,000
115
How many knots between ADC 1 and 2 will cause the Airspeed Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?
5 KIAS
116
What is the required ANP value on the UNS-1LW?
Less than or equal to the RNP
117
If the current rate of acceleration is maintained, the magenta Airspeed Trend Vector would represent the speed attained by the aircraft in how many seconds?
10 Seconds
118
Which side is the "R"oll time actuator and the artifical feel unite located on the disconnection device?
"R"ight
119
When the courtesy light knob is in the AUTO position, the courtesy lights will extinguish when:
The main door is closed
120
Will the landing gear extend normally if the #2 Hydraulic System fails?
Yes
121
When does the CVR begin to operate?
When Essential DC Bus 2 is energized
122
When is the APU starter generator available to provide power to the electrical system?
7 seconds after achieving 95% RPM
123
What hydraulic fluid temperature will cause a "HYD SYS 1(2) OVHT" EICAS caution message to be presented?
90 degree C
124
How much altitude difference between ADC 1 & 2 will cause the Altitude Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?
200 ft.
125
Above what wheel speeds is Locked Wheel Protection activated?
30 kts.
126
What position must the Pressurization Manual Control Knob be in when operating in AUTO Mode?
To the DN position
127
What is the cooling period between 3 consecutive start attempts of the APU?
1 min. OFF
128
How many dedicated batteries power the emergency lights that are charged through the Essential Bus?
4
129
The dedicated accumulator associated foe the Emergency/Parking Brake system will allow for ____ complete emergency actuations or at least 24 hours of parking brake actuation.
6
130
The ISIS receives its power from which Electrical Bus?
Essential DC Bus
131
In what mode can the dedicated batteries for the Emergency lighting system be charged?
Arm
132
Where can you find the Cockpit and Cabin temperature displayed?
MFD
133
What is the cooling period between two series of three consecutive start attempts of the APU?
30 mins OFF
134
What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed with the flight deck oxygen masks not stowed?
Stops flow of oxygen.
135
With the Electric Hydraulic Pump Control Knob in AUTO, what system pressure will trigger the electric hydraulic pump to turn on, or below what associated N2 value would cause the electric hydraulic pump to turn on?
1600 psi / 56.4% N2
136
Which EICAS message is NOT presented during the Ice Protection Test (electrical)?
NO ICE-A/ICE ON
137
Terrain more than ________ ft. below the aircraft will not show up on the MFD.
2000'
138
Which side of the Pneumatic System supplies bleed air to the horizontal stabilizer anti-icing subsystem?
The left side.
139
Which battery provides power for an APU start?
Battery #2
140
Terrain more than ______ ft. below the aircraft will not show up on the MFD.
2000'
141
What does a "CAS MSG" comparison label on the PFDs indicate?
The number of EICAS messages in each IC-600 is found to be different
142
How many knots between ADC 1 and 2 will cause the Airspeed Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?
5 KIAS
143
How many minutes of power can both batteries provide for essential loads in case of failure of all generators in flight?
40
144
How many locking systems are incorporated in the thrust reversers to avoid inadvertent in flight deployment?
3
145
Will the guarded Pressurization Dump Button function if the Pressurization System is being operated in the manual mode? What will the cabin altitude depressurize to if the Pressurization Dump button is pressed?
No/14,500 ft.
146
Which EICAS message is NOT presented during the Ice Protection Test (electrical)?
NO ICE-A/ICE ON
147
What is the normal system pressure provided by the electric motor driven hydraulic pump?
2,900 psi
148
When can Approach mode be selected during localizer capture?
When the aircraft is inbound
149
How many infant life vests are on board the EMB-145??
5