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Flashcards in EASA Prep Deck (47):
1

Inputs to the Air Data Computer

TAT, Ps, Pt, AoA, Electric

2

Bar to psi

1 bar = 15 psi

3

CVR must record:

Aural environment of the flight deck

Radio communications made/received by the flight crew,

Nav aid signals and approach aids & identifiers.

Inter flight crew communications,

Fight crew use of the interphone & comms over PA system.

4

Components of a CVR

1. A microphone

2. A recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards

5

Airspeed Indicator inputs

Total pressure in the capsules

Static pressure outside; in the case.

6

Rate One Turn

3 degrees per second.

TAS.10 +7 = opt. AoB

7

What is EPR?

EPR = Turbine Outlet Pressure / Compressor Inlet Pressure

8

N1

Shown as present, commanded, limit.

The first spool is the low pressure compressor

9

CWS Mode

Pilot has the ability to make inputs to:

AUTOMATIC PILOT by movement of the NORMAL control wheel

10

A synchroscope is used on aeroplanes to

Set several engines to the same speed.

11

A synchroscope is used to:

i. Reduce structural vibration and noise.
ii. Allow symmetrical thrust and fuel consumption.

i) CORRECT

ii) FALSE!

12

How is a synchroscope used to balance the RPM on a twin turboprop aircraft?

A signal from each RPM gauge feeds the synchroscope. The master engine is connected to the rotor, and the slave engine is connected to the stator, with the difference being displayed in the cockpit, enabling the crew to balance the RPM manually.

13

What are the inputs to the FD in ALT HOLD mode?

Altitude Deviation & FPA/Pitch Angle

14

What is the technique of Computer Memory based on?

Capacitator

15

Normal operating mode of an FMS

Dual mode, exchange data

16

"ON BAT/ON DC"

INS is running on its own internal battery.

17

Radio Altimeter antennas

One to transmit, one to receive.

18

Attitude Indicator - which parts move, and which parts don't

Yellow/white aircraft symbol is fixed to the case , horizon and sky move.

19

What feeds the Vertical Speed Indicator?

Static Pressure

20

Which is the most sensitive in turbulence?

The IVSI

21

What happens in a Thermocouple with increasing temperature?

Voltage increases as temperature increases at the hot junction

22

ECAM

Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring

23

EICAS

Engine Instrument Crew Alerting System

24

Purpose of a BUS in computers

Transfer address, data, control signals

25

Function of an inner loop

Provide stability

26

Operating range of a Radio Altimeter

From 2,500 ft to the ground, with an accuracy of +-1.5% and +-2ft below 500ft

27

EGPWS warns how many seconds before impact?

10-20 seconds

28

Machmeter Errors

Instrument, Position, Manouever

29

The EPR is blocked on takeoff. What does it read?

Overreads.

30

What do FANS 1 routes require?

RNP

31

What purpose do Auto Throttles serve on startup?

None.

32

What is apparent drift a function of?

Latitude

33

Bar to Pascal

1 Bar = 100,000 Pascal

34

Torque

Twisting of the shaft

35

Components of the Flight Data Recorder

Chip, Magnetic Tape

36

How is hydraulic pressure measured?

TRANSDUCER equipped with an INDIRECT INDICATOR

37

A Flight Warning System (FWS) alerts crews to abnormal situations by:

Aural and visual alerts.

38

How is total fuel consumption calculated?

INTEGRATING fuel flow in respect to time

39

Asynchroscope

Difference in speed of rotation of engines

40

The main inputs to the flight envelope protection system are

Bank Angle, Angle of Attack

41

What is a volatile memory

A memory that requires an electrical source to maintain information

42

Types of vibration sensors

Piezoelectric crystals, and magnets

43

Intruding aircraft is equipped with a Mode C Transponder - what traffic alerts will TCAS generate?

TA/RA as normal.

44

The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT is carried out at the:

Outlet of the high pressure stage of turbine.

45

The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device originates from the:

Error Detector

46

Fail Passive

Landing will not be completed automatically, but no out of trim will occur nor flight path deviation.

47

Fail Operational

Fail Operational - "FAIL SAFE" - Can still carry out the landing even after failure. 2/3 Autopilots.